Patho Interactive Module Questions
The development of a hyaline membrane within the infant alveoli reduces which process? Gas exchange Lung stretch Surfactant production Airway pressure
Gas exchange
What is the preferred route to administer epinephrine during anaphylactic shock? Subcutaneously Orally Intramuscularly Intravenously
Intramuscularly
***Which are findings associated with asthma? Select all that apply. Airway inflammation Bronchospasm Decreased ability to clear mucus Bradypnea Diaphoresis
Airway inflammation, Bronchospasm, Decreased ability to clear mucus
What condition indicates the need to administer nitroglycerin? Headache Dizziness Chest pain Palpitations
Chest pain
Which type of leukemia is common among older adults, particularly veterans exposed to Agent Orange? Acute myeloid leukemia (AML) Chronic myeloid leukemia (CML) Acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL) Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)
Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)
Which medication is an example of an antiplatelet? Atropine Clopidogrel Warfarin Alteplase
Clopidogrel
Which finding is not an adverse effect of nitroglycerin? Hypotension Constipation Headache Weakness
Constipation
What results from the abnormal production of renin? Increased sodium in the bloodstream Conversion of angiotensinogen to angiotensin I Lung constriction Pulmonary dilation
Conversion of angiotensinogen to angiotensin I
What type of medication is heparin? Antiplatelet Anticoagulant Thrombolytic Antihypertensive
Anticoagulant
True or false: Lack of surfactant is a factor in both infant respiratory distress syndrome and acute respiratory distress syndrome. TRUE FALSE
TRUE
A patient has been diagnosed with atrial fibrillation. What class of medications is expected to be prescribed? Anticholinergics Anticoagulants Proton pump inhibitors Histamine blockers
Anticoagulants
True or false: Most aortic aneurysms are discovered with no prior symptoms. TRUE FALSE
TRUE
When compliance of the lung tissue is lost, how is the work of breathing affected? It is decreased. It is increased. It remains unaffected. It cannot be measured.
It is increased.
Which are common risk factors for developing acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)? Select all that apply. Aspiration Sepsis Trauma Small bowel obstruction Psoriasis
Aspiration, Sepsis, Trauma
What is the antidote for heparin? Vitamin K Protease inhibitors Vitamin D Protamine sulfate
Protamine sulfate
A patient is ordered subcutaneous heparin every 8 hours. When the patient asks what this medication is for, what is the nurse's best answer? "It is to prevent you from developing a blood clot." "It will keep your current clots from getting bigger." "Everyone is on this medication." "It allows us to trend your aPTT levels."
"It is to prevent you from developing a blood clot."
Who is at the highest risk for developing community-acquired pneumonia (typical)
An older adult living in an assisted living facility
Which term describes a pathologic outpouching or sac-like dilation of an artery caused by the weakness of the vessel wall? Dissection Aneurysm Fusiform Infarction
Aneurysm
***Which conditions have symptoms similar to an aortic dissection? Select all that apply. Stroke Heart attack Diabetes Atherosclerosis
Stroke, Heart attack
Which event causes vessel constriction? Angiotensin I conversion to angiotensin II Aldosterone secretion in the bloodstream Increased blood volume Peripheral vascular resistance
Angiotensin I conversion to angiotensin II
Which of the following individuals are at risk of developing urinary obstructions? Select all that apply. A 43-year-old with an acid-base imbalance secondary to malnutrition A 29-year-old who is pregnant for the first time A 69-year-old with anemia secondary to insufficient erythropoietin production A 70-year-old with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) A 58-year-old with renal calculi A 28-year-old with a neurogenic bladder secondary to spinal cord injury
A 29-year-old who is pregnant for the first time, A 70-year-old with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH), A 58-year-old with renal calculi, A 28-year-old with a neurogenic bladder secondary to spinal cord injury
***Which patient is at the greatest risk for aortic aneurysm? A 60-year-old client with diminished oxygen saturation, low red blood cell levels, and pallor A 70-year-old client with jugular venous distention, shortness of breath, and pulmonary edema A 66-year-old client back pain and neck vein distention An 81-year-old client with acute cognitive changes as well as difficulty in speaking and swallowing
A 66-year-old client back pain and neck vein distention
