Path Exam 2 Questions
A client is diagnosed with an HIV infection and asks the nurse about the prognosis. Which response made by the nurse is the BEST answer? a. "Once you finish your medication regimen, you should be cured of the disease." b. "Are you afraid of dying?" c. "There are many treatments available to help you manage the disease. d. "Do you know who you got this from?"
"There are many treatments available to help you manage the disease."
A patient's wife hears the physician mention "right upper extremity lymphadenopathy." She asks the nurse what that may mean. Which of the following is an appropriate answer? - "the patient has an infection in the right arm" - "the patient has swollen lymph nodes in the right arm" - "the patient has cancer in the right arm" - the patient has problems with the adenoids, or tonsils"
"the patient has swollen lymph nodes in the right arm"
A patient wants to know the difference between Hodgkin's lymphoma and non-Hodgkin's lymphoma. Which of the following would be correct in formation to share with the patient? Select all that apply. - these types of lymphomas develop in different lymph nodes - Hodgkin's lymphomas occur only in children - Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma is the more common type of lymphoma - Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma has only one type while there are 20 types of Hodgkin's lymphomas - Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma develops from several cell types, while Hodgkin's lymphoma develops from one cell type
- Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma is the more common type of lymphoma - Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma develops from several cell types, while Hodgkin's lymphoma develops from one cell type
A nursing student is working on classifying immunodeficiencies. Which of the following are primary immunodeficiencies? Select all that apply. - HIV - Severe combined immunodeficiency - Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome - DiGeorge syndrome - immunosuppression due to radiation treatment
- Severe combined immunodeficiency - Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome - DiGeorge syndrome
Which of the following cell types are directly targeted by HIV? Select all that apply. - T cells - B cells - CD4 cells - RBCs - some lymphocyte cells
- T cells - CD4 cells - Some lymphocyte cells
Which of the following would the nurse include on a list of passive acquired adaptive immunity? Select all that apply* a. Receiving a vaccine b. A breastfed infant c. Having the disease d. Receiving pre made, fully formed antibodies
- a breastfed infant - receiving pre-made, fully formed antibodies
A nursing student is learning about leukemias. Which information would be correct to share about acute myelogenous leukemia (AML)? Select all that apply. - acute myelogenous leukemia is a form of lymphoma - acute myelogenous leukemia is more common in children - acute myelogenous leukemia cause proliferation of undifferentiated myeloid blast cells - acute myelogenous leukemia is the most common form of leukemia in the United States - Acute myelogenous leukemia development is associated with radiation exposure
- acute myelogenous leukemia cause proliferation of undifferentiated myeloid blast cells - Acute myelogenous leukemia development is associated with radiation exposure
A nursing student is asking about which general signs and symptoms may be present in cases of advanced leukemia. Which of the following are appropriate responses by the nurse educator? Select all that apply. - no overt signs or symptoms are present - bone pain - general leukopenia on completed blood count (CBC) - splenomegaly - anemia
- bone pain - splenomegaly - anemia
A nurse sees Sjogren's syndrome on a patient's chart. The nurse should follow up specifically with which aspects for this disease during her assessment of the patient? Select all that apply. - swollen hands - dry eyes - tightening of the skin - dry mouth - butterfly rash across face
- dry eyes - dry mouth
A patient believe she has lupus. Which of the following diagnostic tests, if positive, would contribute to the diagnosis of lupus? Select all that apply. - rheumatoid factor - elevated antinuclear antibody (ANA) levels - anti-ds DNA antibodies - Mantoux test - Leukocytosis
- elevated antinuclear antibody (ANA) levels - anti-ds DNA antibodies
A nurse is explaining a tertiary intention healing to a patient. Which of the following characteristics are correct for the nurse to include in her explanation? (select all that apply) - common post-surgical wound - may require temporary packing with sterile gauze - may be left open for 4-5 days - may have extensive drainage - wound that forms with stitching of incisions
