Practice questions

The steps in developing a professional development portfolio are to

(1) reflect on professional practice to establish professional goals, (2) conduct a learning needs assessment to identify what you know now and what you need to learn to reach goals, (3) develop a learning plan that shows how goals will be met, (4) implement learning plan, and (5) evaluate learning plan outcomes.

A food provides 28 grams of carbohydrates, 8 grams of protein, and 7 grams of fat. What percent of this food's calories comes from fat? 30% 33% 36% 38%

(28 g carbohydrate x 4 kcal/g) + (8 g protein x 4 kcal/g) + (7 g fat x 9 cal/g) = 112 kcal from carbohydrate + 32 kcal from protein + 63 kcal from fat = 207 total kcal 63 kcal from fat ÷ 207 total kcal = 0.30 or 30% of the energy from fat

Which of the following would be an example of a sol? Balsamic vinaigrette Egg white meringue on a pie Turkey gravy Flan

A sol is a colloidal dispersion of a solid in a liquid and has flow properties, so turkey gravy is the correct answer. The egg white meringue is a foam. The flan, which is baked custard, is a gel and doesn't flow. The vinaigrette is an example of an emulsion.

If broccoli loses 21% to trim and cooking, and you need to have 48 lbs of cooked broccoli, how much fresh broccoli should you buy? 58 lbs 61 lbs 69 lbs 77 lbs

AP (as purchased) = AS (as served) x 100 / 100 - W (waste weight) AP = 48 x 100 / 100 - 21; AP = 4800/79 = 60.759 lb or 61 lbs

Nanotechnology refers to any usage of or technological development at the atomic, molecular, or macromolecular range between 1 and 100 nanometers. TRUE FALSE

Nanotechnology is the manipulation of matter on an atomic and molecular scale

What term signifies an obligation to perform an assigned activity? Authority Responsibility Accountability Capability

Responsibility is the obligation to perform an assigned activity or see that someone else performs it. Authority is delegated from the top level to lower levels of management. Accountability is the state of being responsible for one's self or to some organization. Capability is the mental or physical ability to perform a task.

________________ is when a starch gel contracts and may leak water. Dextrinization Syneresis Cold pressing Gelatinization

Retrogradation is a reaction that takes place in gelatinized starch when the amylose and amylopectin chains realign themselves, causing the liquid to gel. Syneresis is the extraction or expulsion of a liquid from a gel.

Which agency would regulate the manufacturing of chicken noodle soup? Food Safety and Inspection Service (FSIS) Food and Drug Administration (FDA) US Department of Commerce (USDC) US Public Health Service (USPHS)

The FSIS is responsible for the inspection of meat and poultry, as well as all products made from them.

Approximately how many servings of milk would a woman 53 years of age need to consume to meet her RDA for calcium? 2 cups 3 cups 4 cups 5 cups

The RDA for women aged 51 and older is 1,200 mg calcium daily. Plain yogurt has 450 mg calcium/cup and would require 3 cups to meet the RDA. Milk has 300 mg calcium/cup and would require 4 cups to meet the RDA.

Based on this client statement, determine which stage of change he or she is in: "I know what you are going to tell me, and I know a lot about nutrition. I know what I need to do to lose weight, but I just can't do it." Precontemplation Contemplation Preparation Action

The classic indicator for a patient in the contemplation stage of change is a "yes, but" statement. The majority of RDNs' clients are in the contemplation stage when they come to their first appointment.

In what era did manufacturers produce what could be made rather than what consumers wanted? Sales Production Marketing Technological

During the production era, manufacturers focused on mass production. As markets became crowded with product, marketing strategies shifted to various pricing techniques to revitalize sales (sales era). Companies then shifted to marketing techniques (marketing era). The technological era of marketing utilizes emerging technologies to reach potential customers.

What is the primary regulatory agency responsible for the safety of imported fish? Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) Food and Drug Administration (FDA) United States Department of Agriculture (USDA) United States Department of International Commerce (USDIC)

Each of these entities govern aspects of the food supply, but the FDA regulates safety of imported products, including imported fish.

What is the primary regulatory agency responsible for the safety of imported fish? Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) Food and Drug Administration (FDA) United States Department of Agriculture (USDA) United States Department of International Commerce (USDIC)

Each of these entities governs aspects of the food supply, but the FDA regulates safety of imported food products.

What type of budget uses the existing budget as a base and projects changes for the ensuing year in relation to the current budget? Fixed Incremental Flexible Zero-based

Fixed budgets (also known as static budgets) do not change based on variations in business. Flexible budgets are able to change depending on business activity. Incremental budgets use existing budget numbers as a base with incremental amounts added relative to the current budget.

Which of the following groups of whole grains is gluten free? Spelt, rye, oats, quinoa, kamut, corn Amaranth, quinoa, millet, teff, buckwheat Bulgur, durum, farina, malt, orzo Corn, rye, seitan, kamut, barley

Gluten is a protein found in wheat, rye, barley, and triticale, which is a cross between wheat and rye. Thus, a gluten-free diet would exclude these grains. Five whole grains that are gluten free are amaranth, millet, teff, buckwheat, and quinoa.

Which of the following amino acids is classified as a nonessential amino acid? Valine Lysine Glycine Threonine

Glycine Essential amino acids are histidine, isoleucine, leucine, lysine, methionine, phenylalanine, threonine, tryptophan, and valine.

One of a teacher's functions in andragogy is to_____. serve as a role model structure content serve as facilitator arrange for reinforcement

In practical terms, andragogy means that instruction for adults needs to focus more on the process and less on the content being taught. Strategies such as case studies, role playing, simulations, and self-evaluation are most useful. Instructors adopt a role of facilitator or resource rather than lecturer or grader.

Which statement best describes the F component of the FADE performance improvement model? Choose a specific problem or process to improve Review data to better understand the current process Create a plan Complete a pilot study

In the FADE model, F stands for focus; during this step, the process to be improved is identified and defined. Review of data is included in A, or analyze. Action plans are developed in D, or develop, and pilot studies are conducted in E, or execute.

The tricarboxylic cycle begins with the conversion of pyruvate to

acetyl-CoA The tricarboxylic cycle, also known as the Krebs cycle, uses the two molecules of pyruvic acid formed in glycolysis and yields adenosine triphosphate. Before entering the Krebs cycle, the pyruvic acid molecules are altered. Each of the three carbon pyruvic acid molecules undergoes conversion to a substance called acetyl-CoA. In the process, electrons and a hydrogen ion are transferred to nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD). The NAD molecule also acquires a hydrogen ion and becomes NADH. At the end of the Krebs cycle, the final product is oxaloacetic acid. This is identical to the oxaloacetic acid that begins the cycle.

Which nutrient is most affected by food processing? Vitamins Minerals Carbohydrates Fats

Some vitamins are degraded by heat and leach out of the food and into the cooking liquid. Carbohydrates, fats, and minerals are more stable, especially to dry heat.

What type of foodservice operation is sous vide? Conventional Ready prepared Commissary Assembly/serve

Sous vide is classified as ready serve because it involves chilling and sometimes freezing menu items.

Which of the following food programs is the largest federally funded child nutrition assistance program? Fresh Fruit and Vegetable Program Child and Adult Care Food Program National School Lunch Program Summer Food Service Program

All options listed are federally funded programs for children, but the National School Lunch Program serves the largest number of children needing assistance.

Which of the following foods is considered a whole grain and meets the NSLP standards for whole grain? Pearled barley Graham flour Hominy Semolina

All these items except for the graham flour have been milled so that either the germ or the germ and the bran have been removed.

How many pounds are recommended for an overweight woman to gain during her pregnancy? 0 5-10 15-25 28-40

All women should gain weight during pregnancy. Recommendations for gaining 28 to 40 lb in pregnancy are applicable to underweight women. It is recommended that overweight women gain 15 to 25 lb during pregnancy.

Freezing is both a simple and successful method of food preservation. To ensure high-quality results, it is recommended to keep salt content of prepared foods to a minimum. The reason for this is

Adding salt to foods being frozen causes loss of flavor and has the tendency to increase rancidity of any item containing fat.

Which nutrient additive might be added to food as a natural antioxidant?

Alpha-tocopherol is a natural antioxidant that is used as a food additive in meat pies and oils to reduce the oxidation of fatty acids and vitamins.

A group that is organized for the purpose of raising and spending money to elect or defeat political candidates is called a(n) political action committee. health advocacy organization. alliance. lobbying group.

Although all groups listed may have an impact on the legislature process, political action committees, or PACs, are the only ones organized for the purpose of raising and spending money to elect or defeat a political candidate.

Retrogradation, which occurs in starches, can be defined as a reforming of hydrogen bonds into crystalline regions as the starch paste is held. a decreased swelling of the starch granules as sugar competes with starch for water. the breakdown of a starch paste when acid is added at the beginning of the cooking period. swelling of starch granules upon exposure to heat.

During storage, the hydrogen bonds between amylose molecules in starch gels will break and rearrange themselves in tighter organized structures, resulting in retrogradation.

To lower LDL cholesterol, the Academy's Evidence Analysis Library recommends which level of daily plant sterol consumption?

EAL (2008) recommends 2mg to 3mg daily to reduce total cholesterol by 4% to 11% and LDL concentration by 7% to 15%.

Which additive is useful as a bleaching agent? Benzoyl peroxide Citric acid Canthaxanthin Butylated hydroxyanisole

Benzoyl peroxide is a food additive that can be used as a flour treatment agent. It oxidizes the naturally occurring carotenoids in flour, which gives untreated flour a yellowish tint, and whitens the flour as a result.

Using the following figures, calculate the break-even point for The Green Café: Fixed costs = $52,000; variable costs = $85,000; total sales = $210,000.

Break-even point = Fixed costs/1 - (variable costs/sales) $52,000/1 - ($85,000/$210,000) 52,000/1 - 0.40 52,000/0.60 = $86,666.66

When considering cow's milk versus human breastmilk, which of the following is true? Human milk contains less protein. Human milk provides more calcium. Cow's milk provides less potassium and sodium. Cow's milk contains a lower proportion of casein compared to whey protein.

Breastmilk is lower in protein than cow's milk (6 to 7% of calories in human milk vs 20% in cow's milk). It also has less calcium, sodium, and potassium than cow's milk. Casein accounts for 80% of the protein in cow's milk, so it actually has a higher proportion of casein compared to whey protein.

When completing a physical assessment, inadequate hydration may present as poor skin turgor. scaly appearance of skin. dull and thin hair. angular stomatitis.

Physical findings related to inadequate hydration include a drop in systolic pressure upon standing, poor skin turgor, and tongue dryness.

When cooking pork chops, they should reach an internal temperature of: 135°F for 15 seconds. 145°F for 15 seconds. 155°F for 15 seconds. 165°F for 15 seconds.

Pork is a dangerous food item when undercooked; professionals must know the acceptable internal temperature for serving pork.

What name is given to standard methods of accounting and presentation of financial statements that provide comparability of financial data within an industry? Public accounting Internal auditing Uniform systems of accounts Cost accounting

Public accounting may include work with clients to issue educated tax advice. Other public accounting practices are used to provide advice on business decisions and transactions or insurance and benefits. Public accounting encompasses a wide range of accounting roles. Internal auditing examines a company's financial records, ensuring their quality and legality. Uniform systems of accounts represent standard methods of accounting within an industry.

Which of the following viruses is the most common cause of sporadic cases and outbreaks of foodborne illness? Hepatitis A Hepatitis E Rotovirus Norovirus

Public awareness of the causes of norovirus has increased and reporting may account for part of the increase in norovirus outbreaks.

In order to be labeled as "pure" vanilla, the US Food and Drug Administration (FDA) requires that it

Pure vanilla extract is made by macerating and percolating vanilla beans in a solution of ethyl alcohol and water. The FDA requires that the solution contain a minimum of 35% alcohol and 13.35 oz vanilla bean per gallon.

Which of the following foods is the best source of omega-3 fatty acids? Olive oil Shrimp Avocado Sardines

Sardines Sources of omega-3 fatty acids include fatty fish, such as salmon, tuna, and halibut; some plants; and nut oils.

Which of the following managerial terms describes the continuous and systematic process in which decisions are made about intended future outcomes, how outcomes are to be accomplished, and how success is measured and evaluated? Accountability Effectiveness Organizing Strategic planning

Strategic planning is a continuous and systematic process in which people make decisions about intended future outcomes, how outcomes are to be accomplished, and how success is measured and evaluated. Accountability is the state of being responsible to one's self, to some organization, or even to the public. Effectiveness is "doing the right things." Organizing is the management function of grouping activities, delegating authority, and coordinating relationships horizontally and vertically.

Which of the following symptoms often characterizes niacin deficiency? Diarrhea Dermatitis Dementia All of the above

Symptoms of niacin deficiency include diarrhea, mental disorientation, and skin problems,

Which of the following enzymes acts on complex carbohydrates? Lactase Sucrase Maltase Amylase

Lactase, sucrase, and maltase all act on simple carbohydrates.

The food and nutrition director and the food production manager discuss productivity of the tray line setup. The food production manager agrees to reorganize the tray line's hot and cold food stations. This interaction is an example of linking processes. control. coordinating elements. functional subsystems.

Linking processes of decision making, communication, and balance are needed to coordinate the transformation from inputs to outputs. The two discuss productivity (input) and the manager agrees to make the change (output).

Which fatty acids are essential and must be obtained by eating foods containing these fatty acids?

Linoleic acid and alpha-linolenic acid are polyunsaturated fatty acids that are essential nutrients for humans. The body needs these acids for its basic functions. These substances can only come from food and cannot be synthesized in the body. They must be supplied by the diet and are therefore essential nutrients.

Vision problems in older adults may be due to dietary factors such as a(n) excess intake of sodium. low intake of antioxidant nutrients. excess intake of fat and cholesterol. low intake of B-vitamins.

Low intake of antioxidants can lead to vision problems later in life, as antioxidants repair cell damage.

What would the nitrogen balance be for a patient with a 24-hour urinary nitrogen excretion of 14.3 grams and a protein intake of 102 grams? +16.3 grams −16.3 grams −2 grams +2 grams

Nitrogen balance is calculated as follows: Convert protein "in" to nitrogen by dividing by 6.25. (102 g6.25 102 g 6.25 = 16.3 g Nitrogen) Nitrogen in (16.3 g) − nitrogen out (14.3 g) − 4 g for insensible loss = (−) 2 gram

Of the following foods, which can be safely processed in a boiling water canner? Carrots Pears Pumpkin Beets

Non-acidic vegetables, meat including poultry and fish, and soup stocks must be processed in a pressure canner, not a boiling water bath. Acidic fruits, such as pears, and vegetables can be safely processed in a boiling water canner. The higher acid medium eliminates the risk of microbial growth.

Which fat would be most susceptible to flavor reversion due to oxidative rancidity? Butter fat Coconut oil Soybean oil Olive oil

Oxidative rancidity is associated with the degradation by oxygen in the air. Oxidation primarily occurs with unsaturated fats. The more saturated fat contained in an oil, the less susceptible it is to rancidity. The greater the amount of unsaturated fat in an oil, the more likely it is to become rancid. Since the healthiest plant oils are all highly unsaturated, they are especially susceptible to rancidity. However, extra virgin olive oil is a little less susceptible to rancidity because a larger amount of its unsaturated fat is monounsaturated. Extra virgin olive is about 75% monounsaturated, which is somewhat unusual for a plant oil. Plant oils usually have more polyunsaturated fat than monounsaturated fat, which is one reason they are particularly susceptible to rancidity. Thus, soybean oil would be more susceptible than olive oil.

When evaluating print and audiovisual patient education material for understandability and "actionability," which of the following is the BEST tool? PEMAT (Patient Education Materials Assessment Tool) REALM (Rapid Estimate of Adult Literacy in Medicine) SMOG Ask Me 3™

PEMAT is the best tool for evaluating print and audiovisual patient education material for its understandability and "actionability." REALM evaluates health literacy, SMOG is a measure of readability that estimates the number of years of education one needs to have attained to understand a piece of writing, and Ask Me 3™ is a patient education program designed to improve communication between patients and health care providers.

When added to gelatin, fruit containing which of the following substances will keep the gelatin from forming a gel? Sucralose Papain Pectin Sorbitol

Papain is a proteolitic enzyme found in papaya. These enzymes will split the long gelatin molecules into shorter molecules, halting the gelatin's ability to form a gel.

What is another name for high-pressure processing?

Pascalization, or high-pressure processing, is a method of preserving and sterilizing food, in which a product is processed under very high pressure, leading to the inactivation of certain microorganisms and enzymes in the food.

According to the Joint Commission, which of the following is fundamental to cost-effective performance improvement?

Patient safety is a major concern in all health care settings. A focus on safety in performance improvement programs leads to cost savings through prevention of medical errors.

What term is used to indicate the monetary value of a property or business beyond any amounts owed? Total assets Owner's equity Long-term liabilities Gross profit

Total assets are anything owned by the company including liabilities. Gross profit is the difference between net sales and the cost of the items or services sold. Monetary value of a property or business beyond debts is called owner's equity.

Which of the following describes total quality management? Processes, improvement, customer satisfaction Outcomes, meet standards, accreditation Proactive, empowerment, outcomes Prevention, standard procedures, diagnostic

Total quality management is a philosophy of improving processes in response to customer needs and expectations. Terms such as outcomes, meet standards, accreditation, prevention, standard procedures, and diagnostic are associated with quality assurance.

Which of the following programs was designed to determine the burden of foodborne disease in the United States, monitor trends of specific foodborne illnesses over time, attribute the burden of foodborne illness to specific foods and settings, and develop and assess interventions to reduce the burden of foodborne illness? PulseNet FoodNet EHS-Net FightBac!

While all of the potential answers were programs initiated by the Food Safety Initiative, the role of FoodNet is described in the question. PulseNet is a database used to determine whether an outbreak is occurring by using molecular surveillance, EHS-Net is a collaborative forum of environmental health specialists, and FightBac! provides consumer education.

A registered dietitian nutritionist who is responsible for procuring food and non-food dietary supplies performs what activities? Inventory control, receiving, pre-preparation, budgeting Budgeting, purchasing, storage, inventory control Receiving, purchasing, inventory control, storage Pre-preparation, purchasing, inventory control, storage

Within the subsystem of procurement are purchasing, receiving, storage, and inventory control. Pre-preparation is part of production.

Using the Hamwi formula, what is the ideal body weight for a female who is 70 inches tall and has a small body frame? 120 pounds 135 pounds 150 pounds 165 pounds

Women: 100 lbs for first 5 ft + 5 lb for every inch over 60 in (100 + 50 = 150). Small frame −10% (150 −15 = 135)

A facility director is charged with evaluating whether it is worthwhile to complete a project. The best approach would be to

conduct a cost-to-benefit analysis. Cost-benefit analysis (CBA) estimates and totals the monetary value of the benefits expected to be derived from a project and compares those to the costs of the project to determine whether the planned project is worthwhile financially. For example, if the costs of remodeling a foodservice kitchen is $3.4 million and the expected revenue generated after the renovation is $2.7 million, then the renovation would be judged as not being a good investment. A cost-benefit analysis would include all the other options listed as parts of the determination of project profitability.

An instrument to collect data on the use of dietary supplements would be viewed as valid if it

measures accurately what it is intended to measure. The defining feature of validity is whether the instrument accurately measures what it intends to measure. In contrast, reliability indicates that an instrument will provide similar results when used multiple times for the same measurement (but the information may not necessarily be accurate).

Which of the following ratios indicates an organization's ability to meet current financial obligations?

"Current" signifies within 12 months. Liquidity is ease with which assets (ie, cash, accounts receivable, inventory, and prepaid expenses) can be converted to cash. Therefore, liquidity ratios indicate an organization's ability to repay its debts within the next 12 months or its ability to meet current obligations. Operating ratios indicate an operation's success in generating sales and controlling expenses (eg, food and labor cost percentages). Activity ratios examine how effectively an organization utilizes its assets (eg, inventory turnover). Profitability ratios measure an organization's ability to generate profit in relation to sales.

Which of the following foods contains less than 20 kcal? 1 Tbsp peanut butter 1 Tbsp sunflower seeds 1 Tbsp ketchup 1 Tbsp reduced-fat mayonnaise

1 Tbsp peanut butter contains 86 kcal. 1 Tbsp sunflower seeds contains 157 kcal. 1 Tbsp ketchup contains 16 kcal, 1 Tbsp reduced-fat mayonnaise contains 48 kcal.

Approximately how many grams of protein does one cup of raw vegetables contain? 2 grams 3 grams 7 grams 8 grams

1 cup raw vegetables has 5 g carbohydrate, 2 g protein, 0 g fat, and 25 kcal.

It takes ___ FTE(s) to fill one 8-hour, 7-day-per-week position.

