Organization Management: Chapter 16 Motivational Theory & Practice

C

1. Which of the following is regarded as a lower-order need in Maslow's hierarchy? A. Esteem B. Freedom C. Safety D. Self-actualization E. Identity

B

10._____ needs are served by job security and adequate compensation and benefits. A.Social B.Safety C.Self-actualization D.Esteem E.Physiological

B

11. _____ satisfies esteem needs. A. Physical comfort on the job B. Praise and recognition from boss C. Adequate compensation and benefits D. Interaction with customers E. Reasonable work hours

B

12. _____ satisfies lower-order physiological needs. A. Adequate compensation and benefits B. Physical comfort on the job C. Safe working conditions D. Friendly co-workers E. Creative and challenging work

D

13. According to the ERG theory, _____ needs are desires for physiological well-being. A. growth B. safety C. relatedness D. existence E. power

E

14. According to the ERG theory proposed by Clayton Alderfer, relatedness needs are desires for: A. physiological and material well-being. B. recognition, responsibility, and job autonomy. C. psychological growth and development. D. personal growth and development. E. satisfying interpersonal relationships.

C

15. _____ needs described by Clayton Alderfer are essentially the same as the higher-order needs in Maslow's hierarchy. A. Esteem B. Relatedness C. Growth D. Existence E. Social

D

16. Which of the following states that an already satisfied need can become reactivated when a higher-level need is blocked? A. Progression principle B. Self-efficacy theory C. Deficit principle D. Frustration-regression principle E. Expectancy theory

B

17. According to Frederick Herzberg's two-factor theory, a satisfier factor is found in the job content such as _____. A. working conditions B. advancement opportunities C. organizational policies D. interpersonal relations E. compensation

D

18. In Herzberg's two-factor theory, interpersonal relations are regarded as _____ factors. A. satisfier B. equity C. valence D. hygiene E. compensation

C

19. According to McClelland's theory, _____ is the desire to do something better, to solve problems, or to master complex tasks. A. need for power B. need for autonomy C. need for achievement D. need for affiliation E. need for participation

E

2. According to Maslow's theory of human needs, _____ is a higher-order need. A. existence B. physical comfort C. safety D. social concern E. esteem

D

20. Acquired needs theory states that people with a high need for achievement: A. seek satisfying interpersonal relationships. B. prefer collective responsibility for results. C. tend to like jobs that involve working with people. D. take moderate risks in competitive situations. E. behave in ways that have a clear impact on other people.

E

21. According to McClelland, people with a high need for power: A. put their competencies to work. B. seek satisfying interpersonal relationships. C. must be able to master complex tasks. D. take moderate risks in competitive situations. E. behave in ways that have a clear impact on other people.

A

22. According to the acquired needs theory, the need for _____ is the desire to control other people, to influence their behavior, or to be responsible for them. A. power B. achievement C. participation D. affiliation E. accomplishment

E

23. Need for _____ is the desire to establish and maintain friendly and warm relations with other people. A. accomplishment B. achievement C. power D. autonomy E. affiliation

B

24. According to the acquired needs theory, people with a high need for _____ seek companionship, social approval, and satisfying interpersonal relationships. A. autonomy B. affiliation C. accomplishment D. achievement E. power

C

25. _____ theory suggests that being treated unfairly makes people uncomfortable and motivates them to eliminate the discomfort. A. Acquired needs B. Two-factor C. Equity D. Hierarchy of needs E. ERG

E

26. According to equity theory, _____ is an outcome. A. quality of work B. education C. experience D. special skills E. job security

D

27. _____ occur(s) whenever people feel that the rewards they receive for their work contributions are unfair in comparison to the rewards received by someone else. A. Frustration-regression B. Continuous reinforcements C. Extinction D. Perceived inequities E. Negative reinforcement

D

28. Over-reward inequity occurs when an individual perceives that: A. his outcomes-to-inputs ratio is lower than that of his referent. B. the reward he has received for his work is not matching his inputs. C. he is receiving less than he should in comparison to somebody else. D. his outcomes-to-inputs ratio is greater than that of his referent. E. the reward he has received for his efforts is fair.

