Patho Exam 1

upward

what does the prefix ana- mean?

downward

what does the prefix kata- mean?

chaperone-dependent autophagy

Define: the chaperone-dependent proteins that direct cargo across the lysosomal membrane.

microautophagy

Define: the inward invagination of the lysosomal membrane for cargo delivery.

hypoxia

Define: the lack of sufficient oxygen within cells

secondary, primary

(Pick one) The (primary/secondary) immune response involves a rapid production of a larger amount of antibodies while the (primary/secondary) response is typically characterized by initial production of IgM followed by IgG against the same antigen.

physiological

____________ changes are typically normal changes to the body that happen with age

fuel

ATP is the ____ that drives biologic reactions necessary for cells to function. It is the energy of the cell.

a, d, e

A patient presents to the ED with an allergic reaction, what effects would the release of histamine have on the patient? (select all that apply) a. bronchoconstriction b. vasoconstriction c. increased blood pressure d. increased peristalsis e. edema

cortisol

Adrenocorticotropic releasing hormone (ACTH) stimulates the adrenal gland to release ________

toxic tissue effects

Alcohol gets metabolized into acetaldehyde in the liver, which causes _____ ______ _______ which result in damage to multiple major organ systems such as the CNS and cardiovascular mortality (heart attack, stroke). Can also lead to failure of the liver altering the 500+ functions of the liver such as metabolism, coagulation and albumin production.

cellular metabolism

All of the chemical tasks of maintaining essential cellular functions are referred to as ________ __________. This provides the cell with the energy it needs to produce cellular structures.

lactobacillus

Antibiotics can cause opportunistic infection of Candida albicans by decreasing the amount of which normal flora found in the vagina?

2, 1, 1, 5

Antigen Molecular Structure: Y-shaped body has ___ pairs of polypeptide chains, ___ pair of heavy and ___ pair of light chains; each chain has a constant region and a variable region. ___ types of constant regions are basis of antibody (immunoglobulin) classification system. Free tips of variable regions contain antigen binding sites (antigen binding fragments). Antibodies bind to antigenic determinant sites. Fab portion- have recognition receptors- ability to bind antigen

single-cells

Are yeasts single-cells or multi-cellular?

36, h2o

At the end of the electron transport chain (ETC) there is a net gain of __ ATP/glucose molecule and the byproduct is ___

pathologic hypertrophy

These are __________ causes of ___________: chronic hemodynamic overload from hypertension or heart valve dysfunction LVH secondary to hypertension coronary artery disease leading to cell death

Type I

Bee venom allergies are what type of hypersensitivity?

Obligatory intracellular microbes

Define: not available to antibodies, phagocytes and inflammatory mediators in circulation Some able to take part of host cell membrane (HIV, hepes, flu) Many can mutate within cells Antigenic variations (flu A and B) Antigenic drift (minor) Antigenic shift (major)

bacteremia

Define: presence of bacteria in blood

cell membrane receptors

Define: protein molecules on plasma membrane, in cytoplasm, and in the nucleus that recognize and bind with ligands. Recognition and binding depend on chemical configuration. **Must fit together like jigsaw puzzle. Ligands attach to the binding site of the protein.

the extracellular membrane, cell adhesion molecules (CAM), specialized cell junctions

Cell-to-cell adhesions are formed on plasma membranes, thereby allowing the formation of tissues and organs. Cells are held together by three different means:

autocrine

Cells also can produce signals to which they alone respond, and this is called _________ signaling

size, process of viral replication, genotype, host susceptibility

Chronic infection by viruses are supported by (4 things)

Adrenocorticotropic releasing hormone (ACTH)

Corticotropin releasing hormone (CRH) stimulates the anterior pituitary to release ___________________ _________ _______

Epinephrine, Norepinephrine (Catecholamines)

Corticotropin releasing hormone (CRH) stimulates the sympathetic nervous system to release ___________ and ______________

CD4, T

Criteria for AIDS diagnosis: ___ and _ cell numbers <200/mm^3 (normal 800-1000) Indications of debilitating chronic disease (wasting syndrome, recurrent fevers) Atypical or opportunistic infections: PCP- pneumocystic pneumonia CMV- cytomegalovirus Tuberculosis Kaposi Sarcosa

exocytosis

Define: when molecules are removed from the cell and exit. two main functions: (1) replacement of portions of the plasma membrane that have been removed by endocytosis and (2) release of molecules synthesized by the cells into the ECM.

reduced blood supply

Define ischemia

methicilin-resistant staphylococcus aureus

Define: resistant to antibiotics can be transmitted by direct skin-to-skin contact or by contact with shared items or surfaces that have become contaminated by another person. Most MRSA infections are skin infections. Severe or life-threatening MRSA infections occur most frequently among patients in healthcare settings.

candida albicans

What is the most common fungal infection in humans?

immunogens

Define: A molecule that will induce an immune response. All __________ are antigens.

secondary immune response

Define: Characterized by the more rapid production of a larger amount of antibody compared with the primary response. The rapidity is the result of memory cells that require less further differentiation. IgM may be transiently produced in the secondary response, but IgG production is increased considerably making it the predominant antibody class. Natural infection (e.g., rubella) may result in measurable levels of protective IgG for the life of the individual. Some vaccines (e.g., polio) also may produce extremely long-lived protection, although most vaccines require boosters at specified intervals.

primary immune response

Define: Characterized typically by initial production of IgM followed by production of IgG against the same antigen. After a single initial exposure to most antigens, there is a latent period, or lag phase, during which clonal selection occurs. After approximately 5 to 7 days, IgM antibody is detected in the circulation. The quantity of IgG may be about equal to or less than the amount of IgM. If no further exposure to the antigen occurs, the circulating antibody is catabolized (broken down) and titers fall. The individual's immune system, however, has been primed.

antibiotic resistance

Define: Happens after antibiotics are used for prolonged periods. It can also happen when a client does not take antibiotics correctly, such as skipping doses or stopping early. The bacteria can adapt by using surface coats to slow phagocytosis, and by capsules. Ex. MRSA, VRE

exotoxin

Define: Highly antigenic substances (proteins/polypeptides) secreted by mostly gram-positive bacteria outside the cell during lysis or growth. Can also be secreted by gram-negative. Can be converted into a toxoid that remains antigenic and is used for vaccines. Immunogenic.

osmosis

Define: Movement of water "down" a concentration gradient, across a semipermeable membrane. Solvent molecules move from low to high solute concentration.

factors influencing the capacity of a pathogen to cause disease

Define: Pathogenicity, virulence, infectivity, Toxigenicity (ability to produce toxins), antigenicity (how foreign), antigenic variability, pathogenic defense mechanism (ways pathogen finds to avoid destruction), coinfection, superinfection, extent of tissue damage

clonal selection

Define: Select, expand, and differentiate clones of T and B cells against specific antigen. The processing of antigen for a specific immune response. This process involves a complex interaction among cells in the secondary lymphoid organs. Usually begins at birth and continues throughout the life of an individual as new antigens are experienced. It can begin as early as week 8 of gestation in humans if foreign antigens are encountered in utero.

antigens

Define: The molecular targets of antibodies and lymphocytes. Generally small molecules (usually within proteins, carbohydrates, or lipids) found on the surface of microbes, infected cells, or abnormal tissues. Can bind with antibodies or antigen receptors on B and T cells. Ex. infectious agents, cancers, environmental substances, self-________, allergens

clonal diversity

Define: The production of a large population of B cells and T cells before birth and throughout life that have the capacity to recognize almost any foreign antigen found in the environment. Process mostly occurs in specialized lymphoid organs: bone marrow for B cells and the thymus for T cells. The result is the differentiation of lymphoid stem cells into B and T lymphocytes with the ability to react against almost any antigen that will be encountered throughout life.

haptens

Define: Too small to become immunogens, but become immunogenic after combining with larger molecules that function as carriers for them.

endotoxin

Define: Usually produced by lipopolysaccharide cell wall of gram-negative microbes that are released during growth, lysis, or destruction of bacteria or during treatment with antibiotics. Antibiotics cannot prevent toxic effects. Bacteria that produce __________ are called pyrogenic because they activate inflammation and produce fever. If bacteria that produces it is in blood, they produce sepsis or bacteremia. Poorly antigenic.

hydrostatic pressure

Define: a pushing pressure like blood pressure that allows the right amount of substance to leave the cell. Mechanical force of water pushing against cellular membranes.

endocytosis

Define: a section of the plasma membrane enfolds substances from outside the cell, invaginates (folds inward), and separates from the plasma membrane, forming a vesicle that moves into the cell Pino/phagocytosis.

normal flora (microbiome)

Define: benefits us by producing enzymes that facilitate the digestion and utilization of many molecules in the human diet, usable metabolites, and antimicrobial factors that prevent colonization by pathogenic microorganisms. Compete for nutrient and block attachment to epithelial cells.

cytokines

Define: constitute a large family of small-molecular-weight soluble intercellular-signaling molecules that are secreted, bind to specific cell membrane receptors, and regulate innate or adaptive immunity. Can be either proinflammatory or anti-inflammatory

cascade

Define: domino effect, each system triggers the next sequential activation; activation of the first components results in sequential activation of the other components of the system, leading to a biologic function that helps protect the individual

chemokines

Define: members of a special family of cytokines that are chemotactic and primarily attract leukocytes to sites of inflammation

atopic

Define: syndromes experienced by being predisposed to allergies (atopy). Things like hay fever, asthma, etc.

