Practice Exam 3
What is the generic name for Patanol? Brimonidine Ciprofloxacin Latanoprost --Olopatadine
Olopatadine is the generic name for Patanol. Brimonidine is generic for Alphagan, ciprofloxacin is generic for Ciloxan, and latanoprost is generic for Xalatan.
What is the correct dosage for a 25-lb child if the adult dose is 100 mg?
Solve using Clark's rule: (Wt [lb]/150) × Adult dose (25/150) × 100 mg = 16.67 mg (17 mg).
Gentamicin 120 mg in 100 mL D5W is administered over 30 minutes every 8 hours with a 10 drop kit. What will the gtt/min be?
Solve using the following formula: (Rate)(Kit size)(1 hr/60 min) = gtt/min, where (100 mL/0.5 hr)(10 gtt/mL)(1 hr/60 min) = 33 gtt/min.
Which of the following is not an automated dispensing system? ---TJC Pyxis Robot Rx SureMed
TJC is an acronym for The Joint Commission. Pyxis, Robot Rx, and SureMed are automated dispensing systems.
Which of the following medications must be stored in the refrigerator? Pred Forte Propine Timoptic --Xalatan
Xalatan must be stored in a refrigerator; the other medications may be stored at room temperature.
What is the meaning of the signa "i gtt ou tid ud"? Instill 1 drop in each ear three times a day as directed. Instill 1 drop in each eye two times a day as directed. Instill 1 drop in each eye three times a day as needed. --Instill 1 drop in each eye three times a day as directed.
i (Roman numeral for 1) gtt (drop) ou (each eye) tid (three times per day) ud (as directed).
What size bottle should be used in dispensing 150 mL of a syrup?
150 mL is equal to 5 fl oz; therefore, a 6-oz bottle should be used. A 2-oz bottle is equal to 60 mL, a 4-oz bottle is equal to 120 mL, and an 8-oz bottle is equal to 240 mL.
Rx Codeine phosphate 30 mg/tsp Tussin syrup 30 mL Elixophyllin qs 240 mL Sig: 5 mL qid pc hs If 5 mL of Tussin syrup contains 100 mg of guaifenesin, how many milligrams of the drug would be taken daily?
240 mL of the prescription is to be prepared. The patient is to receive four doses of 5 mL daily or a total of 20 mL. To calculate the amount of Tussin to be taken daily, solve using a proportion (30 mL of Tussin/240 mL of total solution = X mL of Tussin/20 mL of total solution, where X = 2.5 mL of Tussin). Calculate the amount of guaifenesin (100 mg of guaifenesin/5 mL of Tussin solution = X mg of guaifenesin/2.5 mL, where X = 50 mg).
Which of the following interpretations of the signa "30 mL MOM po ac and hs prn" is correct? Take one teaspoonful of Milk of Magnesia by mouth before meals and at bedtime as needed. Take one tablespoonful of Milk of Magnesia by mouth after meals and at bedtime as needed. Take 1 oz of Milk of Magnesia by mouth after meals and at bedtime as needed. --Take 1 oz of Milk of Magnesia by mouth before meals and at bedtime as needed.
30 mL (1 oz) MOM (Milk of Magnesia) po (by mouth) ac (before meals) hs (bedtime) prn (as needed).
Which of the following is a contraindication? Directions by a pharmacist or physician that the patient should stop taking a certain prescription medication Computer alert indication that the patient is getting a prescription too soon Situation in which the effect of one medication is changed by another medication that a patient is taking at the same time --Symptom or medical condition that indicates the inappropriateness of a form of treatment that would be otherwise be advisable
A contraindication is a symptom or medical condition that indicates the inappropriateness of a form of treatment that would be otherwise advisable.
Which of the following terms is a set amount of money that must be paid by the patient before the insurer will cover additional expenses? Coinsurance Copay ---Deductible Maximum allowable cost
A deductible is an amount an individual must pay before the insurance company begins to make a payment; coinsurance occurs when two parties are responsible for the payment; copay means the insured party must pay a given amount of money each time before the insurance company begins to pay; and maximum allowable cost is the most the insurance company will pay for a generic medication.