C

29. The concept of _____ proposes that people have different preferences for equity and thus react differently to perceptions of inequity. A. positive reinforcement B. instrumentality C. equity sensitivity D. perceived inequities E. negative reinforcement

C

3. In Maslow's hierarchy of needs, lower-order needs differ from higher-order needs as higher-order needs: A. focus on desires for good-interpersonal relationships. B. are addressed by things such as physical comfort on the job and reasonable work hours. C. focus on desires for psychological development and growth. D. are served by job security and adequate compensation and benefits. E. focus on desires for physical and social well-being.

B

30. People who are less concerned about being under-rewarded are called _____. A. referents B. benevolents C. influencers D. sensitives E. entitleds

C

31. _____ are those who have a strong preference for rewards to be distributed equitably, so they react as the basic equity theory proposes. A. Influencers B. Altruists C. Sensitives D. Benevolents E. Entitleds

E

32. _____ are people who try to create situations of positive inequity for themselves and react very negatively to any situations of negative inequity that they experience. A. Altruists B. Sensitives C. Affiliates D. Benevolents E. Entitleds

D

33. Benevolents differ from entitleds as benevolents _____. A. create situations of positive inequity for themselves B. have a strong preference for rewards to be distributed equitably C. have a desire to be over-rewarded D. more readily accept situations of negative inequity E. are very concerned about being under-rewarded

C

34. Which of the following is true about sensitives and entitleds? A. Both are less concerned about being under-rewarded. B. Both readily accept situations of negative inequity. C. Both have a strong preference for rewards. D. Both create situations of positive inequity for themselves. E. Both have a strong preference for rewards to be distributed equitably.

B

35. _____ is a person's belief that working hard will result in high task performance. A. Instrumentality B. Expectancy C. Resiliency D. Equity E. Efficacy

B

36. According to Vroom's theory of motivation, if a person believes that he or she can achieve the performance level necessary to get promoted, the person is said to have _____. A. high benevolence B. positive expectancy C. positive instrumentality D. high need for affiliation E. positive valence

D

37. A person's belief that successful performance will be followed by rewards and other work-related outcomes is known as _____. A. resiliency B. competency C. efficacy D. instrumentality E. valence

D

38. According to expectancy theory, if a person has high instrumentality, he will: A. not value the rewards being offered. B. lack the confidence that he will be promoted if he improves his performance. C. believe that he can meet the performance expectations through hard work. D. be able to link high performance and available rewards. E. perceive himself to be under-rewarded for his efforts compared to other coworkers.

E

39. Which of the following is true about valence? A. It is sometimes called performance-outcome expectancy. B. It is the desire to establish good relations with co-workers. C. It refers to a person's belief that working hard will result in a desired level of task performance being achieved. D. It indicates that successful performance will be followed by rewards. E. It is the value a person assigns to the possible rewards and other work-related outcomes.

D

4. The _____ states that a satisfied need is not a motivator of behavior. A. expectancy theory B. progression principle C. self-efficacy theory D. deficit principle E. frustration-regression principle

C

40. According to Vroom's expectancy theory, managers can build positive expectancies by: A. setting challenging goals and making people work hard to achieve those goals even though they lack the ability and resources to complete the tasks. B. clarifying the rewards for high performance. C. selecting workers with the right abilities for the jobs to be done and providing them with the best training and development. D. increasing the communication with the subordinates to help identify important employee needs and benefits. E. allotting rewards fairly on a performance-contingent basis.