TNFalpha

Define: secreted by macrophages and other cells (mast cells) in response to stimulation of toll-like receptors (TLRs). Induces a multitude of proinflammatory effects, particularly on the vascular endothelium and macrophages. Systemic effects: inducing fever by acting as an endogenous pyrogen, causing increased synthesis of inflammation-related serum proteins by the liver, and causing muscle wasting (cachexia) and intravascular thrombosis in cases of severe infection and cancer

urticaria (hives)

Define: skin manifestation of allergic reaction/white fluid filled blisters surrounded by areas of redness/localized release of histamine and increased vascular permeability

diffusion

Define: solute molecules move from high to low concentration. Molecules spread out over a large area. Everything but water.

Macroautophagy

Define: the most common term to refer to autophagy, involves the sequestration and transportation of parts (cargo) of the cytosol in an autophagic vacuole (autophagosome).

phagocytosis

Define: the process by which a cell ingests and disposes of damaged cells and foreign material, including microorganisms

autoimmune disease

Define: when an individual's level of tolerance to their own antigens is low causing the body to have a detrimental immunological response to their own cells and tissues. Ex: SLE, psoriasis, rheumatoid arthritis, celiac's disease, MS

antigen

Define: Chief function is to protect against infection. The mechanism can be direct or indirect. Blood protein produced in response to and counteracting a specific antigen. Combine chemically with substances which the body recognizes as alien, such as bacteria, viruses, and foreign substances in the blood.

acute phase reactants

Define: plasma proteins, mostly products of the liver, that can be either pro-inflammatory or anti-inflammatory in nature. Lab tests can measure these and an increased level indicates inflammation (primarily measure fibrinogen)

flagella

Define: A rotary structure that provides motility and expresses adhesion molecules

infectivity

Define: Ability of a pathogen to invade and multiply in the host. How well it gets through the body's barriers.

Pathogenicity

Define: Ability of agent to cause disease-success depends on communicability, infectivity, extent of tissue damage, and virulence

communicability

Define: Ability to spread from one individual to others. (flu spreads easily; HIV does not)

capsules

Define: An outer covering of the cell wall that prevents phagocytosis and resists host immunity

autoantigens

Define: Antigens originating inside the body, like cancer.

Virulence

Define: Capacity of pathogen to cause severe disease

atopy

Define: Genetic predisposition to allergies

autophagy

Define: Greek term means "eating of self." a "recycling factory" as well as a survival mechanism. It is a self-destructive process that delivers cytoplasmic contents to the lysosome for degradation.

pili (fimbriae)

Define: Hair-like projections that express adhesion molecules to attach to cells and invade tissue

toxins

Define: Poisonous substances that cause injury, such as exotoxins (direct injury), endotoxins (indirect injury)

enzymes

Define: Proteins that promote tissue invasion (e.g., proteases and lipases)

necrosis

Define: a form of cell destruction characterized by rapid loss of plasma membrane structure, swelling of organelles, mitochondrial dysfunction, and the lack of typical features of apoptosis. Inflammation usually accompanies.

Toxigenicity

Define: ability to produce soluble toxins or endotoxins; factors that greatly influence the pathogen's degree of virulence

apoptosis

Define: active process of cellular self-destruction, resulting in programmed cell death. It has been implicated in both normal and pathologic tissue changes. Cells die as a part of a normal physiologic process.

self-antigens

Define: antigens on cells that can induce antibody formation in another organism but is tolerated in the parent organism

allergens

Define: antigens that induce an allergic response

biofilms

Define: consist of mixed species of organisms, including bacteria and fungi, immersed in highly organized extracellular matrix produced by the microorganisms. Microorganisms with this can become tolerant and resistant to antibiotics and immune responses, making them difficult to treat.

atrophy

Define: decrease in cell size

dysplasia

Define: deranged cellular growth, is not considered a true cellular adaptation but rather atypical hyperplasia

mycosis

Define: disease caused by fungi. Can be superficial, deep or opportunistic.

Dermatophytes

Define: fungi that invade the skin, hair, or nails and make tineas (ringworm).

hypertrophy

Define: increase in cell size

metaplasia

Define: reversible replacement of one mature cell type by another, less mature cell type or a change in cell phenotype. Happens in the lungs of smokers.

portal of entry

Define: route by which pathogenic microorganism infects the host. (ex/ direct contact, inhalation, ingestion, or bites of animals or insect)

opportunistic

Define: seize opportunity to invade caused by decrease of immune or inflammatory response. microbes that under normal conditions (controlled growth) would not cause an infection, but can cause problem if given a chance

Streptococcus

Does this describe Streptococcus or Staphylococcus? Catalase negative (no bubble production) Found in the respiratory tract Cause rheumatic fever - symptoms fever, sore throat, swollen lymph nodes, red & weeping skin sores, rash, dizziness, and confusion Most are pathogenic Arranged in chains

Staphylococcus

Does this describe Streptococcus or Staphylococcus? Catalase positive (produces bubbles) Found on the skin Infections can look like a pimple and can be red, swollen and tender. The area can be warm to touch and can have pus that needs to be drained. If the infection gets into the blood, symptoms include fever, chills and low blood pressure. Most are non-pathogenic Arranged in clusters

endotoxins

E. coli, shigella, cholera, and salmonella typhi are examples of bacteria that secrete __________

diarrhea

Entamoeba histolytica and Giardia lamblia both cause ________

Catecholamines

Epinephrine and Norepinephrine are ______________

85

Herd Immunity: When __% of total population is immunized, you achieve protection of the total population. This is important to achieve because if it is not achieved, outbreaks of infection can occur and the most vulnerable population will pay the price

antiretroviral therapy (ART)

What is the treatment that helps prevent HIV from developing into AIDS?

oxidative stress

Free radicals are an important mechanism of cellular injury, especially injury caused by reactive oxygen species (ROS). This form of injury is called ________ ______. It is caused by an increase in different reactive species, depletion of antioxidant defense, or both. It results in detrimental oxidation of different molecules, including proteins, lipids, nucleic acids, and others.

fight or flight

Goal of SNS and adrenal medulla releasing epinephrine and norepinephrine is to mobilize energy by increasing blood glucose, and activate the _____ __ ______ response: increase blood, oxygen delivery, and alertness

blood glucose

Goal of adrenal cortex releasing cortisol is to mobilize energy by increasing _____ _______

ligands

Hormones, neurotransmitters, antigens, complement components, lipoproteins, infectious agents, drugs, and metabolites are examples of _______

c

Humoral immunity is a type of adaptive immunity that is characterized by the circulation of which of these in the blood? a. macrophages b. NK cells c. antibodies d. antigens

histamine

Most potent mediator of IgE-mediated hypersensitivity is _________ which affects several target cells. Acting through HI receptors it contracts bronchial smooth muscles, increases vascular permeability (edema), and causes vasodilation (increased blood flow) Acting through H2 receptors results in increased gastric acid secretion.

movement, secretion, conductivity, metabolic absorption, communication, respiration, reproduction, excretion

Identify the 8 specialized functions of the cell.

active

Identify the following as either passive or active immunity: flu vaccine

passive

Identify the following as either passive or active immunity: gamma globulin injection

active

Identify the following as either passive or active immunity: getting chickenpox as a child

passive

Identify the following as either passive or active immunity: nursing baby receiving antibodies from mom's breast milk

hypoxia

Identify the single most common cause of cellular injury

extracellular matrix (ECM)

Importance and structure of the _____________ ______: Epithelial cells attached to basement membrane that has filtering properties, provides strength and protection, and limits what can cross it. The ECM is similar to glue; however it provides a pathway for diffusion of nutrients, wastes, and other water-soluble substances between the blood and tissue cells.

paracrine

In _________ signaling, cells secrete local chemical mediators that are quickly taken up, destroyed, or immobilized. Paracrine signaling usually involves different cell types.

neurohormonal

In _____________ signaling hormones are released into blood by neurosecretory neurons. Like endocrine cells, neurosecretory neurons release blood-borne chemical messengers.

lactic acid

In the absence of oxygen (anaerobic catabolism), pyruvic acid is turned into ______ ____

plasminogen, plasmin

In the fibrinolytic system thrombin activates _________, forming the enzyme _______ which degrades the fibrin polymers in clots.

magnesium, vitamin b6, thiamine, phosphorus, folic acid

List nutrients that alcoholism causes nutritional deficiencies in

allergic rhinitis, watery eyes, sneezing, hives (urticaria), inflammation

List some clinical manifestations of histamine release

pathological

____________ changes occur due to abnormal events such as disease, injury, lack of blood flow, stimulation, or hormones

Type I, IV

Latex allergies are caused by what types of hypersensitivities?

epithelial, muscle, connective, nerve

Name the 4 basic tissue types

Unicellular protozoa

Malaria, amoeba, and flagellates are examples of ____________ ________

vectors

Many protozoa are transmitted by _______ (mosquitos, sand fleas, etc.). The parasite attaches to cells in the bloodstream or GI tract. Surface protozoa attach/infect macrophages, RBCs, organ cells Malaria (Plasmodium falciparum)- one of the most common infections worldwide Amoeba (Entamoeba histolytica)- diarrhea Flagellates: Giardia lamblia- diarrhea Trypanosoma- sleeping sickness

cancerous

Metaplasia can transform into dysplasia and then into a _________ formation.