1.4 8 hours × 7 days = 56 hours ÷ 40 hour workweek = 1.4 FTE

A foodservice has a 35% labor cost, 23% fixed costs, and a desired profit of 12%. Given a raw food cost of $4.55, what would be the selling price of an item when rounded to $0.99 on the dollar? $13.99 $14.99 $15.99 $16.99

100% - (35% + 23% + 12%) = 100 - 70 = 30% sales price = cost / divisor = $ 4.55 / 0.3 = $15.16. Round up to $15.99.

A foodservice establishment requires thirteen 8-hour positions, four 4-hour positions, and one 3-hour position to meet daily demands. How many FTEs does the foodservice establishment maintain? 13.26 14.55 15.37 16.72

13 × 8 hours = 104 hours; 4 × 4 hours = 16 hours; and one 3 hour = 104 + 16 + 3 = 123 hours total ÷ 8 hours per day = 15.37 FTEs.

How many kilocalories per ounce does a standard infant formula provide?

20

Which of the following breakfast meals contains approximately 60 grams of carbohydrate? 2 slices of toast, 1 egg, 1 small orange, 1 cup milk 2 slices of toast, 1 cup apple juice, 1 large banana 1 -1/2 cups of oatmeal, 1/4 cup blueberries, 1 cup orange juice, 1/2 cup milk 2 eggs, 1 slice bacon, 2 slices of toast, 1/2 cup orange juice

2 slices of toast, 1 egg, 1 small orange, 1 cup milk One exchange of starch, fruit, or milk each has about 15 g carbohydrate.

The chef is planning to prepare pot roast from beef chuck that has a yield of 72%. If the chef needs 175 3-oz servings, how many pounds of chuck should be purchased? 24 31 46 54

3 ounces × 175 servings =525 ounces or 32.8 lb. divided by 0.72 = 45.6 pounds.

A calorie deficit of 500 kcal below estimated energy needs should result in the loss of: 1/2 pound per week. 1 pound per week. 2 pounds per week. 2-1/2 pounds per week.

3,500 kcal equal 1 pound. 3,500 kcal ÷ 500 kcal less per day = 7 days to lose 1 pound

Dietetics professionals can expect about one in _____ of their clients to have a disability that will require special accommodations.

5 Current statistics demonstrate that 20% of clients may have a disability.

Labor costs for a roast beef dinner were $764, operating costs were $129, profit was $210, and the cost for food for the event was $895. What was the food cost percentage?

50% Food cost percentage is calculated according to the following formula: Cost of food divided by total production costs. Total production costs include the cost of food, labor and overhead/operations costs. These costs include taxes, utilities, maintenance, etc. Profit is not included in the calculation as it is not a production cost.

Collaborative planning sessions to gain input from all who might be affected by a new kitchen design are called charrettes conclaves commissions caucuses

A charrette is a collaborative planning process that harnesses the talents and energies of all interested parties to create and support a master plan that represents transformative community change.

Which of the following would be a characteristic of a flavor enhancer? It will be present at threshold levels. It will be present at sub-threshold levels. It must be an amino acid-based compound. It must have an umami flavor.

A flavor enhancer is added to food formulas to enhance the products taste profile yet do not add a recognizable flavor of its own to the product. An ingredient added to a formula that can change the flavor profile without being detected is added at the sub-threshold level, for example, adding salt to increase the sweetness of a food item without being able to taste the salt. Flavor enhancers can be amino acid compounds like MSG, salt, acids, and sugars.

What name is given to the chronological sequence of activities to carry out organizational behavior? Policy Procedure Method Rule

A procedure shows chronological sequence of activities. A policy is a general guide to organizational behavior developed by top-level management. A method is even more detailed than a procedure and is related to only one step of a procedure. Rules specify action by stating what must or must not be done.

Conflict between nursing personnel and food and nutrition personnel over responsibility of patient tray service occurs because the two subsystems are not on the same level of hospital hierarchy. systems boundaries have been crossed. dynamic equilibrium of the system has not been established. the interface between subsystems is often marked by tension.

A subsystem is a complete system unto itself (nursing) that is part of the larger system (nutrition) and the interface between these two systems can cause tension. There are no boundaries since there are no limitations in activities.

Which of the following refers to McGregor's theory X? Most people not only accept but seek responsibility. Exerting physical and mental effort at work is as natural as play or rest. Most people will exercise self-control to achieve an organizational objective. Most people dislike work and will avoid it if possible.

According to McGregor's theory, most employees must be controlled, directed, and coerced; they have little ambition, dislike work, are irresponsible, and will avoid work if possible. Options A, B, and C refer to the tenets of theory Y.

Which is an example of chemical spoilage? Acidic action of foods with metal-lined containers Metal curls from a worn-out can opener that fall into the food when the can is being opened Development of an off-flavor due to uncontrolled enzyme reaction Anasakis contamination from fish

Acidic action of foods with metal-lined containers Chemical spoilage occurs in preserved foods, especially canned ones. It is usually the result of interaction between the contents and an imperfect container. There may be gas produced or discoloration of the tin.

Which of the following injuries are you most likely to see in a foodservice environment? Strains and sprains Slips and falls Cuts and burns All of the above

All Strains and sprains occur in foodservice from improper lifting, slips and falls from wet floors, and cuts and burns from the numerous hotspots of equipment and foods in the environment.

Which of the following would be considered an antecedent in the ABC framework used by behavioral scientists? Eating an extra-large container of popcorn at the movies Enjoying the company of others while eating out Sampling most of the items at a restaurant that serves buffet style Watching a TV commercial advertising burgers

Antecedents are events or environments that trigger a specific behavior or response. In this case, watching a TV commercial advertising burgers may trigger an eating behavior.

Enteral feeding started within _____ hours of admission to the intensive care unit has been shown to improve length of stay and mortality. 2 12 24 48

Artinian et al found a reduction in intensive care unit (ICU) length of stay and hospital mortality when enteral nutrition was initiated within 24 hours of the start of mechanical ventilation.

Which would be an appropriate food or beverage item to serve to your patient on postoperative day 1 following gastric bypass surgery? Ginger ale Sherbet Low-fat chicken broth Cranberry juice

As a general rule, foods on phase 1 of the gastric bypass diet include broth, unsweetened juice, milk, strained cream soup, and sugar-free gelatin. Carbonated or caffeinated beverages are not permitted. Cranberry juice is typically sweetened and would not be permitted.

A manager always defers to her workers to reach an agreement among themselves, then she adopts the majority decision. Her leadership style is democratic. autocratic. consensus. participative.

Autocratic leaders take total control, make decisions, and assume full responsibility. Consensus leadership requires the entire group to come to an agreement. Participative leadership seeks input from others before making a management decision, whereas democratic leaders accept the decision made by the group majority.

Body mass index (BMI) is a better indicator of obesity than body weight because BMI is the ratio of height to weight the ratio of weight to height determined by indirect calorimetry determined by direct calorimetry

BMI is calculated using weight (kg)/height (m2). BMI is based on the ratio of a person's weight to height and has been shown to be a reliable indicator of body fatness.

When reheating previously cooked foods, what temperature should they reach within 2 hours?

Based on the Food Code, reheated must reach the highest temperature listed: 165°F.

Which of the following foods should a pregnant woman avoid? King mackerel Tuna Trout Shrimp

Because of the mercury content of mackerel, pregnant women should avoid consuming it.

The minimum amount of fiber recommended for a 10-year-old child is 8 grams. 10 grams. 12 grams. 15 grams.

Beginning at age 2, it is recommended that fiber intake be equal to or greater than a child's age plus 5 grams. So a 10-year-old would be encouraged to have 15 grams of fiber per day.

Fruits and vegetables that have not been blanched prior to freezing are more susceptible to which kind of deterioration? Fermentation Browning Biological spoilage Freezer burn

Blanching slows or stops the enzyme action. Enzymes help vegetables grow and mature. After maturation, however, the enzymes cause loss of quality, flavor, color, texture, and nutrients.

Fruits and vegetables that have not been blanched prior to freezing are more susceptible to which kind of deterioration? Fermentation Browning Biological spoilage Freezer burn

Blanching slows or stops the enzyme action. Enzymes help vegetables grow and mature. After maturation, however, they cause loss of quality, flavor, color, texture, and nutrients.

Which of the following statements best describes the similarities between the Special Supplemental Nutrition Program for Women, Infants, and Children (WIC) and the Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program (SNAP)? Both programs are regulated by the USDA, provide referrals to health care and other social services providers, and are entitlement programs. Both programs are regulated by the USDA, contain income eligibility guidelines, and are entitlement programs. Both programs are regulated by the USDA, contain income eligibility guidelines, are entitlement programs, and recipients must have a documented medical or nutritional risk. Both programs are regulated by the USDA and contain income eligibility guidelines.

Both programs are regulated by the USDA and they both impose eligibility guidelines, but WIC is not an entitlement program, and SNAP eligibility isn't based on nutritional risk; instead eligibility is based on family income.

How old must a foodservice employee be in order to operate power-driven bakery machine? 18 17 16 15

Child labor laws restrict the operation of power-driven bakery machines. Once an individual reaches 18 years of age, he or she is no longer subject to the federal child labor provisions.

Because insulin and _____ are secreted in the bloodstream in equal amounts, ____ can be used as a clinical indicator of endogenous insulin production.

C-peptide Insulin is secreted as two polypeptide chains joined by disulfide bonds. C-peptide is released when the two chains separate.

The average contribution margin (CM) per item on a menu is $6.74 and the menu mix (MM) percentage that is considered to be high is 12. A menu item has a CM of $6.93 and a MM percentage of 11. What menu engineering term would be used to describe this menu item? Plowhorse Puzzle Dog Star

CM indicates profitability, whereas MM determines an item's popularity relative to other menu items. Puzzles are items that are profitable but not very popular. Plowhorses are items that are popular but not very profitable. Stars are items that are both popular and profitable. Dogs are items that are neither popular nor profitable.

The foodservice department has been asked to prepare a special luncheon for the Grandway Hospital Board of Directors on Tuesday. There will be 25 board members at the luncheon. There are 125 portions of vegetable lasagna needed for the hospital's lunch service that day. The standardized vegetable lasagna recipe yields 125 portions and requires 21 lb of ricotta cheese. How much ricotta cheese must Chef Carl order to meet production needs?

Carl has a recipe for 125 portions and he needs to increase the yield to 150 portions. Divide 150 by 125 to get the factor, which is 1.2. Then multiply 21 pounds by 1.2 to get 25.2 pounds and round up to 26 pounds.

Which of the following is often added to fat-free chocolate milk as a stabilizer and thickener to improve mouthfeel? Methylparaben Lecithin Carrageenan Calcium silicate

Carrageenan is used at very low concentrations to form an imperceptible, weak gel that prevents the large, dense particles of chocolate from sedimenting in fat-free chocolate milk.

Which of the following population groups of children does research show to have a higher prevalence of iron deficiency? School-age children and children ages 3 to 5 years old Infants and school-age children Infants and adolescents Children ages 3 to 5 years old and adolescents

Children with high intakes of milk (infants) and who are experiencing a high rate of growth (adolescents) have a higher prevalence of iron deficiency.

The presence of fat in the intestine stimulates cells to release: Gastrin Secretin Insulin Cholecystokinin

Cholecystokinin is a hormone produced principally by the small intestine in response to the presence of fats, causing contraction of the gallbladder, release of bile, and secretion of pancreatic digestive enzymes.

Another name for irradiation is _____.

Cold pasteurization is also known as irradiation or irradiation pasteurization.

Another name for irradiation is cold pasteurization. ohmic heating. gamma bombarding. pulsed light.

Cold pasteurization is also known as irradiation or irradiation pasteurization. The term refers to the process of eliminating and destroying harmful microorganisms that will spoil food without the use of heat in the traditional pasteurization method.

An example of a conditionally indispensable amino acid is tryptophan. tyrosine. alanine. leucine.

Conditionally indispensable amino acids are defined as requiring a dietary source when endogenous synthesis cannot meet metabolic need. The indispensable amino acids are arginine, cysteine, glutamine, glycine, proline, and tyrosine.

What is the KEY element in disciplining employees? Identifying solutions to correct undesirable behavior Providing feedback Being consistent Identifying causes for unacceptable behavior

Consistency allows an employee to feel that any other employee would receive the same discipline for committing the same offense. Disciplinary action is the result of an employee's behavior and not personality conflicts.

The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) would issue a class I recall for: hot dogs contaminated with Listeria monocytogenes. a product that contained canola oil rather than olive oil as stated on the label. cornflakes mislabeled as having 16 net ounces when in fact the package contained only 14 net ounces. strawberry jam that had only 35% fruit.

Contaminated hot dogs represent a safety issue that could affect many individuals detrimentally and could be a "health hazard," which represents the definition of a class I recall.

best describe the function of copper.

Copper helps the body make hemoglobin; serves as a part of many body enzymes; helps the body develop connective tissue, myelin, and melanin; and helps the body produce energy in the cells.

Which of the following allergens are exempt from the Food Allergen Labeling and Consumer Protection Act of 2004? Milk Eggs Crustacean shellfish Corn

Corn is exempt from the 2004 FALCPA.

The Joint Commission outlines patient safety goals annually. Which of the following are patient safety goals in an outpatient setting? Use medications safely, identify patients correctly, prevent infections Follow written safety procedures, prevent falls, individualize care Manage cases individually, record patient progress, encourage follow-up Demonstrate individual practitioner competence, administer medications accurately, post all safety procedures

Correct identification of patients using at least two patient identifiers decreases the risk for wrong-patient errors. National patient safety goals also include prevention of infections.

When allergens are transferred from food containing an allergen to the food served to the customer, this is called

Cross-contamination is when pathogens can be transferred from one surface or food to another. Cross-connection is a physical link between safe water and dirty water, which can come from drains, sewers, or other wastewater sources. Cross-transfer is a made-up term.

Which of the following is a current asset? Accounts receivable China Small equipment Retained earnings

Current assets are those that are liquid or can easily be converted to cash. China and small equipment cannot be quickly converted to cash. Retained earnings are the part of income that is set aside by the company instead of being distributed to shareholders. Accounts receivable represent current assets.

Which statement best describes the "O" component of the FOCUS-PDSA performance improvement model?

Development and organization of the team are included in O. Identification of the process to be improved is part of F, explanation of the current process is included in C, and recognition of sources of variation is included in U, or understanding the problem.

an example of a positive correlation?

Direct correlation is a statistical relation between two or more variables such that systematic changes in the value of one variable are accompanied by systematic changes in the other. "The incidence of type 2 diabetes mellitus increases as central adiposity increases."

Which of the following is least likely to be documented? Work-related advice provided by the supervisor to the employee Employee appearance Employee availability Employee conduct

Documentation of employee behavior includes conduct, performance, appearance, and work availability, which are a part of progressive discipline. Advice is a friendly offering but is not usually documented.

Which area in a kitchen usually has the least amount of light? Dry-storage Utensil-storage Preparation Inside reach-in refrigerator

Dry storage needs a minimum of 10 foot-candles. Utensil-storage and inside reach-in refrigerators need a minimum of 20 foot-candles. Preparation areas need a minimum of 50 foot-candles.

What is the requirement to label a food "fat free"? 0 grams of saturated fat per serving <0.5 grams total fat per serving <3 grams total fat per serving 100% less fat than in the comparable product

Due to rounding, a food with less than 0.5 g fat is considered fat free.

Which health education planning model demonstrates that lasting behavior change is voluntary and must include input from the client? PATCH The 10-step Planning Model PRECEDE-PROCEED CDCynergy

Each of the options listed are planning models, but the distinguishing characteristic of the PRECEDE-PROCEED model is that behavior change is voluntary.

Which is an example of upward communication in an organization? Exit interview Newsletter Pay insert Policy manual

Effective upward communication provides employees with an opportunity to have a say in what happens in the organization and for managers to receive vital information from lower levels in organization. Therefore, exit interviews are considered a form of upward communication.

The following blood test result puts a patient at greatest risk for developing heart disease:

Elevated LDL-dense particles of cholesterol Elevated LDL-dense particles of cholesterol are most likely to lead to inflammatory heart disease and plaque formation.

What are the estimated kilocalorie needs of a 4-month-old infant who weighs 14 pounds? 509 623 687 724

Energy needs are calculated as 108 kcal/kg for infants 6 months of age and younger. For a 14 pound (6.36 kg) infant, 687 kcal is the estimated caloric requirement.

A patient with acute renal failure will have a higher need of _____ compared with a similar patient with optimal renal function? Protein Potassium Fluid Energy

Energy. Studies have shown a significant and strong negative correlation between creatinine clearance and resting metabolic rate, indicating that energy expenditure increases as kidney function declines.

Which agency determines the safety of new pesticides and sets a tolerance level for all pesticides and their residue in food?

Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) The EPA is responsible for determining the safety of any pesticide before it can be used on a commodity food. Once approved for use, the EPA is responsible for setting tolerable residue limits for pesticides on food. Once these tolerance levels are set by the EPA, enforcement is overseen by the FDA.

Having the same or similar outputs result from different inputs is called: dynamic equilibrium. equifinality. synergy. interdependency.

Equifinality is defined as same or similar output that can be achieved by using different inputs or by varying the transformation process.

The FDA, Food Safety and Inspection Service, and CDC jointly publish this reference document for regulatory agencies responsible for overseeing food safety in retail outlets: Food Code Food Law FoodNet Food Regulations

Every four years, these regulatory agencies release the Food Code.

Which of the following would be covered by the FDA's gluten-free labeling rule? Packaged seafood Processed egg products Alcoholic beverages Ground meat

FDA's gluten-free labeling rule covers packaged food, including supplements, intended for human consumption that fall under the labeling jurisdiction of the FDA. It does not cover foods regulated by the USDA (including processed egg products, poultry, and meat), alcoholic beverages regulated by the Alcohol and Tobacco Tax and Trade Bureau, cosmetics, or medications.

Which of the following statements is true regarding the potential benefits of dietary fiber? Lowers LDL cholesterol levels Reduces postprandial blood glucose levels Increases gastric emptying Both A and B

Fiber improves the body's handling of glucose and insulin, possibly reduces the risk of colon cancer, helps in weight control, reduces the risk of heart and artery disease, and promotes feelings of fullness because it absorbs water and swells.

Which of the following must be true for a serving of food to be labeled as low fat? Contain less than 0.5 g fat Contain less than 3 g fat Contain 25% less fat than the full fat food Contain 13 1 3 fewer calories or 50% less fat than the full fat food

Following food labeling laws, to be identified as low in fat, a serving of food must contain less than 3 g fat.

Which agency would regulate the manufacture of cream of chicken soup that contained almost no meat?

Food Safety and Inspection Service (FSIS) The FSIS is responsible for the inspection of canned product manufacturing.

If the carbohydrate content of the diet is insufficient to meet the body's needs for energy, which of the following can be converted to glucose? Acetyl-CoA Fatty acids Carbon dioxide Amino acids

In a diet that lacks carbohydrates, amino acids are burned for energy. Amino acids also produce glucose to keep the brain cells alive.

In order for a manufacturer to label a food as "healthy," it must contain <3 g fat and <120 mg cholesterol. <480 mg sodium. >2 grams of protein. >3 grams of dietary fiber.

In order for a manufacturer to label a food as "healthy," it must contain <3 g fat; <1g saturated fat; <480 mg sodium; and <60 mg cholesterol.

During which step in the Nutrition Care Process is it important to evaluate the patient's/client's status compared to specified criteria? Nutrition Assessment Nutrition Diagnosis Nutrition Intervention Nutrition Monitoring and Evaluation

In order to perform an assessment, the patient's data must be compared to a standard. For example, if a practitioner is evaluating a patient's BMI, comparing that number to the standard indicates if that person is in the normal range or obese. The only other step that involves comparison is monitoring and evaluation, but that compares data to the patient's baseline based on goals set.

Protein needs for patients with stage II pressure ulcers can be calculated as

Increased protein needs for stage II wound healing are 1.2 g to 1.5 g protein/kg body weight. Choice D presents normal protein levels; choice C presents protein needs for higher stages of pressure ulcers; and choice B presents the protein needs for stage I pressure ulcers.

The Standards of Practice are structured to include the Standards, Rationales, Examples of Outcomes, and _____.

Indicators are included as measurable and quantifiable actions or statements. They illustrate how specific standards of practice may be applied and evaluated.

Which of the following statements best defines the USDA quality grading system? All meat and poultry must meet strict quality standards to be sold in the US marketplace. Quality grading of meat and poultry is a voluntary process. Quality grading and inspection for wholesomeness are both mandatory for meat to enter into the marketplace. Quality grading is a free service provided by the USDA.

Inspection for wholesomeness is mandatory and is paid for with public funds. Grading for quality is voluntary, and the service is requested and paid for by meat and poultry producers/processors.

This agency oversees voluntary inspections and grading of fish and fish products. Department of the Treasury Food and Drug Administration (FDA) US Department of Commerce (USDC) US Department of Agriculture (USDA)

Inspection of fish and fish products, which are not subject to mandatory grading, is overseen by the USDC's National Marine Fisheries Service.