Which type of leukemia is most often found in children under the age of 15? Acute myeloid leukemia (AML) Chronic myeloid leukemia (CML) Acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL) Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)
Acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL)
A 5-day-old infant is listless, has rapid breathing and heartbeat, is not eating, and has a temperature of 100.2°F. Upon assessment, the nurse notes retractions and accessory muscle use as the infant breathes. Which condition does this infant likely have? Acute respiratory distress syndrome Infant respiratory distress syndrome Influenza COVID-19
Acute respiratory distress syndrome
A patient is diagnosed with hypovolemic shock. What does the nurse anticipate being included in the plan of care? Administration of broad-spectrum antibiotics Administration of blood products and intravenous fluids Administration of vitamin K Administration of protamine sulfate
Administration of blood products and intravenous fluids
Which type of blood vessel is prone to aneurysms because of lack of supporting tissue? Femoral artery Carotid artery Aortic artery Pulmonary artery
Aortic artery
Which of the following diagnostic tests would be performed to confirm acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)? Select all that apply. Skin testing Arterial blood gases Blood cultures Pulmonary function tests Toxicology screen
Arterial blood gases, Blood cultures, Toxicology screen
What is not a risk factor for developing a lower urinary tract infection (UTI) in a younger adult? Stroke Pregnancy Diabetes Assigned male at birth
Assigned male at birth
A patient who recently started taking a statin reports new muscle cramps and weakness. What is the nurse's priority intervention? A) Encourage stretching and weightlifting. B) Assess for rhabdomyolysis. C) Review previously documented strength assessments. D) Increase the dose of the statin since it is not working.
B) Assess for rhabdomyolysis.
What is happening in the compensatory stage of shock? The organs are failing and death is imminent. The heart is unable to meet oxygen demands. Blood is being shunted to vital organs to maintain nearly normal vital signs. The patient is asymptomatic but basic cellular changes have started.
Blood is being shunted to vital organs to maintain nearly normal vital signs.
Which are anticipated vital signs for a patient with neurogenic shock? Blood pressure 84/67 mm Hg and heart rate 112 bpm Blood pressure 120/80 mm Hg and heart rate 80 bpm Blood pressure 188/101 mm Hg and heart rate 125 bpm Blood pressure 74/42 mm Hg and heart rate 48 bpm
Blood pressure 74/42 mm Hg and heart rate 48 bpm
Which serum lab value can assist in diagnosing heart failure? Brain natriuretic peptide (BNP) Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) Blood pressure Cardiac catheterization
Brain natriuretic peptide (BNP)
Dislodging of mural thrombi may result in which condition? Extension of the original infarction Cerebral or pulmonary emboli Ventricular aneurysms Restlessness
Cerebral or pulmonary emboli -Rationale:When a mural thrombus is dislodged from a myocardial injury site, it may travel to the brain or lungs and form an embolus (blood clot), where it can completely restrict blood flow. Extension of the original infarction would result from additional localized hypoxia. Ventricular aneurysms result from weakened tissue in the ventricular wall. Restlessness is a symptom of an impending myocardial infarction.
Which blood pressure reading is considered hypotensive? A) 174/94 mm Hg B) 102/76 mm Hg C) 94/56 mm Hg D) 86/42 mm Hg
D) 86/42 mm Hg
When should a statin be administered? A) Before breakfast B) With morning medications C) Midafternoon D) In the evening
D) In the evening
Which lab values does not need to be assessed routinely when a patient is on a statin? A) High-density lipoprotein (HDL) B) Low-density lipoprotein (LDL) C) Liver function tests D) Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
D) Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
***Which process causes the primary characteristic of chronic bronchitis? Viral and bacterial infections associated with temperature increases Hypersecretion of mucous with cough Cyanosis and left-sided heart failure A genetically based lack of antitrypsin
Hypersecretion of mucous with cough
Which is not a common cause of heart failure? Coronary artery disease (CAD) Myocardial infarction (MI) Hypertension Hypothyroidism
Hypothyroidism
Increased sodium and water in the blood results in what?
Increased blood volume -Rationale: Increased sodium and water in the blood results in an overall increase in blood volume. Renin production causes angiotensinogen conversion to angiotensin I. Angiotensin II causes arteriolar constriction, and blood flow velocity doesn't increase during hypertension.
