Pharmacology Test #3
65. How often is fosfomycin (Monurol) usually administered when used in the treatment of UTIs? a. In a one-time dose b. Once per day c. Once per week d. Monthly
ANS: A
104. Which symptom is the patient who is receiving bleomycin (Blenoxane) therapy most likely to exhibit? a. Increased respiratory rate and cough b. Weight gain and peripheral edema c. Numbness and tingling of hands and feet d. Lethargy and orthostatic hypotension
ANS: A
131. Which drugs may reach toxic blood levels if administered with macrolide antibiotics? (Select all that apply.) a. Benzodiazepines b. Digoxin c. NSAIDs d. HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors e. Diuretics f. Theophylline
ANS: A, B, D, F
118. An older adult who has septicemia is receiving IV aminoglycoside therapy. Which symptom is most important for the nurse to monitor? a. Bone marrow suppression b. Ototoxicity c. Gastrointestinal (GI) distress d. Photosensitivity
ANS: B
84. What is the action of timolol maleate (Timoptic), a beta-adrenergic blocking agent? a. Draws aqueous humor from the eye into the circulatory network. b. Increases the production of aqueous humor. c. Increases the outflow of aqueous humor. d. Decreases the production of aqueous humor.
ANS: D
19. A patient has questions regarding a recently prescribed antitussive agent. Which response by the nurse is the best? a. "It will eliminate your cough at night." b. "It will reduce the frequency of your cough." c. "It should be used in the morning." d. "It should be taken before sleep."
ANS: B
21. What is the reason for administering sodium chloride to a patient with emphysema? a. To increase blood sodium levels b. To decrease mucus viscosity c. To reduce metabolic needs of the body d. To decrease bronchial irritation
ANS: B
25. What is the action of zafirlukast (Accolate), a leukotriene receptor antagonist? a. Dilates the alveolar sacs. b. Decreases leukotriene release. c. Inhibits histamine release. d. Increases viscosity of secretions.
ANS: B
29. The nurse is providing instruction about ipratropium (Atrovent) to a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which is a common adverse effect that tends to resolve with therapy? a. Anxiety b. Dry mouth c. Tachycardia d. Urine retention
ANS: B
31. A child has been diagnosed with asthma and the nurse is providing education to the family. Which statement by the mother indicates a need for further teaching? a. "I will place the stuffed animals in the freezer overnight." b. "We will confine our dog to the kitchen area." c. "I should wash bedding in hot water." d. "A damp cloth should be used when I dust."
ANS: B
32. The nurse is providing nutrition information to a patient diagnosed with a lower respiratory tract disease. What is the rationale for limiting caffeine? a. Caffeine increases the respiratory rate. b. Caffeine can result in thicker lung secretions. c. Caffeine will increase the anxiety response associated with dyspnea. d. Caffeine can cause bronchospasm.
ANS: B
34. The healthcare provider in an outpatient clinic has prescribed omalizumab (Xolair) to a patient. Which primary outcome will the nurse teach the patient to expect? a. Easier expectoration of phlegm b. Less frequent asthma exacerbations c. Increased moisture of the mucous membranes d. Liquefaction of thick secretions
ANS: B
52. Why must caution be used when taking a phosphodiesterase inhibitor to enhance male sexual function? a. It can become habit forming. b. Life-threatening consequences can occur with cardiovascular disorders. c. It is an ineffective treatment. d. It is expensive and available only by special prescription.
ANS: B
6. What initiates the sneeze reflex? a. Stimulation of the vagus nerve b. Irritation of the nasal mucosa by foreign particulate matter c. Stimulation of the tonsils d. Enervation of the olfactory cranial nerve
ANS: B
67. A 14-year-old male is taking tolterodine (Detrol). What is the action of this drug? a. Restores bladder tone and function. b. Decreases the urge to void. c. Prevents urinary retention. d. Acidifies urine.
ANS: B
70. What may become discolored by phenazopyridine (Pyridium) in addition to the urine? a. Feces b. Sclera c. Sputum d. Saliva
ANS: B
71. The nurse is teaching a patient about the anticholinergic agent prescribed for urinary retention. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching? a. "I will chew gum to relieve dry mouth." b. "I will limit my fluid intake." c. "I will eat fresh fruits." d. "I will not drive if I develop blurred vision."