- may require temporary packing with sterile gauze - may be left open for 4-5 days - may have extensive drainage
A nursing student is looking at a blood sample slide. He is told to look for granulocytes. Which of the following cells should he be looking for? Select all that apply. - neutrophils - basophils - monocytes - lymphocytes - eosinophils
- neutrophils - basophils - eosinophils
The nurse sees on the patient's chart the diagnosis of immunoglobin A (IgA) deficiency. Which laboratory values support this diagnosis? Select all that apply. - normal IgG levels - normal IgM levels - Low or absent IgA levels - Low or absent T cells - Declining CD4 levels
- normal IgG levels - normal IgM levels - Low or absent IgA levels
Which of the following would the nurse include on a list of active acquired adaptive immunity? Select all that apply a. Receiving a vaccine b. A breastfed infant c. Having the disease d. Receiving pre made, fully formed antibodies
- receiving a vaccine - having the disease
A nurse is educating a patient that it is very important to treat strep throat infections, because if it progresses, it may lead to which of the following conditions? Select all that apply. - peptic ulcer disease - rheumatic heart disease - intestinal abscess - scarlet fever - glomerulonephritis
- rheumatic heart disease - scarlet fever -glomerulonephritis
A nurse is explaining to a male patient how HIV is transmitted. Which of the following are correct means for transmission of HIV that the nurse should share? Select all that apply. - sexual contact - skin-to-skin contact - fecal-oral - blood - respiratory droplets
- sexual contact - blood
A patient has been diagnosed with a bacterial gastrointestinal infection. Which of the following may the nurse expect to see on the culture results to reveal? (select all that apply) - shigella - malaria - cholera - giardiasis - diphtheria
- shigella - cholera
A clinician orders a gram stain test that reveals gram-positive organisms. Which of the following organisms may be in the sample? Select all that apply. - streptococcus pneumoniae - straphylococcus aureus - streptococcus pyogenes - E coli. - shigella
- streptococcus pneumoniae - straphylococcus aureus - streptococcus pyogenes
A nursing student is creating examples for presentation on Type III hypersensitivity reactions. Which of the following should he include in his presentation? Select all that apply. - Mantoux testing - Hay fever - systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) - Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) - Allergic reaction to shellfish
- systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) - Rheumatoid arthritis (RA)
A patient's neutrophil number is 900 cells per microliter. Which of the following would be correct associations for the nurse to make? Select all that apply. - the patient has an increased risk of infection - the patient is suffering from anemia - the patient has neutrophilic - the patient had normal neutrophil levels - the patient may benefit from Neupogen
- the patient has an increased risk of infection - the patient may benefit from Neupogen
The nurse is studying for a pathophysiology exam about white blood cells. What is the role of macrophages? Select all that apply. a. They are considered blast cells. b. They act as phagocytes. c. They act as part of the adaptive branch of the immune system. d. They are considered part of the innate immune system. e. They have a "memory" for specific antigens.
- they act as phagocytes - they are considered part of the innate immune system
Which of the following are enzymes that produce prostaglandins from arachidonic acid? - cyclooxyrgenase 1 - lipoxygenase - TNF-alpha - interleukin-1 - cyclooxyrgenase 2
-cyclooxyrgenase 1 - cyclooxyrgenase 2
A nursing educator is explaining that a patient has presented with granulomas in the lungs. Which of the following would show correct understanding by the students? Select all that apply. - granulomas are histological changes in which macrophages aggregate and transform to epithelial-like cells - the patient is demonstrating immunosupression - the patient may have tuberculosis - the patient has developed a pulmonary adhesion
-granulomas are histological changes in which macrophages aggregate and transform to epithelial-like cells - the patient may have tuberculosis
A clinician is reviewing white blood cell (WBC) differential results. The clinician states that the patient must be suffering an acute bacterial infection. Which of the following results did the clinician observe? (select all that apply) - increase in neutrophil levels - increase in lymphocyte levels - increase in basophil levels - increase in monocyte levels - increase in polymorphonuclear (PMN) cell levels