Malaria (Plasmodium falciparum)

Parasitic infection, carried by mosquitos, one of the most common infections worldwide

c, d, a, b

Place these events in the order of occurrence: a. individual has additional allergen exposure b. individual has clinical symptoms and signs of allergy c. individual has initial allergen exposure d. B lymphocytes produce antibodies against the allergen

Type IV

Poison Ivy and metal allergies are what type of hypersensitivity?

pathologic hyperplasia

These are __________ causes of ___________: excessive hormonal stimulation action of growth factors on target cells imbalance between estrogen and progesterone levels resulting in ^ that commonly presents as excessive uterine bleeding age and hormone imbalances

microbiome, protective activity, pathogenic microorganisms

Prolong broad-spectrum antibiotic use: Alters the normal __________ Decreases __________ ________- kills good bacteria like lactobacillus Leads to overgrowth of __________ ______________- candida albicans (yeast) and clostritdium difficile (diarrhea)

2, 5, 1, 4, 3

Put the steps of how an individual becomes sensitized to an allergen in type I hypersensitivity reactions in order: 1. Interleukin 4 is made and B cells start creating antibodies such as IgE. 2. The antigen, such as pollen, contacts the body. 3. 2nd time allergen makes contact the mast and basophils are activated and trigger allergy symptoms. 4. IgE attaches to mast cells. 5. Antigen is processed by an APC and presented by MHC II to a T helper

3, 2, 1, 5, 4

Put the steps of phagocytosis in order: 1. Formation of a phagosome 2. Engulfment (ingestion or endocytosis) 3. Recognition and adherence of the phagocyte to its target 4. Destruction of the target 5. Fusion of the phagosome with lysosomal granules within the phagosome

b, c

Rejection of a kidney transplant that occurred 2 weeks after transplant is due to a: (select all that apply) a. immune response against recipient antigens b. immune response against donor antigens c. type IV hypersensitivity d. type I hypersensitivity

pyruvic acid, h2o, ATP

The end products of glycolysis (anaerobic) are 2 molecules of _______ ____, 2 molecules of ___, and a net gain of 2 ___

Type I, III

Serum allergic reactions are what types of hypersensitivities?

SIRS, sepsis, severe sepsis, MODS

Starts w/ infection>bacteremia (presence of bacteria in blood)> ____ (inflammatory response due to severe clinical insults such as high temp/high WBC count)> ______ (systemic response infection characterized by SIRS criteria)> ______ ______ (sepsis associated w/ organ dysfunction)> ____ (4 things) *know that septic shock is a response to infection by microorganisms, but SIRS can be caused by other things like physical trauma

pathologic metaplasia

These are __________ causes of ___________: long-term smoking

corticotropin releasing hormone (CRH)

Stress causes the hypothalamus to release _____________ _________ ________

okay

Study figure 10.2 on pg. 212 of the patho textbook (https://drive.google.com/file/d/1THbk4nxr_bHuw-_jwz7tYvfi6IbKL-Ot/view?usp=sharing)

physiologic atrophy

These are ___________ causes of _______: thymus gland shrinks after childhood gonads shrink with age due to decrease in hormonal stimulation ovaries shrink after menopause aging decreases number of brain cells

systemic

These are ________ responses to acute inflammation: fever, leukocytosis (increase in number of circulating white blood cells-neutrophils), plasma protein synthesis (acute phase reactants- fibrinogen, erythrocyte sedimentation rate, c-reactive protein) Leads to accumulation of macrophages which lead to granuloma (act of monocytes morphing into epithelial and giant cells and isolating area), excessive collagen leading to scars and keloids, and elastin and tissue breakdown.

pathologic atrophy

These are __________ causes of _______: organs shrink due to decrease in workload, pressure, use, blood supply, nutrition, hormonal stimulation, or neural stimulation.

type IV collagen, laminin, proteoglycan

The basement membrane is made of of (3 things)

citric acid

The first product of the kreb's cycle is ______ ____

fibrinolytic

The formation of clots activates the ____________ system which serves to limit the size of clots and degrade the clot after bleeding has ceased.

plasma membrane proteins

The importance of ______ ________ ________ They act as transport channels, cell surface receptors, cell surface markers, facilitate cell adhesion, enzyme response within cell, and attachment of cytoskeleton (cell adhesion molecules). Proteins are made up of polypeptide chain of 20 Amino Acids. -K+ kept in the cell & try to keep Na+ out -enzymes that drive active pumps (K) -glycoproteins -catalysts of chemical reactions (conversion of lactose to glucose)

amphipathic properties

The importance of the ___________ __________ of the membrane lipid bilayer: Selective permeability. One part is hydrophobic and one part is hydrophilic. This serves as a barrier to the diffusion of water and hydrophilic substances, while allowing lipid-soluble molecules (oxygen, CO2) to diffuse through it readily.

plasma protein systems

The influx of ______ ______ ______ (ex. clotting system, plasma enzymes) prevents the inflammatory response from spreading to areas of healthy tissue. Plasma entering the tissues during inflammation contain enzymes that destroy mediators of inflammation and downregulate the inflammatory response.

2, 1

The kreb's cycle produces _ ATP/glucose molecule and _ ATP per turn.

modes of transmission

These are _____ __ ____________ for HIV/AIDS: blood, IV drug abuse, sexual activity, maternal-child transmission in pregnancy

local

These are _____ responses to acute inflammation: vasodilation, increased vascular permeability, wbc adherence, results in 5 classic symptoms of inflammation

physiologic hypertrophy

These are __________ causes of __________: increased demand stimulation by hormones and growth factors runner's heart

gram-negative

These are characteristics of ____-________ infections: Anaerobic rod-shaped bacterium Normal microbiome of lower intestine Bacteremia (sepsis/bloodstream infection) If E. coli is introduced into the bloodstream: releases large amounts of endotoxin> exaggerated response "systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS) Most common cause of sepsis- can quickly lead to septic shock, especially in immunocompromised people (50% mortality rate)

gram-positive

These are characteristics of ____-________ infections: Grape-like clusters Secretes wide variety of exotoxins Catalase + (enzyme that breaks down hydrogen peroxide) Does not require enriched environment to thrive (non-fastidious) Most staph located on the skin or mucous membrane Part of normal microbiome> opportunistic infection: gains entry by breaking through physical barriers (innate) by means of cuts, wounds, in-dwelling catheters, etc.

exotoxins

These are examples of _________: cytotoxins, neurotoxins, pneumotoxins, enterotoxins, hemolysins (tetanus, diphtheria, botulism, staph, strep, bacillus)

Type II

These are examples of which type of hypersensitivity reaction? grave's disease, ABO mismatch (transfusion reaction), Goodpasture syndrome, myasthenia gravis

Type III

These are examples of which type of hypersensitivity? serum sickness, rheumatoid arthritis, serum sickness

functions

These are the _________ of the plasma membrane: controls composition of cells (gates, channels, pumps) controls directional transport (cell polarity +/-) barrier to diffusion of water and hydrophilic substances allows lipid-soluble molecules to diffuse readily (O2, CO2) cell to cell recognition contains organelles of the cell (see table 1.2 in book for extensive list)

bacteria

These are virulence factors for ________: Pili (fimbria) Flagella Capsules Enzymes Toxins

vaccinations

This is the purpose of ____________: To induce long lasting protective immune responses under safe conditions. The primary immune response is generally short-lived, so booster injections are used to push the immune response through multiple secondary responses that result in large number of memory cells and sustained protective levels of antibodies or T-cells.

