Pharmacology - Exam 3 Questions - ATI & Karch
A patient who coughs is experiencing a reflex caused by A. inflammation irritating the sinuses in the skull B. irritants affecting receptor sites in the nasal cavity C. pressure against the Eustachian tube D. irritation to receptors in the trachea and conducting airways.
D
A patient with sinus pressure and pain related to seasonal rhinitis would benefit from taking A. an antitussive B. an expectorant. C. a mucolytic D. a decongestant.
D
A bacteriostatic substance is one that A. directly kills any bacteria it comes in contact with B. directly kills any bacteria that are sensitive to the substance C. Prevents the growth of any bacteria D. prevents the growth of specific bacteria that are sensitive to the substance
D
A nurse is caring for a client who has a urinary tract infection and a history of recurrence of this type of infection. The client asks why the provider has not yet prescribed an antibiotic. The nurse should explain that the provider has to wait for the results of which of the following laboratory tests to identify which antibiotic to prescribe? A. Gram stain B. Culture C. Sensitivity D. Specific gravity
A. A gram stain helps identify the micro‑organism that is causing the infection. B. A culture determines the type of micro‑organism causing the infection. C. CORRECT: A sensitivity test identifies the most effective antibiotic to prescribe to treat a specific micro‑organism. D. A specific gravity test determines the dilution of fluid, typically urine, and does not provide information on the type of micro‑organism or antibiotic to prescribe to treat the infection.
An aminoglycoside antibiotic might be the drug of choice in treating A. serious infections caused by susceptible strains of gram-negative bacteria B. otitis media in an infant. C. cystitis in a woman who is 4 months pregnant D. suspected pneumonia before the culture results are available.
A
Antihistamines should be used very cautiously in patients with A. a history of arrhythmias or prolonged QT intervals. B. COPD or bronchitis. C. asthma or seasonal rhinitis. D. angioedema or low blood pressure
A
Diffusion of CO2 from the tissues into the capillary blood A. occurs if the tissue concentration of CO2 is greater than that in the blood B. decreases as blood acidity increases C. increases in the absence of carbonic anhydrase D. is accompanied by a decrease in plasma bicarbonate
A
Sensitivity testing of a culture shows A. drugs that are capable of controlling that particular microorganism B. the patient's potential for allergic reactions to a drug C. the offending microorganism D. an immune reaction to the infecting organism
A
The type II cells of the walls of the alveoli function to A. replace mucus in the alveoli B. produce serotonin C. secrete surfactant D. protect lungs from bacterial invasion
A
A nurse is caring for a client who states she has been taking phenylephrine nasal drops for the past 10 days for sinusitis. The nurse should assess the client for which of the following adverse effects of this medication? A. Sedation B. Nasal congestion C. Productive cough D. Constipation
A. Insomnia, rather than sedation, is an adverse effect of this medication. B. CORRECT: When used for over 5 days, rebound nasal congestion can occur when taking nasal sympathomimetic medications, such as phenylephrine. C. Phenylephrine can cause a headache, but productive cough is not an adverse effect of this medication. D. Constipation is an adverse effect of first generation antihistamines, but is not caused by sympathomimetic medications such as phenylephrine.
A nurse is teaching a client who is beginning a course of metronidazole to treat an infection. For which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to stop taking metronidazole and notify the provider? A. Metallic taste B. Nausea C. Ataxia D. Dark‑colored urine
A. A metallic taste in the mouth is an adverse effect of metronidazole, but it is not necessary to stop the medication and notify the provider. B. Nausea is an adverse effect of metronidazole, but it is not necessary to stop taking the medication and notify the provider. C. CORRECT: Ataxia, tremors, paresthesias of the extremities, and seizures are manifestations of CNS toxicity. The client should stop taking the medication and notify the provider if any of these effects occur. D. Dark‑colored urine is a harmless effect. It is not necessary to stop taking the medication and notify the provider.
A nurse is teaching the family of a child who has cystic fibrosis and a new prescription for acetylcysteine. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the instructions? A."Expect this medication to suppress your cough." B."Expect this medication to smell like rotten eggs." C."Expect this medication to cause euphoria." D. "Expect this medication to turn your urine orange."
A. Acetylcysteine can stimulate a cough. Dextromethorphan suppresses a cough. B. CORRECT: Acetylcysteine has a sulfur content that causes a rotten‑egg odor. C. Dextromethorphan can cause euphoria at high doses. Acetylcysteine can cause drowsiness. D. Discoloration of urine is an adverse effect of COMT inhibitors. Acetylcysteine can cause diarrhea.