-increase in neutrophil levels - increase in polymorphonuclear (PMN) cell levels
A nurse is looking at a microscope slide of stained white blood cells. Which cells will show granules with staining? - neutrophil - monocyte - macrophage - eosinophil - basophil
-neutrophil -eosinophil -basophil
A nurse is giving a patient the DTaP immunization, and the patient wants to know what it is for. Which of the following is the correct information for the nurse to share? Select all that apply. - whooping cough - toxoplasmosis - strep throat - diptheria - tetanus
-whooping cough (P) - Diptheria (D) - Tetanus (T)
The nurse is studying about inflammation and writes down KEY points about vascular permeability. What will the nurse write? Select all that apply 1. This process allows toxins to be diluted in the affected area 2. This process raises the pH of fluids in the affected area 3. This process keeps the toxins contained in the affected area 4. This process helps to lower microbial growth in the affected area 5. This process prevents white blood cells and platelets from entering the affected area
1. This process allows toxins to be diluted in the affected area 4. This process helps to lower microbial growth in the affected area
Which of the following white blood cell (WBC) levels would indicate that a patient has leukocytosis? - 1200 cells per microliter - 1800 cells per microliter - 5000 cells per microliter - 12,000 cells per microliter
12,000 cells per microliter
A nursing student is studying white blood cells. Which of the following are CORRECT? Select all that apply 1. Neutrophils are considered agranulocytes 2. Eosinophils are considered granulocytes 3. Immature neutrophils are called bands 4. Mature neutrophils are called segs 5. Phagocytosis is an action of basophils
2. Eosinophils are considered granulocytes 3. Immature neutrophils are called bands 4. Mature neutrophils are called segs
The nurse teaches a client that one of the major negative outcomes of chronic inflammation is which of the following? 1. Complete healing and resolution of wound 2. Fibrous scar tissue replaces injured cells 3. A short-term inflammatory process 4. Minimal tissue damage
2. Fibrous scar tissue replaces injured cells
A client asks why the anti-pyretic medication is not ordered for a fever of 99 degrees F. The nurse provides what information? 1. "Anti-pyretic medication can cause Reye's syndrome, so it is only given when the temperature is very elevated." 2. "Anti-pyretic medication can cause liver failure, so it is rarely ordered." 3. "A higher body temperature helps the white blood cells be more effective in fighting infection." 4. "Sweating will help cool your body, so you will not need any medication."
3. "A higher body temperature helps the white blood cells be more effective in fighting infection."
The nurse notes that a client has purulent exudate seeping from a wound. How does the nurse describe this fluid to a client? 1. "This is clear watery fluid indicating infection." 2. "This is a walled off area of infection in the tissue." 3. "This is fluid that contains cellular debris and white blood cells." 4. This indicates function laesa."
3. "This is fluid that contains cellular debris and white blood cells."
A student studying for a pathophysiology exam lists the phases of wound healing. In which phase would the client experience new blood vessel supply in the wound? 1. Hemostasis 2. Wound contraction 3. Proliferation, granulation tissue formation, angiogeneis, and epthelialization 4. Wound contraction and remodeling
3. Proliferation, granulation tissue formation, angiogeneis, and epthelialization
1. A client presents with CD4 count of less than 200. The nurse that this client is considered to have what diagnosis? a. Acute HIV b. Opportunistic infections c. AIDS d. Kaposi's sarcoma
AIDS
where does seroconversion for HIV occur?
Appearance of HIV antibody
The nurse is evaluating a client's lab results. Which of the following labs indicate an acute phase of inflammation? - RBC count - C-reactive protein -Phagocytosis - Hepcidin
C-reactive protein
1. The nurse is studying about carbon monoxide poisoning. Which statement is correct? a. Carbon monoxide displaces carbon dioxide off the hemoglobin molecule. b. Carbon monoxide displaces iron off the hemoglobin molecule. c. Carbon monoxide displaces hemoglobin off the globulin portion of the molecule. d. Carbon monoxide displaces oxygen off the hemoglobin molecule.
Carbon monoxide displaces oxygen off the hemoglobin molecule.