Which of the following characteristics is key to an efficient and effective system?

Interdependency of parts A system is a collection of interrelated parts or subsystems unified by design to obtain one or more objectives. Interdependency is the reciprocal relationship of the parts of a system; each part mutually affects the performance of the others. Interdependency emphasizes the importance of viewing the organization as a whole rather than as isolated parts. The other responses (ie, continuous response and adaptation to a system, flow of resources through a system, and achievement of subunit objectives) all are isolated parts of a system.

What characteristic is KEY to an efficient and effective system? Continuous response and adaptation to the system Flow of resources Interdependency of parts Achievement of subunit objectives

Interdependency of units allows for interaction among units and continual relationship with others. An effective system requires integration of units and interdependency.

The hydrolysis of sucrose with an acid to form a mixture that has equal amounts of fructose and glucose is known as

Inversion inversion occurs when a sugar solution is boiled with the addition of an acid. Hydrolysis of the sucrose molecule results in equal amounts of fructose and glucose.

During their peak growth spurt, adolescent males are at greatest risk for a deficiency of protein. copper. iron. phosphorus.

Iron needs increase at a higher rate for adolescent males for development of lean body mass.

The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention growth charts are appropriate for healthy infants. children with cerebral palsy. children with Down syndrome. premature infants weighing less than 1500 g at birth.

It is appropriate to use the CDC's charts for plotting the growth of healthy US infants. Premature infants and children with Down syndrome or cerebral palsy require special growth considerations.

If students describe themselves as kinesthetic learners, which of the following learning experiences would be best suited to them? A lecture session that includes the opportunity to ask questions A laboratory setting that includes "hands-on" experiences A self-paced, computerized presentation of content An audiotaped or televised presentation

Kinesthetic means touching, feeling, and experiencing the material at hand.

Which term best describes the detailed arrangement of kitchen equipment, floor, and counter space? Design Layout Product flow Traffic flow

Layout is the detailed arrangement of a building and its floor and/or counter space and design refers to the overall space planning. How product flows through the kitchen and the amount of traffic in the kitchen are both considered when the layout is done.

The evaluation tool that is used for effective planning and controls functions of management is called: PERT chart. MIS processing. HACCP. strategic planning.

MIS processing and HACCP are not tools associated with functions of management. Strategic planning is a management process of determining long-term goals and the best approach to accomplish them. It is used to inform policies and operational decisions but not in evaluation. The program evaluation review technique, or PERT, chart is the evaluation tool for controlling management functions.

Which of the following is true about cutting boards? Only synthetic cutting boards are ever allowed to be used. Only wooden cutting boards are ever allowed to be used. Wooden cutting boards should be made from hardwood such as maple or oak. It is permissible to use the same cutting board for ready-to-eat and raw foods as long as you use different sides of the cutting board.

Many jurisdictions allow the use of either wooden or synthetic cutting boards, but wooden cutting boards must be made from nonabsorbent hardwood so the odor or taste of food does not transfer. Separate cutting boards should be used for raw and ready-to-eat food to prevent cross-contamination no matter which type of cutting board is used.

Women with gestational diabetes typically require less carbohydrates at which meal, compared to the others? Breakfast (morning) Lunch (afternoon) Dinner (evening) Bedtime snack

Many women with gestational diabetes are more insulin resistant in the early morning and can thus tolerate less carbohydrate at breakfast.

Which of the following is not a risk determinant for metabolic syndrome? Waist circumference Blood pressure Triglycerides Weight

Metabolic syndrome is a commonly encountered clinical phenotype presenting as concurrent metabolic abnormalities, including central obesity, dysglycemia, dyslipidemia, and hypertension. Weight per se is not a consideration.

Excessive intake of phytates and oxalates can interfere with the absorption of

Mineral bioavailability can be greatly affected by nonmineral substances in the diet. Components of fiber, especially phytate in grain fiber, can limit absorption of some minerals by binding them. Oxalates (oxalic acid) can depress the absorption of certain minerals present in food.

What is the invoice cost to serve 85 lb of cooked, sliced ham if whole, bone-in hams weigh 18 lb as purchased (AP), have an AP to edible portion waste percent of 44, and cost $1.83 per AP pound? $155.55 $223.99 $277.78 $296.46

Multiplying 18 lb (weight of each ham) by 0.44 (waste percent) results in (approximately) 8 pounds of waste. So, for each 18 lb ham, only about 10 lbs represent an edible portion. Therefore, it will be necessary to buy 9 hams to serve 85 pounds of cooked, sliced ham (since 8 whole hams would only produce 80 lbs of cooked, sliced ham, so 9 whole hams must be purchased to meet the required 85 lbs.). The cost for the 9 hams is 18 lb × $1.83 × 9 = $296.46

Which of the following is the best example of a statement that reflects the components expected of an objective? Students enrolled in basic nutrition will score passing grades on all class quizzes this semester if they study prior to taking each quiz. Given the appropriate recipe, the cook will know how to prepare the quantity of beef stroganoff needed to serve 100 people within 24 hours. Individuals with diabetes will like the foods that they sample in their class for new diabetics. After watching the video, the tray line workers will portion foods carefully.

Objectives need to be specific, measurable, attainable, relevant, and time bound.

Which of the following verbs is the best choice when writing a performance objective? Know Appreciate Recommend Understand

Performance must be measurable. Of all the options listed, "recommend" is the only activity that can be quantitatively measured.

The chlorophyll in spinach degrades to an olive-brown compound known as __________ during the canning process. chlorophyllin chlorophyll b choraphyllase pheophytin

Pheophytin, which is olive-brown in color, can be produced from chlorophyll by an acidic cooking environment or by prolonged cooking (longer than 5 to 7 minutes), as would occur in canning. Clorophyllin occurs when chlorophyll is subjected to an alkaline medium and has an unusually bright green color. Chlorophyll b is the aldehyde group of chlorophyll with a yellow-green color. Choraphyllase is a plant enzyme that splits off from chlorophyll to form chlorophyllide.

Stacey has been asked to complete a formative evaluation of her community nutrition program designed to encourage more first-time mothers to breastfeed. To do this, she should: determine the percentage of first-time mothers who breastfeed as a result of seeing a motivational DVD during prenatal checkups. calculate the increase in the number of first-time mothers who breastfeed after viewing a motivational DVD during prenatal checkups. choose a DVD that includes young mothers from varied ethnic backgrounds. pilot-test the motivational DVD she plans to use.

Pilot testing the DVD represents formative evaluation as this is a process of testing elements of a program before it is begun.

What component of serum cholesterol do plant stanols/sterols lower? Total cholesterol High-density lipoprotein (HDL) Triglycerides Low-density lipoprotein (LDL)

Plant stanols are often used in place of statin therapy for lowering LDL, especially for those patients who are unable to tolerate statins.

After reviewing the results of menu engineering, what is the best way to manage a plowhorse? Remove the item from the menu. Decrease the menu item's selling price. Serve smaller portions of the menu item. Give the item top priority on the menu.

Plowhorses are items that are popular but do not attain profitable status. If price increases are not possible, one strategy for managing plowhorses is to serve smaller portions to reduce the food cost and simultaneously increase the profit. It is not a good idea to lower the price on items that are popular at their current selling price. Items that are already popular should not be given priority in menu listings nor should they be removed from the menu.

_________describes the linking together of free fatty acids during frying, which makes the oil more viscous and prone to foaming.

Polymerization increases oil viscosity, decreases oil quality, and leaves a sticky film on fryers, manufacturing equipment, and front-of-house surfaces.

Table salt is fortified with this nutritive additive to help prevent goiter. Ascorbic acid Calcium lactate Potassium citrate Potassium iodide

Potassium iodide is added to table salt to help prevent goiter.

A consistent theme from the 2011 Dietetics Workforce Demand Study was that which of the following drives change for all areas of dietetics practice? Incidence rates for chronic diseases Costs associated with health care Changes to Medicare eligibility requirements Advances in technology

Practitioners need to appreciate that informatics affects all areas of practice and is much broader than just EHRs. Other factors such as incidence rates for chronic diseases, costs associated with health care, and changes to Medicare eligibility affect some areas of dietetics practice much more extensively than others.

Nipple feeding is likely to be successful if it is attempted once an infant reaches a gestational age of 28 weeks. 30 weeks. 32 weeks. 34 weeks.

Prior to 32 weeks gestational age, an infant cannot coordinate sucking, swallowing, and breathing. Thus, waiting until the infant reaches 32 weeks gestational age is recommended.

Which food would be most likely to contain propyl gallate? Gelatin dessert Nonfat dry milk Frozen pork sausage Canned tomatoes

Propyl gallate is an antioxidant that is added to foods containing oils and fats to prevent oxidation. Oxidation is most likely to occur in products that contain fat, including sausage.

Which of the following is a true statement regarding organic foods?

Raw or processed agricultural products in the organic category may contain up to 5% non-organic ingredients allowed per the National List. Organic is defined as all ingredients must be certified organic; any processing aids must be organic and product labels must state the name of the certifying agent on the information panel. "MADE WITH" organic multi-ingredient agricultural products in the "made with" category must meet these criteria—at least 70 percent of the product must be certified organic ingredients (excluding salt and water).

A manager who encourages qualified people to apply for existing or anticipated job openings is performing what act? Selection Recruitment Human resource planning Development

Recruitment is the process of locating and encouraging potential applicants to apply for a job opening. Selection is the process of comparing applicant knowledge, skills, and abilities to those required of a position and choosing the applicant most qualified. Human resource planning is designed to ensure that the organization's labor requirements are met and involves both forecasting staffing needs and analyzing labor market conditions. Development refers to the process of improving the technical, human, and conceptual skills of employees.

Daily Values are nutrient standards derived from the Daily Reference Values and the

Reference Daily Intakes. Daily Values are nutrient standards derived from the Daily Reference Values (DRV) and Reference Daily Intakes (RDI). DRVs are provided for total fat, saturated fat, cholesterol, total carbohydrate, dietary fiber, sodium, potassium, and protein. RDIs are provided for vitamins; minerals; and protein for children younger than 4 years of age and for pregnant and lactating women. In order to limit consumer confusion, however, the label includes a single term (ie, Daily Value [DV]), to designate both the DRVs and RDIs.

To maintain quality and freshness of refrigerated produce, upon receiving these items, they should be placed directly into cold storage and held at a temperature between

Refrigerated produce should be held at a temperature between 34°F and 36°F.

Systems thinking is the management approach to considering the entire organization when making decisions or allocating resources. Which is an example of systems thinking? Select a produce vendor who could deliver high-quality produce twice daily. Reschedule kitchen staff to prepare more foods from scratch to meet customer expectations. Develop a catering menu for department meetings to generate revenue for equipment purchases. Select cleaning chemicals that do not harm the environment.

Rescheduling kitchen staff to prepare food to meet customer expectations changes the kitchen and staff/resource entirely. Making a change to the produce delivery does not change the kitchen.

Which of the following conditions would most likely result in a slightly elevated albumin? Dehydration Cirrhosis Inadequate protein intake Stage IV pressure ulcer

Severe dehydration can result in an elevated albumin level. All of the other conditions would result in a lower level of albumin due to decreased synthesis or unusual losses.

Shell eggs should be stored at or below 32⁰F. 41⁰F. 45⁰F. 50⁰F.

Shell eggs are the only food stored at an air temperature of 45⁰F or lower. Other cold foods are stored at 41⁰F or lower.

What is the name of the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention's foodborne disease surveillance program? Food Code FoodNet Food Surveillance Food Break

Since 1996, FoodNet has been an active surveillance system that collects data on foodborne disease. It is a collaborative effort of the CDC, FDA, USDA, and state and local health departments. FoodNet collects data to better understand how foodborne disease outbreaks occur.

Your patient complains of a malodorous ileostomy and frequently eats each of the following foods. Which food would you advise that he limit? Yogurt Onions Banana Peanut butter

Since onions have the strongest odor, it is the food most likely to contribute to malodorous ileostomy. Yogurt with active cultures might actually relieve odor.

Which additive would inhibit mold in soda pop? Sorbitol Sodium benzoate Caramel Propyl gallate

Sodium benzoate is a preservative, bacteriostatic and fungistatic under acidic conditions. It is most widely used in acidic foods such as salad dressings (vinegar), carbonated drinks (carbonic acid), jams and fruit juices (citric acid), pickles (vinegar), and condiments.

Which additive used in smoked and cured meats forms a color pigment that may oxidize to an undesirable yellow or greenish color when exposed to oxygen and light? Sodium hydroxide Propyl gallate Potassium alginate Sodium nitrate

Sodium nitrate (NaNO3) is a food preservative used for meat. Nitrates are used in curing, which is a broad category of techniques for preserving foods, mainly meat and fish, that involve the use of salt, sugar, or some form of dehydration. It may oxidize to a yellow or greenish color when exposed to oxygen and light.

Which of the following does not provide a significant source of vitamin D? Egg yolk Kale Sardines Fortified milk

Some of the sources of vitamin D include fortified milk, fish, egg yolk, and butter.

Which additive would add sweetness, act as a stabilizer and thickener, and retain moistness in a muffin? Sorbitol Sodium acetate Sodium bicarbonate Saccharin

Sorbitol is used as a humectant in many types of products for protection against loss of moisture content. The moisture-stabilizing and textural properties of sorbitol are used in the production of confectionery, baked goods, and chocolate, as these products tend to become dry or harden. Sorbitol's moisture-stabilizing action protects these products from drying and maintains their initial freshness during storage.

Dry food should be stored between:

Storage temperatures over 70°F may shorten the shelf life and temperatures less than 50°F are not needed since the dry foods are not potentially hazardous.

Strategic management of a foodservice system means effectively responding to environmental threats. integrated systems thinking of internal and external events. evaluation of stakeholders and the competition. organization and environmental analysis to achieve goals.

Strategic management process involves analysis of the company and its environment, creating and implementing strategies to move a company toward its goals and evaluating progress.

Which of the following food additives does NOT have generally recognized as safe (GRAS) status? Sodium chloride Plant sterols Allspice Sucralose

Sucralose Under sections 201(s) and 409 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the Act), any substance that is intentionally added to food is a food additive, that is subject to premarket review and approval by FDA, unless the substance is generally recognized, among qualified experts, as having been adequately shown to be safe under the conditions of its intended use, or unless the use of the substance is otherwise excepted from the definition of a food additive.

Which of the following is not a sugar alcohol? Sorbitol Xylitol Mannitol Glycogen

Sugar alcohols all end in "-ol" or "-ose."

To generate revenue, the bakery department produces a photo sheet of its decorated cakes and distributes it to all units in the hospital. The cafeteria bundles the decorated cake service with a discounted coffee service. This is an example of transformation. output. synergy. permeability of boundaries.

Synergy is working together to create greater outcomes than would be possible working individually. The cakes plus the discounted coffee service allows the bakery to sell more cakes.

When working with disabled adults, it is suggested that the dietetics professional _____. use the MyPlate for kids because it contains pictures speak initially to the guardian rather than the client limit options presented to prevent confusing the client teach rather than test

Teaching rather than challenging is the most effective approach when working with this population.

Which of the following does the Braden Scale measure? Risk factors that may lead to undernutrition Medical conditions that affect the ability to feed oneself Risk assessment for pressure ulcers Appetite stimulants in the patient or client's environment

The Braden scale, an assessment tool for predicting the risk of pressure ulcers, is based on the total scores of the six criteria—sensory perception, moisture, activity, mobility, nutrition, and friction.

Which of the following is NOT an element of the chronic care model (CCM)? Self-management support The community Clinical information systems Motivation

The CCM encompasses care provided in the community and by health systems. Self-management support is an element of the community within the CCM. Clinical information systems are part of the health systems component of the CCM. Motivation is not an element of the CCM.

What is the best way to determine the type of nutrition program that will attract baby boomers who use a city recreation center? Give a nutrition knowledge pre-test and post-test to baby boomers who use the facility. Determine what nutrition programs are successful with baby boomers in cities of similar size. Offer several screening programs and see which one draws the biggest crowd of baby boomers. Perform a needs assessment of baby boomers who use the facility.

The best way to make an accurate and focused determination is to perform a needs assessment of the target population. Determining the target population's perceived needs and interests will increase the likelihood of participation and more closely align the needs with the developed program.

When using the Nutrition Care Process, what does the dietetics professional use to describe alterations in the patient's/client's nutritional status? Cause/contributing risk factors Problem or nutrition diagnosis labels Signs/symptoms Knowledge, attitudes, and beliefs

The nutrition diagnosis labels describe the alterations in the patient's status.

Freezing foods at ___________ is the least damaging to the food's original flavor, nutrient content, and texture compared to most other preservation methods. ≤10°F ≤32°F ≤0°F ≤20°

The optimum temperature for freezing foods is 0°F or slightly colder. At temperatures above 0°F, food quality is lost quickly and both flavor and texture are compromised.

Altitude affects water bath canning processing times. This is due to the fact that as altitude increases, the temperature of boiling water _______ while processing time must be_____ increases, shortened. increases, lengthened. decreases, shortened. decreases, lengthened.

The temperature at which water boils depends on the atmospheric pressure—the higher the altitude, the lower the pressure and, thus, the lower the boiling point for water. The lower atmospheric pressure in higher altitudes means lower cooking temperatures and foods take longer to cook. Therefore, cooking times would need to be increased to compensate and yield a safe product.

A thermometer used to measure the temperature of food must be accurate to what temperature? ±8°F ±6°F ±4°F ±2°F

Thermometers used to measure the temperature of food need to be accurate to ±2°F.

Cultural competence has been described as a set of congruent attitudes, behaviors, and _____. policies models values interventions

These "policies" come together through organizations and institutions implementing systems to apply cultural competence into practice.

If a food manufacturer wanted to include an additive to color the glaze white, which would be best? Turmeric Sodium citrate Silicon dioxide Titanium dioxide

Titanium dioxide is approved for use as a (white) food coloring agent.

A general rule for appropriate portion sizes for toddlers and preschool children is to offer 1 Tbsp of each food per meal for each year of the child's age. ¼ to ½ cup of each of three foods per meal. 2 Tbsp of each food per meal for each year of the child's age. ½ of the adult portion.

Toddlers and preschool children should be given 1 Tbsp of each food for each year of age at meals.

Which of the following is an example of a climacteric fruit? Grapefruit Melons Pineapple Tomato

Tomato Climacteric fruit continue to ripen post-harvest. Examples of climacteric fruit include tomatoes, pears, peaches, bananas, apricots, and apples. Whether a fruit is classified as climacteric or non-climacteric depends on respiration rate after maturation. Non-climacteric fruit does not have an accelerated rate post-harvest (as climacteric fruit does) and will not ripen once harvested; examples include melons, cherries, citrus fruits, and grapes.

Preparing the following recipe for conversion using the percentage method, what is the percentage of flour? 1 kg plain flour 4.7 g teaspoon salt 3.5 g baking powder 900 g unsalted butter 400 g granulated sugar

Total weight of the recipe is 2308.2 g. Individual ingredient weight/total weight x 100 = percentage of individual ingredient; so 1 kg = 1000 g/2308.2 = 0.4332 x 100 = 43.32%. Flour = 43.32%.

Which of the following is true regarding illness from seafood toxins like scombroid and ciguatera fish poisoning? The toxin is easily destroyed by proper cooking and freezing. Good hand washing practices can prevent illness. The toxin is not destroyed by proper cooking and freezing. Cross-contamination is the major cause of the illness.

Toxins cannot be destroyed and the source of the toxin is the fish itself.

Phenylalanine is a precursor to which amino acid? Arginine Glutamine Cysteine Tyrosine

Tyrosine is a nonessential amino acid the body makes from phenylalanine.

Which of the following agencies oversees voluntary inspection and grading of fish and fish products?

US Department of Commerce (USDC) Inspection of fish and fish products, which are not subject to mandatory grading, is overseen by the USDC's National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), which is part of the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA). The NMFS will provide inspection of fish, fisheries, and seafood for a fee. The requirements for inspection of fish and seafood are set by the FDA but carried out by the NMFS. The FDA is responsible for all fish imports into the United States.

What have studies in the areas of literacy and special education shown about the use of drawings vs. photographs? Drawings are generally easier to grasp because of their simplicity. Photographs are generally preferred because of their accurate presentation of reality. Neither is necessarily more effective than the other. Both are problematic because they are two-dimensional.

Using drawings or photographs are equally effective.

Food inventory is being valued. Eighteen #10 cans of diced pears are on the shelf. From oldest to newest cans, three cost $6.66 each, six cost $6.72 each, and nine cost $6.78 each. Using the FIFO valuation method, what is the total inventory value of diced pears?

Using the First In, First Out system, the inventory should be valued at the price of the most recent purchase. Multiply 18 cans by $6.78, the most recent price, to get $122.04.

