Penny Ch. 28-32
A 22-week gestation fetus with clinodactyly, an echogenic intracardiac focus, and hyperechoic bowel is noted during a screening obstetrical sonograph. These findings are most consistent with: a. Tirsomy 21 b. Trisomy 13 c. Monosomy X d. Trisomy 18
A
Absent nasal bones and an increased nuchal fold measurement is most consistent with the sonographic markers for: a. Trisomy 21 b. Trisomy 13 c. Triploidy d. Trisomy 18
A
All of the following are associated with omphalocele except: a. Normal cord insertion b. Multiple chromosomal abnormalities c. Elevated MSAFP d. Periumbilical mass
A
Doppler sonography reveals vascular structures coursing over the internal os of the cervix. This finding is indicative of: a. Vasa previa b. Placenta previa c. Placenta increta d. Abruptio placentae
A
Most often, ________ is associated with duodenal atresia. a. Trisomy 21 b. Trisomy 18 c. Trisomy 13 d. Triploidy
A
Mothers with pregestational diabetes, as opposed to gestational diabetes, have an increased risk of a fetus with: a. Neural tube defects b. Proteinuria c. TORCH d. DES
A
Placenta accreta denotes: a. The abnormal attachment of the placenta to the myometrium b. The premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall c. The invasion of the placenta into the myometrium d. The condition of having the fetal vessels rest of the internal os
A
Prune belly syndrome is caused by: a. An enlarged bladder b. Unilateral renal agenesis c. Bilateral renal agenesis d. Hypospadias
A
The measurement that should be carefully scrutinized in cases of IUGR is the: a. Abdominal circumference b. Femur length c. Biparietal diameter d. Head circumference
A
The most common form of monozygotic twins is: a. Monochorionic diamniotic b. Dichorionic monoamniotic c. Monochorionic monoamniotic d. None of the above
A
The syndrome associated with an occipital cephalocele, cystic renal disease, and polydactyly is: a. Meckel-Gruber syndrome b. Potter syndrome c. VACTERL association d. Sirenomelia syndrome
A
The triple screen typically includes: a. AFP, estriol, and hCG b. AFP, amniotic fluid index, and hCG c. AFP, estriol, and pregnancy-associated plasma protein A d. Pregnancy-associated plasma protein A, inhibin a, and hCG
A
When the placental edge extends into the lower uterine segment but ends more than 2 cm away from the internal os, it is referred to as: a. Low-lying previa b. Marginal previa c. Partial previa d. Total previa
A
Which of the following lab findings would not be consistent with trisomy 21? a. High AFP b. Low estriol c. High hCG d. Low PAPP-A
A
Which protein is not produced by the developing placenta? a. AFP b. hCG c. Estriol d. Pregnancy-associated plasma protein A
A
All of the following are associated with gastroschisis except: a. Normal cord insertion b. Multiple chromosomal abnormalities c. Elevated maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein d. Periumbilical mass
B
Gastroschisis occurs more often in what location? a. Left lateral of the cord insertion b. Right lateral of the cord insertion c. Just superior to the fetal bladder d. In the base of the umbilical cord
B
Normally, the S/D ratio: a. Increases with advancing gestation b. Decreases with advancing gestation c. Reverses occasionally during a normal pregnancy d. Has an absent diastolic component
B
Rounded head shape is referred to as: a. Dolichocephaly b. Brachycephaly c. Cebocephaly d. Craniosynostosis
B
The "double bubble" sign is indicative of: a. esophageal atresia b. Duodenal atresia c. Hydrocephalus d. Oligohydramnios
B
The bending of the fifth digit toward the fourth digit is called: a. Syndactyly b. Clinodactyly c. Polydactyly d. Stabodactyly
B
The fetal stomach should be visualized by: a. 8 weeks b. 14 weeks c. 20 weeks d. 18 weeks
B
The outer membrane surrounding the fetus is referred to as the: a. Placenta b. Chorion c. Amnion d. Yolk sac
B
The placenta is considered too thick when it measures: a. >4 mm b. >4 cm c. >8 mm d. >3.5 cm
B
Which of the following would be least likely to be assocated with an elevated maternal serum AFP? a. Pentalogy of Cantrell b. Anorectal atresia c. Gastroschisis d. Omphalocele
B
The parasitic twin in acardiac twinning is also referred to as the "pump twin." a. True b. False
B (The normal twin is referred to as the "pump twin," and the abnormally developed fetus containing to heart is referred to as the parasitic twin.)