D

41. Which of the following measures when employed will help managers to create positive instrumentalities among employees? A. Providing employees with the best training and development B. Linking the needs and desires of employees with the rewards that can be earned through high performance C. Increasing communication with subordinates to help identify important employee needs and desires D. Clarifying the possible rewards for high performance and allocating those rewards fairly on a performance-contingent basis E. Selecting workers with the right abilities for the jobs to be done

C

42. Managers can effectively obtain the motivational benefits of goal setting by: A. encouraging the employees to do their best instead of mentioning what is expected of them. B. setting goals that are easily attainable so that the employees do not have the fear of failure in performing a task. C. providing feedback on the performance related to the assigned goal and rewarding people on the accomplishment of those goals. D. letting the employees decide the goals they want to accomplish rather than making them aware of management's expectations. E. giving challenging goals to the employees and pressurizing them to meet the expectations

B

43. _____ is a person's belief that he or she is capable of performing a task. A. Expectancy B. Self-efficacy C. Instrumentality D. Credibility E. Competency

E

44. According to Albert Bandura, if a person gains confidence through positive experience, it is referred to as _____. A. emotional arousal B. vicarious modeling C. social persuasion D. verbal persuasion E. enactive mastery

D

45. Which of the following sources helps to enhance self-efficacy through learning by observing others succeed at a task? A. Social persuasion B. Verbal persuasion C. Emotional arousal D. Vicarious modeling E. Enactive mastery

C

46. _____ is a way of enhancing self-efficacy of a person by telling the person that she or he can, or by encouraging the person to perform a task. A. Emotional arousal B. Vicarious modeling C. Verbal persuasion D. Enactive mastery E. Moral disengagement

C

47. The _____ states that behavior that results in a positive outcome is likely to be repeated, and the behavior that results in a negative outcome is not likely to be repeated. A. law of contingent reinforcement B. progression principle C. law of effect D. deficit principle E. law of immediate reinforcement

D

48. _____ is the control of behavior by manipulating its consequences. A. Relative benchmarking B. Verbal persuasion C. Vicarious modeling D. Operant conditioning E. Concurrent control

E

49. _____ strengthens behavior by making a desirable consequence contingent on its occurrence. A. Vicarious modeling B. Extinction C. Punishment D. Job rotation E. Positive reinforcement

E

5. The _____ states that a need does not become activated until the next-lower-level need is already satisfied. A. expectancy theory B. deficit principle C. self-efficacy theory D. frustration-regression principle E. progression principle

C

50. Natalie encourages her employees by recognizing and immediately rewarding a good performance, so that it motivates the employee as well as others to consistently perform well. This type of strategy to increase the frequency of desirable behavior is known as _____. A. vicarious modeling B. job rotation C. positive reinforcement D. extinction E. punishment

B

51. _____ strengthens behavior by making the avoidance of an undesirable consequence contingent on its occurrence. A. Punishment B. Negative reinforcement C. Extinction D. Job rotation E. Vicarious modeling

E

52. Martin encourages the employees who have not been meeting the expectations of the job by ignoring minor issues when they meet his expectations. This type of strategy used to strengthen the desirable behavior is called _____. A. extinction B. intermittent reinforcement C. positive reinforcement D. punishment E. negative reinforcement

C

53. _____ is a strategy of reinforcement that discourages behavior by making an unpleasant consequence contingent on its occurrence. A. Positive reinforcement B. Extinction C. Punishment D. Negative reinforcement E. Vicarious modeling

D

54. _____ is a reinforcement strategy that discourages behavior by making the removal of a desirable consequence contingent on its occurrence. A. Negative reinforcement B. Vicarious modeling C. Positive reinforcement D. Extinction E. Punishment

B

55. Justin notices that one of his employees has been coming late to work and his team members have been shielding him. Justin counsels the co-workers to stop shielding him and to not encourage him to be late to work. This type of reinforcement strategy is known as _____. A. negative reinforcement B. extinction C. intermittent reinforcement D. positive reinforcement E. punishment

A

56. Which of the following is true about punishment and extinction strategies? A. Both of these strategies weaken or eliminate undesirable behaviors. B. Both of these strategies strengthen desirable behavior by making a desirable consequence contingent on its occurrence. C. Both of these strategies make the removal of a pleasant consequence contingent on its performance. D. Both of these strategies strengthen desirable behavior when it occurs. E. Both of these strategies make an unpleasant consequence contingent on its occurrence