An elderly patient's laboratory results reveal lymphocytosis with white blood cell (WBC) count greater than 20,000 cells per microliter. Which leukemia type is most likely? - acute myelogenous leukemia - chronic myelogenous leukemia - acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL) - chronic lymphocytic leukemia
Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
A patient appears to have a primary immunodeficiency disorder. Based on this information, which disorder can the clinician rule out? - DiGeorge syndrome - HIV - severe combined immunodeficiency disorder (SCID) - Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome
HIV
1. The nurse notes that a client's blood work shows the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells (owl eyes-looking cells). What type of disease process does this indicate? a. Muliple myeloma b. Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma c. Myelogenous leukemia d. Hodgkin's lymphoma
Hodgkin's lymphoma
Despite being vaccinated, a young child, age 3, is chronically ill. Immunoglobulin levels are measured and found to be low in response to vaccination. What is the correct interpretation a nurse may make? - low immunoglobulin levels are expected normal response - the child has abnormally functioning T cells - Both innate and adaptive immune systems of the child are compromised - Hypogammaglobulinemia may need to be investigated in this child
Hypogammaglobulinemia may need to be investigated in this child
The nurse studying immunoglobulins. Which immunoglobulin responds during an allergic attack? a. IgA b. IgM c. IgG d. IgE
IgE
1. The nurse is studying immunoglobulins. Which immunoglobulin is often involved in autoimmune disorders? a. IgD b. IgG c. IgM d. IgE
IgG
1. The nurse is studying immunoglobulins. Which immunoglobulin responds first and is considered the most important? a. IgM b. IgE c. IgD d. IgG
IgM
1. The nurse defines the pathophysiology/etiology of lymphomas by which statement? a. Lymphomas are caused by previous exposures to chemotherapy and radiation. b. Lymphomas are caused by unknown causes. c. Lymphomas are caused by chromosomal translocations. d. Lymphomas are caused by chemical exposures.
Lymphomas are caused by chromosomal translocations
A nursing student knows that patients may not have a good understanding of medical acronyms, so he always states the entire name rather than the acronym. Which of the following should he state for MRSA? - methicillin-resistant streptococcus aureus - methicillin-resistant staphylococcus - methicillin-resistant streptococcus antibodies - mycobacterium-resistant streptococcus
Methicillin--resistant staphylococcus
A lymph node biopsy of a lymphoma reveals no Reed-Sternberg cells. Which of the following is most likely? - Hodgkin's lymphoma - Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma - Multiple myeloma - myelogenous leukemia
Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma
1. A client who suffered an acute blood loss will have red blood cells that are labeled by which of the following terms? a. Normochromic, normocytic b. Hypochromic, normocytic c. Hyperchromic, microcytic Hypochromic, megaloblastic
Normochromic, normocytic
A client presents with cheilitis, glossitis, koilonychias and pica. The nurse recognizes that these are specific signs and symptoms of what type of anemia? a. Folic acid deficiency anemia b. Iron deficiency anemia c. Pernicious anemia d. Vitamin B12 deficiency anemia
Pernicious anemia
1. The nurse explains to a client that which blood cells are affected in acute myeloid leukemia (AML)? Select all that apply. a. Lymphocytes b. Red blood cells c. Platelets d. White blood cells e. Pluripotent stem cells
Red blood cells Platelets White blood cells
A laboratory technician is looking at a lymph node biopsy sample. The appearance of which cell type would help to diagnose Hodgkin's lymphoma? - apoptotic cells - sickle cells - Reed-Sternberg cells - B cells
Reed-Sternberg cells
A nurse sees a patient's hands such as those shown in the image. Which diagnosis will the nurse likely expect to see on the patient's chart? - Scleroderma - Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) - Raynaud's syndrome - osteoarthritis
Rheumatoid arthritis (RA)
A patient is suffering from chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis. As the nurse discusses this condition with the patient, which immune process does the nurse indicate to be functioning abnormally? - T cells only - B cells only - immunoglobin (Ig) synthesis - Both B and T cells
T cells only
A client has type O positive blood and is scheduled for a blood infusion. Which type of blood can the nurse safely administer? a. Type A b. Type B c. Type O d. Type AB