A patient comes to the pharmacy to refill a prescription. She knows the name of the medication but does not have the prescription number. The pharmacy technician uses the computer at the prescription drop-off counter to look up this information. What type of computer is used here? --Dumb terminal Mainframe Microcomputer Minicomputer
A dumb terminal allows a number of users to access patient information. Mainframe computers are large, expensive, powerful computers used to process large quantities of data. Microcomputers or personal computers (PCs) are stand-alone systems that run software programs and manage data accessed from a larger source. Microcomputers include a monitor, central processing unit (CPU), and printer. Microcomputers are used in pharmacies for quality assurance, drug information, drug utilization evaluations, adverse drug reporting, non-formulary drug use, and workload statistics. Minicomputers are smaller scaled mainframes used by several people in an organization through the use of local area network (LAN).
Which of the following allows a computer to communicate over a network? Memory --Modem Processor Storage
A modem is a device that allows a computer to communicate over a network. Memory (RAM or random access memory) provides the computer with a temporary workspace; the processor is considered the "brains" of the workstation; and computer storage is a permanent place for read-only memory (ROM) information.
What term describes the response when two or more drugs combine to provide a response that is greater than the sum of the two individual drugs? Additive effect Potentiation ---Synergistic effect None of the above
A synergistic effect is a joint action of drugs in which their combined effect is more intense or longer in duration than the sum of their individual effects.
You have received a medication order for Lasix 40 mg bid for 10 days. You prepare a unit dose of Lasix suspension (10 mg/mL). How much would you dispense for a unit dose?
A unit dose is the amount of medication required for one dose of the medication. The order is for 40 mg. To solve for the volume desired, use 10 mg/mL = 40 mg/X mL, or 4 mL.
What type of hospital error occurs when there is a failure to administer an ordered dose to a patient before the next dose is due? Improper dose error --Omission error Wrong drug administration Wrong time error
According to the ASHP, this is an example of an omission error.
What is the maximum number of refills allowed for a Schedule III drug?
According to the Controlled Substances Act of 1970, the maximum number of refills allowed by a physician is five refills within 6 months of the date the prescription was written.
Which of the following medications does not possess antiinflammatory properties? --APAP ASA Ibuprofen Naproxen sodium
Acetaminophen possesses analgesic and antipyretic activity. In addition to these two properties, aspirin, ibuprofen, and naproxen sodium have an antiinflammatory property.
Which of the following medications has been identified as a "high-alert medication" by the ISMP? Isotretinoin ---Methotrexate Naproxen All of the above
Both isotretinoin and naproxen may have significant adverse effects, so they have not been classified as "high-alert medications" by the ISMP. Medications found on this list include epoprostenol (IV), magnesium sulfate (injection), methotrexate (oral, non-oncologic use), opium tincture, oxytocin (IV), nitroprusside sodium for injection, potassium chloride for injection concentrate, potassium phosphates injection, promethazine (IV), and vasopressin (IV or intravenous).
Which of the following products can be used as a smoking cessation product and as an antidepressant? --Bupropion Nicotine Trazodone Zolpidem
Bupropion is the generic name for the antidepressant Wellbutrin and the generic name for the smoking cessation product Zyban.
Use the following table to calculate the retail price for the prescription below: AWP Professional Fee Less than $15.00 $4.00 $15.01-$50.00 $4.50 Greater than $50.00 $5.00 Glyburide 5 mg tablets#30 AWP $440.05/1000 tablets How much should the patient be charged for this prescription?
Calculate the cost of 30 tablets using the following proportion: 1000 tablets/$440.05 = 30 tablets/X, where X = $13.20. Find where the cost falls in the equation and add the professional fee: $13.20 + $4.00 = $17.20.
Which of the following is not an example of a sound-alike, look-alike drug? CeleBREX-CeleXA CeleXA-Cerebyx CeleXA-ZyPREXA --Cymbalta-CeleXA
CeleBREX-CeleXA, CeleXA-Cerebyx, and CeleXA-ZyPREXA have been identified by the Institute of Safe Medication Practices (ISMP) after being reported to ISMP-MERP as being involved in many medication errors because of their sound-alike or look-alike names. Cymbalta and CeleXA have not had medication errors attributed to them because of sound-alike or look-alike names.
Where should chemotherapy products be prepared?
Chemotherapy agents should be prepared in a vertical laminar airflow hood.