A succenturiate lobe of the placenta refers to a/an: a. Bilobed placenta b. Circumvallate placental lobe c. Accessory lobe d. Circummarginate placental lobe
C
A velamentous cord insertion is associated with which of the following? a. Placenta increta b. Placental abruption c. Vasa previa d. Circumvallate placenta
C
Acardiac twinning results from: a. Poor maternal nutrition b. Dizygotic gestations c. Abnormal links among the placental vessels d. Twin embolization syndrome
C
All of the following are associated with a thick placenta except: a. Fetal infections b. Rh isoimmunization c. Placental insufficiency d. Multiple gestations
C
All of the following are associated with a thin placenta except: a. Preeclampsia b. Intrauterine growth restriction c. Fetal hydrops d. Long-standing diabetes
C
Bilateral choroid plexus cysts, micrognathia, and omphalocele in a 27-week fetus are sonographic findings consistent with: a. Trisomy 21 b. Trisomy 13 c. Trisomy 18 d. Triploidy
C
Bladder exstrophy describes: a. Absence of the cloaca b. Protrusion of the bladder into the umbilicus c. External position of the bladder d. Enlargement of the bladder
C
Brachycephaly is associated most often with which of the following syndromes? a. Edwards syndrome b. Patau syndrome c. Down syndrome d. Turner syndrome
C
Cleft lip, hypotelorism, and microphthalmia are all sonographic features of: a. Trisomy 21 b. Trisomy 18 c. Trisomy 13 d. Turner syndrome
C
Cloacal exstrophy is associated with all of the following except: a. Omphalocele b. Spina Bifida c. Encephalocele d. Imperforate anus
C
Hepatomegaly would be seen in conjunction with: a. Down syndrome b. Edward syndrome c. Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome d. Hirschsprung disease
C
Increased S/D ratio is associated with all of the following except: a. Intrauterine growth restriction b. Placental insufficiency c. Allantoic cysts d. Perinatal mortality
C
Insertion of the umbilical cord at the edge of the placenta is referred to as: a. Velamentous cord insertion b. Partial cord insertion c. Marginal cord insertion d. Nuchal cord insertion
C
Placental tissue is obtained with what procedure? a. Amniocentesis b. Cordocentiesis c. Chorionic villi sampling d. Trophoblastic resection technique
C
Pyelectasis refers to: a. Enlargement of the urinary bladder, ureter, and renal calices b. Dilation of the ureter c. Dilation of the renal pelvis d. Enlargement of the ureter only
C
The earliest fetal karyotyping technique that can be performed is: a. Amniocentesis b. Cordocentesis c. Chorionic villi sampling d. Percutaneous umbilical cord sampling
C
The maternal contribution to the placenta is the: a. Chorionic vera b. Decidua vera c. Decidua basalis d. Chorion frondosum
C
The most common placental tumor is the: a. Choriocarcinoma b. Maternal lake c. Chorioangioma d. Allantoic cyst
C
Which of the following can occur as a result of dizygotic twinning? a. Monochorionic diamniotic twins b. Monochorionic monoamniotic twins c. Dichorionic diamniotic twins d. All of the above
C
Which of the following is considered to be the most common type of colonic atresia? a. Duodenal atresia b. Jejunal atresia c. Anorectal atresia d. Intussusception
C
Widened pelvic angles and duodenal atresia are most consistent with the sonographic markers for: a. Triploidy b. Patau syndrome c. Down syndrome d. Edwards syndrome
C
Doppler assessment of the middle cerebral artery: a. Helps to determine if fetal anorexia is occurring b. Is valuable in diagnosing the extent of ventriculomegaly c. Can evaluate the fetus for hypoxia d. Is important to determine if TORCH complications are present
C (Doppler assessment of the MCA has been shown to effectively evaluate for hypoxia in a fetus that is measuring small for dates.)
Fetal TORCH is frequently associated with: a. Maternal hypertension b. Twin-twin transfusion syndrome c. Intracranial calcifications d. Renal cystic disease
C (TORCH is an acronym that stand for Toxoplasmosis, Other infections, Rubella, Cytomegalovirus, and Herpes simplex virus. It is a group of infections that can cross the placenta and influence the development of the fetus.)