Type O
A client has an allergic reaction to shellfish. The nurse states that this is which type of hypersensitivity reaction? a. Type l immediate hypersensitivity b. Type ll cytotoxic hypersensitivity c. Type lll immune complex hypersensitivity d. Type lV delayed hypersensitivity
Type l immediate hypersensitivity
A client is at risk for rejecting an organ transplant. The nurse states that this is which type of hypersensitivity reaction? a. Type l immediate hypersensitivity b. Type ll cytotoxic hypersensitivity c. Type lll immune complex hypersensitivity d. Type lV delayed hypersensitivity
Type lV delayed hypersensitivity
A client receives the incorrect blood type during a transfusion. The nurse states that this is which type of hypersensitivity? a. Type l immediate hypersensitivity b. Type ll cytotoxic hypersensitivity c. Type lll immune complex hypersensitivity d. Type lV delayed hypersensitivity
Type ll cytotoxic hypersensitivity
A client has developed rheumatoid arthritis. The nurse states that this is which type of hypersensitivity reaction? a. Type l immediate hypersensitivity b. Type ll cytotoxic hypersensitivity c. Type lll immune complex hypersensitivity d. Type lV delayed hypersensitivity
Type lll immune complex hypersensitivity
A clinician needs to know whether an infection is viral and wants to see whether lymphocyte levels are elevated. Which test would provide the information the clinician needs? - complete blood count (CBC) - white blood count (WBC) total - WBC differential - Prothrombin time (PT)
WBC differential
The nurse knows that a client suffering with leukopenia has which type of alteration of white blood cells? a. An increase above 11,000 cells/microliter b. A decrease below 4,000 cells/microliter c. An increase above 50,000 cells/microliter not due to leukemia d. A normalized cell count
a decrease below 4,000 cells/microliter
A few days prior, a patient presented at the clinic stating he was generally not feeling "all that well." He now presents at the clinic with significant signs and symptoms of an infectious disease. Which stage of infection is the patient displaying presently? - incubation - prodromal - acute - convalescent
acute
A nurse learns that a young child, under age 8, has been diagnosed with leukemia. Which type of leukemia is a child most likely to have been diagnosed with? - acute myelogenous leukemia - chronic lymphocytic leukemia - acute lymphocytic leukemia - chronic myelogenous leukemia
acute lymphocytic leukemia
A patient is recovering from ankle surgery and states that his ankle "feels stuck" when he tries to move into some positions. The nurse is worried that the continued decreased mobility may be because of which of the following developments? - adhesions - primary intention - keloid formation - fistula
adhesions
A patient presents with a white blood cell (WBC) count of 20,000 cells per microliter. Which of the following interpretations would be correct for the nurse to make? - the WBC count is so high tat the patient will never have to worry about an infection - the patient's results are diagnostic for allergies or autoimmune disorders - the patient likely has anemia, and the elevated WBC level is attempting to compensate - although elevated, the WBCs may be poorly functioning, increasing a patient's risk for infection
although elevated, the WBCs may be poorly functioning, increasing a patient's risk for infection
A complication of Crohn's disease, a disorder of the gastrointestinal tract, is fistula formation. Because of this complication, what development may the nurse expect? - a narrowing of the colon lumen - an abnormal connection between the bowel and other tissues - a growth adhering two portions of the colon together - rupture and prolapse of the colon
an abnormal connection between the bowel and other tissues
1. The nurse knows that a client presenting with leukocytosis has which type of alteration of white blood cells? a. Leukemia b. A normalized cell counts c. An increase above 11,000 cells/microliter d. A decrease below 4,000 cells/microliter
an increase above 11,000 cells/microliter
A man traveling in an area endemic for malaria contracted the disease. Which category of medications should be used for treatment? - antibacterial -antiviral -antifungal -antiprotozoal
antiprotozoal
A patient positive for HIV is to receive ART therapy. He wants to know when ART means. What is an appropriate response from the nurse for the meaning of ART? - Anucleotide retrotherapy - antiretroviral therapy - adjuvant retroviral therapy - aplastic recombinant therapy
antiretroviral therapy
