NUR 305 Test 6 practice questions
Which of the following does not typically pass through the glomerular filtration membrane? A. Water B. All pass through C. Blood cells D. Small solutes
C
A 45-year-old client reports "needing to bear down with urination," frequency, and occasional loss of urine when coughing. Based on symptoms, which diagnosis is most appropriate for this client? a. Enterocele b. Cystocele c. Rectocele d. Spermatocele
b
The male urethra extends from the __________through the prostate and out the penis. A. Kidneys B. Bladder neck C. Detrusor muscle D. Glomerulus
B
Water is conserved through the process of: A. Micturition B. Reabsorption C. Filtration D. Secretion
B
Which hormones are essential for maintaining pregnancy, promoting lactation, and successful childbirth? Select all that apply. A. Prolactin B. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) C. Luteinizing hormone (LH) D. Estrogen E. Oxytocin
A, D, E
Match the reproductive hormone with the correct function of the hormone. Luteinizing Hormone (LH) Follicule Stimulating Hormone (FSH) Estrogen Testosterone Progesterone A. A spike in this hormone triggers ovulation B. produced primarily in the ovaries, triggers puberty in females, regulates menstrual cycle, maintains pregnancy and makes bones strong. C. contributes to sex drive, bone density and muscle strength. In excess, leads to male pattern baldness D. after ovulation this hormone rises to prepare the uterus for the implantation of the embryo and falls when pregnancy does not occur and triggers menstruation.. E. In women-helps control the estradiol hormone synthesis, menstrual cycling and the production of eggs by the ovaries. In men, it helps control the production of sperm.
Luteinizing Hormone (LH) A. Follicule Stimulating Hormone (FSH) E. Estrogen B. Testosterone C. Progesterone D.
Place the three sections of the male urethra in order, from innermost to outermost Prostatic Membranous Spongy
Prostatic Membraneous Spongy
The older adult client tells the health care provider about experiencing incontinence ever since starting diuretic therapy 2 weeks ago. What term should the provider document in the medical record related to the type of incontinence? a. Transient b. Chronic c. Neurogenic d. Stress
a
The pediatric nurse is teaching the parent of a newborn with hypospadias about the disorder. Which information does the nurse provide? The opening of the urethra is found on the underside of the penis. The foreskin of the penis is unable to be fully retracted. Undescended testes are frequently associated with hypospadias. Medication will be given to correct this problem.
a
What pathway does sperm take when leaving the male body? Place the body areas in correct order according to this pathway. Spongy urethra Membranous urethra Prostatic urethra Testes Epidydymis Vas Deferens Ejaculatory Ducts
Testes Epidydimis Vas Deferens Ejaculatory Ducts Prostatic urethra Membraneous urethra Spongey urethra
The primary reason genital herpes has reached epidemic proportions throughout the world relates to the fact that: a. a large percentage (70%) of those infected experience no symptoms of the disease. b. the lesions (LSILs) occur on the cervix and can only be detected by a Pap test. c. the lesions take a long time to incubate and the small papules are usually located inside the vagina. d. the organism spreads upward to the prostate gland in males and fallopian tubes in females.
a
Which dermatologic problem most often accompanies chronic kidney disease (CKD)? a. Dry skin and pruritus b. Petechiae and purpura c. Hirsutism and psoriasis d. Alopecia and fungal rashes
a
Which hormone is responsible for breast development and the increase in body temperature that occurs with ovulation? a. Progesterone b. Androgen c. Testosterone d. Prolactin
a
Which of these complications does the nurse recognize may occur after illness with parotitis (mumps) in young men? a. Orchitis with residual sterility b. Feminization c. Glomerulonephritis d. Cancer of the seminiferous tubules
a
Which type of inherited cystic kidney disease does a middle-aged individual have if they have end-stage renal disease and receive hemodialysis three times each week at an outpatient clinic? a. Autosomal dominant b. Autosomal recessive c. Nephronophthisis-medullary d. Acquired
a
The nursing students have learned in class that causes of urinary obstruction and urinary incontinence include which of the following? Select all that apply. a. Structural changes in the bladder b. Structural changes in the urethra c. Impairment of neurologic control of bladder function d. Structural changes of the gallbladder e. Structural changes in the pancreas
a, b, c
Which organs are part of the lower urinary tract system? (Select all that apply.) a. Bladder b. Ureter c. Urethra d. Kidney
a, c
Which of the following organs are metastatic sites associated with ovarian cancer? (Select all that apply.) a. Uterus b. Lungs c. Fallopian tubes d. Omentum e. Bones f. Heart
a, c, d
Which symptoms would a nurse assess in a male client with gonorrhea? Select all that apply. Urethral pain Creamy, yellow discharge Bloody discharge Systemic rash Severe diarrhea
a,b,c
The hormone progesterone is metabolized in which organ? a. Kidneys b. Lungs c. Small intestines d. Liver
d
What is the most common sign of bladder cancer? a. Severe oliguria b. Hyperproteinuria c. Hyperphosphaturia d. Painless hematuria
d