***Emphysema is a disorder of the lungs involving inflammation of the lungs. What characteristic distinguishes this condition? Obstruction of airflow in the airways Loss of lung elasticity and hyperinflation of the lungs Chronic mucus production and capillary destruction Collapse of the alveoli due to loss of the alveolar wall
Loss of lung elasticity and hyperinflation of the lungs
Which are symptoms of a urinary tract infection (UTI) in an older adult? Select all that apply. Malaise Nocturia Foul-smelling urine Fever Dementia
Malaise, Nocturia, Foul-smelling urine, Fever
Which is not a way bacteria enter the urinary tract? Medication given intravenously Transurethral route Via the bloodstream Fistula from the intestine
Medication given intravenously
Which intervention should be implemented for patients on any medications that increase the risk of bleeding? Utilize basic razors. Encourage intramuscular (IM) injections. Monitor for dark stools. Disregard fall precautions.
Monitor for dark stools.
A patient undergoing antimicrobial treatment with an aminoglycoside, gentamicin, is at risk for which type of kidney failure? Postrenal failure Chronic kidney disease Ischemic acute tubular necrosis Nephrotoxic acute tubular necrosis
Nephrotoxic acute tubular necrosis
How should intravenous (IV) heparin be administered? By gravity, counting drips By an advanced practice RN On a pump with guardrails On a pressure bag
On a pump with guardrails
Which areas of the heart might a myocardial infarction affect? Select all that apply. Pericardium Myocardium Endocardium
Pericardium, Myocardium, Endocardium
For which type of kidney failure is a patient with chronic calculi at risk? Prerenal Postrenal Intrarenal None
Postrenal -Rationale:Any obstruction in flow of urine from collecting ducts in kidneys to external urethral orifice may cause postrenal failure. These include ureteral obstruction (stones), urethral blockage (strictures), or extrinsic source (tumor)
Which factor is an absolute contraindication to receiving a thrombolytic? Ischemic stroke Pregnancy Appendectomy 2 years ago Controlled hypertension
Pregnancy
A tall, thin patient in their mid-20s has dyspnea, pleuritic chest pain, and a heart rate of 120 bpm. A chest radiograph shows a contralateral mediastinal shift. Which condition does this patient most likely have? Primary spontaneous pneumothorax Secondary spontaneous pneumothorax Traumatic pneumothorax Transudative pleural effusion
Primary spontaneous pneumothorax -This is a case of spontaneous pneumothorax since there was no outside trauma to the lungs. Tall healthy individuals, particularly male, are susceptible to developing primary pneumothorax. When a pleural bleb ruptures air, not fluid, enters the pleural cavity. The contralateral mediastinal shift reveals tension pneumothorax.
Which describes the normal progression of the electrical conduction system of the heart? Bundle of His, right bundle branch, left bundle branch, Purkinje fibers SA node, AV node, bundle of His, right bundle branch, left bundle branch, Purkinje fibers SA node, Purkinje fibers, right bundle branch, bundle of His, left bundle branch AV node AV node, SA node, bundle of His, left bundle branch, Purkinje fibers
SA node, AV node, bundle of His, right bundle branch, left bundle branch, Purkinje fibers
Which may occur from a myocardial infarction? Select all that apply. Scar tissue Dead tissue Regenerated tissue Weakened tissue
Scar tissue, Dead tissue, Weakened tissue
Which of the term describes hypertension caused by another disease process? Essential Primary Secondary Uncontrolled
Secondary
Which type of tuberculosis (TB) may occur if a patient becomes immunocompromised? Primary Latent Miliary Secondary
Secondary
How do anticoagulants work? Thin the blood to prevent clots and stop clots from getting bigger. Prevent platelets from sticking to stents. Dissolve clots. Decrease bleeding times.
Thin the blood to prevent clots and stop clots from getting bigger.