ANS: B
80. The nurse is preparing a patient for an ophthalmic examination. Which action occurs when the nurse instills eyedrops to produce mydriasis? a. Drying of tears in the eyes b. Extreme dilation of the pupil c. Opening of the canal of Schlemm d. Paralysis of the ciliary muscle
ANS: B
81. Which type of medication would be used to dilate the pupils before an eye examination? a. Osmotics b. Adrenergic agent c. Beta-adrenergic agent d. Corticosteroid
ANS: B
85. What is the mechanism of action of osmotic agents when used to decrease IOP? a. Promoting outflow of the aqueous humor into the tear ducts b. Increasing plasma osmolarity and drawing extracellular fluid into the blood c. Blocking production of aqueous humor d. Decreasing viscosity of the tears and allowing fluid to drain away from the eye
ANS: B
86. Which is a potential serious adverse effect associated with mannitol (Osmitrol)? a. Bradycardia b. Fluid overload c. Anaphylaxis d. Fever
ANS: B
88. The nurse is assisting with applanation tonometry on a patient at the ophthalmologist's office. The results indicate the patient's reading to be 15 mm Hg. The nurse interprets this result as _____ IOP. a. decreased b. normal c. slightly increased d. severely increased
ANS: B
98. The cell cycle-specific agent vincristine sulphate (Oncovin) acts in which phase of the cell's life cycle? a. S phase b. Mitotic phase c. Phase G1 d. Phase G0
ANS: B
99. What is the importance of correlating the dosage schedule with cell cycle-specific drug therapy? a. Ongoing proliferation of neoplastic tissue b. The known cellular kinetics of the neoplasm c. The hormonal requirements of the patient d. The body's response in strengthening the immune system
ANS: B
35. The nurse is obtaining a history of respiratory symptoms on a patient with the diagnosis of COPD. The patient reports smoking one pack of cigarettes per day for the past 20 years. The nurse calculates the pack years as: a. 5. b. 10. c. 20. d. 40.
ANS: C
36. A resident in a long-term care facility diagnosed with COPD has a new medication order for indacaterol. When the nurse is providing education to the resident regarding this medication, information will include that: a. it is a short-acting beta antagonist. b. the patient should wait approximately 5 minutes between inhalations. c. onset of action is within 5 minutes. d. duration of action is about 12 hours.
ANS: C
4. A patient at sports camp is complaining of itchy and watery eyes, coughing, and sneezing when outdoors. The patient's chart states that he has an allergy to grasses. Which medication will the nurse administer? a. Antitussive b. Expectorant c. Antihistamine d. Decongestant
ANS: C
5. Which medication may be given to patients with allergic seasonal rhinitis who do not respond to antihistamines and sympathomimetics? a. Leukotrienes b. Mineralocorticoids c. Corticosteroids d. Cortisol
ANS: C
55. A woman using the NuvaRing vaginal ring informs the nurse that the ring was accidentally expelled a day ago. The nurse will instruct this patient to: a. rinse the ring in cool water and reinsert as soon as possible. b. rinse the ring in hot water and reinsert as soon as possible. c. rinse the ring in lukewarm water, reinsert, and use a non- hormonal backup contraceptive. d. insert a new ring.
ANS: C
63. A patient is complaining of moderate bladder pain and spasms secondary to a UTI. Which drug would assist in relieving symptoms? a. Tolterodine (Detrol) b. Nitrofurantoin (Furadantin) c. Phenazopyridine hydrochloride (Pyridium) d. Oxybutynin chloride (Ditropan)
ANS: C
64. A 42-year-old woman is admitted with complaints of dysuria, frequency, and lower back pain. The urinalysis report is positive for red blood cells, and the blood work shows an elevated white blood cell count. Which medication will the nurse anticipate that the healthcare provider will order? a. Meperidine (Demerol) b. Bethanechol chloride (Urecholine) c. Ciprofloxacin (Cipro) d. Metronidazole (Flagyl)
ANS: C
68. Which condition will neostigmine be used to treat? a. OAB b. UTI c. Postoperative or postdelivery urinary retention d. Benign prostatic hypertrophy
ANS: C
69. Which organism causes most UTIs? a. Proteus mirabilis b. Klebsiella pneumoniae c. E. coli d. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
ANS: C
7. What occurs in the nasal structures when cholinergic fibers are stimulated? a. Dryness of mucous membranes in the nostrils b. Bleeding in the mucous membranes in the nostrils c. Production of serous and mucous secretions in the nostrils d. Enhanced olfactory perception in the mucous membranes of the nostrils
ANS: C
73. When obtaining urine for analysis on a patient in the labor and birth unit, the nurse assesses the urine to appear frothy. The nurse interprets this as a sign of possible: a. gestational diabetes. b. infection. c. preeclampsia (toxemia). d. dehydration.
ANS: C
83. Which discharge instruction will the nurse include for a patient sent home from the clinic who is taking an adrenergic ophthalmic solution for an acute inflammation? a. Headaches and eye pain are adverse effects to be reported to the healthcare provider immediately. b. Mouth dryness should be reported immediately. c. Avoid driving or operating machinery until blurring subsides. d. "Halos" or yellow rings around objects will be seen while taking this medication.
ANS: C
87. The nurse is caring for a patient immediately following a right-sided trabeculectomy. When positioning this patient, the nurse will encourage a _____ position. a. prone b. right side-lying c. left side-lying d. Trendelenburg
ANS: C
9. Which instruction will the nurse include when teaching a patient with seasonal rhinitis and blocked nasal passages about intranasal corticosteroid therapy? a. "Clear your nasal passage after administration." b. "Anticipate a therapeutic benefit within 24 hours." c. "Use a decongestant prior to administration." d. "Report nasal burning to your healthcare provider."