Which event is associated with the primary stage of syphilis? a. Development of gummas b. Development of central nervous system lesions c. Palmar rash d. Genital chancres
d
Filtration occurs in which part of the nephron? A. Proximal convoluted tubule B. Glomerulus C. Both the proximal convoluted tubule and nephron loop D. Nephron loop
B
Because of their position between the posterior abdominal wall and the peritoneum, the kidneys are said to be: A. Infraperitoneal B. Retroperitoneal C. Subperitoneal D. Supraperitoneal
B
Mature sperm cells have________ chromosomes, because they have undergone _________ during their development. A. 23; mitosis B. 23; meiosis C. 46; mitosis D. 46; meiosis
B
An x-ray of an individual with nephronophthisis-medullary cystic disease would show kidneys that are: a. Normally sized with a few cysts less than 1 cm in diameter b. Enlarged with multiple cysts c Shrunken with cysts at the corticomedullary junction d. Enlarged with dilation of the cortical and medullary collecting tubules
c
A nurse is assessing a client for early manifestations of chronic kidney disease (CKD). Which would the nurse expect the client to display? a. Hypertension b. Impotence c. Terry nails d. Asterixis
a
How can the pathophysiology of polycystic kidney disease be described? a. The kidneys are small in size and have fewer than normal calyces and nephrons. b. A developmental disorder in which the kidney is characterized by maldifferentiated primitive structures, primarily of the renal tubules c. Characterized by multiple expanding cysts on both kidneys that ultimately destroy the surrounding kidney structures and cause kidney failure d. Dysfunction of the glomeruli, which consist of network of capillaries lined with a fenestrated endothelium invested in two layers of epithelium
c
Parents of a newborn are told their child has bilateral flank masses, severe kidney failure, and abnormal lung development. Which form of polycystic kidney disease does this child most likely have? a. Nephronophthisis-medullary b. Autosomal dominant c. Autosomal recessive d. Acquired
c
Match the word to the definition. Cystocele - Rectocele - Enterocele - Bartholinitis - Urethritis - Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome A. Bulging of the rectum and posterior vaginal wall into canal. B. Herniation of the rectouterine pouch into the rectovaginal septum which is is between the rectum and posterior vaginal wall. C. Inflammation process of the urethra without concurrent bladder infection that is usually, but not always, caused by a sexually transmitted microrganism. D. An endocrine disease that effects woman and is a leading cause of infertility. E. Inflammation of one or both of the ducts that lead form the vaginal opening to Bartholin glands. F. A cystocele occurs when the wall between a woman's bladder and her vagina weakens and allows the bladder to droop into the vagina.
Cystocele F. Rectocele A. Enterocele B. Bartholinitis E. Urethritis C. Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome D.
A client is beginning to recover from acute tubular necrosis. During which phase of acute kidney injury will the nurse assess an increase in urine output? a. Onset phase b. Diuretic phase c. Oliguric phase d. Recovery phase
b
A client who has a problem with incontinence loses a small amount of urine every time she coughs or sneezes. This type of incontinence is known as: a. Urge b. Stress c. Overflow d. Functional
b
Blood enters each kidney through the __________. A. Renal artery B. Glomerulus C. Capillaries D. Renal vein
A
Which best describes the pathway of urine from the kidneys out of the body? A. Bladder, ureters, renal pelvis, urethra B. Renal pelvis, ureters, bladder, urethra C. Ureters, renal pelvis, bladder, urethra D. Renal pelvis, bladder, ureters, urethra
B
As the filtrate passes out of the glomerular capsule and through the renal tubule, substances like the following are reabsorbed into the body through cells along the tube wall, except: A. Glucose B. Proteins C. Blood D. Amino acids
C
Relatively speaking, the male urethra is _____________while the female urethra is ____________, this explains why females are more susceptible to urinary tract infections. A. Short; long B. Narrow; Wide C. Long; Short D. Wide; Narrow
C
Sperm are produced in the _________ and stored in the __________. A. Testes; Seminal vesicles B. Seminal vesicles; Prostate C. Testes; Epididymis D. Testes; Prostate
C
There are many cancers of the female reproductive system. The nursing student knows that the most readily detected and most easily cured cancer—if detected early—is: A. Vulvar B. Ovarian C. Cervical D. Vaginal
C
The nurse is educating a client about renal disease. Which percentage of cardiac output perfuses the kidneys? a. 22% to 25% b. 15% to 20% c. 10% to 15% d. 27% to 30%
a
Match the word to the definition. - Cryptorchidism - Testicular Torsion - Orchitis - Galactorrhea - Gynecomastia - Benign prostatic hypertrophy - Endometriosis A. Enlargement of breast tissue in the male. B. Enlargement of the prostate gland that compresses the urethra. C. A condition in which the testis rotates on its vascular pedicle and interrupts the blood supply. D. Persistent and sometimes excessive secretion of milky fluid from the breasts of a woman who is not pregnant or nursing. E. A condition of testicular maldescent. Undescended testes F. Presence of functioning endometrial tissue or implants outside the uterus. G. Inflammation of the testes.