Why would a patient be given a neuromuscular blocking agent when treating acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)? So the patient will not remember the experience To eliminate pain To improve synchronicity with the ventilator To allow the patient to participate in care
To improve synchronicity with the ventilator
In general, what happens in the body to cause leukemia? Uncontrolled abnormal production of red blood cells Uncontrolled abnormal production of white blood cells Uncontrolled abnormal production of platelets Uncontrolled abnormal production of plasma
Uncontrolled abnormal production of white blood cells
Which are the four most common risk factors for urinary tract obstruction? Congenital anomalies Diabetes Urinary calculi Ulcerative colitis Pregnancy Benign prostatic hyperplasia Tumors Spinal cord injury
Urinary calculi, Pregnancy, Benign prostatic hyperplasia, Tumors
***Which are initial symptoms of an acute asthma attack? Select all that apply. Fatigue Wheezing Dyspnea Chest tightness Cyanosis
Wheezing, Dyspnea, Chest tightness
What are the three areas of damage in a myocardial infarction? Zone of injury, zone of ischemia, zone of necrosis Right atrium, left atrium, left ventricle, Zone of ischemia, zone of cyanosis, zone of death Pericardium, myocardium, endocardium
Zone of injury, zone of ischemia, zone of necrosis -Rationale:In myocardial infarction, the damage of the myocardium is described as zones of decreased oxygenation, which include injury, ischemia, and necrosis.
Pneumonia that occurs 48 hours or more after admission to the hospital is considered:
hospital-acquired pneumonia.
All clients who are exposed to tuberculosis (TB) will develop an active disease. TRUE FALSE
FALSE
Which term describes a tearing of the vessel wall with developing blood chamber? Dissection Aneurysm Fusiform Infarction
Dissection
Which are causes of bradycardia? Select all that apply. Fever Sleeping Infection Vagal nerve stimulation Spinal cord injury
Sleeping, Vagal nerve stimulation, Spinal cord injury
True or false: Reduction of blood flow to the kidneys causes the liver to secrete renin.
False
***A client comes to the emergency department with shortness of breath. The client reports being generally healthy but felt something 'pop' during a period of coughing while running cross country. The nurse anticipates that the client will be diagnosed with: spontaneous pneumothorax. an allergic reaction. bronchitis. costochondritis.
spontaneous pneumothorax.
Infants born before the gestational age of 26 weeks are likely to have hyaline membrane disease because: surfactant is not mature in the infant's lungs. surfactant is not produced in the lungs until the 26th week. surfactant is washed out of the baby's lungs when the baby is in utero. surfactant is produced as the baby moves through the birthing canal.
surfactant is not produced in the lungs until the 26th week.
Essential hypertension is a result of what? Reduced oxygen in the bloodstream Intra-arterial pressure damaging the blood vessel Blood clotting around damaged endothelial cells Increased cardiac output and vascular resistance
Increased cardiac output and vascular resistance
***Which factors make a client most susceptible to a diagnosis of hospital-acquired pneumonia? (Select all that apply.) Infection of lower respiratory tract Evidence of respiratory infection is present on admission Evidence of infection occurs 48 hours after admission Caused by bacterial agents Mechanical ventilation
Infection of lower respiratory tract, Evidence of infection occurs 48 hours after admission, Caused by bacterial agents, Mechanical ventilation
In caring for a premature infant with respiratory distress syndrome, the nurse understands that the infant's ability to ventilate depends on the ability to: (Select all that apply.) inflate the alveoli and maintain their open status. transition from in utero to breathing on their own. produce surfactant. maintain a patent ductus
Inflate the alveoli and maintain their open status., transition from in utero to breathing on their own., produce surfactant.
What is the most common cause(s) of traumatic pneumothorax in patients who are critically ill? Select all that apply. Invasive procedure Barotrauma Pneumonia Empyema
Invasive procedure, Barotrauma
What is the definition of myocardial infarction? The invasion of the endocardium by pathogens that produce vegetative lesions on the endocardial surface Accelerated form of angina that is caused by subtotal or intermittent coronary occlusion. Ischemic death of myocardial tissue A progressive arterial disease characterized by the formation of fibrofatty plaques.
Ischemic death of myocardial tissue
How does positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) help manage acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)? It helps open the alveoli to promote gas exchange. It allows the RN to titrate oxygen levels. It monitors lung compliance. It paralyzes the diaphragm to make ventilation easier.