A nurse is providing instructions to a client who has a new prescription for albuterol and beclomethasone inhalers for the control of asthma. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching? A. Take the albuterol at the same time each day. B. Administer the albuterol inhaler prior to using the beclomethasone inhaler. C. Use beclomethasone if experiencing an acute episode. D. Avoid shaking the beclomethasone before use.
A. Albuterol is a short acting inhaled beta2‑agonist and used for short term relief of bronchospasm. B. CORRECT: When a client is prescribed an inhaled beta2‑agonist (such as albuterol) and an inhaled glucocorticoid (such as beclomethasone), the client should take the beta2‑agonist first. The beta2‑agonist promotes bronchodilation and enhances absorption of the glucocorticoid. C. Beclomethasone is administered on a fixed schedule. It is not used to treat an acute attack. D. The client should shake the metered dose inhaler well before administration.
A nurse is infusing IV amphotericin B to a client who has a systemic fungal infection. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects of this medication? A. Hypoglycemia B. Constipation C. Fever D. Hyperkalemia
A. Amphotericin B can cause hyperglycemia. B. Amphotericin B can cause diarrhea. C. CORRECT: Amphotericin B can cause fever, chills, and nausea during the infusion. Pretreatment with diphenhydramine and acetaminophen can reduce these effects. D. Amphotericin B can cause hypokalemia
A nurse is administering IV amphotericin B to a client who has a systemic fungal infection. The nurse should monitor which of the following laboratory values? (Select all that apply.) A. Serum calcium B. Serum amylase C. Serum potassium D. Hematocrit E. Serum creatinine
A. Amphotericin B does not affect serum calcium levels. B. Amphotericin B does not cause pancreatitis. C. CORRECT: Hypokalemia is a serious adverse effect of amphotericin B. The nurse should monitor serum potassium values for hypokalemia. D. CORRECT: Amphotericin B can cause bone marrow suppression. The nurse should monitor CBC and platelet count periodically. E. CORRECT: Amphotericin B can cause nephrotoxicity. The nurse should monitor kidney function (with serum creatinine, BUN, and creatinine clearance).
A nurse is caring for a group of clients who are receiving antimicrobial therapy. Which of the following clients should the nurse plan to monitor for manifestations of antibiotic toxicity? A. An adolescent client who has a sinus infection B. An older adult client who has prostatitis C. A client who is postpartum and has mastitis D. A middle adult client who has a urinary tract infection
A. An adolescent client who has a sinus infection should be able to metabolize and excrete the medication without developing antibiotic toxicity. B. CORRECT: An older adult client who has prostatitis and is receiving antibiotics is at risk for toxicity due to the age‑related reduction in medication metabolism and excretion. C. A client who is postpartum and has mastitis should be able to metabolize and excrete the medication without developing antibiotic toxicity. D. A middle adult client who has a urinary tract infection should be able to metabolize and excrete the medication without developing antibiotic toxicity.
A nurse is caring for a client who has diabetes mellitus, pulmonary tuberculosis, and a new prescription for isoniazid. Which of the following supplements should the nurse expect to administer to prevent an adverse effect of INH? A. Ascorbic acid B. Pyridoxine C. Folic acid D. Cyanocobalamin
A. Ascorbic acid is given to clients who have a vitamin C deficiency. It is not a supplement administered to prevent an adverse effect of INH B. CORRECT: Pyridoxine is frequently prescribed along with INH to prevent peripheral neuropathy for clients who have increased risk factors, such as diabetes mellitus or alcohol use disorder. C. Folic acid is administered to clients who have hepatic disease and folic acid deficiency. It is not administered to prevent an adverse effect of INH D. Cyanocobalamin is administered to clients who have malabsorption syndrome. It is not administered to prevent an adverse effect of INH
A nurse reviewing a client's medication history notes an allergy to sulfonamides. This allergy is a contraindication for taking which of the following medications? (Select all that apply.) A. hydrochlorothiazide B. metoprolol C. Acetaminophen D. Glipizide E. Furosemide
A. CORRECT: A sulfonamide allergy is a contraindication for taking hydrochlorothiazide. Hypersensitivity, including Stevens‑Johnson syndrome, can result from taking hydrochlorothiazide and a sulfonamide concurrently. B. A sulfonamide allergy is not a contraindication for taking metoprolol. It is a contraindication for taking chlorpropamide, glimepiride, metolazone, and ethacrynic acid. C. A sulfonamide allergy is not a contraindication for taking acetaminophen. It is a contraindication for taking chlorpropamide, glimepiride, metolazone, and ethacrynic acid. D. CORRECT: A sulfonamide allergy is a contraindication for taking some oral antidiabetes medications, including glipizide and glyburide. Hypersensitivity, including Stevens‑Johnson syndrome, can result from taking glipizide and a sulfonamide concurrently. E. CORRECT: A sulfonamide allergy is a contraindication for taking loop diuretics, such as furosemide. Hypersensitivity, including Stevens‑Johnson syndrome, can result from taking furosemide and a sulfonamide concurrently.