Which of the following describes the term "validity"? It refers to the consistency and accuracy with which a test measures something in the same way over time. It ensures that there is a blueprint that describes all aspects of instruction. It indicates whether we are measuring what we intend to measure. It is established through the inclusion of cognitive and affective objectives.

Validity refers to the degree to which a study accurately reflects or assesses the specific concept that the researcher is attempting to measure. Whereas reliability is concerned with the accuracy of the actual measuring instrument or procedure, validity is concerned with the study's success at measuring what the researchers set out to measure.

Which of the following are the correct CDC growth charts to use in a child care center for assessing the growth of a 6-year-old boy? Weight-for-age and length-for-age charts Weight-for-age and stature-for-age charts Stature-for-age and weight-for-stature charts Length-for-age and weight-for-stature charts

Weight-for-stature charts are used in 2- to 5-year-olds; length-for-age and weight-for-age are used in infants and toddlers from birth to 36 months. Weight-for-age and stature-for-age charts are used in children aged 2 to 20 years.

One of the key differences in value analysis and value added is

Whereas value analysis focuses on lowering costs, value added looks for ways to increase the value of a product or service to the consumer.

What is the proper temperature for reheating TCS food for hot-holding? 135⁰F 145⁰F 155⁰F 165⁰F

You must reheat TCS food for hot-holding to an internal temperature of 165⁰F for 15 seconds. Make sure the food reaches this temperature within two hours from start to finish.

For the needs of infants born prematurely, human milk is deficient in

calcium and phosphorus. Human milk does not meet the calcium and phosphorus needs for normal bone mineralization in infants born prematurely. Therefore, breastmilk can be supplemented with human milk fortifiers that contain calcium and phosphorus.

The Institute of Medicine (IOM) defines health care quality as care that is

patient-centered, equitable (no disparities), timely, safe, effective, and efficient.

The grades for beef from highest to lowest

prime, choice, select, standard, commercial, utility, cutter, and canner

The five principles of motivational interviewing are: express empathy, avoid arguments, roll with resistance, support self-efficacy, and _____.

"Developing discrepancy" allows the participant to realize that his or her current situation may not agree with values or future goals. This tenet helps to present the argument for change, and change is motivated by discrepancy.

A cooked, 19 lb, bone-in turkey breast has a yield of 35.4%. The cost of the turkey breast is $1.19 per pound. What will be the cost of a 4 oz portion?

$1.19 per lb/0.354 = $3.36 per pound $3.36 per pound/16 oz per lb = $0.21 per oz $0.21 per ounce x 4 = $0.84

Which of the following financial terms represents current liabilities? Accrued expenses, depreciation Depreciation, retained earnings Retained earnings, accounts payable Accounts payable, accrued expenses

A balance sheet provides a statement of an organization's assets (ie, current, fixed), liabilities (ie, current, long term), and owner's equity at a given time. Current liabilities (ie, accounts payable, accrued expenses, current mortgage payable) are debts that must be paid within 12 months. Depreciation is a fixed asset. Retained earnings are owner's equity.

A dietary supplement with the statement "Vitamin K helps support normal blood clotting" on the label is making a

A dietary supplement that makes this type of statement is presenting a structure/function claim as per the FDA's functional foods guidelines.

A community nutritionist can best elicit opinions as to why a particular nutrition program is not working by forming a focus group. examining the results of the pre-test and post-test. sharing the problem with similar agencies. redefining the target population.

A focus group would allow the nutritionist to solicit opinions from members of a target group regarding perceived needs and barriers, or even why certain programs aren't working.

When including a factor to represent non-urinary losses of nitrogen, calculation of nitrogen balance for a patient with a 24-hour urinary nitrogen excretion of 14.3 grams and a protein intake of 102 grams would show a nitrogen balance of +16.3 grams -16.3 grams -2 grams +2 grams

Add 4 to the 24-hour urinary nitrogen excretion. (The 4 accounts for non-urinary losses of nitrogen.) Determine nitrogen intake by dividing the daily protein intake by 6.25 nitrogen balance = 14 + 4 = 18; 102 ÷ 6.25 = 16; 16 - 18= -2

In order to prevent backflow: a cross-connection should be created. an air gap between the faucet and the flood rim of the sink should be created. a physical link between the potable and contaminated water supply should be created. None of the above is correct.

Backflow is the unwanted reverse flow of contaminants through a cross-connection into a potable water supply. The only way to prevent backflow it to have an air space, referred to as an air gap, to separate a water supply outlet from any potentially contaminated source.

Hot, potentially hazardous foods must be cooled to ___ °F or below within 2 hours and then cooled to ___ °F or below in the next 4 hours. 140, 41 70, 41 41, 32 100, 38

Bacteria grows much faster at temperatures between 125°F and 70°F so it's important to have food pass through this temperature range quickly to reduce growth of bacteria. Food must continue to be cooled to 41°F or lower to be removed from the temperature danger zone.

On Thursday, the kitchen produced a total of 386 meals. That day, staff worked a combined total of 58 hours. What were the labor minutes per meal for that day?

First convert the hours to minutes: 58 x 60 = 3,480 minutes. Then divide minutes by total number of meals to calculate the labor minutes per meal. 3,480/386 = 9.02 minutes per meal.

The most important, fundamental key when menu planning is knowing the audience. equipment. budget. all of the above.

From the options listed, the most important and fundamental key when menu planning is knowing the audience. Before thinking about equipment and budget, first seriously consider what consumers want to eat.

How much water needs to be removed from vegetables if dehydration is used as a method of food preservation? ≥ 80% ≥ 85% ≥ 90% ≥ 95%

Dehydrated vegetables have 95% of their water removed and dehydrated fruits have 80% of their water removed.

Which classic vitamin deficiency is known for the four Ds: dermatitis, dementia, diarrhea, and death? Thiamine Niacin Biotin Folic acid

Dermatitis, dementia, diarrhea, and death are the typical symptoms of pellagra, a disease caused by niacin deficiency.

Compared to a non-leader, which grouping of words best describes a leader? Copes with complexities, seeks to be understood, empowers Organizes, motivates, copes with complexities Seeks to be understood, perseveres, copes with change Copes with change, empowers, perseveres

Effective leaders accept that change should and will occur and work with others in order to facilitate the pace and outcome of change. This empowers both themselves and others.

Which phrase best describes a leader? Copes with complexities, seeks to be understood, empowers Organizes, motivates, copes with complexities Seeks to be understood, perseveres, copes with change Copes with change, empowers, perseveres

Effective leaders accept that change should and will occur and work with others in order to facilitate the pace and outcome of change. This empowers both themselves and others.

Medical anthropologists have developed Exploratory Models that address five major concerns about an illness episode. These models address: etiology, time and mode of onset of symptoms, course of sickness, treatment, and ___. exposure pattern. family history. pathophysiology. emotional response.

Exploratory models also include pathophysiology that allows one to understand the changes associated with or resulting from diseases.

Irrespective of whether a substance is deemed to be GRAS or if its safety is established through a premarket approval process, the safety determination is always limited to the substance's intended conditions of use. widely known data and information about the use of a substance. information gathered exclusively by FDA. universally established dosing standards.

For a substance to be GRAS, the scientific data and information about the use of a substance must be widely known and there must be a consensus among qualified experts that those data and information establish that the substance is safe under the conditions of its intended use. GRAS determinations made in this manner are said to be made through scientific procedures. For a food additive, privately held data and information about the use of a substance are sent by the sponsor to FDA, which evaluates those data and information to determine whether they establish that the substance is safe under the conditions of its intended use (21 CFR 171.1). Thus, for a food additive, FDA determines the safety of the ingredient; whereas a determination that an ingredient is GRAS can be made by qualified experts outside of government.

In the systems model, transformation depends on the requirements of the functional subsystems. Which resource would be most important for the distribution and service subsystem of a school cafeteria? Steam table Storeroom School nutrition staff Vendor delivery schedule

Functional subsystems are classified according to their purpose and may include procurement, production, distribution and service, and sanitation and maintenance. Distribution and service subsystems of the cafeteria include steam table because storeroom and delivery do not fit that subsystem.

Evidence-based medicine (EBM) involves grading evidence to support clinical guidelines and guide practice recommendations. Which of the following statements is valid regarding the Academy of Nutrition and Dietetics' system? Grade I indicates strong evidence to support a recommendation. Grade I indicates minimal evidence to support a recommendation. Grade I indicates expert opinion to support a recommendation. Grade I indicates fair evidence to support a recommendation.

Grade I is the highest rating that is given for supporting evidence in research. It is indicated when there is strong supporting evidence for EBM.

The reaction H2 --> 2H+ + 2e- represents: redox. reduction. oxidation. oxygenation.

H2 --> 2 e- + 2H+ (oxidation) 1/2 O2 + 2 e- + 2H+ --> H2O (reduction)

What toxin is commonly linked to tuna, bonito, mackerel, and mahimahi? Anisakis simplex Vibro vulnificus Histamine Ciguatoxin

Histamine is a toxin commonly linked to tuna, bonito, mackerel, and mahimahi. Anisakis simplex is a parasite commonly linked with cod, halibut, mackerel, and pacific salmon. Vibrio vulnificus is a bacteria commonly linked to oysters from contaminated water. Ciguatoxin is a toxin commonly linked to barracuda, grouper, jacks, snapper.

To honor client autonomy in motivational interviewing, the food and nutrition professional _____. identifies which foods the client should consume in smaller quantities. encourages the client to choose which foods to eat. gives the client sage advice regarding dietary changes. accepts responsibility for the client's success or failure in following the recommended diet.

Honoring client autonomy means that decisions are left to the client even though the food and nutrition professional may have different preferences or opinions.

Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state, a rare condition that presents with extremely high blood glucose levels, elevated serum osmolality, extreme dehydration, and low amounts of ketones, usually occurs in preterm infants. obese adolescents. adults aged 18 to 35 with hypertension. persons older than 65 with type 2 diabetes mellitus.

Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state often occurs when people with type 2 diabetes have an infection or forget to take their medicines. Because the prevalence of type 2 diabetes is increasing in the aging population, who may be more likely to forget to take their medications and experience underlying infections, hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state occurs more often in seniors.

What should you do when a food item is not at proper temperature when it is brought to the service line? Serve the food within 1 hour. If it has been less than 2 hours since it was prepared, throw it out. If it has been less than 2 hours since it was prepared, reheat it to the proper temperature. None of the above.

If food was prepared less than 2 hours ago, reheating it to the proper temperature is considered a correct action in a HACCP plan.

Meals that are assembled in one location and transported to another location in the facility define which of the following foodservice systems? Decentralized meal assembly Centralized meal assembly Ready-prepared meal production Tray service

In centralized meal assembly, menu items are prepared and assembled on trays before being transported to other locations in the facility. In decentralized meal assembly, the menu items are produced in one location and then transported to other locations for assembly closer to the customers. In ready-prepared foodservice systems, food is produced onsite, held chilled or frozen, reheated, and served to customers on site. In tray service, food is prepared and then portioned, reheated, and served to customers on trays.

Which one of the following is NOT included in the statin benefit group according to the 2013 American College of Cardiology (ACC)/American Heart Association (AHA) Guidelines on the Treatment of Blood Cholesterol to Reduce Atherosclerotic Cardiovascular Risk in Adults?

Individuals without ASCVD, diabetes mellitus between the ages of 40 and 75 and who have a 10-year risk of 5.5% According to the ACC/AHA guidelines, the individuals listed in options A, B, and C are routinely prescribed a statin; the individuals listed in option D are not. Statin use is indicated in individuals whose ASCVD risk score is 7.5% and above.

Which of the following is true of dietetics management? Management is more critical in foodservice than in clinical areas of dietetics. The salaries of dietitians tend to be lower when they manage budgets and personnel. The manager's job is to see the organization as it is. Management principles transcend disciplines and practice areas.

Management is equally important in foodservice and clinical areas of dietetics. Salaries tend to be higher for dietitians who manage budgets and personnel. The manager's job is to see the organization as it could be. Management principles transcend disciplines and practice areas.

To avoid contracting Listeria monocytogenes, pregnant women should avoid unpasteurized milk and cheese. any processed meats. large ocean fish. unwashed fruits and vegetables.

Listeria can be killed with pasteurization. Any unpasteurized products, including milk and cheese, should not be consumed by pregnant women.

After reviewing the results of menu engineering, what is the best way to manage a puzzle? Remove the item from the menu. Decrease the menu item's selling price. Serve smaller portions of the menu item. Give the item top priority on the menu.

Menu engineering is the practice of developing menus with the goal to encourage customers to buy certain items. Puzzle items are those that are profitable but not popular. One way to address puzzles is to change the selling price in order to encourage sales.

When determining presentation of items on a printed menu, considerations are taken for their position on the menu. Items you wish to sell more of should be placed so that they are the first and/or last thing a customer sees. This positioning strategy is the science of

Menu psychology is an examination of how to design a menu to influence what customers pick to eat.

Comprehensive menu planning is a data-supported process. A reliable quantitative method of assessing menu item acceptability is observation. self-reported consumption. plate waste. patient surveys.

Plate waste—the amount of food left on a plate, which is often weighed—is the most reliable quantitative method of assessing menu item acceptability. Observation, self-reported consumption, or patient surveys can give clues about menu item acceptability but these approaches are not as reliable as measuring actual plate waste.

Which dietary reference intake (DRI) value estimates the nutrient needs to meet the requirements of at least half of individuals in a population? RDA AI EAR UL

RDA, or Recommended Dietary Allowance, is the average daily dietary intake level sufficient to meet the nutrient requirements of nearly all (97% to 98%) healthy individuals in a group. EAR, the Estimated Average Requirement, is the intake that meets the established nutrient needs of one-half of the individuals in a specific group. AI, Adequate Intake, is an estimate of average requirements when evidence is not available to establish an RDA. UL, Tolerable Upper Intake Level, is the maximum intake by an individual that is unlikely to pose risks for adverse health effect in a healthy individual in a specific group. There is no established standard for individuals to consume nutrients at levels above the RDA or AI.

Which statement best describes the "U" component of the FOCUS-PDSA performance improvement model?

Recognize sources of variation Identification of the process needing improvement occurs during the "F" stage of FOCUS-PDSA. Team formation occurs during the "O" stage of FOCUS-PDSA, and explanation of the current process occurs during the "C" stage. -joint commission

The loss of muscle mass that occurs with aging is termed: cachexia. sarcopenia. dystrophy. myotonia.

Sarcopenia is the term for loss of muscle mass. Cachexia refers to wasting; dystrophy refers to defective nutrition and metabolism; and myotonia refers to muscle spasms.

Which set of dietary intake values establishes a goal for dietary intake that will meet the needs of nearly all healthy people? Estimated Average Requirement Recommended Dietary Allowance Adequate Intake Tolerable Upper Intake Level

Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA) is the average daily dietary intake level sufficient to meet the nutrient requirements of nearly all (97% to 98%) healthy individuals in a group. The Estimated Average Requirement (EAR) is the intake that meets the established nutrient needs of one-half of the individuals in a specific group. Adequate Intake (AI) is an estimate of average requirements when evidence is not available to establish an RDA. Tolerable Upper Intake Level (UL) is the maximum intake by an individual that is unlikely to pose risks for adverse health effect in a healthy individual in a specific group. There is no established standard for individuals to consume nutrients at levels above the RDA or AI.

The Student Dietetic Association is having a smoothie tasting event. Each smoothie calls for a number 4 scoop of Greek yogurt, number 8 scoop of frozen strawberries, and a number 8 scoop of fresh blueberries. You anticipate 450 attendees at the event. How many gallons of Greek yogurt will you need? 28 gallons 29 gallons 112 gallons 113 gallons

Scoop sizes are based on the number of scoops it takes to fill a 32 fl oz container. A number 4 scoop holds 1 cup. For 450 attendees, 450 cups of Greek yogurt are needed. Since there are 16 cups in a gallon, divide 450 by 16 to get 28.12 gallons. To feed everyone, 29 gallons are needed.

Which foods should not be consumed by people with compromised immune systems? Eggs cooked to 165°F Pasteurized cider Rare steak Soft cheeses such as feta or brie

Soft cheeses contain live mold, which is not considered safe if one's immune system is compromised.

Consider the following statement from a patient during a nutrition consult: "I really want to improve my lunch choices by packing my own lunch, but I'm afraid I'll miss the social time with my coworkers." In the setting of motivational interviewing, this is an example of:

Sustain talk The client's statement is not change talk because it argues for the status quo. Developing discrepancy is a technique employed by the clinician. Motivational interviewing rejects the concept of resistance and understands ambivalence is a natural component of the change process. The client's statement is an example of sustain talk.

Which statement best describes the "A" component of the FADE performance improvement model? Choose a specific problem or process to improve Review data to better understand the current process Create a plan Implement and monitor the plan

The "A" component of the FADE model includes collection of data that are analyzed in order to establish baseline understanding of current processes. The process that will be improved is selected during the focus stage, action plans are developed during the development stage, and the plan is implemented during the execution stage. Joint Commission Resources. Cost-Effective Performance Improvement in Hospitals. Oakbrook Terrace, IL: JCAHO; 2005:95.

Nutrition informatics is the intersection of: agriculture, technology, and science. information, nutrition, and technology. dietetics, computer science, and medicine. dietetics, medicine, and technology.

The Academy defines nutrition informatics as the intersection between information, nutrition, and technology.

The objectives of patient-centered counseling for dietary change are to increase awareness of diet-related risks, provide nutrition knowledge, enhance skills to promote long-term changes in intake, and _____. reinforce patient values increase confidence for making dietary changes solicit social support from family members and friends identify and minimize external barriers to change

The actions in responses A, C, and D are all part of helping clients to make changes. However, patient-centered counseling is focused on helping patients develop a sense of self so they can realize how their attitudes, feelings, and behavior are being negatively affected. The goal is to have the patient confident enough to make the dietary change.

How should foods that do not hold well for long periods of time, such as broccoli, be prepared? Batch cooking Cook-chill Combi-oven Steamed

The best way to prepare foods that do not hold well is to prepare them as close to service as possible. Batch cooking means cooking smaller quantities of foods as needed for service. Foods may be cooked in a combi-oven, steamer, or other equipment very close to service.

Which of the following foods would you suggest limiting if your patient has diarrhea? Oatmeal Potatoes Banana Coffee

The caffeine found in coffee can irritate the digestive system and worsen diarrhea that already is present.

In addition to having demonstrated CDR's core competencies, all entry-level registered dietitian nutritionists must have _____. demonstrated additional competencies for at least one emphasis area. a letter of reference from the director of the supervised practice program. demonstrated cultural competency. passed an exam documenting their knowledge of the Standards of Professional Practice.

The core competency statements build on appropriate knowledge and skills necessary for the entry-level practitioner to perform reliably at the level indicated. One or more of the emphasis areas are added to the core competencies so that a supervised practice program can prepare graduates for identified market needs.

One part of the brain that is critical to regulating hunger and satiety is the

The hypothalamus produces hormones that control body temperature, hunger, moods, sleep, thirst, and sex drive.

To characterize the principles of motion economy, what term should be added to the following list: simultaneous, symmetrical, natural, rhythmic? Habitual Intermittent Minimize Idle

The principles of motion economy, suggestions to improve the manual work in manufacturing and reduce fatigue and unnecessary movements by the worker, use human body motion patterns that should be developed for rhythmic and habitual performance.

What would be the approximate protein requirement, in grams, for a male, non-athlete weighing 87 kg? 37 70 239 174

The protein requirement is determined by multiplying the weight in kilograms by 0.8.

What is the correct order of digestion, proximal to distal, of the small intestine? Duodenum - Jejunum - Ileum Ileum - Jejunum - Duodenum Jejunum - Duodenum - Ileum Duodenum - Ileum - Jejunum

The small intestine consists of three sections. The first section, called the duodenum, connects to the stomach. The middle section is the jejunum. The final section, called the ileum, attaches to the first portion of the large intestine.

Which natural colorant might be added to pickles? Acetic acid Calcium chloride Turmeric Tragacanth gum

Turmeric is added to pickles for flavor and color enhancement.

Which of the following is a limitation of 24-hour recalls? Not useful if diet pattern varies considerably Requires literacy Recording process may influence food intake Underreporting or overreporting occurs

Underreporting and overreporting are concerns with the 24-hour recall method, which is easy to administer and doesn't require literacy. The recording process influencing intake is a concern regarding the food diary or daily food record.

The biologically active hormone form of vitamin D is 7-dehydrocholesterol 25-hydroxyvitamin D D3 1, 25-dihydroxyvitamin D

Vitamin D is considered to be devoid of direct biological activity. It must be first hydroxylated in the liver by a 25-hydroxylase and then in the kidney by a 1 alpha-hydroxylase, which is responsible for the synthesis of the active metabolite 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D.

Where in the body is vitamin D hydroxylated to 25-hydroxyvitamin D? Kidney Liver Skin Blood

Vitamin D is considered to be devoid of direct biological activity. It must be first hydroxylated in the liver by a 25-hydroxylase, then in the kidney by a 1 alpha-hydroxylase which is responsible for the synthesis of the active metabolite 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D.