Which of the following medications is not an anticonvulsant agent? Carbamazepine Clonazepam --Clozapine Phenytoin
Clozapine is an antipsychotic agent.
Which of the following drugs is a Schedule II drug? Acetaminophen with codeine Alprazolam --Cocaine Flurazepam
Cocaine is a Schedule II drug under the Controlled Substances Act of 1970. Cocaine does have a medical use in the United States but has a high potential for abuse.
Which of the following is not a requirement for repackaging a medication? The container must not interact chemically with the medication. --The container must contain compliance aids. The container must protect the medication from breaking. The label must identify the contents completely and precisely.
Compliance aids do not need to be included with unit-dose medications.
Which of the following medications would be contraindicated with vitamin K therapy? --Coumadin Heparin Lovenox Plavix
Coumadin is an anticoagulant, but vitamin K causes the blood to coagulate.
Which of the following antihistamines requires a prescription? Cetirizine Diphenhydramine ---Desloratadine Loratadine
Desloratadine (Clarinex) requires a prescription. The other medications are over-the-counter products.
Which of the following side effects may result from taking thiazide diuretics? Hypocalcemia Hypoglycemia --Hypokalemia Hypourticaria
Diuretics have a tendency to remove potassium from the body: hypo- (low); kalemia (potassium).
According to the ISMP, what problem may occur by using the abbreviation "H.S." on a prescription? Mistaken for half-strength Mistaken for every hour Mistaken for hour of sleep --All of the above
Dosing errors may occur and therefore the words should be written out on a medication order instead of using the abbreviation "H.S."
Which of the following is not a side effect of steroidal medications? Bruising ---Inflammation Moon face Weight gain
Inflammation is an indication for the use of steroids rather than a side effect.
Which of the following is not required on a prescription medication label? Expiration date of medication --Lot number of medication Pharmacist's initials Trade and generic name of medication
Information required on a prescription label includes the name, address, and telephone number of the pharmacy; prescription number; patient's name; drug, strength, or dose; manufacturer's name; instructions; date filled; refill information; prescriber; and expiration date.
A pharmacy has a beginning inventory of $200,000 and an ending inventory of $250,000. During this period, the pharmacy obtains sales of $2,150,000. How many inventory turns will the pharmacy experience?
Inventory turnover rate is calculated by dividing the total sales ($2,150,000) by the average inventory ([$200,000 + $250,000]/2). 2,150,000 / 225,000 = 10.75
When a clinical study of an investigational drug is concluded, what is done with the remaining medication? Removed from the pharmacy shelves and destroyed Removed from the pharmacy shelves, inventoried, and returned to the FDA ---Removed from the pharmacy shelves, inventoried, and returned to the sponsor Removed from the pharmacy shelves, inventoried, and stored
Investigational drugs are medications that have not been approved by the FDA. They are medications that are being considered for approval by the FDA. Upon completion of the study, the investigational drugs are removed from the pharmacy shelves, inventoried, and returned to the sponsor.
Which of the following categories of medications is not ordered in a community pharmacy? Controlled substances --Investigational drugs Prescription drugs Oncology agent
Investigational drugs are not stocked in a community pharmacy. They are stocked only in select hospitals that have permission to participate in investigational studies.
Who is responsible for ensuring that medications are stored at the proper temperature in the pharmacy? Certified pharmacy technician Inventory pharmacy technician Pharmacist ---All of the above
It is the responsibility of the entire pharmacy team to ensure medications are stored at the proper temperature.
Which of the following would not be used in extemporaneous compounding? Class A balance Compounding slab Graduate cylinder --Laminar flow hood
Laminar airflow hoods are used to prepare sterile products. Extemporaneous compounds are not sterile products. A class A balance, a compounding slab, a graduate cylinder, spatulas, and a mortar and pestle are a few of the pieces of pharmacy equipment used in extemporaneous compounding.
What is MEDMARX? A national medication error reporting system --An international adverse drug effect reporting system A vaccine adverse effect reporting system The FDA adverse effect reporting system
MEDMARX is an international adverse drug effect reporting system that is used to prevent medication errors leading to adverse drug effects to gain a better understanding of adverse drug reactions.
