Patho Final 3

A client experiencing nervousness asks the nurse why escitalopram was prescribed. Which response should the nurse provide the client? 1. "The same brain chemicals are involved with anxiety and depression." 2. "You are really depressed; it is just manifested as anxiety. These medications are safer than benzodiazepines." 3. "Your doctor thinks that this is the best treatment for your anxiety, and these medications are safer than benzodiazepines." 4. "The two disorders are similar, and if you treat depression, the anxiety goes away."

1. "The same brain chemicals are involved with anxiety and depression."

A client asks the nurse why he or she is prescribed different types of medications for his or her anxiety and insomnia. Which response should the nurse provide the client? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. 1. "You will be taking medications known as sedative-hypnotics." 2. "You will be taking medications known as antidepressants." 3. "You will be taking a medication known as paraldehyde." 4. "You will be taking medications known as barbiturates." 5. "You will be taking medications known as benzodiazepines."

1. "You will be taking medications known as sedative-hypnotics." 2. "You will be taking medications known as antidepressants." 5. "You will be taking medications known as benzodiazepines."

The nurse has provided education for a patient with depression. Which statement made by the patient indicates an understanding of the teaching? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. 1. "Depression has many causes which include brain-based disorders." 2. "Depression can be an inherited illness." 3. "We really don't know what causes depression." 4. "Depression results from unresolved conflicts in your childhood." 5. "Depression results from parental neglect."

1. "Depression has many causes which include brain-based disorders." 2. "Depression can be an inherited illness."

A parent of a child pharmacologically treated for ADHD asks the nurse to explain a "drug holiday." Which information should the nurse provide about the treatment option? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. 1. "Drug holidays may be used to reduce dependence on medications or to assess symptoms." 2. "If you feel like the medication is sedating your child too much, you can hold doses for up to 3 or 4 days." 3. "Drug holidays are used when the dosage will be increased to assess the patient's tolerance to the prescription." 4. "You should not consider using a drug holiday until you have discussed that option with your healthcare provider." 5. "Drug holidays require careful scheduling."

1. "Drug holidays may be used to reduce dependence on medications or to assess symptoms." 4. "You should not consider using a drug holiday until you have discussed that option with your healthcare provider." 5. "Drug holidays require careful scheduling."

Which information should the nurse provide the client that asks how glaucoma develops? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. 1. "Having diabetes is a risk factor in the development of glaucoma." 2. "Glaucoma exists when the pressure in your eye is high enough to cause optic nerve damage." 3. "High blood pressure can certainly lead to the development of glaucoma." 4. "A history of hyperthyroidism is a risk factor in the development of glaucoma." 5. "Drugs like antihistamines and antidepressants can contribute to glaucoma."

1. "Having diabetes is a risk factor in the development of glaucoma." 2. "Glaucoma exists when the pressure in your eye is high enough to cause optic nerve damage." 3. "High blood pressure can certainly lead to the development of glaucoma." 5. "Drugs like antihistamines and antidepressants can contribute to glaucoma."

The nurse is preparing to assess an older adult for depression. Which questions should the nurse include in the assessment? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. 1. "How often do you go out to socialize with friends?" 2. "Can you tell me about your self-care activities." 3. "How much alcohol do you consume every day?" 4. "How is living with your oldest daughter and her family working out for you?" 5. "Are you feeling depressed?"

1. "How often do you go out to socialize with friends?" 2. "Can you tell me about your self-care activities." 3. "How much alcohol do you consume every day?" 4. "How is living with your oldest daughter and her family working out for you?"

The nurse has completed the education for a client prescribed timolol (Timoptic). Which statement made by the client indicates an understanding of the information? 1. "I understand I may experience blurred vision after administering the prescription." 2. "I will store my drops in the refrigerator and make sure it is room temperature before instilling the drops." 3. "I will restrict my caffeine to one cup of coffee per day." 4. "I will discontinue the drops if my eyes appear reddened."

1. "I understand I may experience blurred vision after administering the prescription."

Which statements indicate a client understands the diagnosis of open-angle glaucoma? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. 1. "My eye cannot drain the fluid that it produces." 2. "One of the first signs of this is pain behind my eyes." 3. "My type of glaucoma is a medical emergency." 4. "This is a gradual process; it may take years to develop." 5. "This is the most common kind of glaucoma."