E

57. _____ is positive reinforcement of successive approximations to the desired behavior. A. Chaining B. Horizontal loading C. Job rotation D. Vertical loading E. Shaping

B

58. A(n) _____ reinforcement schedule administers a reward each time a desired behavior occurs. A. conditioned B. continuous C. immediate D. intermittent E. annual

C

59. A schedule that rewards desired behavior only periodically is known as a(n) _____ reinforcement schedule. A. ongoing B. unconditioned C. intermittent D. continuous E. immediate

B

6. _____ satisfies the self-actualization needs. A. Praise and recognition from boss B. Participation in decision making C. Safe working conditions D. Promotion to higher status job E. Pleasant supervisor

E

60. The _____ states that for a reward to have maximum enhancement value, it must be delivered only if the desired behavior is exhibited. A. law of effect B. deficit principle C. law of immediate reinforcement D. frustration-regression principle E. law of contingent reinforcement

D

61. The law of immediate reinforcement states that: A. a punishment should be administered in private. B. a behavior that results in a pleasant outcome is likely to be repeated. C. a satisfied need does not motivate behavior. D. an instant delivery of a reward after the occurrence of a desirable behavior enhances the reinforcing value of the reward. E. a satisfied need can become activated when a higher level need is blocked.

E

62. _____ is a process of arranging work tasks for individuals and groups. A. Task analysis B. Operant conditioning C. Work scope D. Resource management E. Job design

B

63. _____ employs people in clearly defined and specialized tasks with narrow job scope. A. Job enlargement B. Job simplification C. Vertical loading D. Job enrichment E. Job rotation

C

64. One way to eliminate problems associated with job simplification by total mechanization of a job is _____. A. job sharing B. job enrichment C. automation D. job enlargement E. shaping

D

65. _____ helps in eliminating the problems associated with job simplification by increasing the task variety by periodically shifting workers between different jobs. A. Job enrichment B. Vertical loading C. Job enlargement D. Job rotation E. Automation

B

66. _____ increases task variety by combining into one job two or more tasks previously done by separate workers. A. Vertical loading B. Job enlargement C. Job enrichment D. Job rotation E. Automation

E

67. John, a supervisor in a tea manufacturing company, observes that the employees are not happy with their jobs as they find it monotonous. They get bored of doing the same thing every day. John tries to deal with this problem by combining two or three tasks that were previously done by different employees and allotting a single person to perform the task. The method employed by John to increase the task variety is called job _____. A. sharing B. rotation C. simplification D. enrichment E. enlargement

C

68. Job _____ increases job depth by adding work planning and evaluating duties normally performed by the supervisor. A. rotation B. simplification C. enrichment D. sharing E. enlargement

B

69. A job that requires a variety of activities to be carried out and involves the use of varied expertise and talent of the employee is high on _____. A. task identity B. skill variety C. autonomy D. task significance E. task analysis

A

7. Esteem needs are satisfied by _____. A. promotion to higher status job B. having a pleasant supervisor C. adequate compensation and benefits D. participation in decision making E. safe working conditions

C

70. If a job is redesigned to involve a major part of the work to be completed by a single person in order to produce a visible outcome, then it is high on _____. A. job enlargement B. task significance C. task identity D. skill variety E. task analysis

D

71. A job that provides a person the complete authority to schedule the work and choose the course of action is high in _____. A. task significance B. task identity C. skill variety D. autonomy E. task analysis

C

72. A work schedule that allows a full-time job to be completed in less than the standard five days of 8-hour shifts is referred to as _____. A. seasonal employment B. temp job C. compressed workweek D. flextime E. weekend work schedule

E

73. Which of the following helps in providing flexibility to workers by splitting a full-time job between two or more people? A. Flextime B. Telecommuting C. Office sharing D. Compressed workweek E. Job sharing

D

74. _____ is an arrangement that allows at least a portion of scheduled work hours to be completed outside the office. A. Compressed workweek B. Automation C. Job sharing D. Telecommuting E. Contingency