Which herbal remedy can be used to treat insomnia? Echinacea Green tea ---Melatonin St. John's wort
Melatonin is used to treat insomnia. Echinacea is used for its antiviral, immuno-stimulant, and arthritis-treating ability; green tea has antioxidant and cholesterol-lowering capability; and St. John's wort is used as an antidepressant.
The cost of 100 tablets of a particular medication is $2.00. What would the retail price be if there was a 30% gross profit?
Multiply the cost ($2.00) by the desired profit (0.3), which yields a profit of $0.60. Adding the profit ($0.60) to the cost ($2.00) will result of a selling price of $2.60.
Which organ would be affected if the root word "nephro" was indicated?
"Nephro" is the Latin root word for kidney.
How many days would 40 capsules of a medication last if the directions were "i cap qid"?
"qid" means 4 times per day. 40 capsules/4 capsules per day would yield 10 days.
Which of the following is responsible for negotiating prices for hospitals but is not responsible for their purchase? --Group purchasing organization (GPO) Hospital buyer Pharmacist in charge Prime vendor
A GPO negotiates prices with drug manufacturers for a group of institutions. It is the responsibility of the institution to purchase the medications.
Who provides pharmacy services under a health care plan? Managed care Managed care organization Managed care providers --Pharmacy benefit manager (PBM)
A PBM focuses on the pharmacy services provided under a health care plan. The PBM contracts with an insurer to provide prescription drugs to members usually through community pharmacies.
How often is a biennial inventory taken in a pharmacy?
A biennial inventory is required of all controlled substances by the DEA every 2 years.
Which of the following is not required on a prescription? Directions for use Medication name, strength, and quantity --Patient's birth date Patient's name
A patient's birth date is not required on a prescription.
What components would be found in a total nutrient admixture? --Amino acids, dextrose, and lipids Amino acids, dextrose, and proteins Amino acids, dextrose, and vitamins Amino acids, dextrose, minerals, and vitamins
Amino acids, dextrose, and lipids are used to prepare a total nutrient admixture.
Who may generate an ePHR? Hospital Pharmacy Physician --All of the above
An ePHR ( Electronic Personal Health Record) may be generated by physicians, patients, hospitals, and pharmacies.
Which of the following dosage forms is not a solid dosage form? Capsule --Elixir Douche Powder
An elixir is a mixture of alcohol and water.
What is another term for an auxiliary label? Block label PPI Prescription label ---Strip label
Another term for auxiliary label is "strip label." Both auxiliary and strip labels provide additional information to the patient regarding the medication such as storage or directions for use
Which of the following drug classifications should be avoided in elderly adults? ---Anticholinergic medications ACE inhibitors Proton pump inhibitors SSRIs
Anticholinergic medications have a tendency to cause confusion, constipation, and dry mouth, especially in elderly adults.
Which classification of medications may yield side effects such as dry eyes, dry mouth, or difficult urination or defecation? Alpha-blockers --Anticholinergics Beta-blockers Cephalosporins
Anticholinergics have a tendency to dry up all bodily secretions as a side effect.
Which type of agent prevents the growth of bacteria but does not kill the bacteria? Antineoplastic Antifungal Bactericidal --Bacteriostatic
Antineoplastics are agents used to prevent the development, proliferation, and growth of abnormal cells; antifungal agents prevent the spread of fungus and eliminate it; bactericidal agents kill bacteria.
What factors should be considered when dealing with elderly patients? Auditory issues Chronic conditions Multiple medications --All of the above
As a patient ages, his or her ability to hear properly is reduced; the patient may begin to develop multiple disease states; as a result of multiple disease states, the patient is required to take multiple medications.
Which of the following combination products contains a beta-blocker and a diuretic? ----Atenolol + chlorthalidone Benazepril + hydrochlorothiazide Oxycodone + acetaminophen Spironolactone + hydrochlorothiazide
Atenolol + chlorthalidone is a combination product containing a beta-blocker and a diuretic used in the treatment of hypertension.
Which of the following is false regarding e-prescribing? A disadvantages of e-prescribing is the transaction fee the pharmacy incurs Connects health providers, patients, and agencies in real time Improves efficiency in the pharmacy --Requires paper to be used
E-prescribing is paperless.
What is the meaning of the acronym EHR?. --Electronic health record Electronic health response Emergency health response Esophageal health reaction
EHR means electronic health record.