1. "My eye cannot drain the fluid that it produces." 4. "This is a gradual process; it may take years to develop." 5. "This is the most common kind of glaucoma."

The nurse has completed group education for clients with anxiety disorders. Which statement made be a client indicates an understanding of the education? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. 1. "Relaxation techniques will often decrease anxiety." 2. "Antianxiety medicine should be used until anxiety is gone." 3. "Antianxiety medicine should not be used indefinitely." 4. "Therapy may help identify where this anxiety comes from." 5. "Different medications are required for treating anxiety than for treating difficulty sleeping."

1. "Relaxation techniques will often decrease anxiety." 3. "Antianxiety medicine should not be used indefinitely." 4. "Therapy may help identify where this anxiety comes from."

A client ask the nurse which part of the brain controls anxiety and insomnia. Which response should the nurse provide? 1. "The limbic system and reticular activating system control anxiety and insomnia." 2. "The frontal lobes and limbic system control anxiety and insomnia." 3. "The thalamus and reticular activating system control anxiety and insomnia." 4. "The limbic system and hypothalamus control anxiety and insomnia."

1. "The limbic system and reticular activating system control anxiety and insomnia."

Which is most often associated with otitis media? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. 1. Allergies 2. Asthma 3. Colds 4. Lower respiratory infections 5. Auditory tube irritations

1. Allergies 5. Auditory tube irritations

Which client should the nurse be most concerned with taking benzodiazepines? 1. An 87-year-old client who uses a cane for ambulation 2. A 9-year-old child with panic attacks 3. A 42-year-old businessman who travels internationally 4. A 32-year-old mother of two preschool children

1. An 87-year-old client who uses a cane for ambulation

Which condition should the nurse be concerned about for a client prescribed betaadrenergic blocker ophthalmic drops for the treatment of glaucoma? 1. Asthma 2. Diabetes mellitus 3. Pancreatitis 4. Duodenal ulcer

1. Asthma

A client asks the nurse which types of therapies are most helpful for depression. Which therapies should the nurse plan to discuss with the client? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. 1. Behavioral therapy 2. Interpersonal therapy 3. Cognitive-behavioral therapy 4. Psychodynamic therapy 5. Crisis therapy

1. Behavioral therapy 2. Interpersonal therapy 3. Cognitive-behavioral therapy 4. Psychodynamic therapy

Which best describes open-angle glaucoma? 1. Bilateral with a slow onset 2. Less common than closed-angle glaucoma 3. Accompanied by eye pain 4. Unilateral with a rapid onset

1. Bilateral with a slow onset

A client is brought to the emergency department suspected of overdosing on imipramine (Tofranil). Which is the nurse's priority assessment? 1. Cardiac function 2. Liver function 3. Renal function 4. Neurological function

1. Cardiac function

The nurse has provided discharge teaching for a client prescribed a mydriatic drug. Which statement made by the client indicates further teaching is required? 1. "I may have periods of blurry vision for several days." 2. "I will wear sunglasses while I am outside." 3. "I will not drive until this drug wears off." 4. "I will use artificial tears if my eyes feel dry."

4. "I will use artificial tears if my eyes feel dry."

Which symptoms should the nurse assess a client for who is at risk for mania? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. 1. Decreased sleep 2. Weight loss 3. Sluggish activity 4. Muscle pain 5. Increased talkativeness

1. Decreased sleep 2. Weight loss 5. Increased talkativeness

A client asks the nurse what causes bipolar disorder. Which neurotransmitters should the nurse include when discussing the manic phase of the disorder? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. 1. Excessive glutamate 2. Excessive norepinephrine 3. Deficiency of gamma-aminobutyric acid 4. Deficiency of dopamine 5. Excessive serotonin

1. Excessive glutamate 2. Excessive norepinephrine 3. Deficiency of gamma-aminobutyric acid

A client tells the nurse that he or she worries about everything all day, feels confused, restless. Which should the nurse suspect the client is experiencing? 1. Generalized anxiety 2. Social anxiety 3. Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) 4. Panic disorder

1. Generalized anxiety

A client who has been taking lorazepam (Ativan) for 2 years presents to the clinic and tells the nurse that he or she stopped taking his or her medication 3 days prior. Which assessment findings should the nurse anticipate? 1. Increased heart rate, fever, and muscle cramps 2. Nothing different; it is safe to abruptly stop lorazepam (Ativan) 3. Pinpoint pupils, constipation, and urinary retention 4. A sense of calmness and lack of anxiety

1. Increased heart rate, fever, and muscle cramps

The nurse has provided client education about the treatment for open-angle glaucoma. Which statement made by the client indicates an understanding of the information? 1. "The eyedrops are only required if I feel discomfort in my eyes." 2. "The strength of the prescription will continue to be increased." 3. "I can stop the eyedrops when the glaucoma has resolved." 4. "I will have to use eyedrops for the rest of my life."