A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for nitrofurantoin. Which of the following information should the nurse include? (Select all that apply.) A. Observe for bruising on the skin. B. Take the medication with milk or meals. C. Expect brown discoloration of urine. D. Crush the medication if it is difficult to swallow. E. Expect insomnia when taking it.
A. CORRECT: Bruising can indicate a blood dyscrasia, and the client should notify the provider if this occurs. B. CORRECT: Taking the medication with milk or meals minimizes GI discomfort from nausea, vomiting, anorexia, and diarrhea. C. CORRECT: A brown discoloration of urine is a common adverse effect of nitrofurantoin. D. Crushing the medication can cause staining of the teeth. E. Nitrofurantoin is more likely to cause drowsiness than insomnia.
A nurse is teaching a female client who has a severe UTI about ciprofloxacin. Which of the following information about adverse reactions should the nurse include? (Select all that apply.) A. Observe for pain and swelling of the Achilles tendon. B. Watch for a vaginal yeast infection. C. Expect excessive nighttime perspiration. D. Inspect the mouth for cottage cheese‑like lesions. E. Take the medication with a dairy product.
A. CORRECT: Pain and swelling of the Achilles tendon indicate an adverse effect of ciprofloxacin to report to the provider. B. CORRECT: A vaginal yeast infection is an overgrowth of Candida albicans, which commonly occurs when taking ciprofloxacin. C. An alteration in perspiration is not an adverse effect of this medication. Common adverse effects include headache, tremors, dizziness, and dysphagia. D. CORRECT: Cottage cheese‑like lesions in the mouth indicate an overgrowth of Candida albicans, a common adverse effect when taking ciprofloxacin. E. Milk and other dairy products contain calcium ions that reduce the effect of ciprofloxacin. The client should take the medication 6 hr before or 2 hr after ingesting dairy products.
A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for beclomethasone. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include? A. "Rinse your mouth after each use of this medication." B. "Limit fluid intake while taking this medication." C. "Increase your intake of vitamin B12 while taking this medication." D. "You can take the medication as needed."
A. CORRECT: The client should rinse her mouth after each use to reduce the risk of oral fungal infections. B. A client who has asthma should increase fluid intake to liquefy secretions, unless contraindicated by another condition. C. Glucocorticoids place the client at risk for bone loss. There is no need for the client to increase her intake of vitamin B12. The client should ensure an adequate intake of calcium and vitamin D. D. Beclomethasone is an inhaled glucocorticoid and is taken on a fixed schedule.
A nurse is teaching a client who has a prescription for long‑term use of oral prednisone for treatment of chronic asthma. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for which of the following adverse effects of this medication? A. Weight gain B. Nervousness C. Bradycardia D. Constipation
A. CORRECT: Weight gain and fluid retention are adverse effects of oral prednisone due to the effect of sodium and water retention. B. Nervousness and insomnia are adverse effects of beta agonists, not glucocorticoids. C. Tachycardia are adverse effects of prednisone and beta agonists. D. Diarrhea is an adverse effect of prednisone. Constipation is an adverse effect of tiotropium.