What is the meaning of the acronym EDI? --Electronic data interchange Employee data inquiry Erectile dysfunction injury Extemporaneous drug investigation
Electronic data interchange (EDI) plays a very important role in a pharmacy's billing process.
Who assigns an expiration date?
Expiration dates are assigned by the manufacturer and ensure the amount of time a product will be pure, safe, and effective for use by a patient. The expiration date is the last day of a particular month of a given year.
What should one tell a patient with a prescription of griseofulvin suspension? Be careful of sunlight; it may cause photosensitivity. Shake well. Store at room temperature. ---All of the above
Griseofulvin may cause photosensitivity, resulting in a severe sunburn or rash. Because it is a suspension, it should be shaken to prevent precipitation and needs to be stored at room temperature.
Which of the following drugs is not a beta-blocker? Atenolol Metoprolol --Nifedipine Propranolol
Nifedipine is a calcium channel blocker. Beta-blockers are easily identified by the nomenclature syllable of -olol.
Which of the following medications may be measured in grains? Heparin Insulin --Nitroglycerin Potassium chloride
Nitroglycerin can be measured in either grains or milligrams.
Which of the following laws mandated DUE? OBRA '87 --OBRA '90 DSHEA 1994 HIPAA 1996
OBRA '90 mandated drug utilization evaluation (DUE) and patient profiles and that an offer to counsel must be made to every patient regarding his or her medication.
How many days will the following prescription last? Amoxicillin 125 mg/5mL 75 cc i tsp po tid
One teaspoon is equal to 5 mL. "TID" means three times per day. The patient will be receiving 1 tsp three times per day, or 15 mL. The total amount of medication to be dispensed is 75 mL. 75 mL/15 mL per day = 5 days.
What is the process by which prescriptions are submitted electronically to a third-party provider for pharmacy reimbursement? BID --Online adjudication Waiting period Universal claim
Online adjudication is the electronic processing of a prescription to a third-party provider; "BID" is a term used to indicate the purchase of product whose price has been negotiated; "waiting period" refers to the amount of time an individual must wait before becoming eligible for an insurance plan; and a universal claim is a manual process by which a prescription claim is submitted to a third-party provider.
What advice should not be given to a patient taking penicillin products? Do not take with juices or colas ---May cause drowsiness Take on an empty stomach Take with water
Penicillin does not cause drowsiness; it should not be taken with juices or soft drinks because the acid in the beverages may break down the drug. It is best if penicillin is taken on an empty stomach because of absorption reasons. Water is the best vehicle for taking medication.
Which of the following is not a duty performed by a pharmacy technician? Answering telephones --Counseling patients Preparing prescription labels Pricing prescriptions
Pharmacy technicians may accept new and refill prescriptions from patients, input data into the pharmacy terminal, count medication, process labels, and order medications, but presently they are not allowed to counsel patients.
Which type of drug interaction prolongs the effect of another drug? Addition Antagonism --Potentiation Synergism
Potentiation prolongs the action of a drug through the use of another drug. Addition is the process in which the effects of two are equal to the sum of both of the drugs; synergism occurs when the effect of two drugs is greater than sum of the two medications.
Which of the following drugs is not a form of estradiol? Climara Estrace Estraderm --Premarin
Premarin is conjugated estrogens, unlike the other three products, which are different dosage forms of estradiol.
Who may accept new prescriptions phoned in from a physician's office? --Pharmacists Pharmacy aides Pharmacy clerks Pharmacy technicians
Presently, only pharmacists are allowed to accept new prescriptions being telephoned into a pharmacy from a physician's office.
Which of the following books would one refer to if he or she were instructed to compound a product and needed to find information on the proper process? Drug Facts and Comparisons PDR ---Remington: The Science and Practice of Pharmacy USP DI
Remington: The Science and Practice of Pharmacy provides information regarding the entire practice of pharmacy (pharmacy abbreviations, math, pharmacology, pharmacy settings, equipment used, and how to compound various dosage forms). Drug Facts and Comparisons contains monographs about pharmaceuticals; the PDR is similar to Drug Facts and Comparisons, but it is a compilation of product inserts by the manufacturers to provide information to physicians. USP DI provides information on both labeled and unlabeled uses of medications and storage conditions and provides advice for pharmacists in counseling patients.