Type III

Vaccine allergy reactions are what type of hypersensitivity?

inflammation (24hrs), proliferation (3-14 days), remodeling and maturation (weeks to months)

What are the 3 phases of would healing? (This is based on the PPT. Textbook has stage one as hemostasis, just remember that hemostasis and coagulation must take place to cause vasoconstriction and activate platelets.)

redness (rubor), heat (calor), swelling (tumor), pain (dolor), and loss of function (function lasea)

What are the 5 classic symptoms of inflammation

plasma cells that make antibodies

What are the final products of clonal selection?

contact signaling, remote signaling, gap junction

What are the three main types of cellular communication described here: 1. They display plasma membrane-bound signaling molecules (receptors) that affect the cell itself and other cells in direct physical contact. 2. They affect receptor proteins inside the target cell and the signal molecule has to enter the cell to bind to them 3. They form protein channels (gap junctions) that directly coordinate the activities of adjacent cells. Alterations in cellular communication affect disease onset and progression. In fact, if a cell cannot perform gap junctional intercellular communication, normal growth control and cell differentiation is compromised, thereby favoring cancerous tumor development.

alarm, resistance/adaptation, exhaustion

What are the three successive stages of the GAS response?

viral hepatitis

What disease is this? A common systemic disease that affects the liver. Can obstruct bile canaliculi leading to jaundice, cause liver failure, and coma. Phases: Prodromal phase: begins 2 weeks after exposure and ends with jaundice. Many symptoms (anorexia, malaise, vomiting, hyperalgesia, low fever, infection) begin to show in this phase. Icteric phase: the actual phase of illness. It begins 1-2 weeks after phase 1 and lasts 2-6 weeks. Dark urine and clay-colored stools occur here. The liver enlarges which causes a lot of pain. Recovery phase: 6-8 weeks after phase one. Jaundice fades and symptoms diminish. Liver remains enlarged. Cell-mediated immune cells cause cell injury. There are different strains: Type A&B preventable by vaccine C is chronic Also type D and E, not as common

Multiple Organ Dysfunction Syndrome

What does MODS stand for?

Systemic Inflammatory Response Syndrome

What does SIRS stand for?

Vancomycin Resistant Enterococci

What does VRE stand for?

ischemia

What is the most common cause of hypoxia?

digestion

What is this called? Large molecules are broken down into smaller subunits (proteins →amino acids, polysaccharides →simple sugars, fats→fatty acids, glycerol) occur outside cell & activated by secreted enzymes

latent period (latency)

What is this describing? Period virus is dormant, working to integrate self into host's DNA Causes minimal to no functional impairment Low antigenicity at this stage Viral cell death leads to the signs and symptoms of disease- herpes zoster, herpes simplex

the process of inflammation

What is this: i. Vasodilation, which causes slower blood velocity and increases blood flow to the injured site ii. Increased vascular permeability and leakage of fluid out of the vessel, causes swelling at the site of injury; as plasma moves outward, blood in the microcirculation becomes more viscous and flows more slowly, and the increased blood flow and increasing concentration of red cells at the site of inflammation cause locally increased redness and warmth iii. White blood cells adherence to the inner walls of the vessels and their migration through enlarged junctions between the endothelial cells lining the vessels into the surrounding tissue

molds

What kind of fungi is made up of rigid, multilayer walls of polysaccharides that are resistant to antibiotics due to lack of a peptidoglycan wall?

Lactobacillus

What opportunistic microorganism is this? A bacterium is a major constituent of the normal GI and vaginal microbiome in healthy women. Produces chemicals that help prevent infections by other bacteria and yeast. Prolonged antibiotic treatment can diminish colonization and can increase the risk of infections, such as vaginosis

Clostridium difficile

What opportunistic microorganism is this? a bacterium in the intestines that is normally controlled by the body's defense mechanisms. A cause of pseudomembranous colitis- an infection of the colon

Candida albicans

What opportunistic microorganism is this? yeast in the intestines that is normally controlled by the body's defense mechanisms. Infection can occur from prolonged treatment with broad-spectrum antibiotics

C1 inhibitor

What protease inhibitor enzyme inhibits the activation of the complement system?

Remodeling and Maturation

What stage of wound healing is this? Begins several weeks after injury and is normally complete within 2 years. During this phase, there is continuation of cellular differentiation, scar formation, and scar remodeling. The fibroblast is the major cell of tissue remodeling with the deposition of collagen into an organized matrix

Inflammation

What stage of wound healing is this? Includes coagulation or hemostasis and the infiltration of cells that participate in wound healing, including platelets (clot formation and release growth factors), neutrophils (clear wounds of debris and bacteria), and macrophages (clear debris, release wound healing mediators and growth factors, recruit fibroblasts, and promote formation of new blood supply [angiogenesis])

proliferation (new tissue formation)

What stage of wound healing is this? This phase begins 3 to 4 days after the injury and continues for as long as 2 weeks. The wound is sealed, and the fibrin clot is replaced by normal tissue or scar tissue during this phase. Characterized by macrophage invasion of the dissolving clot and recruitment and proliferation of fibroblasts (connective tissue cells), followed by fibroblast collagen synthesis, epithelialization, contraction of the wound, and cellular differentiation

plasma membrane

What structure of the cell does this describe: bilipid membrane composed of hydrophilic heads and hydrophobic tails. Some cells have a carb-coating of membrane called Glycocalyx which protects from physical damage and gives the cell a slimy surface in order to squeeze through narrow spaces.

serous

What type of exudate is this? clear straw-colored, thin, and watery in early or mild inflammation; may be watery with very few plasma proteins or leukocytes, such as the fluid in a blister

fibrinous

What type of exudate is this? cloudy, thin and watery, may indicate fibrin strands present. in more severe or advanced inflammation; may be thick and clotted, such as in the lungs of individuals with pneumonia

hemorrhagic

What type of exudate is this? dark, blood-stained, viscous, and sticky. indicates infection and will contain neutrophils, dead/dying bacteria, and inflammatory cells. Consequent damage to dermal capillaries leads to blood leakage.

purulent

What type of exudate is this? yellow/green/grey, thick and sticky, may indicate infection, contains pyogenic organisms and other inflammatory cells a large number of leukocytes accumulate, as in persistent bacterial infections, will consist of pus and is characteristic of walled-off lesions (cysts or abscesses)

Type I

What type of hypersensitivity reaction are food allergies?

Type I

What type of hypersensitivity reaction causes pollen, dust and mold allergies?

Type I, III, IV

What type of hypersensitivity reactions can cause fungi allergies?

adaptive

What type of immunity is this? acquired and very specific; involves immunologic memory by T and B lymphocytes. Starts slow during initial exposure, but produces much faster response during future exposure to the same microorganism

innate

What type of immunity is this? include natural barriers (physical, mechanical, and biochemical) and inflammation that form the first line of defense at the body's surfaces and are in place at birth

passive transport

What type of transport is this? does not require energy or a living membrane. Water and small un-charged molecules. Higher>lower concentration gradient. Driven by osmosis, hydrostatic pressure, diffusion

active transport

What type of transport is this? needs a living membrane, requires ATP because the solute is going against the membrane, from a low-high concentration. Sodium-potassium pump. Driven by pumps, atp hydrolysis, transmembrane ion gradient, sunlight.

type I, II, III

What types of hypersensitivity reactions can cause drug allergies?

action potential

When a nerve or muscle cell receives a stimulus that exceeds the membrane threshold value, a rapid change occurs in the resting membrane potential. The ______ _________ carries signals along the nerve or muscle cell and conveys information from one cell to another in a domino-like fashion.

as a fetus

When does clonal diversity occur?

from birth forward

When does clonal selection occur?

kreb's cycle (citric acid cycle)

When oxygen is present (aerobic catabolism), pyruvic acid enters the ____'_ _____

bone marrow (b-cells), thymus (t-cells)

Where does clonal diversity occur?

mast cells, basophils

Which cells release histamine?

IgG

Which class of immunoglobulin can be found in the highest concentration in the blood?

IgA

Which class of immunoglobulin is this? Found in blood (Ig_1) and in bodily secretions as secretory ___ (subclass Ig_2). Helps prevent entrance of pathogens. Secretory Ig_is a dimer consisting of two Ig_2 molecules held together through a J chain and secretory piece. The secretory piece is attached to dimeric Ig_ during transportation through mucosal epithelial cells to protect against degradation by enzymes also found in secretions.

IgD

Which class of immunoglobulin is this? Functions as a part of the BCR antigen receptor on the surface of early B cells. Play a role in the activation of B cells into plasma cells. Found in low concentrations in the blood.

IgG

Which class of immunoglobulin is this? Most abundant class of antibody, constituting 80% to 85% of the antibodies in the blood and accounting for most of the protective activity against infections. During pregnancy maternal immunoglobulin is transported across the placenta and protects the newborn child during the first 6 months of life. Largest and most diverse class. Rh factor belongs to this class.

IgE

Which class of immunoglobulin is this? Normally at low concentrations in the circulation. It has very specialized functions as a mediator of many common allergic responses and as a defense against parasitic infections. Causes mast cells and basophils to release histamine.