A nurse is caring for a client who has a cerebrospinal fluid infection with gram‑negative bacteria. Which of the following cephalosporin antibiotics should the nurse expect to administer IV to treat this infection? A. Cefaclor B. Cefazolin C. Cefepime D. Cephalexin
A. Cefaclor, a second‑generation cephalosporin, is unlikely to be effective against gram‑negative bacteria in cerebrospinal fluid. B. Cefazolin, a first‑generation cephalosporin, is unlikely to be effective against gram‑negative bacteria in cerebrospinal fluid. C. CORRECT: Cefepime, a fourth‑generation cephalosporin, is more likely to be effective against this infection than the other medications, which are from the first or second generation. Medications from each progressive generation of cephalosporins are more effective against gram‑negative bacteria, more resistant to destruction by beta‑lactamase, and more able to reach cerebrospinal fluid. D. Cephalexin, a first‑generation cephalosporin, is unlikely to be effective against gram‑negative bacteria in cerebrospinal fluid.
A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for dextromethorphan to suppress a cough. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for which of the following adverse effects of this medication? A. Diarrhea B. Anxiety C. Sedation D. Palpitations
A. Dextromethorphan can cause nausea. B. Phenylephrine can cause anxiety and irritability C. CORRECT: Dextromethorphan can cause sedation. Advise the client to avoid activities that require alertness. D.Phenylephrine can cause tachycardia and palpitations
A nurse is preparing to administer penicillin V to a client who has a streptococcal infection. The client tells the nurse that she has difficulty swallowing tablets and doesn't "do well" with liquid or chewable medications because the taste gags her, even when the nurse mixes the medication with food. The nurse should request a prescription for which of the following medications? A. Fosfomycin B. Amoxicillin C. Nafcillin D. Cefaclor
A. Fosfomycin is available only in a PO formulation. Acceptable alternatives to penicillin V within the penicillin classification include penicillin G, ampicillin, ticarcillin‑clavulanate, and piperacillin tazobactam. B. Amoxicillin is available only in a PO formulation. C. CORRECT: Nafcillin is an acceptable alternative within the penicillin classification because it is available for IM or IV use. D. Cefaclor is available only in a PO formulation and is not a penicillin
A nurse is providing instructions to the parent of an adolescent client who has a new prescription for albuterol, PO. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include? A."You can take this medication to abort an acute asthma attack." B. "Tremors are an adverse effect of this medication." C. "Prolonged use of this medication can cause hyperglycemia." D. "This medication can slow skeletal growth rate."
A. Inhaled albuterol is used to abort an acute asthma episode. B. CORRECT: Tremors can occur due to excessive stimulation of beta2 receptors of skeletal muscles. C. Prolonged use of glucocorticoids can cause hyperglycemia. D. Glucocorticoids slow skeletal growth rate in children and adolescents. However, height when the child reaches adulthood is not reduced.
A nurse is obtaining a medication history from a client who is to receive imipenem‑cilastatin IV to treat an infection. Which of the following medications the client also receives puts him at risk for a medication interaction? A. Regular insulin B. Furosemide C. Valproic acid D. Ferrous sulfate
A. Regular insulin, an antidiabetes medication, does not interact with imipenem‑cilastatin. medications that interact with imipenem‑cilastatin include probenecid, aminophylline, theophylline, ganciclovir, and cyclosporine. B. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, does not interact with imipenem‑cilastatin. C. CORRECT: Imipenem‑cilastatin decreases the blood levels of valproic acid, an antiseizure medication, putting the client at risk for increased seizure activity. If the client must take these two medications concurrently, the nurse should monitor for seizures. D. Ferrous sulfate does not interact with imipenem‑cilastatin.
A nurse is teaching a client who has active tuberculosis about his treatment regimen. The client asks why he must take four different medications. Which of the following responses should the nurse make? A. "Four medications decrease the risk for a severe allergic reaction." B. "Four medications reduce the chance that the bacteria will become resistant." C. "Four medications reduce the risk for adverse reactions" D. "Four medications decrease the chance of having a positive tuberculin skin test."
A. Taking several antituberculosis medications concurrently does not decrease the chance of an allergic reaction to any of the individual medications. B. CORRECT: If the client took only one medication to treat active tuberculosis, resistance to the medication would occur quickly. Taking three or four medications decreases the possibility of resistance. C. Taking several antituberculosis medications concurrently does not minimize the chance of adverse effects to any of the medications. Risk for liver toxicity increases when more than one medication that causes liver toxicity is taken, such as isoniazid, rifampin, and pyrazinamide. D. Taking several antituberculosis medications concurrently does not change the fact that the client will have a positive tuberculin skin test indefinitely
A nurse is teaching a client about the use of fluticasone to treat perennial rhinitis. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching? A. "I should use the spray every 4 hours while I am awake." B. "It can take as long as 3 weeks before the medication takes a maximum effect." C. "This medication can also be used to treat motion sickness." D. "I can use this medication when my nasal passages are blocked."