It helps open the alveoli to promote gas exchange.
A patient has an ejection fraction (EF) of 35%. What does this indicate? The patient has an optimally functioning heart. The patient is in diastolic heart failure. The patient is in systolic heart failure. The patient is at risk for developing heart failure
The patient is in systolic heart failure.
What is the priority intervention for a patient in ventricular fibrillation? Defibrillation Cardioversion Notifying the family Continue to monitor
Defibrillation
Secondary tuberculosis (TB) infection occurs from reinfection from inhaled droplet nuclei. TRUE FALSE
TRUE
***A client was injured in a car accident and is experiencing severe dyspnea. The assessment reveals fractured ribs on the left side of the chest and right-sided tracheal deviation. The chest x-ray confirms a mediastinal shift. The nurse understands that these findings are consistent with: spontaneous pneumothorax tension pneumothorax. hemothorax. atelectasis.
tension pneumothorax.
When an infant experiences respiratory distress syndrome, the lack of surfactant makes each breath the infant takes is as hard as the first breath taken. This is due to: the high surface tension in alveoli causing them to collapse. the weak muscles of respiration in the infant. retractions of the chest wall. poor pulmonary circulation.
the high surface tension in alveoli causing them to collapse.
A patient is on a heparin infusion. Which lab value is used to titrate this medication? International normalized ratio (INR) Prothrombin time (PT) Activated partial thromboplastin clotting time (aPTT) Hemoglobin
Activated partial thromboplastin clotting time (aPTT)
***Which findings are characteristic of emphysema? Select all that apply. Hypersecretion of mucus and chronic productive cough Infection of the lung parenchyma, impairing gas exchange Abnormal permanent enlargement of the acini Destruction of the alveolar walls Limitation of airflow caused by lack of elastic recoil in the lungs
Abnormal permanent enlargement of the acini, Destruction of the alveolar walls, Limitation of airflow caused by lack of elastic recoil in the lungs
Which postrenal causes of acute kidney injury? (Select all that apply.) Exposure to nephrotoxic drugs and heavy metals Acute tubular necrosis Bilateral ureteral obstruction Bladder outlet obstruction
Bilateral ureteral obstruction, Bladder outlet obstruction -Obstruction after the kidney is postrenal (downstream). These causes include bilateral
A patient presents with newly diagnosed acute myeloid leukemia (AML). What would the nurse expect to find on assessment? Dusky fingers and bilateral lower extremity deep vein thrombosis Bleeding gums and fatigue Pressured speech and eczema on the hands Shortness of breath and a headache
Bleeding gums and fatigue
Which of the following are prerenal causes of acute kidney injury? (Select all that apply.) Prolonged renal ischemia Hypovolemia Hemorrhage Acute tubular necrosis Exposure to nephrotoxic drugs and heavy metals Bilateral ureteral obstruction Bladder outlet obstruction
Hypovolemia, Hemorrhage -Any condition that decreases blood flow to kidneys is considered prerenal; these include hypovolemia and hemorrhage.
Which term describes the life-threatening splitting or rupture of an aneurysm? Dissection Necrosis Fusiform Infarction
Dissection
A patient is diagnosed with cardiogenic shock. Which medication will the RN expect to be prescribed? Dopamine Dobutamine Desmopressin Diazepam
Dobutamine -Dobutamine is a medication used to improve contractility and is the drug of choice for cardiogenic shock. Dopamine, desmopressin, and diazepam are not indicated for improving contractility.
True or false: When a person with latent tuberculosis coughs, they may infect other people. TRUE FALSE
FALSE
What is a symptom of an upper urinary tract infection (UTI) that is not seen in a lower UTI? Painful urination Flank pain Back pain Pelvic pain
Flank pain
***Which clinical manifestations are present with typical pneumonia but not with atypical pneumonia? Select all that apply. Low white blood cell count Regions of reduced or absent breath sounds Consolidation Nonproductive cough Crackles and dullness to percussion with auscultation Colored sputum Onset greater than 48 hours
Regions of reduced or absent breath sounds, Consolidation, Crackles and dullness to percussion with auscultation, Colored sputum
A patient with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is receiving a neuromuscular blocking agent. What additional medications need to be ordered? Beta blockers and antiplatelet medications Sedatives and pain medications Vasopressors and calcium channel blockers Antihistamines and bronchodilators
Sedatives and pain medications
Which conditions increase the risk for developing acute prerenal kidney injury? Select all that apply. Benign prostatic hypertrophy Glomerulonephritis Severe dehydration Cardiogenic shock
Severe dehydration, Cardiogenic shock -Rationale:Risks for prerenal kidney injury are those from conditions such as severe dehydration and cardiogenic shock. Prerenal kidney injury results from bodily fluids not being able to enter the kidneys properly. Benign prostatic hypertrophy and glomerulonephritis are examples of intrarenal and postrenal kidney injury.