IgM

Which class of immunoglobulin is this? The largest antibody and usually exists as a pentamer (a molecule consisting of five identical smaller molecules) that is stabilized by a J chain. It is the first antibody produced during the initial, or primary, response to antigens. Usually synthesized early in neonatal life but may be increased as a response to infection in utero. Declines as IgG accelerates.

clostridium difficile

Which disease is this? Antibiotics compromise normal intestinal flora>Allows overgrowth Often nosocomial acquired Pathology colitis- disruption of normal bacterial flora of colon Colonization after antibiotics make bowel susceptible to infection Release of toxins that lead to mucosal damage and itis After colonization organism releases two protein exotoxins into the colonic lumen that are responsible for causing diarrhea and colitis. The receptors produce toxic effects Both Toxin A and B produce inflammation of the mucosa, secrete a protein-rich exudate, and activate cytokine release from monocytes. Manifestations Overgrowth can cause pseudomembranous colitis Secretory diarrhea caused by exotoxins from overgrowth

MODS

Which disease is this? Clinical Manifestations Tachypnea, pulmonary edema, use of accessory muscles, hypoxemia Liver failure: jaundice, abdominal distention, liver tenderness, muscle wasting, hepatic encephalopathy, substance detoxification, immune response impaired, albumin/clotting factor synthesis decreases, accumulation of protein wastes Bowel: hemorrhage, ileus, malabsorption, diarrhea/constipation, vomiting, anorexia, abdominal pain, stress ulceration Heart: tachycardia, bounding pulse, increased cardiac output, decreased systemic vascular resistance, hypotension Nervous system: confusion, disorientation, restlessness, agitation, headache, decreased cognitive ability/memory, decreased level of consciousness

MODS

Which disease is this? (sorry this is so long): Greatest risk in elderly and ppl w/ significant tissue injury/pre existing disease Pathophysiology Release of stress hormones>vascular endothelial damage as result from bacterial toxins (nitric oxide)>vascular endothelium becomes permeable leading to hypotension/hypoperfusion> leakage of fluid into lungs leads to respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) Inflammatory mediators release in a cascade: complement, coagulation, fibrinolytic, kallikrein/kinin which cause hyperinflammatory/procoagulant state that maintains edema formation, cardiovascular instability, endothelial damage, clotting abnormalities Then comes a massive systemic immune/inflammatory response involving neutrophils, macrophages, & mast cells Supply-dependent oxygen consumption- amount of oxygen given to blood depends on the amount circulation is able to deliver due to exhausted reserves by impact on oxygen supply, resulting in hypoxia

SIRS, septic shock

Which diseases have these manifestations? Clinical Manifestations Inflammation, decreased perfusion of vital tissue, alterations in oxygen extraction by all cells, temp instability, deranged renal function, jaundice, clotting abnormalities, deterioration of mental status, increased permeability of GI tract (causing translocation of bacteria from gut into bloodstream)

UTI (urinary tract infection)

Which disorder has these signs and symptoms? Initial S&S: Frequent urination, urgency, dysuria, suprapubic and low back pain More serious S&S: Hematuria, cloudy urine, flank pain Most concerning: Elderly- often have no S&S May present with confusion or vague abdominal discomfort At highest risk for mortality New strains of bacteria resistant to antibiotics Urosepsis accounts for 25% of adult sepsis cases (mortality rates 25-60%)

cervical dysplasia

Which disorder is this? Abnormal changes in the size, shape, and organization of mature cervical cells. Associated with neoplastic growth. Diagnosed: pap smear and HPV testing Signs & Symptoms: vaginal discharge or bleeding after intercourse or between menstrual cycles, postmenopausal bleeding, serosanguinous or yellowish vaginal discharge, new or foul odor, urinary or rectal symptoms, pelvic or back pain Treatment: surgery, radiation therapy, chemotherapy, and targeted treatment Example of dysplasia

acquired (adaptive)

Which type of immunity is this? inducible; immunity that develops over the lifetime of the individual and provides long-term protection against specific invaders. Lymphocytes and antibodies. Third line of defense. Ex. exposure to illness, vaccinations

inflammatory bowel disease (IBD)

Which disorder is this? Altered barrier function of the mucosal epithelium, leading to loss of immune tolerance to normal intestinal antigens. Decreased tolerance activates dendritic cells. More prevalent among white populations Theories of causation: genetic, environmental factors, alterations of epithelial cell barrier functions, and altered immune response to intestinal microflora

systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)

Which disorder is this? Characterized by the production of a large variety of autoantibodies against self-antigens Anti-DNA binds with DNA forming a complex that is deposited in the kidneys causing sever kidney inflammation Can also occur in the brain, heart, spleen, lung, GI tract, peritoneum, and skin Hypersensitivity III reaction Destruction of red blood cells (anemia) and lymphocytes (lymphopenia) is an example of hypersensitivity type II More often in women 20-40 years old Individuals may go through periods of remission and relatively disease free until the onset of a flare Signs & Symptoms: arthralgia, renal disease, hematologic abnormalities, cardio vascular disease, photosensitivity, discoid rash, oral and nasopharyngeal ulcers, serositis (inflammation of the membranes of the lungs) Diagnosis: positive antinuclear antibody (ANA) screening, positive antibodies against Sm, dsDNA Goals of treatment: control symptoms and prevent further damage by suppressing the autoimmune response

rheumatoid arthritis

Which disorder is this? Chronic, systemic, inflammatory autoimmune disease distinguished by joint swelling, tenderness and destruction of synovial joints leading to disability and premature death. Signs & Symptoms: inflammation and destruction of the joints, fever, malaise, rash, lymph node or spleen enlargement, and Raynaud phenomenon (transient lack or circulation to the fingertips and toes) Genetic predisposition The target self-antigens (immunoglobulins) are in relatively constant supply and can thus perpetuate inflammation and the formation of immune complexes indefinitely

grave's disease

Which disorder is this? Hyperthyroidism More common in women Caused by genetic factors interacting with environmental triggers Autoimmune disease Type II hypersensitivity Stimulation of the thyroid by autoantibodies directed against the TSH receptor Results in hyperplasia of the gland (goiter) Ophthalmopathy (enlarged ocular muscle) and dermopathy (pretibial myxedema- subcutaneous swelling on the anterior portions of the leg and indurated [harden] and erythematous [redness] skin

UTI (urinary tract infection)

Which disorder is this? Inflammation of urinary tract Usually caused by gut bacteria Most common microorganism: E. coli (Gram-negative bacteria) Uropathic strains have type-1 fimbriae Bind to latex catheters Bind to uroepithelium RESIST FLUSHING during micturition (urination) (some strains P. fimbriae (pyelonephritis-associated fimbriae) Treatment Freshly voided urine (UA, dipstick, culture) Antibiotics (uncomplicated 3-5 days) May require 7-14 day course with f/u cultures Some require long term treatment

hashimoto's disease

Which disorder is this? Primary hypothyroidism Autoimmune Thyroiditis (chronic lymphocytic thyroiditis) Gradual inflammatory destruction of thyroid tissue Infiltration of autoreactive T-Lymphocytes + thyroid antibodies (peroxidase) + NK cells + Inflammatory cytokines= Apoptosis Iodine goes up Decrease production of TH and increased secretion of THS and TRH- Excessive TSH causes goiter Lowers energy metabolism and heat production Signs & Symptoms: lowered basal metabolic rate, cold intolerance, lethargy, and slightly lowered basal body temp, myxedema (makes skin appear swollen and puffy), mucous membranes thicken causing slurred speech and hoarseness

blood transfusion reaction

Which disorder is this? RBCs express identifying antigens on their plasma membranes (collectively known as the blood group antigens) which can be targets of alloimmune reactions ABO blood group Rh systems Hypersensitivity type II reaction

pediatric UTI

Which disorder is this? Rare in newborns (but serious) Most common population: girls age 7-11 due to perineal contamination from E. coli Higher risk in children with: Congenital renal abnormalities (vesicoureteral reflux) Uncircumcised males Challenges: Symptoms may be vague, especially in infants, toddlers Difficult to differentiate cystitis from pyelonephritis Poor feeding, irritability, failure to thrive, enuresis Undertreatment may result in renal infections and scarring

acromegaly

Which disorder is this? Results from continuous exposure to high levels of GH and IGH1 Almost always caused by a GH-secreting pituitary adenoma Common in adults 40-59 years old Can cause heart disease secondary to hypertension and coronary artery disease, stroke, diabetes mellitus, malignancy Signs & Symptoms: enlarged tongue intestinal edema, enlarged overactive sebaceous and sweat glands, course skin and body hair, enlargement of the bones of the face, hands, and feet, lower jaw and forehead protrude, barrel-chested, peripheral nerve damage, backache, arthralgia (joint pain), weakness, muscular atrophy, foot drop, sensory changes in the hands, headache, seizure, visual disturbances, papilledema (optic disc swelling from intracranial pressure), sexual dysfunction in males, amenorrhea in women Diagnosed: MRI scan, elevated IGF-1, oral glucose tolerance test Goal of treatment: normalize or reduce GH secretion and relieve or prevent complications related to tumor expansion Treatment of choice: transsphenoidal surgical removal of the GH-secreting adenoma Example of hypertrophy and hyperplasia