ANS: C
60. The nurse will teach the patient beginning therapy with alfuzosin, an alpha-1 adrenergic blocking agent, to expect which common (and usually self-limiting) adverse effect(s)? (Select all that apply.) a. Nausea b. Insomnia c. Dizziness d. Headache e. Lethargy f. Anorexia
ANS: C, D, E
61. The nurse at an outpatient clinic is educating a group of young adults regarding prevention of the spread of sexually transmitted infections. Information will include: (Select all that apply.) a. the use of hormonal contraceptives. b. the use of latex condoms when infection is present. c. abstinence. d. frequent use of nonoxynol 9. e. the importance of "partner services."
ANS: C, E
51. The nurse is teaching a patient beginning therapy with dutasteride (Avodart). How long will it take before the patient can expect results? a. 24 hours b. 2 weeks c. 1 month d. 6 months
ANS: D
103. Which assessment by the nurse would be a sign of neurotoxicity related to chemotherapy? a. Paresthesia b. Euphoria c. Nausea d. Hallucinations
ANS: A
114. Which treatment(s) may be used alone or in combination for the treatment of cancer? (Select all that apply.) a. Surgery b. Radiation c. Chemotherapy d. Immunotherapy e. Phlebotomy
ANS: A, B, C, D
100. When are cancer cells most sensitive to chemotherapy? a. Resting phases b. Rapid division c. Remission intervals d. Slow replication
ANS: B
58. The nurse is completing a female reproductive history on a 16 year old. What important assessment(s) should be included? (Select all that apply.) a. Breast self-examination (BSE) routine b. Age of menarche and pattern of menses c. Smoking and blood pressure history when seeking a prescription for oral contraceptive pills (OCPs) d. Sexual orientation and number of partners e. Number of pregnancies, live births, miscarriages, and abortions f. Nutritional intake of carbohydrates
ANS; A, B, C, D, E
109. The nurse is caring for a patient diagnosed with breast cancer. The patient reports that she has been experiencing frequent watery stools following chemotherapy treatment. When educating the patient regarding dietary guidelines to help relieve symptoms, the nurse will encourage: a. eliminating spicy foods. b. eating low-protein foods. c. implementing a high-roughage diet. d. eating high-fat foods.
ANS: A
116. A patient allergic to penicillin is being evaluated for a gram-negative infection. Which antimicrobial drug class would the healthcare provider be cautious in prescribing because of a possible cross sensitivity and/or allergic reaction? a. Cephalosporins b. Aminoglycosides c. Sulfonamides d. Quinolones
ANS: A
119. On what is the selection of an antimicrobial agent based? a. Sensitivity of the microorganism to the drug b. Half-life of the medication c. Therapeutic levels of the drug d. Bioavailability of the drug
ANS: A
122. A patient is admitted with glomerulonephritis. IV gentamicin therapy is started after cultures indicate gram-negative bacilli in the blood. The patient also receives IV furosemide (Lasix). The nurse will monitor for signs and symptoms of toxicity related to which organ? a. Kidneys b. Pancreas c. Liver d. Brain
ANS: A
124. Which drug is incompatible with heparin? a. Gentamicin b. Ampicillin (Unasyn) c. Ticarcillin (Timentin) d. Ciprofloxacin (Cipro)
ANS: A
127. The nurse is caring for a patient being treated with an antimicrobial agent for the diagnosis of a sexually transmitted infection. Which statement made by the patient shows a need for further education? a. "I will use a barrier method when having sexual intercourse during therapy." b. "I will increase fluid intake to 2000 to 3000 mL/day." c. "I will increase protein in my diet." d. "I will rest frequently."
ANS: A
132. The nurse is planning to administer an ertapenem IV to a patient in the intensive care unit. When preparing this medication, the nurse will consider reconstituting it with: (Select all that apply.) a. water. b. bacteriostatic water. c. 0.9% sodium chloride. d. 0.45% dextrose. e. 1% lidocaine.
ANS: A, B, C
111. Major chemotherapeutic agents include: (Select all that apply.) a. alkylating agents. b. antineoplastic antibiotics. c. hormones. d. antimetabolites. e. antinuclear antibodies. f. chelating agents.