A 38 year-old pregnant woman presents to the sonography department for an obstetrical sonogram with abnormal maternal serum screening. Her AFP and estriol are low, while her hCG is elevated. These lab findings are most consistent with: a. Edwards syndrome b. Patau syndrome c. Triploidy d. Down syndrome
D
A functional bowel disorder within the fetus that is caused by the absence of intestinal nerves is found in: a. Gastroschisis b. Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome c. Omphalocele d. Hirschsprung disease
D
A molar pregnancy, omphalocele, and small, low-set ears are found most often with: a. Trisomy 21 b. Trisomy 18 c. Trisomy 13 d. Triploidy
D
All of the following are associated with duodenal atresia except: a. Trisomy 21 b. Esophageal atresia c. VACTERL syndrome d. Turner syndrome
D
All of the following are associated with esophageal atresia except: a. Down syndrome b. VACTERL syndrome c. Edwards syndrome d. Oligohydramnios
D
All of the following are associated with omphalocele except: a. Trisomy 18 b. Pentalogy of Cantrell c. Intrauterine growth restriction d. Hirschsprung disease
D
All of the following are associated with polyhadramnios except: a. Omphalocele b. Gastroschisis c. Esophageal atresia d. Bilateral multicystic dysplastic kidney disease
D
An anechoic mass is noted within the umbilical cord during a routine sonographic examination. What is the most likely diagnosis? a. Hemangioma b. Vasa previa c. Chorioangioma d. Allantoic cyst
D
An omphalocele is assocated with all of the following except: a. Pentalogy of Cantrell b. Trisomy 18 c. Patau syndrome d. Meconium aspiration syndrome
D
An omphalocele may contain: a. Fetal liver b. Ascites c. Fetal colon d. All of the above
D
Cyclopia would most likely be associated with: a. Trisomy 8 b. Trisomy 21 c. Trisomy 18 d. Trisomy 13
D
Fusion of the orbits and holoprosencephaly are associated with: a. Edwards syndrome b. Turner syndrome c. Down syndrome d. Patau syndrome
D
Monosomy X refers to: a. Edwards syndrome b. Patau syndrome c. Down syndrome d. Turner syndrome
D
Mothers with gestational diabetes run the risk of having fetuses that are considered: a. Nutritionally deficient b. Acromegalic c. Microsomic d. Macrosomic
D
Nonimmune hydrops and ovarian dysgenesis are found in fetuses affected by: a. Trisomy 21 b. Trisomy 18 c. Trisomy 13 d. Turner syndrome
D
OEIS comples is also referred to as: a. Bladder exstrophy b. Omphalocele c. Potter syndrome d. Cloacal exstrophy
D
Pentalogy of Cantrell includes all of the following findings except: a. Cardiovascular malformations b. Diaphragmatic malformations c. Omphalocele d. Gastroschisis
D
Sonographically you identify a fetus with fusion of the thalami and a monoventricle. Which chromosomal abnormality would be most likely? a. Trisomy 8 b. Trisomy 21 c. Trisomy 18 d. Trisomy 13
D
The herniation of the bowel into the base of the umbilical cord before 12 weeks is termed: a. Gastroschisis b. Omphalocele c. Hernia umbilicus d. Physiologic herniation
D
The laying down adrenal sign would be seen in all of the following situations except: a. Unilateral renal agenesis b. Bilateral renal agenesis c. Potter syndrome d. Megacystis
D
The maternal serum screening of a mother with a fetus with trisomy 18 will reveal: a. Decreased hCG, elevated AFP, and normal estriol b. Increased hCG, AFP, and estriol c. Increased AFP, and hCG, and decreased estriol d. Decreased hCG, AFP, and estriol
D
The most common malignant adrenal pediatric tumor is the: a. Nephroblastoma b. Pheochromocytoma c. Hepatoblastoma d. Neuroblastoma
D
Twins having two placentas and one amniotic sac are referred to as: a. Monochorionic diamniotic b. Monoamniotic dichorionic c. Dichorionic monoamniotic d. This does not occur
D
Webbing of the neck and short stature is found in infertile female patients with a history of: a. Trisomy 21 b. Triploidy c. Trisomy 13 d. Turner syndrome
D
Which of the following best describes hypospadias? a. OEIS complex in the presence of a hydrocele b. The chronic obstruction of the renal pelvis and urethra c. The underdevelopment of the scrotum in the presence of a hydrocele d. An abnormal ventral curvature of the penis
D
Which of the following can occur as a result of monozygotic twinning? a. Monochorionic diamniotic twins b. Monochorionic monoamniotic twins c. Dichorionic diamniotic twins d. All of the above
D
Which of the following is associated with enlarged echogenic kidneys and microscopic renal cysts? a. Multicystic dysplastic kidney disease b. Obstructive cystic dysplasia c. Hydronephrotic syndrome d. Autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease
D
A strawberry shaped skull is associated with: a. Edwards syndrome b. Turner syndrome c. Down syndrome d. Patau syndrome
A
A fetus with karyotype revealing it has 69 chromosomes and sonographic findings of webbed fingers and intrauterine growth restriction most likely has: a. Trisomy 21 b. Trisomy 18 c. Triploidy d. Turner syndrome
C
Numerous noncommuniccating anechoic masses are noted within the left renal fossa of a fetus at 20 weeks gestation. what is the most likely etiology of the masses? a. ARPKD b. ADPKD c. Multicystic dysplastic kidney disease d. Hydronephrosis
C
The cervix should measure at least ______ in length. a. 4 cm b. 5 cm c. 3 cm d. 8 mm
C
The inner membrane surrounding the fetus is referred to as: a. Placenta b. Chorion c. Amnion d. Yolk sac
C
The fetal contribution to the placenta is the: a. Chorionic vera b. Decidua vera c. Decidua basalis d. Chorion frondosum
D
The most common abnormality of the fetal liver is: a. Gallstones b. Hepatocellular lymphadenopathy c. Cirrhosis d. Hepatomegaly
D
Which term relates to the number of placentas? a. Chorionicity b. Placentation c. Amnionicity d. Both A and B
D
One of the most common causes of painless vaginal bleeding in the second and third trimester is: a. Spontaneous abortion b. Abruptio placentae c. Placenta previa d. Placenta accreta
c