A patient is to be assessed for the presence of human leukocyte antigen (HLA). Which type of disorder is the clinician most concerned about? - autoimmune diseases - allergies - delayed hypersensitivity reaction - contact dermatitis
autoimmune disease
The nurse is assessing a client with mutiple myeloma (MM). Which of the following are common clinical findings with MM? Select all that apply. a. Decreased serum calcium b. Bone pain c. Bence-Jones proteins in urine d. Renal failure e. Osteopenia f. Increase serum calcium
b. Bone pain c. Bence-Jones proteins in urine d. Renal failure e. Osteopenia f. Increase serum calcium
Which of the following is indicative of a pyrogenic response? - body temperature of 35.0 celsius - body temperature of 37.0 celsius - body temperature of 37.5 celsius - body temperature of 39.0 celsius
body temperature of 39.0 celsius
A nurse is explaining to a patient who is concerned her aging facial skin is showing too many wrinkles that the treatment available involves a toxin from bacterial organisms. Which bacteria produces this toxin? - clostridium botulinum - clostridium tetani - clostridium perfringes - clostridium difficile
clostridium botulinum
A patient diagnosed with leukemia is prescribed a tyrosine kinase inhibitor. What is the purpose of this medication? - decrease pain - prevent cachexia - decrease unregulated cell growth - decrease cell destruction due to chemotherapy
decrease unregulated cell growth
A patient diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is talking to the nurse about treatment options. Which of the following is considered to be a standard treatment for RA? - antihistamines - disease-modifying anti rheumatic drugs - bone marrow transplant - conservative wait-and-see approach
disease-modifying anti rheumatic drugs
A patient has sarcoidosis. Which of the following signs and symptoms for this disease should the nurse look for? - dry eyes and mouth - tightening of the skin - enlarged and inflamed joint of the hand - erythema nodosum
erythema nodosum
A patient exposed to elevated levels of pyrogens will likely present with which of the following? - fever - edema - immunosuppression - contracture
fever
A clinician is explaining to a patient that the patient has been diagnosed with Pneumocystis pneumonia. Which category of organism causes this form of pneumonia? - bacteria - virus - fungus - helmet
fungus
A physician is to see a patient with rheumatoid arthritis. Which area of the body does the physician expect to show the most signs and symptoms of the disease? - eyes and mouth - lungs - hands and fingers - skin
hands and fingers
A physician is to see a patient with rheumatoid arthritis. Which area of the body does the physician expect to show the most signs and symptoms of the disease? - eyes and mouth - lungs - hands and fingers - skin
hands and fingers
1. The nurse is studying erythropoiesis synthesis. What is the cause for the INITIAL stimulus for this process? a. Bone marrow stimulation b. Kidney stimulation c. Synthesis of erythrocytes d. Hypoxia
hypoxia
1. The nurse is teaching students about the complications of secondary polycythemia. What complication may result from this disorder? a. Increased oxygenation b. Increased bleeding times c. Increased clotting d. Increased hypoxia
increased clotting
A nurse is told that her patient has severe leukopenia. Which of the following can the nurse expect? - increased infection risk - significant elevation in all WBC values - neurtophilia - normal complete blood count (CBC) values
increased infection risk
1. A client presents with neutropenia. Which possible complication should the nurse be MOST concerned about? a. Cancer b. Leukocytosis c. Bone pain d. Infection
infection
A nurse is speaking to parents prior to their child's abdominal surgery. Which of the following presents the most risk for healing of the surgical wound? - infection - poor nutritional status - not enough UV light - limited activity
infection
1. A client presents with CD4 count of less than 500. The nurse that this client is at risk for which of the following? a. Infections b. Bleeding c. Falls d. Blood clots
infections
A client with open skin lesions is at risk for having which type of impaired immunity defense? - adaptive immunity - innate immunity - inflammatory immunity - antigen immunity
innate immunity
1. A client experiencing a chronic blood loss will have which major type of anemia? a. Hemolytic anemia b. Folic acid deficiency anemia c. Iron deficiency anemia d. Vitamin B12 deficiency anemia
iron deficiency anemia
1. A client presents in a sickle cell crisis. What is the major OVERALL health risk this crisis may cause? a. Pain b. Ischemia c. Tachycardia d. Anxiety
ischemia