ANS: A, B, C, D
130. A patient has been receiving home healthcare and IV antimicrobial therapy for osteomyelitis (infection of the bone) of the lower right leg for the past 4 weeks. What will the nurse assess to evaluate the effectiveness of the antimicrobial agent? (Select all that apply.) a. Pain of the right leg b. Patient temperature c. Presence of edema, redness, or swelling in the right lower leg d. Culture and sensitivity parameters at the drug completion e. Complete blood count (CBC) and sedimentation rate laboratory values
ANS: A, B, C, E
112. Which nursing consideration(s) would be taken into account prior to the administration of cisplatin IV? (Select all that apply.) a. Review of laboratory data for presence of myelosuppression and hepatic and renal parameters b. Administration of IV hydration as prescribed c. Administration of epoetin alfa (Epogen) d. Administration of prechemotherapy mesna (Mesnex) e. Assessment for dermatologic conditions
ANS: A, B, D
113. Which sign(s) and symptom(s) assessed by the nurse would indicate thrombocytopenia? (Select all that apply.) a. Pinpoint red rash b. Casts in urine c. Brown, fatty stools d. Increase in menstrual flow e. Coffee-ground emesis
ANS: A, D, E
129. An older adult with a history of asthma, rhinitis, and no known drug allergies has been admitted to receive IV antimicrobial therapy for bronchitis. The patient has received the oral form of the antimicrobial agent in the past. Which factors increase the risk for an allergic reaction? (Select all that apply.) a. Medical history of asthma b. The patient's age c. IV antimicrobial therapy d. Medical history of rhinitis e. Subsequent use of the same antimicrobial therapy
ANS: A, D, E
102. Why is a patient with prostate cancer prescribed an estrogen? a. To achieve hormonal balance b. To decrease the rate of production for malignant cells c. To soften prostatic tissue d. To suppress prostate gland function
ANS: B
108. The nurse is providing education about chemotherapy to a patient who is being discharged. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching? a. "I will shave with an electric razor." b. "I will take aspirin for a headache." c. "I will wash my laundry separate from other family members." d. "I will flush the toilet twice after using."
ANS: B
115. When educating the patient on chemotherapy regarding skin care, the nurse will include: (Select all that apply.) a. vigorously drying the skin with a bath towel. b. avoiding sunlight. c. using mild soap. d. avoiding moisturizer. e. bathing in lukewarm water.
ANS: B, C, E
107. Why are bone marrow stimulants used in the treatment of cancer? a. To increase uptake of the chemotherapy from the interior of the bones b. To strengthen bones weakened by pathologic processes c. To enhance the patient's immune system during treatment d. To protect the bone marrow from destructive actions from the cancer treatment
ANS: C
117. The healthcare provider has prescribed penicillin and probenecid for a patient with a sexually transmitted disease. What is the purpose of combining these medications? a. To accelerate the excretion of the penicillin b. To inhibit the absorption of penicillin to allow the drug to remain in the transport phase c. To inhibit the excretion of the penicillin d. To reduce toxic effects associated with penicillin
ANS: C
121. Which conditions may occur with the administration of broad-spectrum antibiotics over an extended period of time? a. Cross sensitivity b. Immunosuppression c. Secondary infection d. Immunity
ANS: C
123. Which drug is the cornerstone of treatment for prophylaxis and treatment of tuberculosis (TB)? a. Amphotericin B (Abelcet) b. Streptomycin (Streptomycin) c. Isoniazid (Nydrazid) d. Acyclovir (Zovirax)
ANS: C
125. What adverse effect may manifest as dizziness, tinnitus, and progressive hearing loss? a. Ear infection b. Drug allergy c. Ototoxicity d. Idiosyncratic reaction
ANS: C
126. The nurse will monitor patients on cephalosporins and loop diuretics for which adverse effect? a. Hepatic toxicity b. Ototoxicity c. Nephrotoxicity d. Splenotoxicity
ANS: C
101. What is the advantage of combination therapy using cell cycle-specific and cell cycle-nonspecific agents? a. Decreased expense and time needed for administration b. Decreased toxicity to patients and the nurses who administer the drug c. Increased cell death in various cycles and decreased toxicity d. Increased rate of treatment success
ANS: D
105. What is the purpose of administering filgrastim (Neupogen) to a patient who is post-bowel resection resulting from cancer? a. Decrease the gastrointestinal (GI) toxicity resulting from chemotherapeutic agents. b. Suppress the immune response. c. Work as an antiemetic and stimulate his appetite. d. Increase the white blood cell (WBC) counts.
ANS: D
106. What is the intended outcome of the chemoprotective drug amifostine (Ethyol)? a. Decreased nausea and vomiting b. Increased effectiveness of the chemotherapy c. Maintenance of body weight d. Decreased renal toxicity
ANS: D
110. The nurse is preparing to administer medroxyprogesterone acetate as prescribed to a patient diagnosed with endometrial carcinoma. When gathering supplies to provide this medication, the nurse will obtain a(n): a. plastic medication cup. b. medicine dropper. c. subcutaneous needle and syringe. d. intramuscular (IM) needle and syringe.
ANS: D
120. A patient is scheduled to take tetracycline and aluminum hydroxide (Amphojel) at the same time. When will the nurse administer the medications to achieve the optimal effects? a. Both medications together b. Amphojel 30 minutes before tetracycline c. Tetracycline with orange juice d. Tetracycline 1 hour before Amphojel
ANS: D
128. Which patient can safely be treated with a fluoroquinolone medication? a. A 40 year old on steroid therapy b. A 15 year old with a sore throat c. A 70 year old with a gait abnormality d. A 30 year old with a fractured tibia
ANS: D
43. Which statement(s) about ipratropium bromide (Atrovent) is/are true? (Select all that apply.) a. It is administered by aerosol inhalation. b. It relieves nasal congestion. c. It decreases mucus secretion. d. It has minimal effect on ciliary activity. e. It is used for short-term treatment of bronchospasm. f. It may cause tachycardia or urinary retention.