4. "I will have to use eyedrops for the rest of my life."

Which classification of drugs should the nurse anticipate to be administered for a client requiring an eye exam? 1. Mydriatics 2. Vasoconstrictors 3. Prostaglandins 4. Beta-adrenergic blockers

1. Mydriatics

Which should the nurse recognize is a benefit of obtaining a thorough history from a client who is experiencing anxiety? 1. Pharmacotherapy can be prescribed. 2. The type of counseling can be prescribed based on the history. 3. The category of anxiety disorder can be identified. 4. The treatment plan can be created.

1. Pharmacotherapy can be prescribed.

Which area of the brain is primarily responsible for maintaining sleep and wakefulness? 1. Reticular activating system 2. Cerebral cortex 3. Limbic system 4. Cerebellum

1. Reticular activating system

A client has taken different prescriptions over the past two years that have been unsuccessful in treating his or her insomnia. Which condition should the nurse suspect the client may be experiencing? 1. Sleep apnea 2. Anxiety disorder 3. Addiction 4. Personality disorder

1. Sleep apnea

Which assessment findings should the nurse anticipate if a client is diagnosed with posttraumatic stress disorder? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. 1. Tachycardia 2. Panic attacks 3. Inability to focus 4. A fear of exposure to germs 5. Hallucinations

1. Tachycardia 2. Panic attacks 3. Inability to focus 5. Hallucinations

Which assessment findings should the nurse associated with a risk for suicide? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. 1. The client states that "suicide is always an option." 2. The client describes a previous unsuccessful attempt at suicide by aspirin overdose. 3. The client states that the prescribed medication is not working and that feelings of depression are worse. 4. The client requests prescriptions for pain medication and a sleeping aid. 5. The client expresses interest in meeting with friends more often.

1. The client states that "suicide is always an option." 2. The client describes a previous unsuccessful attempt at suicide by aspirin overdose. 3. The client states that the prescribed medication is not working and that feelings of depression are worse. 4. The client requests prescriptions for pain medication and a sleeping aid.

A client presents to the clinic with symptoms of hyperthermia and diaphoresis. The client's prescription history includes escitalopram (Lexapro), St. John's wort, levothyroxine, and acetaminophen. Which should the nurse suspect has occurred? 1. The patient may be experiencing serotonin syndrome. 2. The patient may have contracted a virus. 3. The patient may be experiencing withdrawal. 4. The patient may be experiencing thyroid toxicosis.

1. The patient may be experiencing serotonin syndrome.

A client asks the nurse how dipivefrin (Propine) will decrease their IOP. Which information should the nurse provide? 1. The prescription will dilate the pupil increasing the outflow of the aqueous humor. 2. The prescription will lower IOP by enhancing the outflow of aqueous humor. 3. The prescription will decrease the production of aqueous humor. 4. The prescription acts by decreasing the production of aqueous humor by the ciliary body.

1. The prescription will dilate the pupil increasing the outflow of the aqueous humor.

The nurse has completed the education for a client prescribed lithium (Eskalith). Which should the nurse anticipate is a priority outcome of the treatment? 1. The client will be able to work a normal work schedule and will receive adequate sleep. 2. The client will identify signs of lithium (Eskalith) toxicity and verbalize measures to avoid it. 3. The client will engage in activities of daily living and report enjoyment with them. 4. The client will report stabilization of mood, including absence of mania or depression.

2. The client will identify signs of lithium (Eskalith) toxicity and verbalize measures to avoid it.

The nurse is providing client teaching about the side effects of amitriptyline (Elavil). Which information should the nurse include in the teaching to promote prescription adherence? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. 1. Use ice chips to help alleviate dry mouth. 2. Chew gum or use hard candy to help alleviate dry mouth. 3. Avoid alcohol-based mouthwash to help alleviate dry mouth. 4. Use "dry eye" drops to help with eye dryness. 5. Request the pharmacist to fill the prescription from a different manufacturer.