A client is experiencing destruction of a large number of red blood cells in the body. What PHYSICAL manifestation will most likely be observable in this client? a. Hemolysis b. Jaundice c. Erythropoiesis d. Reticulocytotisis
jaundice
A patient has severe systemic lupus erythematosus. What organ damage is the clinician most likely to be concerned about? - skin - lungs - kidney - intestines
kidney
A patient presents with the following complaint: "This one gland in my groin area is so swollen. It bothers me a little bit, but I am not sure if I should be worried." What is an appropriate response by the nurse? - you likely have a severe infection in the groin area - do not worry. A single lymph node swelling is common and shouldn't concern you - surgery is an option for removal of the lymph node - let us discuss further signs and symptoms and what the possibilities are for examining the lymph node
let us discuss further signs and symptoms and what the possibilities are for examining the lymph node
A client's white blood count has increased markedly over the past few hours. What term will the nurse use to describe this increase? - leukocytosis - phagocytosis - chemotaxis - angiogenesis
leukocytosis
A patient wants to know if there is a difference between a lymphoma and leukemia. Which statement should the nurse share? - lymphomas develop due to a disorder of RBCs, while leukemias are disorders of WBCs - lymphomas are neoplasm, ad leukemias are not - lymphomas develop in the lymph nodes while leukemias are present in the blood - lymphomas develop in adults, while leukemias develop in children
lymphomas develop in the lymph nodes while leukemias are present in the blood
A nursing student is looking at a white blood cell (WBC) differential test and cannot find the cell type macrophage listed. Another nurse provides which of the following correct explanation? - these are improper results. Macrophages should be listed - Macrophages are transitory cells that exist for only several minutes - macrophages are derived from monocytes, a type of cell that is reported on a WBC differential test - macrophages are an advanced, mature type of neutrophil, which is reported on the laboratory results
macrophages are derived from monocytes, a type of cell that is reported on a WBC differential test
A nurse working in the neonatal unit is informed about an infant who has presented with botulism. Which characteristic will the nurse expect to observe? - extreme muscle contraction - muscle paralysis - deep, persistent cough - superficial rash
muscle paralysis
A patient is given an antipyrogenic medication. Which of the following explains the purpose of the medication? - reduce edema - block pain signals - decrease inflammation - reduce fever
reduce fever
Which of the following strategies reduces the risk of infection through the number one portal of entry? - respiratory mask - hand washing - bandaging open wounds - proper food preparation
respiratory mask
A recent outbreak of measles is reported in the news. A patient asks the nurse how measles is spread. What is the appropriate response? - skin-to-skin contact - no person-to-person transmission - fecal-oral -respiratory route
respiratory route
A nurse is explaining to a colleague that HIV is a retrovirus. Which enzyme is unique to HIV and thus serves as a target for treatment? - DNA polymerase - RNA polymerase - Reverse transcriptase - Pyruvate dehydrogenase
reverse transcriptase
A patient is confused about the difference between rheumatoid arthritis in osteoarthritis. Which of the following would be an appropriate response by the nurse? - Rheumatoid arthritis and osteoarthritis are very similar diseases that are managed with the same treatment - Rheumatoid arthritis affects only the hands, while osteoarthritis affects all joints - rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune disease, while osteoarthritis is not - rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune disease, which osteoarthritis is not
rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune disease, while osteoarthritis is not
A pregnant woman has not received the MMR vaccine at any time in her life. Which disease, prevented by this vaccine, does the clinician need to counsel the woman about, as it may cause damage to her unborn child? - measles - mumps - rubella - rotavirus
rubella
A patient with a family history of autoimmune diseases presents at the clinic with what she feels is a very strange symptom. She states that she feels she has fewer wrinkles and her skin feels tighter, and she feels she looks younger. She does not understand what may be happening, as she has not used any new cosmetic products. What disorder may the nurse suspect? - Raynaud's syndrome - Sjogren's syndrome - sarcoidosis - scleroderma