ANS: A, D, F
1. Which is a serious adverse effect of decongestants? a. Hypotension b. Hypertension c. Orbital edema d. Facial flushing
ANS: B
11. A college student is being seen at an outpatient clinic with reports of allergic rhinitis and conjunctivitis. The healthcare provider orders fexofenadine. When providing information regarding this medication, the nurse will include statements indicating that: a. fexofenadine is one of the least sedating antihistamines. b. tolerance will not develop. c. antihistamines are more effective if taken after histamine is released. d. histamine release will be prevented by this medication.
ANS: A
26. What is albuterol (Proventil) used to treat? a. Acute bronchospasm b. Acute allergies c. Nasal congestion d. Dyspnea on exertion
ANS: A
27. From where do the fluids of the respiratory tract originate? a. Specialized mucous glands called goblet cells b. Lymph fluid drawn across nasal membranes by osmosis c. Specialized beta cells in the islets of Langerhans d. Cells that produce aqueous humor
ANS: A
30. An adult patient is admitted for an asthma attack. Which assessment obtained by the nurse would support that albuterol (Proventil) was effective? a. Decrease in wheezing present on auscultation b. Less dyspnea while positioned in a high Fowler's position c. Sputum production is clear and watery d. Respiratory rate decreased to 38 breaths/min
ANS: A
46. A patient states that she has a difficult time remembering when to resume her triphasic contraceptive pills following her menses. Which alternative plan will the nurse suggest that she discuss with her healthcare provider? a. Changing to the 28-day packet b. Using the inert pills every other month c. Changing her prescription to the mini pill d. Calling the healthcare provider whenever she forgets to get appropriate instruction
ANS: A
47. Which is more likely to be experienced by women taking the mini pill as an oral contraceptive? a. Ovulation, dysmenorrhea, and breakthrough bleeding b. Excessive weight gain and breast tenderness c. Increased estrogen-related adverse effects d. Difficulty breastfeeding after pregnancy
ANS: A
50. Which type of drug is most effective in the treatment of erectile dysfunction (ED)? a. Phosphodiesterase inhibitors b. Antiandrogen agents c. Sympathomimetic agents d. Alpha-1 adrenergic blocking agents
ANS: A
82. Which medication is used to produce miosis following a diagnostic procedure? a. Pilocarpine (Pilocar) b. Mannitol (Osmitrol) c. Atropine (Isopto Atropine) d. Epinephrine (EpiPen)
ANS: A
15. Which patient(s) would be able to take an alpha-adrenergic decongestant safely? (Select all that apply.) a. 24-year-old woman with allergic rhinitis b. 18-year-old man with cold symptoms c. 64-year-old woman with a history of heart disease d. 70-year-old woman with glaucoma e. 56-year-old man with prostatic hypertrophy
ANS: A, B
57. A nurse working at the community health clinic receives a call from a teen patient who reports that she has missed one of her birth control pills. Which response by the nurse is accurate? (Select all that apply.) a. Take the missed pill now. b. Take the next pill at the regularly scheduled time. c. Come into the clinic for a pregnancy test. d. Start with the next month's pill packet at day 1. e. Take the missed pill and the next pill together at the next regularly scheduled time.
ANS: A, B
96. The nurse is educating a patient about a newly prescribed cholinergic agent. When relaying common adverse effects of this type of medication, the nurse will include information about: (Select all that apply.) a. conjunctival irritation. b. headache. c. salivation. d. hypotension. e. bradycardia.
ANS: A, B
12. When does allergic rhinitis occur? (Select all that apply.) a. Nasal mucosa become inflamed. b. Exposure as a result of an allergen produces inflammation. c. Histamine is released following allergen exposure. d. The weather is cold during the winter. e. A person has an initial exposure to an antigen.
ANS: A, B, C
13. Which action(s) is/are true of antihistamines? (Select all that apply.) a. Reduce inflammation locally. b. Antagonize H1 receptors. c. May be administered orally. d. Are systemically distributed. e. Reduce nasal congestion.
ANS: A, B, C, D
91. What information will the nurse include when instructing a patient on the correct method of instilling eyedrops? (Select all that apply.) a. With an infection, prevent cross-contamination and use a separate source of medication and droppers for each eye. b. Wash hands before and after administration. c. Place the lid on the surface area as instructed to avoid contamination. d. Never touch the tip of the dropper or opening of the ointment container. e. Wipe eye from the outer to inner canthus.