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

Which disorder is this? Thickening of the myocardium Most commonly inherited cardiac disorder Thickening of septal wall Outflow obstruction to the left ventricle outflow tract Risk factor for ventricular dysrhythmias and sudden death Caused by increased resistance to ventricular ejection Commonly seen in individuals with hypertension or valvular stenosis Symptoms: angina, syncope (temporary loss of consciousness caused by a fall in BP), dyspnea (difficult or labored breathing) on exertion, and palpations Signs: extra heart sounds and murmurs Diagnosed: echocardiography and cardiac catheterization Example of hypertrophy

bee sting allergy

Which disorder is this? Type I hypersensitivity reaction to bee sting Signs & Symptoms: edema, generalized hives, pruritus, and swelling in areas distal from the sting Systemic symptoms: flushing, sweating, dizziness, and headache Severe symptoms: GI (vomiting and stomach cramps), respiratory (tightness in the throat, wheezing, and difficulty breathing), and vascular (low BP and shock) Primary life-threatening symptoms result from contraction of respiratory tract smooth muscles Epinephrine binds to specific receptors on smooth muscles and reverses the effects of histamine resulting in muscle relaxation

compensatory hyperplasia

____________ ___________ is an adaptive mechanism that allows organs to regenerate. For example, after removing even 70% of liver mass, regeneration is complete in about 2 weeks.

anaphylaxis (anaphylactic shock)

Which disorder is this? Widespread hypersensitivity reaction Vasodilation and relative hypovolemia (decreased volume of circulating blood), leading to decreased perfusion and impaired cellular metabolism Begins with exposure of a sensitized individual to an allergen Initiate vigorous humoral immune response (hypersensitivity type I) IgE Signs & Symptoms: anxiety, dizziness, difficulty breathing, stridor (wheezing), pruritus with hives, swollen lips and tongue, abdominal cramps, and fall in BP

histaminase

Which enzyme degrades histamine and kallikrein?

kinase

Which enzyme degrades kinins?

carboxypeptidase

Which enzyme inactivates the toxic activities of C3a and C5a?

Compliment-mediated lysis

Which mechanism of Type II hypersensitivity does this describe? Antibody (IgM or IgG) react with an antigen on the surface of the cell, causing the complement cascade through the classical pathway. Formation of the membrane attack complex (C5-9) damages the membrane and may result in lysis of the cell.

Phagocytosis

Which mechanism of Type II hypersensitivity does this describe? Antibody may additionally activate complement, resulting in the deposition of C3b on the cell surface. Receptors on the macrophage recognize and bind opsonins (e.g., antibody or C3b) and increase phagocytosis of the target cell.

Antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC)

Which mechanism of Type II hypersensitivity does this describe? Antibody on the target cell is recognized by Fc receptors on the NK cells, which release toxic substances that destroy the target cell.

Anti-receptor antibodies

Which mechanism of Type II hypersensitivity does this describe? Causes the cell to malfunction. The antibody is usually directed against antigenic determinants associated with specific cell surface receptors. The antibody changes the function of the receptor by preventing interaction with their normal ligands, replacing the ligand and inappropriately stimulating the receptor, or destroying the receptor.

Neutrophil-mediated damage

Which mechanism of Type II hypersensitivity does this describe? The antibody may activate complement, resulting in the release of C3a and C5a, which are chemotactic for neutrophils, and the deposition of complement component C3b. Neutrophils are attracted, bind to the tissue through receptors for the Fc portion of antibody or for C3b, and release their granules onto the healthy tissue.

d

Which of the following immunoglobulins is matched with its appropriate role? a. IgA- allergic reactions b. IgD- in respiratory secretions c. IgG- first to challenge antigen d. IgM- first to challenge antigen

cytoskeleton

Which organelle serves these functions: "bone and muscle" of the cell. Composed of a network of protein filaments, including microtubules and actin filaments. Also forms cell extensions such as cilia and flagella

mitochondria

Which organelle serves these functions: Contains metabolic machinery necessary for cellular metabolism. The ETC is found within this organelle, which generates most of the cell's ATP.

nucleus

Which organelle serves these functions: Largest membrane bound organelle usually found at the center. cell division control and storage of genetic information

ribosomes

Which organelle serves these functions: Nucleoproteins that provide sites for cellular protein synthesis

vaults

Which organelle serves these functions: cytoplasmic ribonucleoproteins shaped liked octagonal barrels. Act as "trucks" shuttling molecules from the nucleus to elsewhere in the cell.

golgi complex

Which organelle serves these functions: network of smooth membranes and vesicles located near the nucleus. processes and packages proteins

endoplasmic reticulum

Which organelle serves these functions: network of tubular channels (cisternae) that extend throughout the outer nuclear membrane synthesis and transport of proteins and lipids

lysosomes

Which organelle serves these functions: sack-like structures originating from the golgi complex. Contain enzymes for digesting most cellular substances to their basic form. In the event of cellular energy, releases enzymes that cause cellular self-destruction.

peroxisomes

Which organelle serves these functions: similar to lysosomes, but contain oxidative enzymes (catalase, oxidase) that produce hydrogen peroxide. Reactions detoxify waste.

caveolae

Which organelle serves these functions: tiny indentations that can capture extracellular material and shuttle it inside/across the cell.

Trypanosoma

Which parasite causes sleeping sickness?

Hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) axis

Which physiologic stress system does this describe? Hypothalamus secretes corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH) Pituitary releases adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) adrenals secrete cortisol

immune system

Which physiologic stress system does this describe? Immune cells have receptors for products of stress response Stress increases endogenous opiate secretion to enhance or suppress immune cell function Serves as a signal organ to alert other systems of stimuli While the acute effects of stress on the immune system are generally beneficial (decreased initial inflammatory responses), there may be some anti-inflammatory effects primarily from cortisol release that leave the person more susceptible to infections.

Sympathetic nervous system (SNS)

Which physiologic stress system does this describe? fight or flight response (epinephrine and norepinephrine) rapidly released from 2 sources: directly from stress trigger or from adrenal medulla regulates cardiovascular, pulmonary, hepatic, skeletal muscle, and immune systems stimulates two classes of receptors: alpha-adrenergic receptors (1&2) and beta-adrenergic receptors (1&2)

fungal

Which type of infection is this describing? Cell walls composed of polysaccharides different from peptidoglycans of bacteria to resist action of bacterial cell wall inhibitors such as penicillin and cephalosporin. It can be superficial, deep, or opportunistic.

kinin

Which plasma protein system does this describe? Helps mediate inflammation response. Interacts with coagulation system. Initiated through activation of Hageman factor (factor XII) to XIIa. XIIa enzymatically activates 1st component of kinin system, prekallikrein. Final product is bradykinin which is produced from kininogen. Bradykinin causes dilation of blood vessels, induces pain, causes smooth muscle cell contraction, and increase vascular permeability.

complement

Which plasma protein system does this describe? consists of a large number of proteins that together constitute about 10% of the total circulating serum protein. Produces several factors that can destroy pathogens directly or can activate/increase the activity of many other components of the inflammatory and adaptive immune response. Can be activated by at least three different means, and its products have four functions: (1) opsonization (C3b) (2) anaphylatoxin activity resulting in mast cell degranulation (C3a, C5a) (3) leukocyte chemotaxis (C5a) (4) cell lysis (C5b-C9; membrane attack complex [MAC])

clotting

Which plasma protein system does this describe? full of fibrin and platelets and even some phagocytes. Group of plasma proteins that form blood clots. Can be activated through different pathways that converge and result in clot formation. Final product is fibrin. Clots (1) plug damaged vessels and stop bleeding (2) trap microorganisms and prevent their spread to adjacent tissues (3) provide framework for future repair and healing. Activated by substances released during tissue injury and infection, including collagen, proteinases, kallikrein, and plasmin, as well as bacterial products such as endotoxins

resistance/adaptation stage

Which stage of the GAS response does this describe? actions of adrenal hormones (result of HPA axis activation) energy mobilization and delivery (for fight or flight)

exhaustion stage

Which stage of the GAS response does this describe? if stress continues and adaptation is not successful it can lead to stress-related disorders from exhaustion of mediators or from chronic exposure to mediators

alarm stage

Which stage of the GAS response does this describe? recognition of environmental change and initial response stressor triggers the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) axis and sympathetic nervous system activation fight or flight (instead of rest and digest)

A

Which strain of viral hepatitis is this? Caused by 27-nm DNA virus. The most common route of transmission is fecal-oral, but also parenteral and sexual. Antibodies/antigens is the anti-HAV. Not severe, mild. Patho: hepatocyte injury caused by cellular immune responses (t-cells, NK cells, and cytokines Treatment: It is not chronic but must be incubated for at least 30 days. Given immune globulin within 2 weeks of exposure.