1. Use ice chips to help alleviate dry mouth. 2. Chew gum or use hard candy to help alleviate dry mouth. 3. Avoid alcohol-based mouthwash to help alleviate dry mouth. 4. Use "dry eye" drops to help with eye dryness.

Which testing should the nurse schedule the client for 2 months after pharmacotherapy has begun to treat open-angle glaucoma? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. 1. Visual field changes 2. Dilation of the pupils 3. Light refraction 4. Intraocular pressure 5. Slit lamp exam

1. Visual field changes 4. Intraocular pressure

The nurse is preparing the education for a client prescribed a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRI). Which adverse effects should the nurse include in the teaching? 1. Drowsiness and coma 2. Weight gain and sexual dysfunction 3. Headache and nausea 4. Dry mouth and urine retention

2. Weight gain and sexual dysfunction

A client with anxiety and insomnia asks the nurse about the benefits of treatment with a benzodiazepine. Which response should the nurse provide the client? 1. "Benzodiazepines are the most effective." 2. "Benzodiazepines have the lowest risk of dependency and tolerance." 3. "Benzodiazepines are most likely to be covered under insurance premiums." 4. "Benzodiazepines are most affordable."

2. "Benzodiazepines have the lowest risk of dependency and tolerance."

The nurse has completed the education for a client prescribed buspirone (BuSpar). Which statement made by the client indicates further teaching is required? 1. "The side effects I might experience include dizziness, headache, and drowsiness." 2. "I can take this prescription when I feel anxious and it will relax me." 3. "This prescription should be taken on a regular basis for it to help me." 4. "I don't need to worry about becoming dependent on this prescription."

2. "I can take this prescription when I feel anxious and it will relax me."

Which statements made by a client indicate that they may be experiencing closed-angle glaucoma? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. 1. "My vision has gotten worse over time." 2. "I have a headache that will not go away." 3. "I see hallows around bright lights." 4. "I have been experiencing a dull pain in my eyes." 5. "My eyes are so blood shot."

2. "I have a headache that will not go away." 3. "I see hallows around bright lights." 4. "I have been experiencing a dull pain in my eyes." 5. "My eyes are so blood shot."

A client asks the nurse what swimmer's ear is. Which information should the nurse include in the discussion? 1. "The fluid is trapped in the middle ear." 2. "It is an inflammation of your external auditory canal." 3. "The infection is behind the tympanic membrane." 4. "There is fluid in the vestibule of the inner ear."

2. "It is an inflammation of your external auditory canal."

Which nonpharmacological interventions should the nurse recommend for a client who is having difficulty sleeping? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. 1. "Make certain your bedroom is nice and warm." 2. "There are alternative methods to treat insomnia, such as yoga, meditation, and massage therapy." 3. "Eating a large meal at bedtime will help induce sleep." 4. "Avoid caffeinated beverages, nicotine, and alcohol immediately prior to bedtime." 5. "Play your favorite type of music when you go to sleep."

2. "There are alternative methods to treat insomnia, such as yoga, meditation, and massage therapy." 4. "Avoid caffeinated beverages, nicotine, and alcohol immediately prior to bedtime."

A client tells the nurse that the timolol (Timoptic) eyedrops sting their eyes. Which response should the nurse provide the client? 1. "Hold the next dose and contact your healthcare provider." 2. "This is a normal and expected effect of the drops." 3. "Your eyedrops may have expired; check the date." 4. "You should flush your eyes immediately with saline."

2. "This is a normal and expected effect of the drops."

A client prescribed lithium (Eskalith) asks the nurse why they should continue to use salt. Which response should the nurse provide the client? 1. "You should use sea salt to avoid lithium (Eskalith) toxicity. 2. "You must use table salt or your kidneys will retain lithium (Eskalith), and you will become toxic." 3. "The amount of salt is not important; just increase your table salt if you notice signs of lithium (Eskalith) toxicity." 4. "Salt is very important to avoid lithium (Eskalith) toxicity, but not as important as drinking 1 to 1.5 L of water per day."

2. "You must use table salt or your kidneys will retain lithium (Eskalith), and you will become toxic."

Which statement best explains the action of the prescriptions used to treat attentiondeficit/ hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)? 1. Neurotransmitters are blocked, limiting the effects they can produce within the PNS. 2. Activation of certain areas of the brain causes increased attention and ability to focus. 3. Neurotransmitter levels are reduced, which produces a calming effect within the CNS. 4. Certain areas of the brain are deactivated, resulting in a calming effect.