ANS: A, B, C, D
39. The nurse is completing the admission of an older adult patient with a history of COPD whose diagnosis is pneumonia. Which assessments would be most important to include in obtaining the history? (Select all that apply.) a. Smoking history and exposure to secondhand smoke b. Current medications c. Chief complaint and onset of symptoms d. Support system e. Home oxygen use f. Liver function
ANS: A, B, C, D, E
40. Which physical assessment(s) would be pertinent to the patient with asthma? (Select all that apply.) a. Lung sounds b. Patient color c. Respiratory rate and effort d. Peak expiratory flow e. Pulse oximetry reading f. Bowel sounds
ANS: A, B, C, D, E
74. A patient has been taking an antimicrobial agent prescribed to treat a UTI for 2 days. She contacts the healthcare provider's office to report persistence of symptoms. In evaluating the medication effectiveness, which assessment(s) would be important? (Select all that apply.) a. Complete emptying of the bladder b. Amount of pain with urination as well as frequency c. Amount of daily fluid intake and output d. GI symptom complaints e. Bleeding with urination f. Persistence of nocturia
ANS: A, B, C, D, E
75. The nurse is assisting with postpartum care for a mother who has given birth to her fourth child. She reports a moderate amount of urinary incontinence since the birth of the third child and is concerned that this problem will worsen. Which instruction(s) may facilitate management of incontinence? (Select all that apply.) a. Instruction of proper wiping techniques to prevent bacterial infection b. Education on bladder training and Kegel exercises c. Information on personal hygiene measures to prevent perianal breakdown d. Information of incontinence products and appliances e. Importance of establishing a regular toileting schedule f. Importance of increasing fluid intake
ANS: A, B, C, D, E
38. What is true about arterial blood gases (ABGs)? (Select all that apply.) a. They are measured from an arterial sample. b. They measure partial pressures of carbon dioxide. c. They measure blood pH. d. They measure partial pressures of sodium. e. They measure partial pressures of oxygen.
ANS: A, B, C, E
90. A factory worker had a chemical inadvertently splashed into his right eye. An eyewash was used at the work site. Which nursing assessment(s) would be important to include? (Select all that apply.) a. Visual acuity b. Presence of pain, blurred or halo vision, or lack of vision c. Type of chemical d. Presence of nystagmus e. Presence of contacts or use of eyeglasses
ANS: A, B, C, E
93. What is the purpose of administering a cycloplegic agent? (Select all that apply.) a. Facilitate examination of the eye. b. Facilitate surgery on the eye. c. Cause pupillary dilation. d. Paralyze the ciliary muscle. e. Decrease the production of aqueous humor.
ANS: A, B, D
14. The nurse is preparing education for a patient who has developed rebound nasal congestion resulting from use of topical decongestants. What information will the nurse include? (Select all that apply.) a. For future topical decongestant use, follow the dosage directions daily. Do not overuse. b. Stop the topical decongestant at once. c. A decrease in congestion will occur immediately. d. Nasal steroid solutions can be used but may take several days to reduce inflammation and congestion. e. Use nasal saline spray to moisturize irritated mucosa.
ANS: A, B, D, E
42. Which statement(s) about acetylcysteine is/are true? (Select all that apply.) a. It reduces viscosity of secretions. b. It treats acetaminophen toxicity. c. It is stored at room temperature. d. It is given to improve airway flow. e. It is odorless. f. It is administered by inhalation.
ANS: A, B, D, F
92. A patient recently diagnosed with glaucoma is to begin drug therapy with carbonic anhydrase inhibitors. For which assessment(s) would the nurse need to contact the healthcare provider? (Select all that apply.) a. Electrolyte levels b. Any signs of gastric symptoms before initiating drug therapy c. Allergy to sulfonamides d. Patient history of menopause e. Elevated IOP levels
ANS: A, C
94. Which are important teaching points for the nurse to review with a patient recently diagnosed with open-angle glaucoma? (Select all that apply.) a. The disease will cause damage to the optic disk if left untreated. b. Symptoms are sudden and painful when the disease begins. c. Loss of peripheral vision is a common trigger for diagnosis. d. Total blindness may result if the glaucoma is not treated. e. Glaucoma is not a serious disease and will cause only mild inconvenience to the patient. f. Treatment is only necessary when symptoms are bothersome.
ANS: A, C, D
17. Which topically active aerosol steroids are highly effective for reducing sneezing, nasal itching, stuffiness, and rhinorrhea? (Select all that apply.) a. Beclomethasone (Beconase AQ) b. Prednisone (Deltasone) c. Fluticasone (Flonase) d. Flunisolide (Nasarel) e. Budesonide (Rhinocort Aqua)
ANS: A, C, D, E
41. Which principle(s) would be when teaching a patient to use a steroid inhaler? (Select all that apply.) a. Frequent oral hygiene is necessary. b. The inhaler should be used on a PRN basis only. c. Rinse and spit after inhalation of the medication. d. When taking a steroid drug as well as a bronchodilator, the bronchodilator should be administered first. e. Hold the breath for 10 seconds during inhalation of the medication.
ANS: A, C, D, E
56. The healthcare provider has instructed a patient to use over-the-counter miconazole (Monistat) cream to treat her vaginal yeast infection. What information is important to include in patient education? (Select all that apply.) a. Wash the genital area thoroughly before inserting the vaginal cream. b. Wash the applicator before usage. c. Wear a minipad to catch remaining discharge following vaginal administration. d. Wash hands before and after administration. e. The sexual partner may require treatment as well.