C

Which strain of viral hepatitis is this? Caused by 30- and 6-nm RNA virus. Route of transmission is parenteral, sexual, and across placenta. Antibodies/antigens is anti-HCV. Patho: hepatocyte injury caused by immune response, inflammation, and fibrosis leading to cirrhosis. Increases risk of HCC. Treatment: CHRONIC. Given combinations of antivirals, interferon-alpha, and peginterferon-alpha. Incubate for 35-60 days.

B

Which strain of viral hepatitis is this? Caused by 42nm DNA virus. Route of transmission is parental, sexual, and across the placenta. Antibodies/antigens is HBsAg, HBcAg, and HbeAg. Severe. Patho: viral replication coinfection with viral mutation, inflammation, and cellular necrosis. Increases risk of HCC. Treatment: CHRONIC. Given antivirals, interferon-alpha, peginterferon-alpha. Incubate for 60-180 days.

IL-10

Which type of IL is this? Anti-inflammatory Primarily produced by lymphocytes and suppresses the growth of other lymphocytes and the production of proinflammatory cytokines by macrophages, leading to the down-regulation of both inflammatory and acquired immune responses

IL-1

Which type of IL is this? Pro-inflammatory Activates monocytes, other macrophages, and lymphocytes> enhances both innate and acquired immunity, and acts as a growth factors for many cells. Causes several effects on neutrophils: induction of proliferation (resulting in an increase in the number of circulating neutrophils), attraction to an inflammatory site (chemotaxis), and increased cellular respiration and lysosomal enzyme activity (both effects resulting in increased cellular killing of bacteria). Endogenous pyrogen and affects the body's thermostat.

IL-6

Which type of IL is this? Produced by macrophages, lymphocytes, fibroblasts, and other cells. Directly induces hepatocytes (liver cells) to produce many of the proteins needed in inflammation. Also stimulates growth and differentiation of blood cells in the bone marrow and the growth of fibroblasts (required for wound healing)

biochemical

Which type of barrier is this? low temp and low pH generally inhibit microorganisms substances secreted by epithelial cells that protect against infection, including mucus, perspiration, saliva, tears, and earwax

physical

Which type of barrier is this? they cover the external parts of the body and offer considerable protection from damage and infection. Composed of tightly associated epithelial cells of the skin and linings of the gastrointestinal, genitourinary, and respiratory tracts. Cells of the respiratory tract have cilia that help trap and remove pathogens upward to be expelled.

mechanical

Which type of barrier is this? when pathogens try to penetrate the physical barrier, they may be removed by mechanical means- sloughed off with dead skin as they are routinely replaced, expelled by coughing or sneezing, vomited from the stomach, or flushed from the urinary tract by urine

eukaryotic

Which type of cell does this describe: Larger, multicellular, with membrane bound organelles such as mitochondria, golgi apparatus, chloroplasts, etc. Have a distinct nucleus with DNA packages into multiple chromosomes. Examples are plants, animals, algae, fungi, and protozoa

prokaryotic

Which type of cell does this describe: Small, unicellular, with no membrane-bound organelles. Nuclei carries information in a single circular chromosome. Examples are bacteria, cyanobacteria, and rickettsiae

monocytes

Which type of cell involved in the inflammatory response is this? Largest normal blood cells that are produced in the bone marrow, enter circulation and migrate to the inflammatory site where they develop into macrophages. Also precursors of specific tissue macrophages like Kupffer cells (liver) that are important initial mediators of the inflammatory response.

NK cell (natural killer cell)

Which type of cell involved in the inflammatory response is this? Main function is recognition and elimination of cells infected with viruses, also somewhat effective at elimination of other abnormal cells (cancer) Have inhibitory and activating receptors that allow differentiation between infected/tumor and normal cells. Binds to target cells and releases several cytokines and toxic molecules that kill the infected cell.

granulocytes

Which type of cell involved in the inflammatory response is this? Release histamine, chemotactic factors, and cytokines. Most common leukocytes classified by the type of strains needed to visualize enzyme-containing granules in their cytoplasm: basophils, eosinophils, and neutrophils. These cells are released to destroy cellular debris and infectious agents.

lymphocytes

Which type of cell involved in the inflammatory response is this? a type of wbc Activate macrophages and initiate specific, protective immune responses against pathogens and cancer. (B and T cells)

platelets

Which type of cell involved in the inflammatory response is this? anucleate cytoplasmic fragments formed from megakaryocytes Circulate in bloodstream until vascular injury occurs resulting in activation. They interact with components of the coagulation cascade to stop bleeding, degranulate, releasing biochemical mediators such as serotonin and synthesize thromboxane A2 from prostaglandin H2. Also release growth factors that promote wound healing

contractures

Which type of dysfunctional wound healing is this? Happens when too much scar tissue developed over a joint to where it can no longer move or expand. Burns of skin are susceptible.

dehiscence

Which type of dysfunctional wound healing is this? Opening of a wound. Occurs from infection or excessive strain; obesity increases risk. Complications of wounds that are sutured closed, in which the wound pulls apart at the suture line. Generally, occurs 5-12 days after suturing, when collagen synthesis is at its peak.

keloid

Which type of dysfunctional wound healing is this? Scars go too far, too big, thick and reddish Caused by dysfunctional collagen synthesis, which may involve excessive production of collagen. Raised scar that extends beyond the original boundaries of the wound, invades surrounding tissue, and is likely to recur after surgical removal. Familial tendency, with greater incidence in POC, especially Black people

type I

Which type of hypersensitive reaction are these? bee sting allergy asthma seasonal allergies anaphylaxis

type IV

Which type of hypersensitive reaction are these? contact sensitivity hashimoto's thyroiditis

type II

Which type of hypersensitive reaction are these? grave's disease blood transfusion reaction systemic lupus

type III

Which type of hypersensitive reaction causes systemic lupus erythematosus besides type II?

Type IV

Which type of hypersensitivity are these examples of? hypothyroidism, poison ivy, transplant rejection, tuberculosis, contact dermatitis

Type II

Which type of hypersensitivity reaction does this describe: *Tissue-specific* antigens: expressed on the plasma membranes of only certain cells. Symptoms are determined by which tissue or organ expresses the particular antigen. There are 5 mechanisms that can affect cells: Compliment-mediated lysis Phagocytosis Neutrophil-mediated damage Antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC) Anti-receptor antibodies

Type I

Which type of hypersensitivity reaction does this describe: IgE-mediated When an antigen reacts to IgE, mast cells start to degranulate and release histamine. Acting through H1 receptors, histamine contracts bronchial smooth muscles, increases vascular permeability, and causes vasodilation. Blocking histamine receptors w/ antihistamines can control some responses. Most allergic and anaphylactic reactions are this type of hypersensitivity. Clinical manifestations: itching, angioedema, edema of larynx, hives, bronchospasm, hypotension, and dysrhythmias.

Type III

Which type of hypersensitivity reaction does this describe: Immune Complex-Mediated Antibody binds to soluble antigen that was released into the blood or body fluids, and the complex is then deposited in the tissue. Usually autoimmune disorders. Harful effects are caused by complement activation and by neutrophils attempting to phagocytize the immune complexes. Not organ-specific, and symptoms are mostly unrelated to the particular antigenic target of the antibody. Can be systemic (serum sickness), localized/cutaneous (Arthus reaction)

Type IV

Which type of hypersensitivity reaction does this describe: cell-mediated Mediated by T lymphocytes and do not involve antibodies. Occur through cytotoxic T lymphocytes or lymphokine-producing Th1 and Th7 cells. T cells attack and destroy cellular targets directly Th1 and Th7 cells: produce cytokines that recruit and activate phagocytic cells, especially macrophages.