scleroderma Scleroderma is an autoimmune disorder affecting collagen which causes tightening of the skin
In which of the following conditions would a nurse expect to see lower-than-normal B and T cells? - HIV - severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) - immunoglobulin A (IgA) deficiency - DiGeorge syndrome
severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID)
A nurse explains to the parents of a young child with a severe skin injury that the best course of action is to leave the wound open for 4 to 5 days before closure. What type of the skin wound is the nurse likely describing? - contracture - primary intention - secondary intention - secondary intention - tertiary intention
tertiary intention
A patient is being given instructions for an EpiPen. The patient has severe allergies to bee stings. Which of the following would be correct information for the nurse to provide? - if you are stung, just use your EpiPen, and everything should be OK - an EpiPen will stop the allergen from the bee sting from entering your system - if you are stung, do not use the EpiPen immediately. Wait to see how the body responds first - the EpiPen is to be used immediately until you can receive additional needed medical care
the EpiPen is to be used immediately until you can receive additional needed medical care
A nurse is defining specificity regarding immunity. What does this term mean? - the body can recognize and remember antigens - the body has first line defenses against invaders - the body utilizes specific cilia to rid the body of invaders - the body is unable to recognize non-self
the body can recognize and remember antigens
A patient's laboratory values revealed the following: CD4 values of 800 cells per microliter with CD8 cells of 400 cells per microliter. What is the correct interpretation? - the patient has HIV - the patient has AIDS - the patient has leukemia - the patient has normal laboratory values
the patient has normal laboratory values
A patient has come to the clinic seeking information about a prophylactic medication for HIV. Which of the following is correct information for the patient? - this medication is recommended for all sexually active people - this medication is recommended for preteens before a first sexual intercourse has occurred - this medication is recommended for those at a high risk of contracting HIV. It must be taken daily - this medication is administered through 3 injections spaced 3 months apart
this medication is recommended for those at a high risk of contracting HIV. It must be taken daily
A nurse is working with a patient with DiGeorge syndrome. The nurse needs to explain to the family the tissue or organ that is the source of dysfunction in this disease. Which of the following would be the correct explanation for the nurse to provide? - heart - thymus - thyroid - bone marrow
thymus
A volunteer at the hospital is required to complete a tuberculosis test (Mantoux test), which works on a Type IV hypersensitivity reaction. The person wants to know when to expect the results. What is an appropriate response? - once we do the test, we will have your results immediately - your results will be available 20 minutes after the test - the results are read in stages, from 30 minutes to 1 to 2 hours - we will complete the test and review the results after 48 hours has passed
we will complete the test and review the results after 48 hours has passed
A nurse is talking to a patient who mentions a pertussis outbreak at her child's school. She says she has never heard of the disease. What is another name for this infection that the nurse may use for which the patient may be more familiar? - fifth disease - chickenpox - whooping cough - measles
whooping cough
On the laboratory write-up, an immunoglobulin E (IgE)-mediated response resulting in urticaria is noted. How can these results be interpreted for the patient? - you have a severe autoimmune disease - you have a delayed hypersensitivity reaction - your immune system has stopped functioning - you have an allergic response
you have an allergic response
A young patient has been diagnosed with severe combined immunodeficiency disorder (SCID). Which of the following is appropriate for the nurse to say to the parents? - Good nutrition and a healthy lifestyle will help reduce the damage by this disorder. - Your child has a form of leukemia. A bone marrow transplant is needed. - your child has a genetic illness that effects the functioning of a part of the immune system - your child will primarily suffer from cognitive defect and delayed development. Otherwise, his overall health will be generally good.
your child has a genetic illness that effects the functioning of a part of the immune system