A nurse is administering nitroglycerin to a patient. What is the priority intervention? Stay with the patient. Monitor vital signs every 15 minutes. Send the patient to the cardiac catheterization lab. Encourage incentive spirometry.
Stay with the patient.
***The most common infective organism for clients diagnosed with typical pneumonia is: Mycoplasma pneumonia. Chlamydia organism. Streptococcus pneumonia. Legionella pneumophila.
Streptococcus pneumonia.
You are caring for a patient who has an indwelling urinary catheter. Which action is not indicated? Assess the need for the catheter. Advocate for the removal of the catheter if it is not needed. Switch out the bag every shift. Document the patient's output
Switch out the bag every shift.
***The client diagnosed with emphysema has been diagnosed with a secondary pneumothorax. The client is asking what caused the lung to 'burst.' The nurse understands that secondary pneumothorax is most commonly caused by: ruptured belbs on the lungs. a weakness in the bronchus. an inflamed alveoli that irritate the pleura. damage to lung tissue and the trapping of gases within the chest.
damage to lung tissue and the trapping of gases within the chest.
A nurse is administering a beta blocker to a patient who has heart failure. Which statement may be part of the nurse's patient education? "This medication will help your heart beat faster." "This medication will help your symptoms only." "This medication will improve your survival and symptoms of heart failure." "This medication helps get rid of the extra fluid in your body."
"This medication will improve your survival and symptoms of heart failure."
Which are intrarenal causes of acute kidney injury? (Select all that apply.) Acute tubular necrosis Prolonged renal ischemia Exposure to nephrotoxic drugs and heavy metals Dehydration Excessive loss of gastrointestinal tract
Acute tubular necrosis, Prolonged renal ischemia, Exposure to nephrotoxic drugs and heavy metals -Any condition that affects renal structure is intrarenal. These include acute tubular necrosis, prolonged renal ischemia, and exposure to nephrotoxic drugs and heavy metals.
What is the drug of choice to treat supraventricular tachycardia (SVT)? Atenolol Amlodipine Atropine Adenosine
Adenosine -Rationale: The goal for treating SVT is to break or slow down the heart rate; adenosine will accomplish this. Atenolol is a beta blocker, amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker, and atropine is indicated for bradycardia.
What are the risks of inadequate treatment of a urinary tract obstruction? Select all that apply. Kidney failure Cancer Infection Hydronephrosis
Kidney failure, Infection, Hydronephrosis
***The nurse is assessing the child in the emergency department. The nurse notes that the child has a moderate amount of sputum, rales that are scattered throughout the lung fields and heard posteriorly, and negative tactile fremitus. The nurse also notes that the white blood cell count is only slightly elevated. The nurse anticipates a diagnosis of: hospital-acquired pneumonia. atypical pneumonia. complications of asthma. viral pneumonia.
atypical pneumonia.
Which is not a cause of hypotension? a) hypovolemia b) vagal response c) Activation of the sympathetic nervous system d) shock
c) Activation of the sympathetic nervous system
What is the first intervention when working with a patient who is hypotensive? a) Administer intravenous fluids. b) Identify the underlying cause. c) Ensure the patient is safe. d) Apply oxygen via nasal cannula at 2 L/min.
c) Ensure the patient is safe.
A client who is immunocompromised client is placed in respiratory isolation with suspected tuberculosis (TB) infection. The sputum cultures results read M. tuberculosis mycobacterium. The laboratory result: confirms the diagnosis of active tuberculosis. reflects that the client has been exposed to the TB organism. demonstrates that the client has a unique type of pneumonia. is evidence of the development of latent tuberculosis.
confirms the diagnosis of active tuberculosis.