To prevent protein precipitation (curdling) when making cream of tomato soup add acid to milk rather than milk to the acid. add milk to acid rather than acid to the milk. use a cross-linked starch for thickening. use only skim milk.

When the acid from tomatoes mixes with the neutral milk, the proteins in the milk gather together in curds. To prevent this, add the acid (tomato soup) to the milk rather than the milk to the acid.

Which of the following nutrients is essential for growth and sexual maturation in adolescents? Calcium Selenium Zinc Iron

Zinc deficiency is the hallmark sign of growth retardation and sexual immaturity.

A storeroom staffed with a full-time employee would be considered a(n) ___________ of a university residence hall foodservice.

subsystem A subsystem is a complete system unto itself (such as a storeroom) that is part of a larger system (in this case, a university residence hall foodservice).

Consumption of high levels of folate supplements can mask a(n) _____________ deficiency.

vitamin B12 Folate supplements will help the body recover from anemia that occurs from a deficiency of folate and vitamin B12. However, without adequate vitamin B12, neurological problems progress and become irreversible.

Pyridoxine is another name for ___________.

vitamin B6

In the Cajun and Creole culture, the traiteur is the one _____.

who believes he or she possesses a divine gift for healing

The LEARN guidelines provide a framework that dietetics practitioners can use to convey a culturally sensitive treatment plan. The "A" in LEARN stands for _____. Acknowledge Assess Access Alternatives

"Acknowledge" is represented by the "A" in the "LEARN" guidelines regarding culturally appropriate intervention strategy. The strategy allows practitioners to acknowledge and discuss differences and similarities during the treatment plan process.

For credentialed RDNs and NDTRs, what is the basic difference between a statutory scope of practice and an individual scope of practice? A statutory (legal) scope of practice is, primarily, defined at the state level and an individual scope of practice is flexible and defined by the individual's professional practice. A statutory (legal) scope of practice is defined by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services and an individual's scope of practice in nutrition and dietetics is determined by the employer. A statutory (legal) scope of practice is defined by the US Department of Health and Human Services and an individual scope of practice is defined by the areas in which the practitioner provides services. There is no difference. All credentialed dietetics practitioners have the same statutory and individual scope of practice.

"Legal scopes of practice for the health care professions establish which professionals may provide which health care services, in which settings, and under which guidelines or parameters. With few exceptions, determining scopes of practice is a state-based activity. State legislatures consider and pass the practice acts, which become state statute or code. State regulatory agencies, such as medical and other health professions' boards, implement the laws by writing and enforcing rules and regulations detailing the acts." An individual's scope of practice in nutrition and dietetics has flexible boundaries to capture the breadth of the individual's professional practice. Individuals and organizations must ethically take responsibility for determining the practitioner's competence to provide a specific service. Not all RDNs and NDTRs will practice to the full extent of the range of nutrition and dietetics practice.

Achieving the appropriate aw level in dehydrated foods is crucial to ensure food safety and adequate shelf life. Most microorganisms grow well at an aw level of

0.91 to 0.99. The water activity (aw) level that limits the growth of the majority of pathogenic bacteria is 0.70 aw to 0.90 aw. The lower limit for all microorganisms is 0.60 aw. Penn State Extension. Water Activity of Foods Table. Available at: http://extension.psu.edu/food-safety/food-preservation/issues/water-activity-of-foods/water-activity-of-foods-table. Accessed December 9, 2016.

How many dietary folate equivalents (DFE) are provided in a supplement containing 150 mcg folate? 150 DFE 225 DFE 250 DFE 270 DFE

1 mcg DFE = 0.6 mcg folic acid from dietary supplements consumed with food. 150 ÷ 0.6 = 250.

Full-time employees generally work 236 days per year due to vacation and benefit days. Approximately how many employees are necessary for everyday coverage of full-time positions? 1.55 1.75 0.75 0.55

365 days each year236 full-time workdays 365 days each year 236 full-time workdays = 1.55 FTE. 1.55 FTE is required for each FT position.

The FDA defines the term "gluten-free" to mean that the food bearing the claim contains no more than _____ parts per million (ppm) or _____milligrams (mg) or more gluten per kilogram (kg) of food.

20, 20 In 2013, the FDA issued a final rule to define the term "gluten-free" for voluntary use in the labeling of foods. The final rule defines the term "gluten-free" to mean that the food bearing the claim does not contain an ingredient that is a gluten-containing grain (eg, spelt wheat); an ingredient that is derived from a gluten-containing grain and that has not been processed to remove gluten (eg, wheat flour); or an ingredient that is derived from a gluten-containing grain and that has been processed to remove gluten (eg, wheat starch), if the use of that ingredient results in the presence of 20 parts per million (ppm).

What is the upper limit of fat, in grams, that should be consumed by a healthy person requiring 2,500 kcal per day?

97 Fat should be 35% or less of energy. 2500 kcal x 0.35 = 875 kcal from fat; 875 kcal from fat ÷ 9 kcal/g fat = 97 g fat

An elevated homocysteine level could be an indicator of which vitamin deficiency? Vitamin A Vitamin C Biotin Folate

A role of folate in the body is to break down homocysteine. Without adequate levels of folate, homocysteine accumulates.

Which additive might be useful as a sequestrant to maintain whiteness of canned potatoes? Disodium inosinate Ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA) Guar gum Dipotassium phosphate

A class of food additives known as sequestrants can be added to food to react with trace metals in foods, forming tightly bound complexes (sequestered), thereby preventing the decomposition of the food. The sodium and calcium salts of EDTA are common sequestrants in many kinds of foods and beverages.

A school foodservice has centralized procurement and production facilities with distribution of prepared menu items to several remote areas for final preparation and service. What name is given to this type of foodservice operation? Conventional Ready prepared Commissary Assemblyserve

A commissary system is when food is all prepared in one location and transported to remote locations for service. Conventional foodserivce is when all of the production and service is in the same facility.

In classical management theory, the unity of command specifies that each unit should have a coordinated approach toward the same objective. each individual should be accountable to only one supervisor. each facility should have only one manager. authority and responsibility flow vertically from high to low.

A coordinated approach toward the same objective signifies unity of direction, whereas authority and responsibility flowing one way from high to low signifies a scalar chain. A facility, regardless of the size, can have as many managers as is needed. Each individual reporting to one supervisor signifies unity of command.

A study that looks back in time to reconstruct exposures and the resulting health outcomes for a group of people free of the disease or condition being studied is termed a: retrospective cohort study. correlational study. prospective cohort study. prevalence study.

A retrospective cohort study looks back; the cohort is the group of people studied to see who develops the characteristics of interest and who do not

A 2-year-old child who drinks large quantities of milk and very little solid food is at risk for diabetes mellitus. food allergies. iron-deficiency anemia. short stature.

A large quantity of calcium displaces iron and could result in iron-deficiency anemia.

The best studied and most frequently recommended weight-loss dietary strategy is: a low-carbohydrate, high-protein diet. a low fat, high-protein diet. a low-fat, reduced-energy diet. a low carbohydrate, reduced-energy diet.

A low-fat, reduced-energy diet is the best studied weight-loss dietary strategy and is most frequently recommended by governing health authorities. The Academy of Nutrition and Dietetics' Evidence Analysis Library recommends with a strong, imperative rating that an individualized reduced-energy diet is the basis of dietary component of a comprehensive weight management program. Reducing dietary fat and/or carbohydrates is a practical way to create an energy deficit of 500 kcal to 1,000 kcal below estimated energy needs and should result in a weight loss of 1 - 2 pounds per week.

A manager oversees one or more RDNs providing care for patients with a variety of medical conditions. Which of the following should the manager use when determining work assignments? OSHA's Professional Expectations for Professional Patient Care Joint Commission Standards for Care of Chronic Patients Academy of Nutrition and Dietetics Standards of Practice and Standards of Professional Performance for RDNs Patient Care Guidelines from the American Board of Examiners for Nutrition and Dietetics

A manager or director who oversees RDNs providing patient care for patients with a variety of medical conditions should consider the SOP and SOPP for RDNs when determining work assignments and expertise needed at the program level, and when assisting staff in evaluating competency and needs for additional knowledge and/or skills. The manager recognizes the SOP and SOPP as important tools for staff to use to assess their own competencies and to use as the basis for identifying personal performance plans.

After defining the nutrition problem, which of the following is the correct sequence of steps a community nutritionist should follow in assessing the needs of the community?

A nutrition needs assessment must occur in the sequenced order; Set the parameters of the assessment, collect data, analyze and interpret the data, share the findings, and set priorities.

Which of the following individuals would be LEAST likely to be at risk for vitamin B-12 deficiency? A vegan A woman with polycystic ovarian syndrome taking metformin therapy An elderly individual on a proton pump inhibitor A man on aspirin therapy

A patient on aspirin therapy may be at risk for iron deficiency but not vitamin B-12 deficiency.

Which inventory record is usually taken at the end of the month by counting and recording products in stock in all storage areas? Physical Perpetual Continual Periodic

A physical inventory involves actually counting all items in stock. A perpetual inventory involves recording all purchases and issues so that how much of a given item is in stock at any time is always known. Continual and periodic are not types of inventory records.

Breastfed infants of mothers who consumed a vegan diet while pregnant would benefit from supplementation of what micronutrient?

A pregnant or lactating woman who is consuming a vegan diet should be aware that her infant may develop vitamin B-12 deficiency, even if the mother seems healthy. A deficiency of this vitamin can cause irreversible nervous system damage.

Which is the first document used in the purchasing process? Invoice Requisition Purchase order Inquisition

A requisition is an internal form used by a foodservice manager to request items from the purchasing manager or department within his or her facility. Then the purchasing manager will write up a purchase order and give it to the supplier, who supplies the foods and invoices the purchasing manager for the shipment.

A preventive cardiology clinic sees patients who come to their clinic without initial coronary heart disease. Five years after the clinic opened, the physician conducts a chart review of these patients to compare the development of coronary heart disease among two groups: all patients and patients who were referred to the registered dietitian nutritionist. This is a retrospective cohort study. correlational study. prospective cohort study. prevalence study.

A retrospective cohort study looks at data from the past on a group of people after they have developed the outcome of interest. A prospective cohort study follows a group of people before any of the subjects have developed the outcome of interest.

The primary safeguard of foodservice quality is adherence to_____. menus purchase orders specifications HACCP standards

A specification is a concise description of the quality, size, and weight or count factors desired for a particular item. The purchasing agent, the purveyors of the company, and the company's receiving clerk should each have a set of the established specifications. A purchase specification is a concise description of the quality, size, and weight or count factors desired for a particular item. Management establishes standard purchase specifications based on a thorough study of the menu needs and merchandising and pricing policies. The purchasing agent, the purveyors of the company, and the company's receiving clerk should each have a set of the established specifications.

As a manager, you were instructed to prepare a budget without relying on the figures from previous years. This is known as a top-down budget. bottom-up budget. baseline budget. zero-based budget.

A top-down budget is prepared by top management and given to each operating units. In a bottom-up budget, individual units prepare their own budget that is then sent to upper management. A baseline budget starts with the previous budget and adjusts for current conditions. A zero-based budget starts with no previous figures before costs, outlay, and inflows are determined.

What decision-making technique focuses on the highest gains with the smallest amount of losses, regardless of what the competitor does? Game theory Simulation Artificial Intelligence Queuing theory

A variety of decision-making techniques have been developed. Game theory introduces a competitive note to decision-making by bringing into a situation the actions of an opponent. The objective is to obtain the highest gains with the smallest amount of losses, regardless of what a competitor does. Simulation utilizes devices for imitating real-life occurrences and studying their properties, behaviors, and operating characteristics (eg, virtual reality). Artificial intelligence attempts to duplicate the thought processes of experienced decision makers (eg, expert systems). Queuing balances the cost of waiting lines against the cost of preventing them by expanding facilities.

When utilizing support personnel in the delivery of customer-centered care, the Academy of Nutrition and Dietetics Standards of Professional Performance state that the registered dietitian nutritionist is expected to utilize support personnel in accordance with law, regulations, and organization policies. rules of ethical practice, Joint Commission standards, and effective outcomes. established practices, organizational needs, and rules of ethical practice. regulations, Academy of Nutrition and Dietetics standards, and established directives.

According to Standard 3.5 of the Academy of Nutrition and Dietetics Standards of Professional Performance for Registered Dietitians, dietitians are expected to "utilize support personnel appropriately in the delivery of customer-centered care in accordance with laws, regulations, and organization polices."

Which of the following is a functional food that has been identified as having a qualified health claim for essential and gestational hypertension? Calcium supplement Green tea Selenium supplement Dried tomatoes

According to the FDA, the claim that calcium supplements influence hypertension, pregnancy-induced hypertension, and preeclampsia meets the general requirements for health claims in 21 CFR 101.14, except for the requirement that the evidence for the claim meets the significant scientific agreement standard and that the claim be made in accordance with an authorizing regulation (21 CFR 101.14(c)).

Which of the following financial terms includes accumulated depreciation? Fixed assets Owner's equity Liability Gross profit

Accumulated depreciation is the total depreciation of an asset up to a given date, which is subtracted from the original cost of the item. Accumulated depreciation is included in an organization's fixed assets.

Which of the following must be included on the program evaluation review technique (PERT) chart? The amount of time needed to complete an activity The total cost associated with each activity The impact on labor cost if the project is delayed The degree of acceptance by consumers

Activities and times are detailed on a chart for planning and evaluation control purposes. Cost, impact, and consumer acceptance are not included on the chart.

Building an appropriate protein matrix is essential for achieving the proper quality features in baked goods. Increasing the amount of sugar in a recipe will have which of the following effects on gluten development and the mixing process?

Added sugar will slow gluten development and require more manipulation. When sugar is added to a dough or batter mixture, the sugar will compete with the starch for the water in the dough or batter. Reducing the amount of available water will slow gluten development and will increase mixing (manipulation) times for the dough or batter.

Freezing is both a simple and successful method of food preservation. To ensure high quality results, it is recommended to keep salt content of prepared foods to a minimum. The reason for this is _____. freezing intensifies flavor and the food will taste saltier when reheated salt accelerates rancidity of fats within the food salt increase the risk for microbial growth when foods are thawed salt accelerates the freezing process and reduces the shelf life of the food

Adding salt to foods being frozen causes loss of flavor and has the tendency to increase rancidity of any item containing fat.

accurately describe how alcohol is digested and absorbed?

Alcohol requires no digestion and is absorbed by simple diffusion. Alcohol requires no digestion once in the body; it enters the bloodstream immediately through the stomach or small intestine lining. Simple diffusion is a process whereby a substance passes through a membrane without the aid of an intermediary such as an integral membrane protein. Carbon dioxide, oxygen, and ethanol are hydrophobic and pass through the membrane.

ACEND requires dietetics education programs to offer an emphasis area in order to _____. prepare each entry-level RDN for advanced practice prepare each entry-level RDN as a specialist ensure that each entry-level RDN has had the opportunity to experience cutting-edge practice prepare each entry-level RD to begin to develop the depth necessary for future proficiency in that area of dietetics practice

All dietitian education supervised practice programs must offer at least one emphasis area. Supervised practice program prepares graduates for practice at the entry-level. The emphasis of the program reflects the unique environment of the program rather than a specialty or advanced-practice. Specialty or advanced practice take, on average, 3 years of intensive practice post-exam. Competencies for each emphasis are build on the core competencies and are designed to begin to develop the depth necessary for future proficiency in that area of dietetics practice. More experience in at least one area provides a model for learning throughout one's career.

A group of registered dietitian nutritionists meets with a member of the legislature to encourage her support for an important nutrition issue. This activity is known as lobbying. advocacy. sponsorship. petitioning.

Although all of the activities listed are part of the political process, lobbying involves influencing legislators. Advocacy is when an individual or group aims to influence political decisions, whereas sponsorship is when a legislator endorses and introduces a bill. In petitioning, a group signs a written request asking for a legislator to pass a bill.

If the community nutritionist is concerned that the new educational activities provided for SNAP recipients have been ineffective in increasing the amount of fresh vegetables consumed, the best approach would be to conduct which type of evaluation: Efficiency Process Structure Impact

Although each answer is a form of evaluation, the only right answer would be an outcome-focused evaluation. An impact evaluation would assess whether the program's methods and activities resulted in the desired changes in the client.

The United States Department of Agriculture (USDA) performs quantitative (yield) grading only for produce. milk. eggs. meat.

Although quantitative grading is done for some of the other products listed, the USDA is responsible for overseeing all quality and yield standards and inspection for meats. The USDA conducts quality grading for eggs and sets quality standards for fruits and vegetables, nuts, and other dairy products; the FDA oversees quality grading for milk.

Which of the following glucose-lowering medications would require patient education about treatment of hypoglycemia? Metformin (Glucophage) Sitagliptin (Januvia) Pioglitazone (Actos) Glimepiride (Amaryl)

Among the options, glimepiride (Amaryl) is the only secretagogue, which means the mechanism of action is stimulating the pancreas to make insulin, thereby causing the possibility of low blood glucose.

Which enzyme is responsible for starch digestion? Amylase Lipase Lactase Insulin

Amylase is any of several digestive enzymes that break down starches. Lipase is any of a group of enzymes that break down fat. Lactase is an enzyme capable of breaking down lactose. Insulin is a hormone that regulates the amount of sugar in the body.

Which of the following correctly identifies amylopectin? Galacturonic acid units joined by 1,6 ß linkages 1,4 α glucosidic linkages only 1,4 α glucosidic linkages in addition to 1,6 α glucosidic linkages 1,4 ß glucosidic linkages only

Amylopectin is the branched fraction of starch. The presence of 1,4 α glucosidic linkages that are linear, interrupted by occasional 6 α glucosidic linkages results in a very large branched structure.

Which pectic substance found in mature fruits loses its ability to form a gel? Pectic acid Pectinic acid Pectin Protopectin

As fruit ripens, there is maximum protopectin present; thereafter, it breaks down to pectin, pectinic acid, and, finally, pectic acid, and the fruit softens as the adhesive between the cells breaks down. Fruit that is just underripe or just ripe contains the highest level of pectin that the fruit is going to reach; past that, the pectin levels will decrease.

Anthocyanin in turnips may change to a blue-black or red-brown color if heated excessively in which type of pan? Cast iron Stainless steel Porcelain Aluminum

Anthocyanin is a water-soluble red to blue pigment. Metals such as cast iron, tin, and sometimes aluminum will turn the anthocyanin pigment to various shades of blue. Therefore, use stainless steel or heat-safe glass for cooking anthocyanin vegetables and fruits and store them in stainless steel or glass containers.

In order to prevent deterioration by slowing respiration, ____________________ would be stored in modified-atmosphere packaging.

Apple Slices By modifying the atmosphere in which the food is packaged, spoilage is markedly reduced and the shelf life of the product is increased. Sliced apples are packaged this way to reduce spoilage and oxidation. Specifically, the type and proportion of gas used in the packaging is largely dictated by the type of food in the package and the sort of decay or change that the food undergoes. To package a product in a modified atmosphere requires sophisticated machinery to flush out air from the packaging chamber and replace it with a different gas or precisely defined mixture of gases, then seal the product in the packaging so that only the modified atmosphere and not any other unwanted gas surrounds the product.

According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention's worst-case projection made in 2010, what proportion of the US adult population will have diabetes by the year 2050?

Approximately 30% of the nation's adults are projected to have diabetes by 2050.

According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention's worst-case projection, what proportion of the US adult population will have diabetes by the year 2050?

Approximately 30% of the nation's adults are projected to have diabetes by 2050.

In a taste test evaluation, which of the following foods would have a notable "astringency" as part of its "flavor" profile? Lemons Grapefruit Tea Coffee

Astringency is a taste sensation that is most often associated with the tannins in foods. It should not be confused with bitter taste, which you may taste in coffee, or sour taste like in lemons and grapefruit. Astringency has a puckering and "dry" sensation in the mouth and is found in tea, wine, chocolates, and certain fruits (most notably underripe fruit).

This emulsifier is manufactured by splitting a fatty acid off triacylglycerol molecules and is useful in frozen desserts, shortening, and margarine.

At high temperatures, triglycerides are capable of rearranging into monoglycerides and diglycerides. Diglycerides are emulsifiers that are used in the food industry to improve texture, stability, volume, softness, aeration, homogenization, and shelf life.

Which of the following is NOT a source of bias in a clinical trial? Selection bias Assessment bias Statistical bias Response bias

Bias may be introduced by researchers during selection, assessment, or analysis. Bias is not introduced by response from participants.

Which of the following is a main component of continuous quality improvement (CQI)? Development of new products or services Data collection Grass-roots initiatives Identification of high performing areas

CQI involves use of the scientific method for data collection. Other components include the identification of need including areas of low quality, commitment of management, prioritization, planning, and organization.