ANS: A, C, D, E
95. What information will the nurse include when teaching the patient and family about postoperative care for a trabeculectomy? (Select all that apply.) a. Use aseptic technique for all dressing changes and medication administration. b. Place the patient on the operated side. c. Avoid heavy lifting. d. Redness in the eye, pain, and swelling are common occurrences after surgery. e. Avoid straining on defecation.
ANS: A, C, D, E
89. Which statement(s) about aqueous humor is/are true? (Select all that apply.) a. Bathes and feeds the lens, posterior surface of the cornea, and iris. b. Maintains the iris color. c. Drains out of the eye through drainage channels located near the junction of the cornea and sclera. d. Manufactures fluid for tear production. e. Flows out of the canal of Schlemm into the venous system of the eye.
ANS: A, C, E
59. The nurse is giving instructions to a young female at an outpatient clinic regarding combination OCP therapy. What information will the nurse include? (Select all that apply.) a. Medication should be taken at approximately the same time daily. b. A backup birth control method should be used for the first 6 months. c. Medication should be discontinued 1 year before attempting pregnancy. d. Headaches, dizziness, and chest or abdominal pain should be reported immediately. e. If a pill is missed, take it immediately and remain on schedule for the next dosage.
ANS: A, D, E
77. Which intervention(s) will help stimulate urination when a patient is experiencing postoperative urinary retention? (Select all that apply.) a. Reinforcing Kegel exercises b. Administration of bethanechol chloride (Urecholine) c. Pouring warm water over the perineum d. Increasing IV fluids e. Urinary catheterization
ANS: B, C
16. Which principle(s) will the nurse include in a teaching plan for antihistamine therapy? (Select all that apply.) a. It is typical to experience an increase in energy. b. Dietary fiber and fluids should be increased. c. Do not take with prescription medications unless approved by a physician. d. Blurred vision is an expected adverse effect. e. Over-the-counter (OTC) medications are safe to use with any currently prescribed prescription medications.
ANS: B, C, D
37. Which statement(s) is/are true regarding the nursing assessment of a patient with a respiratory disorder? (Select all that apply.) a. Central cyanosis typically is observed on the fingers and earlobes. b. Clubbing of the fingernails is a sign of hypoxia. c. As oxygen levels diminish, mental alertness will progressively deteriorate. d. The normal respiratory rate in an adult is 10 breaths/min. e. Episodes of apnea are present in Cheyne-Stokes.
ANS: B, C, E
76. The nurse is reviewing the urinalysis results of an older adult patient admitted with elevated temperature and incontinence. Which urinalysis properties are indicative of an infection? (Select all that apply.) a. Straw color b. Foul odor c. Trace glucose d. pH of 8.2 e. Specific gravity of 1.014
ANS: B, D
44. The nurse is preparing to administer two inhalations of ipratropium bromide (Atrovent). When providing this medication, the nurse will instruct the patient to: (Select all that apply.) a. hold the canister horizontally. b. keep the eyes closed. c. exhale through the mouthpiece. d. wait 15 seconds before the second inhalation. e. shake the canister thoroughly prior to use.
ANS: B, D, E
78. Fluoxetine, erythromycin, clarithromycin, ketoconazole, itraconazole, miconazole, vinblastine, ritonavir, and nefazodone may inhibit the metabolism of which drugs? (Select all that apply.) a. Warfarin b. Tolterodine c. Phenytoin d. Darifenacin e. Heparin f. Solifenacin
ANS: B, D, F
18. The nurse is providing counseling to a patient on cromolyn sodium (Nasalcrom) nasal spray. Information relayed to the patient will include that: (Select all that apply.) a. cromolyn must be taken immediately following exposure to the stimulus. b. the patient should blow the nose before nasal instillation. c. therapeutic effects are immediate. d. inhalation will cause coughing. e. the maximum is six sprays in each nostril daily.