2. Activation of certain areas of the brain causes increased attention and ability to focus.

Which statement regarding the use of zolpidem (Ambien) for insomnia is accurate? 1. Clients using Ambien should avoid foods that contain tyramine. 2. Ambien will take longer to produce an effect when taken with food. 3. Ambien is contraindicated during pregnancy but can be taken by breastfeeding mothers. 4. Ambien is classified as a benzodiazepine.

2. Ambien will take longer to produce an effect when taken with food.

Which statement is accurate regarding attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)? 1. ADHD is characterized by periods of mania and periods of depression. 2. Anxiety and social withdrawal are more frequently seen in girls than in boys. 3. There is a higher incidence of ADHD in girls than in boys. 4. ADHD is generally diagnosed later in life.

2. Anxiety and social withdrawal are more frequently seen in girls than in boys.

Which should the nurse monitor the client for who has experienced a significant systemic absorption of Timolol (Betimol)? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. 1. Blurred vision 2. Dysrhythmias 3. Hypertension 4. Hypotension 5. Hyperglycemia

2. Dysrhythmias 4. Hypotension

Which findings should the nurse discuss with the prescriber prior to administering a client prescribed brinzolamide (Azopt)? 1. The client is a vegetarian. 2. The client is allergic to sulfa. 3. The client has a history of atopic dermatitis. 4. The client's father had a myocardial infarction at age 35.

2. The client is allergic to sulfa.

Which describes the mechanism of action of prostaglandin analogs used for the treatment of intraocular pressure? 1. Produce miosis, constriction of the pupil, and contraction of the ciliary muscle 2. Enhance the outflow of aqueous humor 3. Decreasing the production of aqueous humor by the ciliary body 4. Decrease the formation of aqueous humor by reducing the plasma volume

2. Enhance the outflow of aqueous humor

The patient has bipolar disorder and is in a manic phase. The physician prescribes lithium (Eskalith). The client's current lithium level is 0.4. Which assessment findings should the nurse anticipate? 1. A return to baseline behavior 2. Hyperactivity and pressured speech 3. Signs and symptoms of depression 4. A decrease in manic behavior

2. Hyperactivity and pressured speechJ

Which information should the nurse include in the education for a client prescribed eye drops for glaucoma? 1. Keep the lights dim after administration to avoid light sensitivity. 2. Instill the drops into the conjunctival sack and lacrimal duct area. 3. Hold pressure for 5 minutes to prevent leakage into the nasopharynx. 4. Avoid wearing contact lenses until treatment is completed.

2. Instill the drops into the conjunctival sack and lacrimal duct area.

A client has been in the intensive care unit for a week receiving various procedures throughout the day and night. Currently the client, though physiologically stable, is irritable and paranoid and complains of vivid dreams when dozing off to sleep. Which are the best actions for the nurse to take at this time? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. 1. Check the client's oxygen status. 2. Request a prescription for a sleep hypnotic. 3. Assess the client's vital signs. 4. Turn down the lights at night and reduce noise to a minimum. 5. Schedule all tests and procedures before 9 p.m. or after 7 a.m.

2. Request a prescription for a sleep hypnotic. 4. Turn down the lights at night and reduce noise to a minimum. 5. Schedule all tests and procedures before 9 p.m. or after 7 a.m.

Which symptom does the nurse anticipate for a client who has experienced systemic absorption of cholinergic eye drops? 1. Bradycardia 2. Salivation 3. Hypotension 4. Tremors

2. Salivation

A client asks the nurse about bipolar disorder. Which response should the nurse provide? 1. "Bipolar disorder is just another type of depression, except the depression occurs in cycles." 2. "Bipolar disorder is a type of depression that includes attention deficit disorder symptoms." 3. "Bipolar disorder just means that the mood alternates with the seasons, and becomes worse in the winter." 4. "Bipolar disorder means you have cycles of depression as well as hyperactivity, or mania."

4. "Bipolar disorder means you have cycles of depression as well as hyperactivity, or mania."

A client asks the nurse if there are any over-the-counter herbs or nonprescription medications that can be used to improve insomnia. Which response should the nurse provide the client? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. 1. "Ginger root is commonly taken to improve sleep." 2. "Ginkgo is an herb commonly taken to improve sleep." 3. "Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) and doxylamine are over-the-counter meds sometimes taken to produce drowsiness." 4. "Valerian and melatonin are herbs commonly taken to improve sleep." 5. "Kava is an herb taken to improve sleep."