A person's containment and destruction of M. tuberculosis depends on which factor? Bacilli growth time Length of the exposure Health of the immune system Location in the lungs affected
Health of the immune system
Which are risk factors for leukemia? Select all that apply. History of smoking History of chemotherapy Hypertension Hepatitis Certain genetic disorders
History of smoking, History of chemotherapy, Certain genetic disorders
Which characteristics describe progressive primary tuberculosis (TB)? Select all that apply. Symptomatic Aggressive Noncontagious Contained Latent Active
Symptomatic, Aggressive, Active
How does nitroglycerin work? It vasoconstricts veins, arteries, and capillaries. It increases myocardial contractility. It vasodilates veins, arteries, and capillaries. It increases metabolic demand.
It vasodilates veins, arteries, and capillaries.
Which statement is true regarding acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)? It is always a predictable disease process. The patient rarely needs to be intubated. Events that happen remote from the lungs cannot cause ARDS. The patient with ARDS will be in the intensive care unit (ICU).
The patient with ARDS will be in the intensive care unit (ICU)
A patient has a baseline blood pressure of 86/42 mm Hg and is resting comfortably in their room talking on their phone. Their current blood pressure is 84/42 mm Hg. What is the nurse's best course of action? A) Call a rapid response. B) Notify the provider. C) Continue to monitor the patient. D) Administer 500 mL intravenous bolus.
C) Continue to monitor the patient.
Which is a symptom of hypotension? A) Increased energy B) Polyuria C) Dizziness D) Dilated pupils
C) Dizziness
Which juice should be avoided when taking a statin? A) Orange B) Apple C) Grapefruit D) Pineapple
C) Grapefruit
A patient being mechanically ventilated with positive end expiratory pressure and pressure support totaling 30 mm Hg has developed unequal chest expansion, absent breath sounds on the right, and tracheal deviation to the right. The patient is increasingly tachycardic, anxious, and agitated, and pulmonary compliance is rapidly decreasing. Which type of pneumothorax has this patient developed? Primary spontaneous pneumothorax Secondary spontaneous pneumothorax Tension pneumothorax Open pneumothora
Tension pneumothorax -This patient's symptoms indicate tension pneumothorax. Mechanical ventilation can damage the lungs to the degree that there is an opening in the pleural cavity that allows air in during inspiration but not on expiration, hence the absent breath sounds. This disrupted respiration causes increased pressure within the chest and results in compression on the heart.
A patient is on a heparin infusion. How does the nurse know if the medication is infusing at a therapeutic rate? The international normalized ratio (INR) is between 2 and 3. The prothrombin time (PT) is 1.5 to 2 times the normal time. The activated partial thromboplastin clotting time (aPTT) is 1.5 to 2.5 times the normal time. The potassium level is between 3.5 and 5.
The activated partial thromboplastin clotting time (aPTT) is 1.5 to 2.5 times the normal time.
Upon assessment, the nurse notes a patient has crackles and dyspnea. What does this indicate? The patient's right side of the heart is affected. The patient's left side of the heart is affected. The patient has systolic heart failure. The patient has diastolic heart failure.
The patient's left side of the heart is affected.
Which diagnosis is often an indication for a prescription for a statin? A) Hypertension B) Coronary artery disease C) Atrial fibrillation D) Ventricular tachycardia
B) Coronary artery disease
***During a routine physical examination of a 66-year-old patient, the nurse practitioner notes a pulsating abdominal mass and refers the patient for further treatment. Which pathophysiologic aspect of aneurysm would support the patient teaching? Aneurysms are commonly a result of poorly controlled diabetes mellitus. Hypertension is a frequent modifiable contributor to aneurysms. Individuals with an aneurysm are normally asymptomatic until the aneurysm ruptures. Aneurysms can normally be resolve
Hypertension is a frequent modifiable contributor to aneurysms.
What is the best way to treat sinus tachycardia? Administer beta blockers. Encourage deep breathing exercises. Treat the underlying cause. Cardiovert.
Treat the underlying cause.