Which preservative is often used as a fungicide and mold preventative in bakery products? Calcium propionate Calcium carbonate Calcium silicate Calcium alginate

Calcium propionate is used as a preservative in bread and other baked goods. It keeps bread and baked goods from spoiling by preventing mold and bacterial growth.

The four most costly foodborne bacteria pathogens are salmonella, e. coli, listeria, and staphylococcus aureus. clostridium perfringens. clostridium botulinum. campylobacter jejuni.

Campylobacter jejuni is among the four most costly foodborne pathogens. Clostridium perfringens and staphylococcus aureus are acquired via human contact, and botulism is contracted from improperly processed foods.

The FDA would be most likely to issue a Class I recall if: a box of dates was mislabeled for country of origin. the use-by date was stamped February instead of March on boxes of dry cereal. canned carrots had been underfilled with 13.5 net ounces instead of 15 net ounces. canned green beans had been underprocessed.

Canned green beans found to be underprocessed have the potential to be a health hazard that could affect many people. Green beans are considered a low-acid food (pH higher than 4.6) and would need to be canned to an appropriate processing temperature (above 240°F) to eliminate the risk of botulism. In this case, the FDA would likely issue a Class I recall—actions taken by a firm to remove a product from the market in a situation where there is a reasonable probability that the use of or exposure to a violative product will cause serious adverse health consequences or death. While the other scenarios listed are labeling violations, they are not cause for nor subject to a Class I recall.

Which set of nutrients and/or food components are associated with the formation of cataracts in older adults? Vitamin C, vitamin E, carotenoids Thiamin, niacin, riboflavin Vitamin C, vitamin E, phytosterols Calcium, zinc, magnesium

Carotenoids are high in oxidants and oxidative stress can cause cataracts.

nthocyanin in turnips may change to a blue-black or red-brown color if heated excessively in which type of pan?

Cast Iron Anthocyanin is a water-soluble red to blue pigment. Metals such as cast iron, tin, and sometimes aluminum will turn the anthocyanin pigment to various shades of blue. Therefore, use stainless steel or heat-safe glass for cooking anthocyanin vegetables and fruits and store them in stainless steel or glass containers.

The USDA does NOT provide quality grade marks for: Fish Chicken Beef Lamb

Chicken, beef, and lamb are given quality grade marks by the USDA, but fish is not.

After a meal, most of the fat that travels from the intestines into the lymph system and eventually into the blood is in the form of particles known as: VLDLs HDLs LDLs Chylomicrons

Chylomicrons are one of the microscopic particles of emulsified fat found in the blood and lymph system that are formed during the digestion of fats.

Which quick freezing process incorporates very low temperatures (-140°F) with liquid nitrogen or carbon dioxide?

Cryogenic freezing requires extremely low temperatures, generally below -238°F. Typically, cryogenic freezing relies on the use of liquefied gases such as helium. These gases can only exist in a liquid state at extremely cold temperatures, which means that once the gas is in liquid form, it can be used to generate freezing temperatures.

Commercial and onsite foodservice operations share many similarities in their subsystems. However, some characteristics are unique to a type of operation. A commercial buffet restaurant and a school nutrition program are distinguished by: how food is distributed and served. how food is procured. how sanitation is maintained. how food is produced.

Commercial foodservice operations sell food as the primary activity and a profit is desired. A commercial buffet restaurant sells food for profit and the variety of food offered may be greater than the school nutrition program. Also, the speed of food distribution affects the style of service.

Dietetics professionals may apply basic educational principles to program design. Which of the following is the best example of the application of consonance? Even though the basics of a heart-healthy meal plan are being explained in a group setting, each participant is given the opportunity to have personal questions answered. The successes that clients have had when following a reduced-sodium meal pattern are rewarded by the dietetics professional who gives away samples of salt-free seasoning packets. The dietetics professional explains and demonstrates proper procedures for portioning hot entrees for the tray line. The professional provides clients newly diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus a way of monitoring the progress they are making with regard to controlling blood sugar levels.

Consonance is the fit between the program and the expected outcomes based on the objectives.

Which of the following types of adolescents is at greatest nutritional risk? One who drinks water rather than juice One who consumes more than three servings of fruit per day One who has irregular eating patterns One who consumes fast food three or more times per week

Consuming fast food three or more times per week is a key indicator for nutritional risk and indicates a poor-quality diet.

Which of the following foods would not be considered safe for consumption? Eggs cooked to 165°F Pasteurized cider Medium steak Leftovers reheated to 160°F

Consuming undercooked foods or foods that are not reheated to the proper temperature can result in foodborne illness. Leftovers have a recommended reheating temperature of 165°F.

Which quick-freezing process incorporates very low temperatures (-140°F) with liquid nitrogen or carbon dioxide? Air blast freezing Cryogenic freezing Plate or contact freezing Immersion freezing

Cryogenic freezing requires extremely low temperatures, generally below -238°F. Typically, cryogenic freezing relies on the use of liquefied gases such as helium. These gases can only exist in a liquid state at extremely cold temperatures, which means that once the gas is in liquid form, it can be used to generate freezing temperatures.

Cultural _____ is the ability to collect culturally relevant information from clients and perform culturally based assessments and interventions. knowledge awareness desire skill

Cultural skill is the ability to collect culturally relevant information from clients and perform culturally relevant assessments and interventions.

A foodservice operation has a 1.93 current ratio. This value indicates to creditors that the foodservice operation most likely will not be able to meet long-term financial obligations. not be able to generate profit in relation to sales. be able to control expenses. be able to pay bills when due.

Current ratio is calculated by dividing current assets by current liabilities. The resulting number indicates an organization's ability to meet current financial obligations, and therefore, is a measure of bill-paying ability. Creditors use the current ratio to help determine if an organization has sufficient assets to repay debts over the next 12 months. Current ratios that are greater than 1 indicate the organization most likely will be able to pay bills when due and over the next 12 months.

The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) provides a strict definition for functional foods.

Currently no legal definition exists for functional foods. The US Food and Drug Administration (FDA) regulates claims that manufacturers make about functional foods' nutrient content and effects on disease, health, or body function.

How much water needs to be removed from food if dehydration is used as a method of food preservation? ≥ 80% ≥ 85% ≥ 90% ≥ 95%

Dehydration is a preservation method that decreases the moisture level of a food product to inhibit microbial growth. Different microorganisms require varying minimum moisture levels to be viable (eg, molds require 13%, bacteria requires 16%, yeasts require 20%). The Colorado Cooperative Extension notes that the water content of dehydrated foods will fall in the range of 5% to 25%. Therefore, when the moisture content of a food is reduced by 80% to 95%, depending on the food product, food can be preserved and remain shelf stable when kept in airtight containers.

According to the USDA, what is a penalty for falsely labeling a product as "organic"? A civil fine up to $11,000 Imprisonment Confiscation of assets Confiscation of the product

Depending on the scope and nature of violations, the USDA penalty for falsely labeling a product as "organic" is a civil fine up to $11,000 per violation and/or suspension or revocation of the farm or business' organic certificate.

Which of the following social or economic trends is thought to have the most important consequences for future community nutrition practice? The segment of the US population growing most rapidly is children aged 12 years and younger Different generations in the United States having similar values and attitudes about health The deteriorating global environmental indicators such as climate change, degradation of topsoil, and increased use of many chemical pollutants The food purchasing practices and preferences in the United States that indicate a desire for an extensive variety of "value-added," pre-prepared foods

Deteriorating global environmental indicators are projected to affect future community nutrition practice more than any other social or economic trend. The other options are incorrect because the fastest growing segment of the US population is those older than 65, there is generational diversity in health-related values and attitudes, and purchasing practices indicate a desire and awareness of locally grown and fresh food.

Interpersonal communication models encourage dietetics practitioners to respond in certain ways. Which of the following approaches best describes the preferred response ? Evaluative rather than descriptive Fixed rather than flexible Neutral rather than emphatic Problem-oriented rather than manipulative

Dietetics practitioners do not want to project judgmental cues or communicate unintentional roadblocks. This may interfere with relationship building. A neutral approach would, therefore, be preferred.

Which statement best describes the "C" component of the FOCUS-PDSA performance improvement model? Identify a process to improve Develop a team Explain the current process Recognize sources of variation

During the C component of FOCUS-PDSA, the current process is explained. The process that needs improvement is identified in the F stage, development of the team is done during the O stage, and recognition of sources of variation is part of U.

The premise of the economic order of quality (EOQ) is to achieve cost balance based on the following assumptions: ordering costs decrease at a greater rate as size of order increases, and holding costs increase in direct relation to the size of the order. ordering costs increase at a greater rate as size of order increases, and holding costs increase in direct relation to the size of the order. ordering costs decrease at a greater rate as size of order decreases, and holding costs decrease in direct relation to the size of the order. ordering costs decrease at a greater rate as size of order decreases, and holding costs increase in direct relation to the size of the order.

EOQ is a calculation used to determine ordering quantities based on the relationship between ordering costs and holding costs. Balance of costs is desirable. Therefore, when the cost of placing an order aligns with the cost of holding merchandise, EOQ is obtained.

Which agency is responsible for reviewing safety information related to food ingredients and food packaging? Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition (CFSAN) International Food Information Council (IFIC) Food Safety Alliance for Packaging (FSAP) Food and Drug Administration (FDA)

Each of these entities addresses different food regulations, but CFSAN is the agency that reviews safety information for ingredients and packaging.

The Campinha-Bacote Model of Cultural Competence includes the interdependent constructs of cultural awareness, cultural knowledge, cultural skill, cultural desire, and cultural _____. understanding communication encounter integration

Encounter is the additional construct in the Campinha-Bacote Model.

A foodservice director using a systems approach to evaluate the effect of a new tray delivery service on the dishroom and the nurses' stations is considering the internal and external environments. equifinality of the system. dynamic equilibrium of the system. managerial feedback.

Environmental factors are components outside the system that can affect the operation of the system—in this case, the tray delivery service.

In the ETHNIC model of culturally competent care, the "E" stands for _____. education empathy explanation expectations

In the ETHNIC model, explanation about the culture by the client is the first step.

Which FDA class of recalls are for products that might cause a temporary health problem, or pose only a slight threat of a serious nature? Class I Class II Class III Class IV

FDA class II recalls are for products that might cause a temporary health problem, or pose only a slight threat of a serious nature. (Class II USDA recalls involves a potential health hazard situation in which there is a remote probability of adverse health consequences from eating the food.)

The diet office was excited about having their holiday luncheon at Dominic's, a new Italian restaurant. The menu contained many interesting dishes. Unable to decide who should order which dish, they asked their server for some guidance and she replied, "Not to worry, all of the food will be served on platters for you all to share and pass around the table." The service style at Dominic's is

Family style service means that food is brought to the table in bowls and platters for the customers to pass around and serve themselves. In American-style service, the food is plated in the kitchen and then placed in front of the customers. In French-style service, food is prepared at the table.

The NDTR receives information from the patients about food temperatures. The line cooks receive information from the RDN about recipe modifications. The health inspector provides an assessment of the dishroom. Are these interactions examples of feedback? No, because feedback is only from the external environment. No, because feedback flows from the bottom to the top of an organization. Yes, because feedback can be from the internal and external environments. Yes, because feedback moves in all directions throughout an organization.

Feedback is processes by which a system continually receives information from its internal and external environment. In this case, all three levels within the system are interacting with each other to give internal feedback. The health inspector providing information is an example of external feedback given.

The largest hunger-relief organization in the United States is UNICEF. Feeding America. Meals on Wheels Association of America. The Hunger Project.

Feeding America is the largest domestic hunger-relief organization in the United States and serves the greatest number of food insecure individuals in the United States. UNICEF and the Hunger Project are international organizations.

Four entrees are on next Friday's menu: BBQ ribs, seafood platter, roast beef, and filet mignon. The number of each item sold the last time this menu was offered was 76, 118, 96, and 154, respectively, for a total of 444 entrees sold. For the past six Fridays, the following noon meal counts were recorded: 447, 423, 437, 444, and 429. For next Friday, how many portions of roast beef will be forecasted? 91 98 101 95

First add up the total entrees sold for the 6 weeks for which meal counts are available, and then divide by 6 to calculate the average. The average number of entrees sold each week is 437.3. Next, calculate the popularity index (sales of an item compared with total sales for the category) for roast beef, which is 96 divided by 444 entrees. The popularity index is 21.6%. To calculate how much roast beef should be forecasted for next Friday, multiply 0.216 by 437.3. The result is 95.

The foodservice management team has agreed to upgrade the coffee service area to include an imported ESK4-220V espresso machine at a cost of $4,500.00. The estimated gross income from the machine is $3,365.00 a year with a profit margin of 72%. What would be the payback period for this equipment purchase?

First calculate the actual profit from the equipment: $3,365 x 0.72 = $2,422.80 (profit). Then divide initial investment by expected yearly income (profit) to calculate the payback period in years: 4,500.00/2,422.8 = 1.86 years.

In order to absorb folate consumed from green, leafy vegetables, _________________. phosphate groups must be removed by the action of alkaline phosphatase glutamate must be transaminated to form alpha-ketoglutarate glutamic acid molecules must be removed glutamic acid molecules must be added

Food folate contains multiple glutamic acid molecules whereas folic acid, the folate form found in supplements, contains only one glutamic acid. These multiple glutamic acids must be hydrolyzed in order for folate to be absorbed from food sources.

The practices and attitudes that influence an individual's food choices are known as food preferences. food habits. food satisfaction. food connection.

Food habits are the practices and associated attitudes that predetermine what and when a person will eat. Food preferences are the foods a person likes to eat and food satisfaction measures the level of eating enjoyment of an individual.

What is the definition of a low sodium food for the food label? Less than 5 mg sodium per serving Up to 35 mg of sodium per serving Up to 140 mg sodium per serving At least 25% less sodium than the regular food

Food labeling laws require that a food have no more than 140 mg sodium per serving in order to be identified as a low-sodium food

What must be true for a food to be labeled "low sodium"? Contains less than 5 mg sodium per serving Contains no more than 35 mg of sodium per serving Contains no more than 140 mg sodium per serving Contains at least 25% less sodium than the regular food

Food labeling laws require that a food have no more than 140 mg sodium per serving in order to be identified as a low-sodium food.

As the time span and/or distance between the finishing point of food production and service to the customer increases, the needs and costs associated with distribution systems and equipment for successful service to the customer decreases. stays the same. increases. fluctuates.

Food that is prepared and delivered immediately to the customer, as in a restaurant, does not require the expense of special distribution equipment. As the time span and/or distance between where the food is produced and the customer is served increase, special equipment will be needed, such as hot-holding and cold-holding equipment and transportation equipment.

Home canning is a very popular method of food preservation. To ensure safe foods, appropriate canning methods must be used. Which of the following is the safe and recommended method for canning foods above pH 4.5? Boiling water bath canning Pressure canning Steam canning Oven method canning

Foods that are low acid (pH of 4.6 or higher) include vegetables, meats, dried beans, and all soups. These will need to be preserved using a pressure canner. Low-acids foods need to be heated to temperatures higher than 212°F to destroy C. botulinum spores. Pressure canners can heat foods to a temperature of up to 240°F. High-acid foods have a pH level of 4.6 or lower and create an acid medium in which C. botulinum spores will not survive. These foods will need to be preserved using a water bath canner.

What gauge of stainless steel is most common in foodservice operations?

Foodservice operations utilize 14, 16, and 18 gauge stainless steel most frequently. The lower the gauge number is, the thicker the metal is. This makes stainless steel gauges like 14, 16, and 18 less likely to dent than other gauges (such as 20 and 22).

Which "leadership powers" appear to be most important for compliance? Expert, referent Legitimate, expert Referent, reward Reward, legitimate

For compliance, the position in the organization and competence are leadership powers needed.

The minimum number of additional competencies that ACEND requires a program to have to support its emphasis area is _____. 3 5 7 9

For establishing an emphasis area, the program has the following options: (1) Use one or more of the four defined emphasis areas; (2) Develop a general emphasis by selecting a minimum of seven competency statements, relevant to program mission and goals, with at least one from each of the four defined emphasis areas; the selected competencies should build on the core competencies; or (3) Create a unique emphasis area with a minimum of seven competency statements, based on environmental resources and identified needs.

To include formative evaluation in an instruction of breastfeeding techniques, the dietetics professional should _____. ask participants several times during the class to share something that they have learned determine the number of participants who breastfeed after attending the class ask participants what else should have been included at the conclusion of class determine what the participants remember from the class 3 to 6 months after attending

Formative evaluation helps instructors find out if they are achieving their goals and objectives in the formative stages of the project, instead of waiting until they have finished the project.

Which kind of damage results from dehydration of a frozen breaded chicken patty due to extreme cold? Caking Contamination due to excessive additives Crystallization Freezer burn

Freezer burn is a condition that occurs when frozen food has been damaged by dehydration and oxidation, due to air reaching the food. It is generally induced by substandard (non-airtight) packaging.

How many times might a parent need to expose a child to a food before acceptance of that food occurs? 1 to 2 3 to 5 6 to 7 8 to 10

Frequent exposure improves acceptability, so it may take as many as 8 to 10 exposures before a child accepts a food.

Which food is likely to be irradiated to inhibit deterioration due to mold formation? Soda pop Fresh strawberries Poultry Ground beef

Fruits and vegetables are prone to destruction by mold. Irradiation prolongs shelf life of many fruits and vegetables by reducing growth of spoilage bacteria and mold and by inhibiting sprouting and maturation.

The hormone released by gastric cells in response to food in the stomach is ______. gastrin secretin cholecystokinin chymotrypsin

Gastrin is a hormone secreted in the stomach that is involved in the production of gastric acid. Secretin is a hormone formed by the epithelial cells of duodenum under stimulus of acid contents from stomach, which incites secretion of pancreatic juice. Cholesystokinin is a polypeptide hormone produced principally by the small intestine in response to the presence of fats. Chymotrypsin is a pancreatic digestive enzyme that catalyzes the hydrolysis of certain proteins in the small intestine into polypeptides and amino acids.

Which of the following gastrointestinal hormones has the effect of increasing appetite? Cholecystokinin Ghrelin Enterostatin Peripheral hormone peptide YY

Ghrelin is a gastrointestinal hormone produced by epithelial cells lining the fundus of the stomach; it appears to be a stimulant for appetite and feeding. It is also a strong stimulant of growth hormone secretion from the anterior pituitary.

Of the following foodborne microorganisms, which of the following is considered a parasite? Shigella Staphylococcus aureus Hepatitis A Giardia duodenalis

Giardia duodenalis is the only parasite among all options listed. Hepatitis A is a virus. Shigella and staphylococcus aureus are considered bacteria.

Guidelines to treat disorders of lipid metabolism in patients with diabetes include: 25%-35% of total energy from fat; less than 7% of total energy from saturated and trans fat. less than 25% of total energy from fat; less than 10% of total energy from saturated and trans fat. less than 15% of total energy from all fat. less than 200 mg of cholesterol per day; greater than 10% of total energy from saturated and trans fat.

Guidelines include a recommendation that 25% to 35% of total energy comes from fat with less than 7% of total energy coming from saturated and trans fats.

Which of the following is a type of skill that must develop within and be nurtured in both the personal and professional life of a manager? Hard skills Soft skills Language proficiency Diet calculations

Hard skills can be taught. Soft skills must develop and be nurtured within one's personal and professional lives.

Of the following, which is the type of skill that must develop within and be nurtured in both the personal and professional life of a manager? Hard Soft Networking Communication

Hard skills can be taught. Soft skills must develop and be nurtured within our personal and professional lives.

Which of the following has been listed as an essential element in the provision of culturally competent community nutrition programming? Standardizing service delivery on the basis of an understanding of cultural diversity Having institutionalized cultural knowledge Minimizing the unplanned interactions of people from different cultures Having the capacity to avoid self-assessing the cultural diversity of others

Having institutionalized cultural knowledge Infusing cultural competence at every level includes providing competent community nutrition programs and involves having institutionalized cultural knowledge. Standardizing delivery of service, avoiding self-assessment, and minimizing interactions may be exclusive to some groups and do not contribute to being culturally competent. These are more likely to overlook some cultural differences that may exist in a diverse community population.

HACCP principles must be considered in order. Which of the following is the fourth principle? Establish critical limits Establish monitoring procedures Establish procedures for record keeping and documentation Verify that the system works

Hazard Analysis Critical Control Point (HACCP) plan is a system that identifies, evaluates, and controls hazards that are significant for food safety. The steps in order are: (1) Conduct a hazard analysis. (2) Determine critical control points. (3) Establish critical limits. (4) Establish monitoring procedures. (5) Identify corrective actions. (6) Verify that the system works. (7) Establish procedures for record keeping and documentation.

Motivational interviewing is best described as a style of counseling that: challenges clients to face their issues of denial. helps clients establish contracts and follow rules. enhances intrinsic motivation and is a person-centered, directive method of counseling. identifies stages of change and guides the client toward action.