Cryptorchidism E. Testicular Torsion C. Orchitis G. Galactorrhea D. Gynecomastia A. Benign prostatic hypertrophy B. Endometriosis F
A nephron is a tiny structure in the kidneys that___________. A. Moves urine B. Produces urine C. Stimulats the pituitary gland D. Filters blood
D
During an erection, the penis becomes and stays rigid because arteries in the penis ________ and veins in the penis_________. A. Constrict; Dilate B. Compress veins; Dilate C. Contract; Expand D. Dilate; are compressed
D
Female sex cells develop in the __________ and are released into the _________. A. Uterus; Vaginal canal B. Ovaries; Uterine tubes C. Ovaries; Cervix D. Ovaries; Uterus
D
Voluntary control of micturition involves which nervous system structures? A. Spinal cord only B. Spinal cord and thalamus C. Stretch receptors and spinal cord D. Spinal cord, thalamus, and cerebral cortex
D
When is meiosis II complete in female sex cells? A. Birth B. Implantation C. Menarche D. Fertilization
D
Which statement about micturition is not true? A. Both urethral sphincters must be relaxed for it to take place B. It is a reflex C. Stretch receptors in the bladder wall signal the need to micturate D. The internal urethral sphincter can be voluntarily controlled
D
While in its dormant state, herpes simplex virus resides and replicates in the: A. Mucous membrane B. Local lymph nodes C. Subcutaneous tissue D. Dorsal root ganglia
D
A client informs the nurse that she is afraid of developing bladder cancer because her mother had it. She asks the nurse what signs and symptoms are present with this cancer. What does the nurse tell the client is the most common sign of bladder cancer? a. Frequent urination b. Gross hematuria c. Pus in urine d. Amber-colored urine
b
Match the word to the definition. - Phimosis - Paraphimosis - Peyronie Disease - Priapism - Balantitis - Varicocele - Hydrocele A. Abnormal dilation of veins within the spermatic cord. B. Collection of fluid within the tunica vaginalis. C. Condition in which the foreskin cannot be retracted back over the glans. D. Fibrotic condition that causes lateral curvature of the penis during erection. E. The foreskin of the penis is retracted and cannot be moved forward to cover the glans. F. Inflammation of the glans penis. G. Uncommon condition of prolonged penile erection.
Phimosis C. Paraphimosis E. Peyronie Disease D. Priapism G. Balantitis F. Varicocele A. Hydrocele B
A client asks the nurse practitioner what organism is considered normal vaginal flora. Which response by the practitioner would be considered the best answer? a. Döderlein bacilli b. T. vaginalis c. C. albicans d. C. glabrata
a
A client has a postvoid residual (PVR) volume of 40 mL. Which information would the nurse teach the client? a. "This is a normal value." b. "This value indicates you are having difficulty emptying your bladder." c. "This value indicates you are emptying your bladder too completely." d. "This test indicates you do not have adequate bladder control."
a
A client is admitted with a prolonged and painful erection that has lasted longer than 4 hours. The nurse knows that this is a true urologic emergency, and that the cause is: impaired blood flow in the corpora cavernosa of the penis. cardiovascular disease. chronic inflammation of the glans penis. poor hygiene.