What is the gross profit on a prescription that retails at $29.99, costs the pharmacy $19.99 from a wholesaler, and has a dispensing cost of $4.50?
Selling price - Cost = Gross profit ($29.99 - $19.99 = $10.00).
Which organization accredits pharmacy technician programs? ACPE APHA --ASHP PTEC
The American Society of Health System Pharmacists is the only pharmacy organization that accredits pharmacy technician programs in the United States.
Which law is being violated if an employer discriminates against a potential employer because of medical reasons that would not prevent him or her from properly performing the job? --ADA Any Willing Provider OSHA Prescription Drug Equity Act
The Americans with Disabilities Act prohibits discrimination against individuals with physical, mental, and emotional disabilities. The employer must make a reasonable accommodation for the employee. If the disability does not interfere with the individual's ability to perform a particular task, he or she must be considered for employment.
Which of the following organizations set regulations regarding the standards for resident care as a result of OBRA '87? --CMS FDA TJC USP
The Centers for Medicaid and Medicare Services is responsible for enforcing many of the conditions which were enacted under OBRA '87 regarding long-term care facilities.
How much pseudoephedrine may be purchased at one time? 2.4 g --3.6 g 5 g 9 g
The Combat Methamphetamine Act allows an individual to purchase 3.6 g per day or a maximum of 9 g per month.
How many refills may a physician order for a Schedule II drug?
The Controlled Substances Act of 1970 allows 0 refills for Schedule II medications.
Which reference book is included in USP DI, volume III, and contains the FDA's approved drug products? American Drug Index Blue Book --Orange Book Red Book
The Drug Topics Orange Book is included in USP DI, volume III, and contains the FDA's approved drug products.
Which of the following organizations may issue a drug recall? DEA --FDA TJC USP
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) can issue class I, II, and III recalls. The manufacturer of the medication can also issue a voluntary recall of the drug.
Which of the following dosage forms should not be crushed? Film coated Liquid filled Sublingual ---All of the above
The ISMP has established a list of medications that should never be crushed before administration because of a variety of reasons, which include the following: slow-release dosage form, extended-release dosage form, enteric-coated dosage form, may irritate the mucous membrane, rate of absorption may be increased, coating of tablet may release the drug over a period of time, taste, skin irritant, liquid filled, sublingual dosage form, film-coated dosage form, effervescent tablet, teratogenic effect, and local anesthesia of the oral mucosa.
What is the purpose of the DEA?
The Justice Department set up the Drug Enforcement Agency (DEA) to enforce the Controlled Substances Act of 1970.
Which of the following organizations administers a certification examination for pharmacy technicians? Accreditation Council for Pharmacy Education (ACPE) American Pharmacist Association (APHA) American Society of Health System Pharmacists (ASHP) --Pharmacy Technician Certification Board (PTCB)
The Pharmacy Technician Certification Board (PTCB) administers one of the two national pharmacy technician certification examinations; the other organization is the NHA.
Which pharmacy law clearly defined adulteration and misbranding? Pure Drug Act of 1906 --Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act of 1938 Durham-Humphrey Amendment Poison Control Act of 1970
The Pure Drug Act introduced the terms "adulteration" and "misbranding," but the Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act of 1938 clearly defined these terms. Adulteration deals with the condition of the product, and misbranding discusses the labeling aspect of the product.
Which of the following abbreviations is not a route of administration? IM --non rep po sl
The abbreviation "non rep" means do not repeat or no refill. "IM" is an abbreviation for intramuscular; "po" indicates that the medication is to be taken by mouth; and the abbreviation "sl" designates that the medication is sublingual, which is to be placed underneath the tongue.
What size container would you use in dispensing 240 mL of a liquid medication?
There is 30 mL to a fluid ounce. 240 mL/30 mL per fluid ounce = 8 oz.
What is the generic name for Zyprexa? Donepezil Metaxalone --Olanzapine Risperidone
The drugs are Zyprexa (olanzapine), Aricept (donepezil), Skelaxin (metaxalone), and Risperdal (risperidone).
What is the generic name for the brand name drug Bactrim? Amoxicillin-clavulanate Cephalexin Nitrofurantoin --Sulfamethoxazole-trimethoprim
The drugs are sulfamethoxazole-trimethoprim (Bactrim), amoxicillin-clavulanate (Augmentin), cephalexin (Keflex), and nitrofurantoin (Macrobid).