A. The client should use the medication once a day. B. CORRECT: The client can see some benefits of the medication within a few hours, but the maximum benefits can take up to 3 weeks. C. Diphenhydramine is used to treat motion sickness. D. The client should blow his nose to clear the nasal passages or use a topical decongestant, prior to use of the medication.
A nurse is planning to administer ciprofloxacin IV to a client who has cystitis. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? A. Administer a concentrated solution. B. Infuse the medication over 60 min. C. Infuse the solution through the primary IV fluid's tubing. D. Choose a small peripheral vein for administration.
A. The nurse should administer ciprofloxacin IV in a dilute solution to minimize irritation of the vein. B. CORRECT: The nurse should administer ciprofloxacin IV over 60 min to minimize irritation of the vein. C. The nurse should not infuse ciprofloxacin with any other IV medication or solution. The nurse should use another infusion site. D. The nurse should infuse ciprofloxacin into a large vein to minimize the risks of irritation and phlebitis.
A nurse is implementing a plan of care for a client who has a wound infection. Which of the following actions should the nurse perform first? A. Administer antibiotic medication. B. Obtain a wound specimen for culture. C. Review WBC laboratory findings. D. Apply a dressing to the wound.
A. The nurse should plan to administer antibiotics, but this is not the priority action. B. CORRECT: When using the urgent vs. nonurgent approach to care, the nurse's priority action is to obtain a culture of the wound before initiating antibiotic therapy. C. The nurse should review the WBC laboratory findings to identify any values outside the expected reference range, but this is not the priority action. D. The nurse should apply dressings to the wound to absorb drainage and prevent the spread of infection, but this is not the priority action.
A nurse is planning discharge teaching for a female client who has a new prescription for trimethoprim‑sulfamethoxazole. Which of the following information should the nurse include? A. Take the medication even if pregnant. B. Maintain a fluid restriction while taking it. C. Take it on an empty stomach. D. Stop taking it when manifestations subside.
A. Trimethoprim‑sulfamethoxazole can cause birth defects and fetal kernicterus, especially when taking it during the first trimester or near term B. The client should take trimethoprim‑sulfamethoxazole with at least eight 8 oz of water each day to prevent crystalluria, which results in kidney damage. C. CORRECT: The nurse should inform the client that she may take the medication with or without food. D. The client should take the entire course of medication the provider prescribed to destroy all the bacteria and prevent a rebound infection.
A nurse is preparing to administer cefotaxime IV to a client who has a severe infection and has been receiving cefotaxime for the past week. Which of the following findings indicates a potentially serious adverse reaction to this medication that the nurse should report to the provider? A.Diaphoresis B. Epistaxis C. Diarrhea D. Alopecia
A.Diaphoresis is not an adverse effect of cefotaxime. Common adverse effects include rashes, nausea, headache, dizziness, and weakness. B. Epistaxis is not an adverse effect of cefotaxime. C. CORRECT: Diarrhea is an adverse effect of cefotaxime and other cephalosporins that requires reporting to the provider. Severe diarrhea might indicate that the client has developed antibiotic‑associated pseudomembranous colitis, which could be life‑threatening. D. Alopecia is not an adverse effect of cefotaxime.
A broad-spectrum antibiotic would be the drug of choice when A. the patient has many known allergies B. one is waiting for culture and sensitivity results C. the infection is caused by one specific bacterium D. treatment is being given for an upper respiratory infection of unknown cause
B
A patient taking an OTC cold medication and an OTC allergy medicine is found to be taking double doses of pseudoephedrine. As a result, the patient might exhibit A. ear pain and eye redness. B. restlessness and palpitations. C. sinus pressure and ear pain. D. an irritating cough and nasal drainage
B
A patient with COPD would be expected to have A. an acute viral infection of the respiratory tract. B. loss of protective respiratory mechanisms due to prolonged irritation or damage. C localized swelling and inflammation within the lungs. D. inflammation or swelling of the sinus membranes over a prolonged period.