a
A female client's assessment identifies symptoms of dyspareunia and burning. The nurse is aware that the client may have developed: a. Atrophic vaginitis b. Adenomyosis c. Endometrial cancer d. Cystocele
a
A male client reports frequent urination, difficulty starting to urinate, and dribbling after he has finished urinating. Which diagnosis correlates with this client's manifestations? a. Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) b. Androgen deficiency c. Urinary tract infection d. Bladder cancer
a
Accumulation of nitrogenous wastes such as urea in the circulatory system is an early sigh of chronic kidney disease (CKD). The nurse knows that normal levels of urea in blood are approximately: a. 20 mg/dL (7.14 mmol/L) b. 60 mg/dL (21.42 mmol/L) c. 80 mg/dL (28.56 mmol/L) d. 100 mg/dL (35.70 mmol/L)
a
An 86-year-old female client has been admitted to the hospital for the treatment of dehydration and hyponatremia after she curtailed her fluid intake to minimize urinary incontinence. The client's admitting laboratory results are suggestive of prerenal failure. The nurse should be assessing this client for which early sign of prerenal injury? a. Sharp decrease in urine output b. Excessive voiding of clear urine c. Acute hypertensive crisis d. Intermittent periods of confusion
a
Select the most common symptom a female diagnosed with chlamydial infection will develop. Mucopurulent cervical discharge Urinary frequency Dysuria Vaginal discharge
a
The nurse is caring for a client with a condition of deficiency of antidiuretic hormone (ADH). When assessing the client, which finding does the nurse anticipate? a. Excessive urine output b. Low blood pressure c. Retention of sodium d. Retention of chloride
a
Most common uncomplicated urinary tract infections are caused by ____ that enter through the urethra. a. Pseudomonas b. Escherichia coli c. Staphylococcus aureus d. Group B Streptococcus
b
The GFR is considered to be the best measure of renal function. What is used to estimate the GFR? a. BUN b. Serum creatinine c. Albumin level d. Serum protein
b
The nurse is assessing a client with a collection of blood in the tunica vaginalis of the scrotum. How does the nurse correctly document this in the medical record? a. Hydrocele b. Hematocele c. Spermatocele d. Varicocele
b
The nurse is caring for a client who has produced an average of 20 mL/hour for the previous day. The nurse recognizes this compares in which way to the normal urine output? a. This represents normal urinary output for 24 hours. b. The kidneys should produce about 1.5 L of urine each day. c. The kidneys should produce a minimum of 10 mL/hr over one day. d. The normal kidney produces an average 3000 mL of urine daily.
b
When caring for the client with proteinuria, the nurse recognizes that dysfunction in which structure of the kidney allows protein to leak into the urine? a. Renal pelvis b. Glomerulus c. Calyx d. Collecting tubule
b
Which organs are part of the upper urinary tract system? (Select all that apply.) a. Bladder b. Ureter c. Urethra d. Kidney
b, d
A client presents with a rash on the palms of his hands, mucous membranes, and stomach. He is reporting a sore throat and nausea. Which conditions is the nurse concerned about? a. Gonorrhea b. Chlamydia c. Syphilis d. Bacterial vaginitis
c
The nurse is caring for a baby with phimosis. Which of these does the nurse explain to the mother is the key feature of this disorder? The bladder located outside the child's abdomen Undescended testes Tightening of the foreskin preventing full retraction over the penis A precancerous process that must be monitored closely
c
The nurse is instructing a client with advanced kidney disease (AKD) about a dietary regimen. Which restriction should the nurse be sure to include in the treatment plan to decrease the progress of renal impairment in people with AKD? a. Carbohydrates b. Fats c. Dietary protein d. Foods high in calcium
c
The nurse knows that which sign is one of the earliest manifestations of acute renal failure (ARF)? a. Elevated urinary glucose b. Elevated plasma uric acid c. Polyuria d. Hypokalemia
c
The primary care provider for a newly admitted hospital client has added the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) to the blood work scheduled for this morning. The client's GFR results return as 50 mL/minute/1.73 m2. The nurse explains to the client that this result represents: a. a need to increase water intake. b. that the kidneys are functioning normally. c. a loss of over half the client's normal kidney function. d. concentrated urine.
c
When explaining polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) to a newly diagnosed client, the health care worker states, "This ovarian dysfunction is caused by: a. absent FSH." b. insulin deficit." c. elevated LH." d. low androgen."
c
When performing a rectal examination of an older adult male client, the nurse practitioner recognizes that the prostate of a client who has prostate cancer is often described in which way? a. Asymmetrical and hard b. Enlarged and rubbery c. Hard and irregular d. Cobblestone-like
c
Which client is at greatest risk for developing balanoposthitis? a. gay man with a monogamous partner b. man who has had the pituitary gland removed due to cancer c. man who has an uncircumcised penis d. middle-aged man with history of chronic prostatitis
c
Which is the definition of urinary incontinence? a. Inability to determine fullness of bladder b. Weak and ineffective bladder contractions c. The involuntary loss or leakage of urine
c