Health care professionals must be aware of this style of counseling, which represents an effective, brief intervention that has been around for more than 25 years in the field of addiction and is becoming very prominent in all realms of health care, especially nutrition and dietetics. The key to motivational interviewing is that it focuses on the client's values, beliefs, and internal motivations that guide them to action, if any.

The nutritionist employed by the local county wants her nutrition objectives for the next 5-7 years to reflect the goals of Healthy People 2020. Which of her goals listed below most closely reflects the goals of Healthy People 2020? Reduce among residents the severity of chronic diseases such as diabetes and heart disease. Promote, across every stage of life, healthy behaviors that positively affect the nutritional status of residents. Improve the nutrition of residents by eliminating disparities in treatment plans. Eliminate social and physical environments that threaten the nutrition of residents.

Healthy people 2020 advocates for improvement in the health of all people across the life course. (Options A and D incorporate only one determinant and option C isn't inclusive enough.)

During a snowstorm, the assistant cook (AC) can't get to work. The person working in the "salads" position is unable to take over all AC responsibilities but is somewhat confident and willing to assist the head cook in preparing items on the daily production schedule. To be most effective, which leadership style should the foodservice manager use? Telling Selling Participating Delegating

Hershey, Blanchard, and Johnson's leadership effectiveness model indicates that when the salad person has low to moderate readiness (R2), the manager needs to use selling leadership style (S2). The leader must be flexible and adaptable to meet the changing needs of employees and each situation.

Which food is most likely to deteriorate due to hydrolytic rancidity during storage at room temperature? Fish oil Soybean oil Olive oil Butter

Hydrolytic rancidity occurs when water splits fatty acid chains away from the glycerol backbone in triglycerides (fats). The chemical term is ester hydrolysis. Usually this hydrolysis process goes unnoticed, since most fatty acids are odorless and tasteless. However, when the triglyceride is derived from short-chain fatty acids, the released carboxylic acid can confer strong flavors and odors. A particular problem arises with butter, which contains triglycerides with a high content of butyric acid derivatives and acetic acids.

Julia is a 10-year-old fifth grader with ADHD who takes Adderall. Her BMI-for-age is less than the 5th percentile. The most appropriate nutrition intervention for her is to: provide snacks for her to eat during recess. offer her a high-calorie bedtime snack. send a lunch consisting of her favorite foods. have the teacher monitor her intake.

If Julia's nutrition intervention calls for helping her to gain weight, she should be encouraged to eat a snack high in kilocalories at bedtime, as this gives less time to burn off the energy consumed.

In a refrigerator at a product temperature of 45°F or lower At room temperature for a maximum time of 2 hours Under running potable water at a temperature of 70˚F or lower In a microwave as long as the food will be cooked within 24 hours

If frozen food is exposed to the temperature danger zone during thawing, any foodborne microorganisms present will begin to grow. When thawing food under potable water, food cannot go above 41°F for longer than 4 hours. This includes the time it takes to thaw the food plus the time to prep or cool it.

When using a nutrient database to calculate nutrient data for a recipe, a "blank" associated with a nutrient generally means reliable data have not been collected. the food contains a negligible amount. the food does not contain any amount of that nutrient. the amount of the nutrient varies significantly from serving to serving.

Ignoring a blank in a nutrient database when calculating nutrient data is a common error. Blanks signify insufficient reliable data, indicating need for further research into that particular food.

The standards established by the FDA include standards of identity, standards of minimum quality, and standards of production. processing. labeling. fill.

In addition to addressing "filth" and ensuring the correct ingredients are used in foods, the FDA established three "content" standards to protect consumers from deceptive manufacturing practices: standards of identity, standards of minimum quality, and standards of fill of container for food.

Oxidative rancidity occurs in foods that have a high saturated fatty acid content. high unsaturated fatty acid content. high protein content. high moisture content.

In oxidative rancidity, the double bonds of an unsaturated fatty acid can undergo cleavage, releasing volatile aldehydes and ketones. This process can be suppressed by the exclusion of oxygen or by the addition of antioxidants. Oxidation primarily occurs with unsaturated fats.

Which of the following types of study has the potential to prove cause and effect? Randomized controlled trial Qualitative survey Case-control Cohort

In randomized controlled trials, the researcher determines who will receive treatment as well as the level of treatment or exposure. Being able to manipulate dosage and document the response to the various levels of treatment allows for better capability to attribute cause and effect.

Which of the following components comprise the core of motivational interviewing? Collaboration, empathy, autonomy, and patient-centered care Partnership, acceptance, compassion, and evocation Rolling with resistance, unconditional positive regard, empowerment, and empathy Partnership, autonomy, setting smart goals, and evocation

In the 3rd edition of the groundbreaking Motivational Interviewing, the authors added compassion to the core of motivational interviewing and elaborate on the concept of what acceptance really is.

When talking about program planning for community nutrition, what would the term "management" refer to? Controlling and providing oversight for financial resources Managing time effectively and efficiently Managing personnel and data systems Coordinating and classifying objectives

In the context of community nutrition program planning, the term "management" refers to two types of structures needed to implement the program. The personnel structure consists of employees responsible for overseeing the program and determining if it meets its objectives; the structure of the data management system is the manner in which data are recorded or analyzed.

Which approach would be most appropriate for a manager to take when initiating several complex, stressful, and simultaneous changes within a short period of time? Consult with individual employees and use autocratic management for change. Consult with the entire group of employees. Determine options for change. Conduct a vote and use the highest-ranking option as the approach for change. Make all decisions with available information and use autocratic management for change. Discuss several predetermined options for change with the entire group of employees. Conduct a vote and use the highest-ranking option as the approach for change.

In this situation, there is little time to consult with individual employees or the entire group of employees. This situation can be looked at as highly unfavorable. In both highly favorable and unfavorable situations, a task-oriented (ie, autocratic) leader seems to be most effective. In highly favorable situations, the group is ready to be directed and is willing to be told what to do. In highly unfavorable situations, the group welcomes the opportunity of having the leader take the responsibility for making decisions and giving directions. Given a longer period of time to make changes, the organization would benefit by including all employees in the change process.

Which of the following is not a quality measure of eggs? Yolk appearance Albumen appearance Ounces per egg Shell appearance

Interior egg quality is based on air cell size, albumen quality, yolk quality, and the presence of blood or meat spots. Shell quality is determined by stain, adhering dirt or foreign material, egg shape, shell texture, ridge, and shell thickness. Weight per egg is not a consideration.

Intrinsic factor is required for the absorption of which vitamin?

Intrinsic factor (IF) is made in the stomach and as soon as the R protein loses affinity for vitamin B12 in the more alkaline duodenum, vitamin B12 binds to IF. This complex, B12-IF, is necessary in order for vitamin B12 to be absorbed.

The inventory turnover rate for four establishments are as follows: The Green Café = 2, The Red Café = 4, The Blue Café = 6, and The Yellow Cafe = 3. Based on what you know about inventory turnover rate, which of these establishments is most likely to use a just-in-time purchasing system? The Green Café The Red Café The Blue Café The Yellow Café

Inventory turnover rate identifies a facility's level of product held in inventory. The higher the inventory turnover rate, the less product held in storage and the more often deliveries are made to meet production needs. Just-in-time purchasing relies on minimum inventory and will therefore have a higher inventory turnover rate. Because The Blue Café has the highest turnover rate of all four establishments, it is the one most likely to use just-in-time purchasing.

Which food is the leading cause of fatal and near-fatal food allergic reactions in the United States each year? Egg Fish Peanut Butter

It is estimated that more than 80% of food allergy-related deaths in the United States are caused by peanuts or tree nuts, such as almonds, cashews, and pecans.

When performing a nutritional assessment on a child, head circumference should be measured up to the age of 12 months. 18 months. 24 months. 36 months.

It is important to measure adequate head growth, to indicate brain development, up to 3 years of age.

Which of the following is a disadvantage of a cohort study?

It is rarely possible to study the mechanism of a disease

The dietetics professional has developed a weight-loss program that includes encouraging participants to reward themselves with treats such as new clothes, going to a movie, or spending more time in a favorite pastime after they have lost 5 pounds. The learning theory being applied is______. behavioral social learning cognitive humanism

Learning is a relatively permanent change in behavior with behavior encompassing both observable activity and internal processes such as thinking, attitudes, and emotions.

What type of learning experiences should the dietetics professional provide in order to maximize the clients' accomplishment of learning outcomes? Multiple opportunities for asking questions and participating in a discussion A field trip or tour that is relevant to the topic A multimedia experience that is followed by a question and answer period A role-play situation

Learning settings that involve role play or simulation are remembered 90% of the time.

A foodborne illness often associated with deli meats that has an onset time of 3 to 7 days; causes nausea, vomiting, headache, chills, backache, and meningitis; and has a high fatality rate in the immune-compromised is: Clostridium perfringens Listeria monocytogenes Shigella Staphylococcus aureus

Listeria monocytogenes is the only microorganism listed that is associated with deli meats.

A key factor in reaching populations with low literacy is _____. simplicity repetition providing examples providing scenarios

Low literacy populations require simplicity.

Which statement best describes the "A" component of the PDSA performance improvement model?

Maintaining and continuing improvement is included in the A component of the PDSA model. Determination of how changes will be implemented is part of P, implementation of the plan is included in D, and determination of the impact of the plan is included in S.

Which of the following phrases is the best example of how a dietetics practitioner should reiterate to the client information about his or her dietary intake of calcium? "The amount of calcium you eat is low." "Your dietary intake of calcium increases your risk for developing osteoporosis." "You eat one serving of a calcium-rich food each day and the experts tell us to eat three." "People who eat one serving of a calcium-rich food each day are at an increased risk for osteoporosis."

Making a general response is less accusatory. This response shows that, in general, all individuals with limited calcium intake—not just the client—are at increased risk.

The most appropriate nutrition prescription for your patient with cirrhosis includes: 0.6 g protein/kg body weight 40%-45% fat 4-6 smaller meals per day 4-6 g sodium

Malnutrition and severe weight loss are common side effects of cirrhosis; therefore, the diet should contain adequate protein and calories. The distribution of carbohydrate, fat, and protein should be similar to that recommended for normal nutrition. High levels of sodium are contraindicated if ascites is present. Individuals who experience a loss of appetite may benefit from eating small, frequent meals throughout the day if regular meals are not tolerated.

Management functions include which of the following? Recruiting and screening Hiring, orienting, and training Supervising and evaluating All of the above

Management functions include all phases of labor management: recruiting, screening, hiring, orienting, training, supervision, and evaluation.

Which of the following sets of resources is a core concept of management principles? Human, physical, financial Human, emotional, financial Financial, authoritative, physical Physical, authoritative, financial

Management principles transcend disciplines and practice areas. The core management of resources concepts are: human, physical, and financial.

In what marketing lifestyle group are consumers categorized if they are young, impulsive, and seek variety, excitement, and risky activities? Innovators Makers Achievers Experiencers

Marketing segmentation categorizes consumers based on certain characteristics. Experiencers are described as young, impulsive variety-seekers. Innovators are described as having high income and high self-esteem. Makers tend to be lower income, have a focus on self-sufficiency, and are family oriented. Achievers are successful individuals who also tend to have higher incomes.

If a researcher creates a questionnaire so that extra emphasis is placed on certain questions, what type of errors likely will affect the findings? Sampling errors Measurement errors Non-response errors Errors of data distortion

Measurement error will likely result. A questionnaire with emphasis on certain questions causes bias because the measuring device (questionnaire) was faulty and, therefore, less reliable. It would not result in a true measure of the situation.

Metabolic acidosis is characterized by what physiological changes? Low pH &low bicarbonate (HCO3) High CO2 and low pH High CO2 and normal HCO3 Normal pH and high bicarbonate

Metabolic acidosis is an acid-base disorder characterized by a primary consumption of body buffers including a fall in blood bicarbonate concentration. There are many causes and multiple mechanisms that minimize the fall in arterial pH.

The oils that contain predominantly monounsaturated fatty acids include sunflower oil and canola oil. safflower oil and corn oil. canola oil and olive oil. soybean and olive oil.

Monounsaturated fatty acids include vegetable oils such as olive oil, canola oil, peanut oil, sunflower oil, and sesame oil. Safflower oil has 10.1 g monounsaturated fat per tablespoon. Canola oil has 8.3 g monounsaturated fat per tablespoon. Olive oil has 9.8 g monounsaturated fat per tablespoon. Sunflower oil has 7.7 g monounsaturated fat per tablespoon. Soybean oil has 5.8 g monounsaturated fat per tablespoon. Corn oil has 3.7 g monounsaturated fat per tablespoon

Which of the following foods would you expect to empty from the stomach most quickly? French fries Oatmeal Fruit juice Scrambled eggs

Most of a liquid meal empties within 1 to 2 hours and most of a solid meal empties within 2 to 3 hours. When eaten alone, carbohydrates leave the stomach the most rapidly, followed by protein, fat, and fibrous food. In a meal with mixed types of foods, emptying of the stomach depends on the overall volume and characteristics of the foods. Liquids empty more rapidly than solids, large particles empty more slowly than small particles, and concentrated food tends to empty more slowly than low-calorie meals.

If a client exploring readiness for change rates confidence as a "4" and importance as a "10," which of the following questions/comments would lead to the most productive conversation about change? "Why aren't you more motivated?" "What can I do to help you?" "What would need to happen in order for your confidence to increase to a '6'?" "It's encouraging that the importance rating is so high."

Moving the talk about readiness for change forward is an important component in motivational interviewing. Option A is a poor question to ask as one rarely uses "why" with change talk. Option B isn't specific enough with regard to the behavior. Option D is an affirmation and probably won't move the discussion forward. Option C is the best question to ask as it invites an evocative response.

No more than _________ of the National School Lunch Program (NSLP) weekly requirement for servings of fruit may be met by pasteurized full-strength, 100% fruit juice. one-quarter one-third one-half three-quarters

NSLP standards specify that the requirement for fruit can be met with not more than 50% of the required servings from fruit juice.

What organization creates national standards for foodservice equipment?

NSF is accredited by the American National Standards Institute (ANSI). NSF has developed more than 80 voluntary American National Standards under the scope of public health, safety, environment, and sustainability assessment. NSF/ANSI standards are developed through a public process that ensures balanced input from industry representatives, public health/regulatory officials, and users/consumer representatives. The CDC investigates foodborne illnesses. The FDA issues the Model Food Code. OSHA investigates workplace accidents.

The recommended weight gain during pregnancy for a woman with a BMI between 19.8 and 26 is 15 to 20 pounds. 25 to 35 pounds. 28 to 40 pounds. 35 to 45 pounds.

Normal pregnancy weight is based on BMI; for a woman with a BMI between 19.8 and 26, normal pregnancy weight gain is 25 to 35 pounds. underweight <18.5 - 28-40lbs overweight >25.0-29.9 - 15-25lbs obese > 30.0 - 11-20

Any menu item can fit into all foodservice types. TRUE FALSE

Not every menu item works well with every foodservice type, such as buffet, self-service, cafeteria-style, table service, or room delivery. For example, certain food items, such as roasted meats, don't hold well so they are best when served immediately.

Nutrition informatics: involves solely the use and management of electronic health records. includes any function/activity that combines information, nutrition, and technology. refers to the industry for weight-loss smartphone apps. is the name of a menu software program for hospitals.

Nutrition informatics encompasses all functions/activities that involve a combination of information, nutrition, and technology.

Which of the following is the best option to serve unpasteurized eggs to older adult patients in a nursing home? Freshly cracked sunnyside up Tiramisu Mousse Cake

Older adults in nursing homes are at high risk for foodborne illness because their immune systems are compromised. Unpasteurized shell eggs may be used if the dish will be cooked all the way through, such as in a cake. Use pasteurized eggs when dishes containing eggs will be served raw or undercooked, such as tiramisu, mousse, or over-easy eggs.

Which of the following foods contains approximately 15 grams of carbohydrate? 1 English muffin 1/2 cup mashed potatoes 4 cups popped popcorn 1 large banana

One exchange of starch or fruit each has about 15 g carbohydrate. 1/2 English muffin, 1/2 cup mashed potatoes, 3 cups popped popcorn, or 1 small (4 oz) banana has approximately 15 g carbohydrate.

Since July 2012, children in grades K through 5 must be served a minimum of ______ cup vegetables with each National School Lunch Program reimbursable lunch. ¼ 1/3 ½ ¾

One or more offering of cooked or raw vegetables, totaling ¾ cup, must be included in the NSLP meal each day.

What is ozone used for in food processing?

Ozone is a safe, powerful disinfectant used by the food industry because of its ability to disinfect microorganisms without adding chemical by-products to the food being treated, to the food processing water, or to the atmosphere in which food is stored.

What is ozone used for in food processing? Freezing food Modifying atmospheric packaging Blanching vegetables Effectively disinfecting and sanitizing

Ozone is a safe, powerful disinfectant used by the food industry because of its ability to disinfect microorganisms without adding chemical byproducts to the food being treated, to the food processing water, or to the environment in which food is stored.

If the dietetics professional presents new information to an adult orally, about how much of what is heard will be remembered after 2 weeks? 20% 30% 40% 50%

People remember 10% of what they read, 20% of what they hear, 30% of what they see, 50% of what they hear and see, 70% of what they themselves say, and 90% of what they themselves say and do.

For a food to be labeled "healthy," what must be true for each serving? It provides at least 25% DRV for vitamins A and C. It contains no more than 75 mg cholesterol. It contains no more than 140 mg sodium. It meets standards for low-fat and saturated-fat foods.

Per food labeling guidelines, a food cannot be labeled as "healthy" unless it meets the standards for low fat and saturated fat of less than 3 g of fat per serving.

Which of the following statements is valid regarding the use of nutrition labels in a restaurant? All items are now required to bear a Nutrition Facts label. An item listed as "low fat" on the menu must be substantiated upon request. Items at a restaurant are exempt from providing nutrition information. Only restaurants with more than 10 establishments are required to provide nutrition information.

Per the FDA's guidance on labeling, an item listed as "low fat" on a restaurant menu must be substantiated upon request

Which nutrients are required to be included as a Percent Daily Value on food labels?

Percent Daily Value is required on food labels for total fat, saturated fat, cholesterol, sodium, total carbohydrate, dietary fiber, vitamin A, vitamin C, calcium, and iron.

Older adults are more vulnerable to toxicity of

Plasma levels and liver stores of vitamin A increase with age, along with decreased clearance from the blood, making older adults more susceptible to toxicity. Vitamin D, on the other hand, declines with age. Vitamin C is water soluble and thus clearance is easier. Vitamin K levels usually can be controlled via medication.

What measures the ability of an organization to generate excess income in relation to sales? Profitability Solvency Liquidity Activity

Profitability measures a company's ability to generate excess income in relation to sales. Solvency refers to an organization's ability to meet its long-term debts, while liquidity refers to the organization's ability to meet short-term debts. Activity refers to the rate at which an organization transfers non-cash assets into cash assets.

What ratio measures the ability of an organization to generate excess income in relation to sales? Profitability Solvency Liquidity Activity

Profitability ratios measure a company's ability to generate excess income in relation to sales. Solvency refers to an organization's ability to meet its long-term debts while liquidity refers to the organization's ability to meet short-term debts. Activity refers to the rate at which an organization transfers non-cash assets into cash assets.

Which of the following reflects long-term folate status? Serum folate Red blood cell folate Homocysteine concentration in the blood Serum methylmalonic acid

Red blood cells (RBC) collect folate during formation. Because red blood cells live for 2 to 3 months and contain the folate since formation, RBC assessment provides longer-term folate status.

Refeeding syndrome is characterized by low serum concentrations of

Refeeding syndrome occurs when previously malnourished patients are fed with high carbohydrate loads; the result is a rapid fall in phosphate, magnesium, and potassium, along with an increasing extracellular fluid volume. This leads to a variety of complications, such as cardiac arrhythmia and seizures.

Which agency enforces food safety in a restaurant? The Food and Drug Administration Public Health Service Centers for Disease Control and Prevention State or local regulatory authority

Regulatory authorities have many responsibilities including inspecting operations, enforcing regulations, investigating complaints and illnesses, and reviewing and approving HACCP plans.

According to the Food Code, what temperature should be reached and maintained for at least 15 seconds when reheating previously cooked foods? 135°F 145°F 155°F 165°F

Reheated foods must reach 165°F. If a ready-to-eat, potentially hazardous food is improperly held or cooled, the potential for spore-forming or toxin-forming bacteria growth increases. Reheating may eliminate vegetative bacterial cells resulting from post-cook contamination (eg, Salmonella) or from improper holding or cooling (eg, Clostridium perfringens). Furthernmore, some bacteria form spores that survive cooking. These spores can germinate and grow if food is improperly held after cooking. Bacterial spores are likely to be present in most foods. Thus, the critical requirement for reheating food, as presented in the Food Code, is that the food must reach an internal temperature of 165ºF and remain at that temperature for a minimum of 15 seconds.