ANS: B, E
79. The nurse is caring for a patient taking Pyridium for the diagnosis of UTI. What should the nurse report to the healthcare provider? (Select all that apply.) a. Orange-colored urine b. Yellow sclera c. Flushing of the skin d. Headache e. Increased pain and burning
ANS: B, E
10. The clinic nurse is assessing a patient being seen for a severe allergic reaction to environmental allergens. Which symptom should the nurse prioritize as the most important? a. Hypotension b. Urticaria c. Dyspnea d. Rhinorrhea
ANS: C
2. The nurse is teaching a patient about the administration of antihistamines. The nurse will instruct the patient to take the medication at what time of day? a. PRN throughout the day b. After contact with an allergen c. 45 minutes before exposure to an allergen d. Once nasal congestion begins
ANS: C
20. Which is a common expectorant in over-the-counter medications? a. Dextromethorphan b. Diphenhydramine c. Guaifenesin d. Codeine
ANS: C
24. A patient is seen in the emergency department. The patient had been maintained on theophylline (Theo Dur), and a blood sample reveals the serum theophylline level is subtherapeutic. Which may cause a subtherapeutic serum level? a. Cimetidine use b. Drug tolerance c. Smoking d. Overuse of the inhaler
ANS: C
28. What structures in the respiratory tract assist in removing foreign bodies such as smoke and bacteria? a. Villi b. Golgi bodies c. Ciliary hairs d. Erector pili
ANS: C
3. What can result if a patient overuses topical decongestants? a. Hypertensive crisis b. Allergic reaction c. Secondary congestion d. Permanent olfactory damage
ANS: C
33. The nurse is teaching a patient with a history of COPD to self-administer tiotropium (Spiriva) by dry powder inhalation. Which information provided by the nurse is accurate? a. The medication capsules can be used multiple times. b. Press on the canister while inhaling. c. Avoid breathing into the mouthpiece. d. Wash the device with cold water.
ANS: C
22. Within minutes of the initiation of a nebulizer treatment with a sympathomimetic bronchodilator, the patient turns on his call light and states that he feels "panicky" and his heart is racing. Which action will the nurse take? a. Reassure the patient this is expected. b. Add more diluents to the nebulizer. c. Administer a sedative. d. Stop treatment and notify the healthcare provider.
ANS: D
23. Premedication assessments before the use of anticholinergic bronchodilating agents should verify that the patient has no history of which condition? a. Diabetes b. Hypertension c. Liver disease d. Glaucoma
ANS: D
45. A female patient has developed leukorrhea since being on oral broad spectrum antibiotics for the past week for a lower respiratory infection. Which organism causes leukorrhea? a. Herpes simplex b. Mycoplasma hominis c. Human papillomavirus (HPV) d. Candida albicans
ANS: D
48. The nurse is obtaining a history on a patient who is seeking oral contraceptives. Which condition would contraindicate the use of oral contraceptives? a. Sexually transmitted diseases (STDs) b. Hypothyroidism c. Varicose veins d. Thromboembolic disease
ANS: D
49. A patient diagnosed with benign prostatic hypertrophy asks why tamsulosin (Flomax), an alpha-1 adrenergic blocking agent, has been prescribed. Which explanation by the nurse is most accurate? a. It inhibits the action of testosterone. b. It improves sexual function. c. It reduces the size of the prostate. d. It increases urinary flow.
ANS: D
53. What is the mechanism whereby estrogen functions as a contraceptive? a. Inhibiting luteinizing hormone (LH), blocking release of ovum from a follicle b. Thinning cervical mucus, which inhibits sperm migration c. Trapping the ovum in the endometrial wall, preventing its growth d. Blocking follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), thereby preventing release of ovum
ANS: D
54. The nurse is instructing a patient on use of a transdermal contraceptive. When evaluating the patient's understanding of the information provided, the nurse identifies a need for further education when the patient states: a. "Apply the first patch during the first 24 hours of the menstrual period." b. "Use a backup contraceptive concurrently for the first 7 days of the first cycle." c. "Fold the used patch over on itself before discarding." d. "Trim the patch carefully prior to application."
ANS: D
62. What is the action of urinary antimicrobial agents? a. Reduce pain associated with bladder spasms caused by the infection. b. Enhance output enough to flush out the infection from the urinary tract. c. Eliminate urinary retention. d. Have an antiseptic effect on the urine and the urinary tract.
ANS: D
66. After undergoing prostate surgery, a patient is discharged on the medication phenazopyridine hydrochloride (Pyridium) to assist with urinary catheter discomfort. What information will the nurse include in the discharge teaching? a. Urine will have a foul smell while taking this medication. b. Diarrhea and abdominal cramping are expected adverse effects. c. The sclera of the eye is yellow while on therapy. d. Urine will appear reddish orange.
ANS: D
72. The nurse is preparing to administer a single-dose packet of fosfomycin to a patient diagnosed with a UTI. When preparing this medication, the nurse will: a. pour contents into a soufflé cup and administer by mouth. b. mix with 3 mL of normal saline and inject subcutaneously. c. pour contents into 90 mL of juice, stir, and administer by mouth. d. mix contents with 120 mL of water and administer by mouth.
ANS: D
8. What process in the antigen-antibody reaction causes the symptoms of allergies? a. Release of antihistamines b. Production of antibodies c. Suppression of histamine d. Release of histamine
ANS: D
97. The nurse is educating a patient with cancer about combination chemotherapy. Which is an accurate statement? a. "Combination chemotherapy is the administration of an antineoplastic drug that will be toxic during a specific phase of cellular growth." b. "Combination chemotherapy is the administration of an antineoplastic drug that is active throughout the cell cycle." c. "Combination chemotherapy is the administration of antineoplastic drugs that change the way the body responds to cancer or strengthens the immune system." d. "Combination chemotherapy is the administration of antineoplastic drugs, which results in cell death during different phases of the cell cycle."
ANS: D