B
Antibiotics that are used together to increase their effectiveness and limit the associated adverse effects are said to be A. broad spectrum B. synergistic C. bactericidal D. anaerobic
B
Cipro, a widely used antibiotic, is an example of A. a penicillin B. a fluroquinolone C. an aminoglycoside d. a macrolide antibiotic
B
Superinfections can occur when anti-infective agents destroy the normal flora of the body. Candida infections are commonly associated with antibiotic use. A patient with this type of superinfection would exhibit A. difficulty breathing B. vaginal discharge or white patches in the mouth C. elevated blood urea nitrogen D. dark lesions on the skin
B
The penicillins A. are bacteriostatic B. are bactericidal, interfering with bacteria cell walls C. are effective only if given intravenously D. do not produce cross-sensitivity within their class
B
A patient is not getting a response to the antihistamine that was prescribed. Appropriate action might include A. switching to a decongestant. B. stopping the drug and increasing fluids C. trying a different antihistamine. D. switching to a corticosteroid.
C
A patient receiving a fluoroquinolone should be cautioned to anticipate A. increased salivation B. constipation C. photosensitivity D. a cough
C
An example of an anti-infective use as a means of prophylaxis would be A. amoxicillin used for tonsillitis B. penicillin used to treat an abscess C. an antibiotic used before dental surgery D. norfloxacin used for a bladder infection
C
Antitussives are useful in blocking the cough reflex and preserving energy associated with prolonged, nonproductive coughing. Antitussives are best used with A. postoperative patients. B. asthma patients. C. patients with a dry, irritating cough. D. COPD patients who tire easily.
C
Combination therapy is often used in treating infections. An important consideration for using combination therapy would be that A. it is cheaper to use two drugs in one tablet than one drug alone B. most infections are caused by multiple organisms C. the combination of drugs can delay the emergence of resistant strains D. combining anti-infectives will prevent adverse effects from occurring
C
Gram-negative bacteria A. are mostly found in the respiratory tract B. are mostly associated with soft tissue infections C. are mostly found in the GI and GU tracts D. accept a positive stain when tested
C
The emergence of resistant strains of microbes is a serious public health problem. Health care providers can work to prevent the emergence of resistant strains by A. encouraging the patient to stop the antibiotic as soon as the symptoms are resolved to prevent overexposure to the drug B. encouraging the use of antibiotics when patients feel they will help C. limiting the use of antimicrobial agents to the treatment of specific pathogens known to be sensitive to the drug being used D. using the most recent powerful drug available to treat an infection to ensure eradication of the microbe.
C
The fluoroquinolones A. are found freely in nature B. are associated with severe adverse reactions C. are widely used to treat gram-positive infections. D. are broad-spectrum antibiotics with few associated adverse effects
C
The goal of antibiotic therapy is A. to eradicate all bacteria from the system B. to suppress resistant strains of bacteria C. to reduce the number of invading bacteria so that the immune system can deal with the infection D. to stop the drug as soon as the patient feels better.
C
The nurse emphasizes the need to take sinusitis very seriously because A. it can cause a loss of sleep and exhaustion B. it can lead to painful otitis media. C. if it is left untreated, microorganisms can travel to brain tissue D. drainage from infected sinus membranes often leads to pneumonia.
C
The spectrum of activity of an anti-infective indicates A the acidity of the environment in which they are most effective B. the cell membrane type that the anti-infective affects. C. the anti-infective's effectivesness against different invading organisms D. the resistance factor that bacteria have developed to this anti-infective
C
Which of the following is most critical for respiration to occur? A. Low levels of oxygen B. Low levels of CO2 C. Functioning inspiratory muscles D. An actively functioning autonomic system
C
Which of the following is not a caution for the use of cephalosporins A. Allergy to penicillin B. Renal failure C. Allergy to aspirin D. Concurrent treatment with aminoglycosides
C
After teaching a community group about the common cold the instructor determines that the teaching was successful when the group states which of the following as the cause? A. Bacteria that grow best in the cold B. Allergens in the environment C. Irritation of the delicate mucous membrane D. A number of different viruses
D
Dornase alfa (Pulmozyme), because of its mechanism of action, is reserved for use in A. clearing secretions before diagnostic tests. B. facilitating the removal of secretions postoperatively. C. protecting the liver from acetaminophen toxicity. D. relieving the buildup of secretions in cystic fibrosis.
D
Patients with seasonal rhinitis experience irritation and inflammation of the nasal passages and passages of the upper airways. Treatment for these patients might include A. systemic corticosteroids. B. mucolytic agents. C. an expectorant. D. topical nasal steroids.
D