3. "Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) and doxylamine are over-the-counter meds sometimes taken to produce drowsiness." 4. "Valerian and melatonin are herbs commonly taken to improve sleep."

A parent tells the nurse they are concerned because their child is easily distracted in school, cannot complete assignments on time, and interrupts other children while they are speaking. Which response should the nurse provide the parent? 1. "This sounds like your child is depressed; depression looks different in children and is very serious." 2. "This sounds like bipolar disorder; you might want to have your child tested by a child psychiatrist." 3. "This could be attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD); you might want to have your child tested." 4. "This sounds like typical 7-year-old behaviors to me; if they do not resolve, have your child tested."

3. "This could be attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD); you might want to have your child tested."

A client asks the nurse to describe NREM stage 3 sleep. Which response should the nurse provide the client? 1. "This is the lightest stage of sleep and is profoundly affected by anxiety." 2. "Dreaming occurs here; without dreams you will be irritable and paranoid." 3. "This is the deepest stage of sleep; without it you will be tired and depressed." 4. "This is also called paradoxical sleep."

3. "This is the deepest stage of sleep; without it you will be tired and depressed."

The nurse is caring for a client suspected of having bipolar disorder. Which assessment findings that have occurred over the period of a week support the nurse's suspicion? 1. Difficulty sleeping, obsession with death, hallucinations 2. Delusions, unkempt appearance, fatigue 3. Abnormal eating patterns, feelings of despair, flight of ideas 4. Increased goal-directed behavior and talkativeness, distractibility

3. Abnormal eating patterns, feelings of despair, flight of ideas

Which should the nurse recognize are the traditionally prescribed drug classifications used to treat attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)? 1. CNS depressants 2. Parasympathomimetics 3. CNS stimulants 4. Sympathomimetics

3. CNS stimulants

Which is responsible for the secretion of aqueous humor? 1. Anterior chamber 2. Posterior chamber 3. Ciliary body 4. Canal of Schlemm

3. Ciliary body

A client presents to the emergency department suspected of overdosing on lorazepam (Ativan). Which prescription should the nurse prepare to administer? 1. Pralidoxime (Protopam) 2. Naloxone (Narcan) 3. Flumazenil (Romazicon) 4. Nalmefene (Revex)

3. Flumazenil (Romazicon)

Which assessment finding indicates the pharmacological treatment for the client with openangle glaucoma is therapeutic? 1. Decreased photophobia 2. IOP of 32 mmHg 3. Improved visual acuity 4. Absence of headaches

3. Improved visual acuity

Which should the nurse plan to administer to a client that requires the enhancement of tear production? 1. Topical corticosteroid 2. Cetirizine ophthalmic (Zerviate) 3. Lifitegrast (Xiidra) 4. Olopatadine (Patanol)

3. Lifitegrast (Xiidra)

Which classification of prescription should the nurse plan to administer to the client experiencing a closed angle glaucoma attack? 1. Beta-adrenergic antagonists 2. Prostaglandin analogs 3. Osmotic diuretics 4. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors

3. Osmotic diuretics

A client with a generalized anxiety disorder asks the nurse if he or she will need medication for treatment. Which response should the nurse provide the client? 1. "A prescription is a common treatment for clients with anxiety disorders." 2. "A prescription is necessary initially; followed by therapy." 3. "You most likely will not require a prescription." 4. "A prescription is necessary when anxiety interferes with your quality of life."

4. "A prescription is necessary when anxiety interferes with your quality of life."

A client asks the nurse which prescriptions are commonly used to treat insomnia. Which pharmacological agents should the nurse discuss with the client? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. 1. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) 2. Valerian root 3. Ramelteon (Rozerem) 4. Flurazepam (Dalmane) 5. Zolpidem (Ambien)

3. Ramelteon (Rozerem) 4. Flurazepam (Dalmane) 5. Zolpidem (Ambien)

Which information should the nurse include in the teaching for a client prescribed ramelteon? 1. Daytime drowsiness is common. 2. There is an increased risk of physical dependence. 3. Relatively short onset of action. 4. The primary action is to induce a deep sleep state.