E

75. The workers who are employed on a part-time and temporary basis to supplement the regular workforce are called _____. A. overtime workers B. permatemps C. flextime workers D. virtual workers E. contingency workers

C

76. Kevin, a young graduate, wanted to get a job and work hard to become an assistant manager in a year's time. Now that he is an assistant manager after more than a year's struggle, Kevin seems to have become complacent and does not seem to have the same drive as he had a year ago. Which of the following does Kevin's situation exemplify? A. Self-serving bias B. Framing error C. Deficit principle D. Progression principle E. Frustration-regression principle

B

77. Peter believes in excelling in all the projects assigned to him and delivering beyond the expectations of his manager. Thus, Peter's manager may ask him to work independently on projects that allow him to use his knowledge and skills to the best of his abilities. Peter has a strong need for _____. A. affiliation B. achievement C. personal power D. social power E. relatedness

B

78. Roger is unhappy with the treatment meted out to him by his supervisor who feels that Roger is not performing as per expectations. As a result, Roger's performance linked incentives are a bare minimum, and he is also given lesser stock options than what Roger was expecting for the amount of dedication and hard work put in by him. Which of the following best represents Roger's understanding of the situation? A. Bandwagon effect B. Under-reward inequity C. Snowball effect D. Instrumentality E. Self-concordance

D

79. When Jason was selected as the "Employee of the month" of his organization, he received a cash prize, a holiday package for two, and a year's membership at the Prestize club. Jason was overwhelmed and felt that he got more than what he deserved. Which of the following terms best represents Jason's understanding of the situation? A. Bandwagon effect B. Representativeness bias C. Framing error D. Over-reward inequity E. Self-concordance

C

8. Creative and challenging work and job autonomy satisfy _____ needs. A. physiological B. esteem C. self-actualization D. social E. safety

A

80. David had put extra hours into the project and had made sure that all glitches were taken care of. His manager acknowledged his effort and recommended him to be a part of the reconnaissance team visiting China. David was very happy and assured his manager that he'd put in extra effort in the future. Which of the following does this situation exemplify? A. Law of effect B. Under-reward inequity C. Deficit principle D. Progression principle E. ERG theory

A

81. Katie is rewarded with gift vouchers, bonuses, and other perks after the successful completion of every project handled by her. This is an example of _____. A. Continuous reinforcement B. Contingent reinforcement C. Intermittent reinforcement D. Job enlargement E. Job enrichment

B

82. Ruth works at a car assembling plant. The plant uses a lot of machines to complete most of the work. As a result, Ruth's work is highly standardized. Ruth needs to check the number and mounting of rubber hoses in a vehicle and replace dysfunctional ones. Which of the following does this signify? A. Job rotation B. Job simplification C. Job loading D. Job enlargement E. Job enrichment

D

83. Stacy works as a deputy editor for SimplyRead, a biweekly. Apart from approving and finalizing the content to be published, her job as a deputy editor also involves finalizing the outlay of the magazine that was earlier handled by the senior editors from the design team. This is an example of _____. A. job automation B. vertical loading C. operant conditioning D. job enlargement E. job enrichment

E

84. Andrew, a final year communications student, has been working for an advertising firm for a few months because the firm needed some more people to work on a project till November. This is an example of _____. A. telecommuting B. job enrichment C. operant conditioning D. intermittent reinforcement E. contingency work

B

85. Nick, the marketing manager of an electronics manufacturing company, is impressed with the work of his subordinate, James, and hence grants additional authority to James to report directly to the company's chief marketing officer and board of directors with all his marketing strategies. Nick's decision to increase James's responsibilities could be viewed as an initiative of _____. A. job rotation B. job enrichment C. job simplification D. job sharing E. job automation

D

9. Which of the following satisfies social needs? A. Adequate compensation and benefits B. Physical comfort on the job C. Safe working conditions D. Pleasant supervisor E. Promotion to higher status job