Who develops the formulary for a hospital? Board of directors of the hospital FDA GPO --P&T committee
The pharmacy and therapeutics (P&T) committee, which is composed of physicians, pharmacists, nurses, and administrative personnel, develops the formulary for a hospital.
What do the last two numbers indicate on an NDC number? Dug indication code Drug manufacturer --Drug packaging Drug product
The last two numbers of the 11 digits of an NDC number indicate the packaging of a manufacturers' product.
Which of the following pieces of information is required on the label when the medication is repackaged into a unit-dose form? Date the medication was repackaged as a unit-dose medication ---Medication name and strength Name of the person responsible for the repackaging Patient's name
The medication name and strength must appear on the unit-dose package.
How many milliliters of a 1:50 (w/v) stock solution can be prepared from 1 pint of a 5% stock solution?
Using the formula (IV)(IS) = (FV)(FS), where 5% is the initial strength, 1 pint (480 mL) is the initial volume, and 1:50 (2%) is the final strength, the final volume would be 1200 mL. 5(480) = 2400 2400 = 2(X) X = 1200
What schedule is Vicodin?
Vicodin is a Schedule III medication
How many grams of 2.5% hydrocortisone cream should be mixed with 240 g of 0.25% hydrocortisone cream to make a 1% hydrocortisone cream?
This is an alligation problem, where the 2.5% is the highest concentration, 0.25% is the lowest concentration, and 1% is the concentration of the final product. 2.5 - 1 = 1.5 parts of the 0.25%; 1.0 - 0.25 = 0.75 parts of 2.5%. The total number of parts is 2.25 (0.75 + 1.5 = 2.25). Set up a proportion to calculate the total weight: 1.5 parts of 0.25%/2.25 total parts of compound = 240 g of 0.25%/total weight of compound, where the total weight is 360 g. (1.5)(0.25) /2.25 = 240 (0.25)/x x=360 Total weight of compound - Weight of 0.25% = Weight of 2.5% (360 g - 240 g = 120 g).
In what proportion should a 20% zinc oxide be mixed with white petrolatum (diluent) to produce a 3% zinc oxide ointment? 1 part ZnO and 1 part white petrolatum ---3 parts ZnO and 17 parts white petrolatum 3 parts ZnO and 14 parts white petrolatum 17 parts ZnO and 3 parts white petrolatum
This problem can be solved using alligation, where 20% is the highest concentration, 3% is the concentration to be prepared, and petrolatum has a concentration of 0%. For the 20%, subtract the 0% from the 3%, which will require 3 parts of 20%; for the 0%, subtract 3% from 20%, which will give 17 parts of the 3%
According to Medication Error Reporting and Prevention (MERP), which category error occurs when an error occurs but did not reach the patient? Category A ---Category B Category C Category D
This type of error is classified by MERP as a category B error. Although this is an error, it did not cause any harm to the patient.
How much guaifenesin would you dispense for a 5-day supply if the prescription calls for "Guaifenesin 15 cc q 4 h po prn"?
To calculate the total quantity needed, multiply the size of the dose by the number of doses per day by the number of days the patient is to take the medication. 15 cc (mL)/dose × 6 doses/day × 5 days = 450 mL.
What system does tuberculosis affect? Cardiovascular Digestive Endocrine --Respiratory
Tuberculosis most often affects the lungs because Mycobacterium tuberculosis prefers an area of high oxygen content.
Which reference book provides advice to pharmacists in counseling patients? Drug Facts and Comparisons USP DI, volume I --USP DI, volume II USP DI, volume III
USP DI, volume II, provides information to assist the pharmacist in counseling patients. Drug Facts and Comparisons provides information on brand, generic, orphan, and investigational medications. Also, Drug Facts and Comparisons provides drug monographs, drug identifications, and dosage calculations. USP DI, volume I, provides information on the labeled and unlabeled uses of medications. USP DI, volume III, contains state and federal requirements of medications.
What is the meaning of the acronym UTI? Upper tonsil infection Upper trachea infection ---Urinary tract infection Uterine tract infection
UTI stands for urinary tract infection.