3. Relatively short onset of action.

Which drug category can be used for treating anxiety? 1. Antitussives 2. Anticoagulants 3. Seizure drugs 4. Antibiotics

3. Seizure drugs

Which is the priority outcome for a 6-year-old child that has been prescribed methylphenidate (Ritalin)? 1. The child will avoid altercations with peers. 2. The child will be able to complete age-appropriate chores at home. 3. The child will use age-appropriate play with peers. 4. The child will maintain weight within norms for this age group.

3. The child will use age-appropriate play with peers.

Which classification of prescription is often used as a first-line treatment for depression due to their safety profile? 1. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) 2. Beta-adrenergic blockers 3. Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) 4. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)

4. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)

26) Which structures contain aqueous humor? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. 1. Fovea 2. Sclera 3. Conjunctiva 4. Anterior chamber 5. Posterior chamber

4. Anterior chamber 5. Posterior chamber

Which should the nurse anticipate to be prescribed for the primary treatment of mastoiditis? 1. Corticosteroid 2. Wax softener 3. Antifungal agent 4. Antibiotic

4. Antibiotic

Which prescription should the nurse recognize would most benefit a client experiencing periods of mania and depression? 1. Atomoxetine (Strattera) 2. Amitriptyline (Elavil) 3. Methylphenidate (Ritalin) 4. Carbamazepine (Tegretol)

4. Carbamazepine (Tegretol)

Which finding is an adverse effect of prostaglandins, such as latanoprost (Xaltan)? 1. Hypotension 2. Nausea 3. Tachycardia 4. Eye pain

4. Eye pain

Which initial technique should the nurse use to facilitate the removal of cerumen? 1. A sterile cotton-tipped applicator to remove cerumen 2. Instill 2% acetic acid in each ear 3. Flush with warm water 4. Instill an earwax softener

4. Instill an earwax softener

Which classification of prescription used to treat depression works by preventing enzymatic destruction of the neurotransmitter norepinephrine? 1. Serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs) 2. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) 3. Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) 4. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)

4. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)

Which measurements of intraocular pressure should the nurse recognize requires pharmacological intervention? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. 1. A single reading of 14 mmHg. 2. A consistent reading trending between 15 and 16 mmHg. 3. A single reading of 19 mmHg. 4. Readings consistently higher than 21 mmHg. 5. A single reading of 32 mmHg.

4. Readings consistently higher than 21 mmHg. 5. A single reading of 32 mmHg.

Which describes the primary mechanism of action of beta-adrenergic blockers for the treatment of open-angle glaucoma? 1. Increase the outflow of aqueous humor. 2. Constrict the pupil. 3. Dilate the pupil to increase outflow. 4. Reduce production of aqueous humor.

4. Reduce production of aqueous humor.

A client is prescribed zolpidem (Ambien) for treatment of short-term insomnia. Which is the primary safety concern of the nurse? 1. Dizziness and daytime sedation 2. Nausea 3. Diarrhea 4. Sleepwalking

4. Sleepwalking

The nurse has provided teaching for a client prescribed clonazepam (Klonopin). Which is an important outcome when evaluating the client's understanding of the teaching? 1. The client will verbalize the signs of developing Stevens-Johnson rash. 2. The client will verbalize the importance of dietary restrictions related to this drug. 3. The client will verbalize the importance of having routine laboratory work. 4. The client will verbalize the consequences of abruptly stopping the drug.

4. The client will verbalize the consequences of abruptly stopping the drug.

Which information should the nurse provide the client prescribed cycloplegic eye drops prior to an eye examination? 1. The drugs will dilate the pupil and lubricate the eye to provide additional comfort during the examination. 2. The drops will paralyze the muscles that move the eye so that examination can take place. 3. The drops will dilate the pupil so that the physician can better visualize the retina during examination. 4. The drops dilate the pupil and paralyze the ciliary muscle to prevent the lens from moving during examination.

4. The drops dilate the pupil and paralyze the ciliary muscle to prevent the lens from moving during examination.

Which explanation best explains why barbiturates are rarely used to treat anxiety and insomnia? 1. They have a greater associated cost. 2. They have a high risk of producing an allergic response. 3. They are seldom effective. 4. They produce many serious adverse effects.

4. They produce many serious adverse effects.

Which should the nurse recommend to a client as a primary approach to managing stress? 1. A combined approach using a prescription and nonpharmacological strategies 2. The use of an anxiolytic 3. The practice of meditation 4. To determine the cause of the anxiety

4. To determine the cause of the anxiety