Type I

Which type of hypersensitivity reactions are these? bee sting allergy, asthma, anaphylaxis, allergic rhinitis

humoral

Which type of immunity is this? Antibodies circulate in the blood and defend against extracellular antigens, such as microbes and microbial toxins. B-cells

cell-mediated

Which type of immunity is this? Effector T cells (activated helper t-cells) are found in the blood and tissues and defend against intracellular pathogens (e.g., viruses) and abnormal cells, such as cancer cells.

active

Which type of immunity is this? Naturally acquired after exposure to a disease or antigen Artificially acquired from a vaccination/immunization long-term

passive

Which type of immunity is this? Naturally acquired passed from mother to fetus/newborn either across the placenta or breast milk or from being exposed to an infectious agent like rabies virus Artificially acquired comes from receiving antibodies by injection (ex. Rabies shot) short-term

natural (innate)

Which type of immunity is this? first line of defense. It contains natural barriers and inflammation. Defense mechanisms that are present at birth and provide the initial response to invasion and injury. Nonspecific. Short-lived. Ex. passed to baby through breast milk

bacterial

Which type of infection is this describing? Survival and growth depend on the effectiveness of the body's defense mechanisms and on the invading organism's ability to resist them. Growth in biofilms offers survival advantage by protection from host's responses and exposure to antibiotics. Avoid innate immunity by producing inhibitors of antimicrobial peptides and avoid recognition of toll-like receptors. Use toxins as virulence factors: exotoxins (secreted toxic molecules) and endotoxins (present inside cell and released during growth, lysis, or destruction or during treatment with antibiotics). Can become antibiotic resistant (S. aureus producing B-lactamase to destroy penicillin)

viral

Which type of infection is this describing? The life cycle: Attachment to receptor, penetration, uncoating, replication, assembly (new virions), and release (by lysis of cell or budding). Dependent on host cells"obligatory intracellular microbes" Simple organism- nucleic acid (RNA or DNA) protected by protein layers (capsid) replicate rapidly Spreads cell to cell Usually a self-limiting infection Common examples: chickenpox, encephalitis, herpes, HIV/AIDS, viral hepatitis, mononucleosis, mumps, viral gastroenteritis, viral pneumonia, viral meningitis, flu

parasitic

Which type of infection is this describing? microorganisms form a relationship with a host and benefit at the host's expense

B lymphocytes (B cells)

Which type of lymphocyte produces antibodies?

T lymphocytes (T cells)

Which type of lymphocyte regulates other immune cells and kills viruses and cancer cells?

primary intention

Which type of tissue healing is this? Clean incision, such as a paper cut or a sutured surgical wound, heals primarily through the process of collage synthesis. Minimal tissue loss and close apposition of the wound edges, very little sealing (epithelialization) and shrinkage (contraction) are required.

secondary intention

Which type of tissue healing is this? Do not heal as easily. Healing of an open wound, such as stage IV pressure ulcer (decubitus ulcer), requires a great deal of tissue replacement so that epithelialization, scar formation, and contraction take longer.

liquefactive

___________ necrosis commonly results from ischemic injury to neurons and glial cells in the brain. Dead brain tissue is readily subjected to ^ because brain cells are rich in digestive hydrolytic enzymes and lipids and the brain contains little connective tissue. Cells are digested by their own hydrolases as the tissue becomes soft and liquefied. In response, cysts form segregating this material from healthy tissue. Often triggered by bacterial infection, especially staphylococci, streptococci, and Escherichia coli.

acute

_____ inflammation: beneficial- inhibits initial response affecting BP

fatty

_____ necrosis is cellular dissolution caused by lipases, potent enzymes found in the breast and abdominal structures, especially within the pancreas. Lipases break down triglycerides, releasing free fatty acids. The fatty acids combine with calcium, magnesium, and sodium ions creating soaps, a process known as saponification. The necrotic tissue formed appears opaque and chalky white.

muscle

_____ tissue is full of contractile fibers that enable voluntary and involuntary movements.

nerve

_____ tissues are composed of neurons that transmit electrical signals and glial cells.

disuse atrophy

______ _______ happens when muscle shrinks when limb is placed in a cast or prolonged bed rest causes muscles to shrink from disuse

chronic stress

_______ _______ on the body may cause: persistent immune deregulation chronic inflammatory processes- osteoporosis, arthritis, type I diabetes, copd, cardiovascular disease decreased natural killer and t-cell cytoxicity impaired b-cell function primary tumor growth, metastasis of tumors burnout in children it can lead to increased risk of later disease

chronic

_______ inflammation: harmful cortisol (prolonged effect): -proinflammatory -suppresses humoral and cellular immunity Catecholamines (prolonged effect): -proinflammatory effects and counteract PNS

caseous

_______ necrosis commonly results from pulmonary tuberculosis or infection caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis. It combines elements of both coagulative and liquefactive necrosis. Dead cells disintegrate, but the debris is not completely hydrolyzed. Instead a granulomatous inflammatory response ensues. Soft and granular tissues form the end-product, resembling clumped cheese. An inflammatory wall encloses the areas forming the characteristic granulomas of pulmonary tuberculosis.

contact-dependent

_______-_________ signaling requires cells to be in close membrane-to-membrane contact.

cellular injury

________ ______ that can occur as a result of hypoxia: Hypoxia negatively impacts normal physiologic processes: differentiation, angiogenesis, proliferation, erythropoiesis, and overall cell viability. Mitochondria are the primary consumers of oxygen. Hypoxia triggers the mitochondrial complex to produce reactive oxygen species (ROS). The relationship between hypoxia and inflammation has been linked to inflammatory bowel disease, certain cancers, and infection.

ischemia reperfusion injuries (IRI)

________ ___________ _______ occur after period of hypoxia and restoration can cause injuries to cells. This includes oxidative stress.

hormonal hyperplasia

________ ___________ occurs in organs that respond to endocrine hormonal stimulation. Examples are female breast tissue during puberty.

cortisol

________ is the primary product of the HPA axis that results from the stress response. Any part of this pathway that blocks or interferes with this process will limit or prevent production thus the body's ability to effectively deal with acute stress. Regulates arousal, cognition, mood, sleep, metabolism, cardiovascular tone, growth, and reproduction. It stimulates glucogenesis and elevated blood glucose level. Affects protein metabolism. Powerful anti-inflammatory and immunosuppressive agent.

hormonal

________ signaling involves specialized endocrine cells that secrete chemicals called hormones; hormones are released by one set of cells and travel through the bloodstream to produce a response in other sets of cells

endotoxic shock

_________ ____ results from a severe, generalized inflammatory response induced by bloodstream infection with gram-negative bacteria.

dysplastic

__________ changes are common in the epithelial tissue of the uterine cervix, endometrium, and GI/respiratory tract mucosa. If it does not involve entire thickness of epithelium it could be reversible. Can be described as "low grade" or "high grade".

connective

__________ tissue binds various tissues and organs together.

epithelial

__________ tissue lines the body, protects, absorbs, transports and secretes.

intentional

___________ injuries- on purpose. murder, suicide. Ranks in between 2-4th leading cause of death for people ages 1-34)

coagulative

___________ necrosis occurs as a result of protein denaturation, where albumin is transformed from a gelatinous, transparent state into a firm, opaque substance. The area is called an infarct.

pathogenesis

____________ of AIDS Starts as a viral infection. HIV impairs the body's immune system by destroying/ altering the function of CD4+ T cells (responsible for the development of plasma cells and cytotoxic cells). As a result, the body's ability to develop immune responses to pathogens and opportunistic microorganisms is depressed and AIDS is developed. It is notoriously a Retrovirus, meaning the virus inserts a copy of its RNA genome in a cell and changes the genome of the cell. HIV/AIDS is just like any virus except that it uses reverse transcriptase to rapidly replicate itself within a host's cell.

opportunistic infections

_____________ __________ happen when the normal flora is damaged or decreased by use of broad spectrum antibiotics. The normal flora is antibacterial and prevents colonization by pathogenic microorganisms. When the normal flora is decreased, so is its protective activity, and this can lead to an overgrowth of pathogenic microorganisms

unintentional

_____________ injuries- accidental. car accidents, drowning, medical errors. Leading cause of death for people ages 1-34.

neuroendocrine stress response

______________ ______ ________: Initiation: Stress → hypothalamus → corticotropin releasing hormone (CRH) CRH → sympathetic nervous system → Epinephrine and Norepinephrine (Catecholamines) CRH → Anterior pituitary → Adrenocorticotropic releasing hormone (ACTH) ACTH → Adrenal glands → Cortisol Resolution: Adaptation through stabilizing the body and returning it to homeostasis Exhaustion: Body cannot be returned to homeostasis, causing stress related disorder

norepinephrine, epinephrine

chronic stress-induced release of ______________ and ___________ may cause: plaque formation in blood vessels myocardial infarction (heart-attack), stroke "sickness syndrome" autoimmune disorders

cortisol

chronic, abnormal elevations of ________ may cause: obesity, sleep deprivation, lipid abnormalities, hypertension, diabetes, atherosclerosis, and loss of bone density as well as cognitive impairments, emotional disorders, and gastric ulcers

anabolism

energy-using process of metabolism is called _________

helminths

hookworm, roundworm, flukes, tapeworms are examples of _________

antibiotic resistant diseases

implications of __________ _________ ________ such as tuberculosis and gonorrhea The lack of compliance from patients to complete an antibiotic regimen, overuse of antibiotics by patients, and the use of antibiotics in the meat industry can contribute to the selective resurgence and overgrowth of antibiotic-resistant microorganisms. Antibiotic resistance to a single antibiotic has rapidly progressed to multiple-antibiotic resistance. In the case of gonorrhea, the enzyme that the AB is supposed to target has been altered, making the AB ineffective against the bacteria.

oxidative, ER, heat shock response, DNA damage response, mental, inflammation, osmotic

list major mechanisms of cell stress from chemical agents.

catabolism

the energy-releasing process of metabolism is known as __________