The following programs are recommended as primary interventions in school-based child and adolescent overweight prevention programs: Food environment changes, homework/reading/computer use changes, media influences, nutrition education Food environment changes, nutrition education, physical activity education Behavioral counseling, nutrition education, physical activity education, parental/family involvement None of the above

Research demonstrates that obesity prevention programs should include behavioral counseling.

The US Department of Agriculture School Meals Initiative for Healthy Children requires that the schools participating in the National School Breakfast Program provide ________ of the Recommended Dietary Allowance for age or grade group for breakfast. 1/2 1/3 1/4 1/5

Schools participating in the USDA School Lunch Program must provide 1/3 of the RDA for certain nutrients for each age or grade group for lunch meals; whereas the USDA School Breakfast Program requires 1/4 of the RDA for certain nutrients for each age or grade group for breakfast meals.

The US Department of Agriculture School Meals Initiative for Healthy Children requires that the schools participating in the National School Breakfast Program provide _____ RDA for age/grade group for breakfast.

Schools participating in the USDA School Lunch Program must provide 1/3 of the RDA for certain nutrients for each age/grade group for lunch meals, whereas the USDA School Breakfast Program requires 1/4 of the RDA for certain nutrients for each age/grade group for breakfast meals.

A number 16 scoop will provide which level measurement? 1/4 cup 1/2 cup 2/3 cup 3/4 cup

Scoop sizes are based on the number of scoops it takes to fill a 32 fl oz container. A number 16 scoop holds ¼ cup (2 fl oz).

What is the minimum internal cooking temperature of shell eggs that are hot-held for service? 165°F 155°F 145°F 135°F

Shell eggs that will be served immediately are cooked to 145°F, but shell eggs hot-held for service are cooked to 155°F.

A recipe requires 1½ pt of cleaned, sliced strawberries. The yield for strawberries is 91% and 1 cup of clean, sliced strawberries weighs 7 oz. At a minimum, how many pounds of strawberries need to be ordered? 1 1½ 2 2½

Since there are 2 cups in 1 pint, the recipe requires 3 cups of cleaned, sliced strawberries. Since 1 cup of clean, sliced strawberries weighs 7 oz, the recipe requires 21 oz. To calculate how many ounces of raw strawberries are needed, divide 21 oz by 0.91 to get 23 oz. Therefore, it will be necessary to buy 1½ pounds of strawberries (1 lb = 16 oz and 1½ pounds = 24 oz).

The separation of a liquid from a gel—for example, when whey collects on the surface of yogurt—is known as condensation. syneresis. retrogradation. gelatinization.

Syneresis is characterized by separation. Water molecules are released and reordered in the amylose network.

The Food Allergen and Labeling and Consumer Protection Act of 2004 requires that labels must clearly identify the food source names of all ingredients that are—or contain any protein derived from—the eight most common food allergens, Which of the following foods is one of these eight most common food allergens? Corn Lentils Rye Soybean

Soybeans are among the eight most common allergens. To help Americans avoid the health risks posed by food allergens, Congress passed the Food Allergen Labeling and consumer Protection Act of 2004 (FALCPA). The law applies to all foods with labeling regulated by the FDA, both domestic and imported. (The FDA regulates the labeling of all foods, except for poultry, most meats, certain egg products, and most alcoholic beverages.) Before FALCPA, the labels of foods made from two or more ingredients were required to list all ingredients by their common or usual names. The names of some ingredients, however, do not clearly identify their food source. FALCPA now requires that labels must clearly identify the food source names of all ingredients that are—or contain any protein derived from—the eight most common food allergens, which FALCPA defines as "major food allergens." The eight foods identified by the law are: milk; eggs; fish (eg, bass, flounder, cod); crustacean shellfish (eg, crab, lobster, shrimp); tree nuts (eg, almonds, walnuts, pecans); peanuts; wheat; and soybeans. Corn, rye, and lentils are not among the eight most common food allergens listed.

The first step in conducting a community needs assessment is to:

Specifying the data needed and determining the purpose, goals, and objectives are part of the process, but the first step in conducting a community needs assessment is identifying the target population and problem of concern.

Which of the following is NOT important when facility menu planning? Staff Region Food availability None of the above

Staff (skills and abilities as well as workload), region (regional food preferences), and food availability must be considered when planning menus, so the correct answer is none of the above.

A patient with acute renal failure will have a higher need of which nutrient compared with a similar patient with optimal renal function? Protein Potassium Fluid Energy

Studies have shown a significant and strong negative correlation between creatinine clearance and resting metabolic rate, indicating that energy expenditure increases as kidney function declines.

____________ is a process that uses sublimation to prepare high-quality preserved foods. Pulsed light processing Ozonation Modified atmospheric packaging Freeze-drying

Sublimation is defined as "the transition from the frozen state directly to the gaseous state without liquefaction" and is used in food processing to produce foods with superior flavor profiles, color retention, and results in a product that is both light in weight and airy in texture. When freeze-drying, foods in the frozen state are placed in a vacuum chamber to extract all frozen water from the food's molecules, resulting in a food that has been dehydrated while in the frozen state.

Which of the following business concepts represents marketing? Emphasis on product, sales-volume-oriented, needs of seller Customer wants, profit-oriented, future growth Sales-volume-oriented, customer wants, planning for today Profit-oriented, future growth, needs of seller

Successful businesses are those that focus on producing goods that customers want while forecasting future growth. Marketers may also focus on being profit oriented, which aims to maximize net profit rather than focus on total sales.

Which of the following sets of business terms represents marketing? Emphasis on product, sales-volume-oriented, needs of seller Customer wants, profit-oriented, future growth Sales-volume-oriented, customer wants, planning for today Profit-oriented, future growth, needs of seller

Successful marketing focuses on producing goods that customers want, forecasting future growth, and being profit oriented. On the other hand, selling stresses the needs of the seller, focuses on the product, is sales-volume-oriented, and plans for today.

The usual purpose of summative evaluation is to_____. compare the extent of learning between and among learners reduce the cost-benefit ratio of teaching and learning improve the program's delivery and effectiveness determine opportunities for expansion and enhancement of entrepreneurship in education

Summative evaluation takes place during and following the implementation and is associated with more objective, quantitative methods. It is used to assess whether the program has met its goals, whether there were any unintended consequences, and how to improve.

Which of the following fish contains a higher level of methyl mercury and therefore should be avoided during pregnancy? Salmon Pollack Swordfish Tilapia

Swordfish is a large predatory fish and therefore exposed to more mercury. The US Food and Drug Administration has specifically identified swordfish as being high in mercury.

Which of the following actions would likely be the result of systems thinking? Select a produce vendor who could deliver high-quality produce twice daily. Reschedule kitchen staff to prepare more foods from scratch to meet customer expectations. Develop a catering menu for department meetings to generate revenue for equipment purchases. Select cleaning chemicals that do not harm the environment.

Systems thinking is the management approach to considering the entire organization when making decisions or allocating resources. Rescheduling kitchen staff to prepare food to meet customer expectations changes the kitchen and staff/resource entirely. Making a change to the produce delivery does not change the kitchen.

Total Quality Management is best described by which grouping of words? Processes, improvement, customer satisfaction Outcomes, meet standards, accreditation Proactive, empowerment, outcomes Prevention, standard procedures, diagnostic

TQM is a philosophy wherein processes are refined with goal of improving performance in response to customer needs and expectations.

The astringent taste of fruits and vegetables is the result of the following component:

Tannin: Because of its property of naturally occurring in plants, tannin causes the astringent taste in fruits and vegetables.

The most influential perception factor in a person's selection of a particular food is

Taste, or gustatory, is the most influential factor in food preferences, more so than mouthfeel (texture), smell (olfactory), or visual.

Which of the following is a technical specification? Outlets are to be 120 volt, 15 amperes Stainless steel, 18 gauge Maximum RMM = 1550 KitchenAid mixer, model #KUDP230BO

Technical specifications indicate quality by objective test results. Metals, such as stainless steel and aluminum, can be measured by gauges to determine thickness.

The Academy of Nutrition and Dietetics defines tertiary prevention related to pediatric overweight interventions as: overweight prevention efforts that include identifying and intervention efforts targeting children who are at risk for overweight. education and prevention programs targeting children and adolescents before they are overweight. interventions targeting overweight children designed to slow down or reverse the increase in BMI. None of the above.

Tertiary prevention involves slowing down or reversing the increase in BMI in children.

For a food that contains less than 50% calories from fat, how many fewer calories should it contain to be considered a "light" or "lite" food? At least 25% few calories than the typical food Less than 5 calories One-third fewer calories Up to 40 calories

The FDA's rule is that if less than 50% of calories are from fat, fat must be reduced at least 50% or calories reduced at least 1/3 per RACC

Nutrition informatics computer skills include the ability to access and locate information in the Academy's online Nutrition Care Manual. successfully write smart phone applications (apps). successfully complete a computer course in JavaScript. correctly identify on a schematic all parts of a personal computer.

The Academy has determined that some computer skills—such as the ability to locate and access information in the Academy's online Nutrition Care Manual—are necessary for all RDNs. Other skills such as writing apps, learning to use JavaScript, and identifying computer parts are not considered to be skills need by all RDNs.

A client's estimated energy needs should be based on: resting metabolic rate. basal metabolism. physical activity level. body composition.

The Academy's Evidence Analysis Library recommends, with a strong, conditional rating, that estimated energy needs should be based on resting metabolic rate. If possible, resting metabolic rates should be measured (eg, indirect calorimetry). If resting metabolic rate cannot be measured, then the Mifflin-St Jeor equation using actual weight is the most accurate for estimating resting metabolic rate for overweight and obese individuals.

It would be appropriate to recommend the use of meal replacements for weight loss to a client who: has no more than 20 pounds to lose. has difficulty with portion control. habitually eats late at night. does not engage in physical activity.

The Academy's Evidence Analysis Library recommends, with a strong, conditional rating, that for people who have difficulty with self-selection and/or portion control, meal replacements may be used as part of the diet component of a comprehensive weight management program. Substituting one or two daily meals or snacks with meal replacements is a successful weight loss and weight maintenance strategy.

Which one of the following foods should be avoided in treatment of gout? Low-fat yogurt Rye bread Banana Regular soft drinks

The American College of Rheumatology Guidelines for the Management of Gout state that these patients should avoid high-fructose corn syrup, which is found in regular soft drinks. Low-fat dairy products, fruits and vegetables, and whole grains are recommended.

Which of the following statements is true regarding the Codex Alimentarius Commission (CAC)? The CAC is funded by the Food and Agricultural Organization of the United Nations (FAO) and the World Health Organization (WHO). The CAC develops international standards and codes to promote growth of industry. The United States is required by international law to abide by Codex standards. The Codex lacks a standard for labeling of prepackaged foods.

The CAC is funded by the FAO and the WHO. The CAC develops international standards and codes to protect consumers. The Codex maintains a standard for labeling of prepackaged foods but the United States is not required by international law to abide by Codex standards.

Which of the following is an element of the Chronic Care Model (CCM)? Inclusive team management Comprehensive data collection Clinical information systems Employee motivation at all levels

The Chronic Care Model encompasses care provided in the community and by health systems. Clinical information systems are part of the health systems component of the CCM. Motivation at all levels, inclusive team management, and comprehensive data collection are not specified elements of the CCM.

If the community nutritionist needed information about residents who are at least 65 years old, the best source of existing information would be the Department of Health and Human Services. Department of Agriculture. Department of Education. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention.

The Department of Health and Human Services administers Social Security (for individuals 65 years of age and older), so this agency would have data uniquely related to this group.

The 2015 Dietary Guidelines for Americans suggest what percentage of calories comes from saturated fat? 1% 5% 10% 20%

The Dietary Guidelines recommend that individuals consume less than 10% of energy from saturated fatty acids by replacing them with monounsaturated and polyunsaturated fatty acids.

Which agency enforces provisions of the FD&C Act prohibiting the sale of products with false advertising? US Department of Agriculture (USDA) Federal Trade Commission (FTC) Food and Drug Administration (FDA) Internal Revenue Service (IRS)

The FDA enforces provisions of the FD&C Act prohibiting the sale of products with false advertising.

In order to ensure quality and consistency, this agency established standards of identity for common food products. Federal Trade Commission (FTC) Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) US Department of Agriculture (USDA) Food and Drug Administration (FDA)

The FDA established standards of identity for common food products to ensure quality and consistency.

Which agency has accepted genetically engineered foods as posing no risk to health or safety and does not require mandatory labeling of genetically modified organisms (GMO) if the food is substantially equivalent to the original in nutritional value? US Department of Agriculture (USDA) Food Safety and Inspection Service (FSIS) Food and Drug Administration (FDA) Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)

The FDA has accepted genetically engineered foods as posing no risk to health or safety and does not require mandatory labeling as GMO if the food is substantially equivalent to the original in nutritional value. The July 2016 Public Law 114-214 does regulate GMO labeling.

Which governmental agency administers the Interstate Travel Sanitation program, which allows agents to inspect foodservice on interstate carriers such as boats, planes, and trains? United States Department of Agriculture Food Inspection Service (USDA FSIS) Center for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) Department of Transportation (DOT) Food and Drug Administration (FDA)

The FDA has jurisdiction to set standards and monitor and inspect foodservice on all interstate carriers.

Which agency regulates production of all canned green beans that are marketed across state lines? US Department of Agriculture (USDA) Food and Drug Administration (FDA) US Department of Commerce (USDC) Department of the Treasury

The FDA regulates canned products that are marketed across state lines.

Temperatures for the danger zone include which of the following according to the FDA Food Code? 40°F to 125°F 40°F to 145°F 41°F to 135°F 41°F to 165°F

The Food Code temperature guideline of 41°F to 135°F is based on research studies in food safety.

The safety and quality of meat and poultry imported to the United States is overseen by the_________.

The Food Safety and Inspection Service (FSIS) is the public health agency in the US Department of Agriculture responsible for ensuring that the nation's commercial supply of meat, poultry, and egg products is safe, wholesome, and correctly labeled and packaged. FSIS inspects all raw meat and poultry sold in interstate and foreign commerce, including imported products.

What federal agency has established and used The Foodborne Diseases Active Surveillance Network, or FoodNet, to estimate the number of foodborne illnesses, to monitor trends in incidence of specific foodborne illnesses over time, to attribute illnesses to specific foods and settings, and disseminates this information? Food and Drug Administration US Department of Agriculture Federal Trade Commission Centers for Disease Control and Prevention

The Foodborne Diseases Active Surveillance Network, or FoodNet, established and maintained by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, has been tracking trends for infections commonly transmitted through food since 1996. FoodNet provides a foundation for food safety policy and prevention efforts. It estimates the number of foodborne illnesses, monitors trends in incidence of specific foodborne illnesses over time, attributes illnesses to specific foods and settings, and disseminates this information.

Which of the following is an example of the Hawthorne effect? "Chloe has always thought that she caught fewer colds when she remembered to take her zinc supplements, so she is pleased to be in a study now to determine the impact of zinc supplements on one's susceptibility to colds. She is sure that the supplement she is taking is helping her avoid catching colds." "Pat, a researcher for a number of clinical trials, has reviewed preliminary results from a study of the effects of caffeine on sleeplessness. The data indicate that the findings may be inconclusive so Pat has asked that the interview questions be revised to make it possible to identify what may be more subtle effects of caffeine." "Emma is participating in a study of the impact of artificially sweetened cold drinks on appetite. She believes that she is in the control group so she plans to report that the beverage she drinks does not affect her appetite." "Because Raul is in a study to determine the impact of eating breakfast on one's ability to achieve faster times in track and field events that include 'sprinting' periods, he is skipping breakfast less often."

The Hawthorne effect is a term referring to the tendency of some people to work harder and perform better when they are participants in an experiment or program. The individuals may change their behavior due to the attention they are receiving rather than because of any manipulation of independent variables.

The Dietary Guidelines for Americans are primarily developed and published by the executive branch of the government under what departments? Agriculture and Education Housing and Urban Development and Agriculture Education and Health and Human Services Agriculture and Health and Human Services

The Health and Human Services Office of Disease Prevention and Health Promotion takes a leadership role in developing the guidelines. The USDA coordinates and supports the review and dissemination of the government's recommendations.

All of the following statements about the intensive behavioral therapy (IBT) benefit for obese Medicare Part B beneficiaries are true, EXCEPT: coverage for the benefit is granted only in the primary care setting. in order to qualify, the beneficiary's BMI must be >30. Continued treatment for obesity is contingent on weight loss assessed at the seventh month of treatment. RDNs may provide the service and bill Medicare using a unique physician identification number.

The IBT bill is very clear that the benefit can only be provided by a physician (as of April 2013). It is true that qualifications are specific about BMI and the appropriate setting for receiving this benefit and treatment length is contingent on progress.

Which of the following statements about the intensive behavioral therapy (IBT) benefit for obese Medicare Part B beneficiaries is true? Coverage for the benefit is granted in most care settings. In order to qualify, the beneficiary's BMI must be greater than 40. Continued treatment for obesity is contingent on weight loss assessed at the seventh month of treatment. RDNs may provide the service and bill Medicare using a unique physician identification number.

The IBT bill is very clear that the benefit can only be provided by a physician (as of April 2013). It is true that qualifications are specific about BMI and the appropriate setting for receiving this benefit and treatment length is contingent on progress.

Which of the following elements is part of the Institute of Medicine's (IOM) framework for health care quality? Institution-focused Equitable Responsive to change Focused on choosing a process to improve

The IOM defines health care quality as care that is patient-centered, equitable (no disparities), timely, safe, effective, and efficient. Selection of a process that needs improvement is a component of a quality improvement program.

The Institute of Medicine's recommended rate of weight gain per week during the second and third trimesters for pregnant women whose body mass index (BMI) is greater than 30 is_____pounds. 0.5 0.6 0.7 0.8

The Institute of Medicine's recommended rate of weight gain per week during the second and third trimesters for pregnant women whose BMI is greater than 30 is 0.5 pounds.

With regard to staff members having and consuming food and beverage items in patient care areas, Joint Commission standards require that all food and beverages be consumed in break areas. do not specifically address this issue. prohibit food and drinks if contamination might occur. require that an environment or care risk assessment be performed to address potential patient safety issues.

The Joint Commission standards do not specifically address the issue of food and drink being present and/or consumed in patient care areas. However, the Joint Commission does require compliance with applicable laws and regulations as well as the institution's own policies and procedures; thus it is possible that the organization per se or state or local laws would prohibit food and drink in clinical areas even though Joint Commission does not prohibit this directly.

In which of the following situations does Joint Commission require the performance of a nutritional assessment or screen? During emergency room visits During visits to hospital owned physician offices When a patient is seen in an outpatient clinic When warranted by the patient's needs or condition

The Joint Commission's standards for nutritional and functional screening clearly state that these are performed when warranted by the patient's needs or condition. An organization would define (in writing) the criteria that identify when these screenings and more in-depth assessment are performed. When applicable for the patient's condition, these screenings must be completed within 24 hours after inpatient admission. It is not required that nutritional or functional screening are completed for all patients at all encounters if it has not been defined by the organization's policy. Nutritional and functional screening are not performed if a licensed independent practitioner with appropriate clinical privileges has determined that it is not necessary in emergency situations or if it is not warranted by the patient's needs or condition.

When baking muffins, which of the following is most likely to have a deeper brown crust? Muffin made with baking powder and solid sugar Muffin made with baking soda and solid sugar Muffin made with baking soda, buttermilk, and solid sugar Muffin made with baking powder and liquid sugar

The Maillard reaction is most likely to occur in the presence of an alkali environment. Without the addition of an acid, the batter with baking soda and solid sugar will result in a deeper brown color compared with the other options listed.

Which of the following must be served in combination with a meat/meat alternate in order to meet the full meat/meat alternate requirement for a reimbursable school lunch? Nut butter Tofu Legumes Nuts

The National School Lunch Program specifies that the other options can each be included on the menu as meat/meat alternative but that nuts must be combined and only used for half of the meat/meat alternate requirement.

The Academy has published Standards of Practice (SOP) in Nutrition Care and Standards of Professional Performance (SOPP) for registered dietitian nutritionists and nutrition and dietetic technicians, registered. What is the difference between these two sets of standards? The SOP in Nutrition Care apply only to credentialed registered dietitian nutritionists working in acute care and the SOPP apply only to practitioners working as consultants. The SOP in Nutrition Care vary based on state law; the SOPP do not. The SOP in Nutrition Care apply only to RDNs and the SOPP apply to both RDNs and NDTRs. The SOP in Nutrition Care are based on the four steps of the Nutrition Care Process and the SOPP are based on the six domains of professionalism.

The SOP are based on the four steps of the Nutrition Care Process and apply to credentialed food and nutrition professionals involved in direct patient care. As such, the SOP do not apply to practitioners who neither provide nor oversee the delivery of direct patient care. The SOPP apply to all credentialed food and nutrition professionals regardless of practice area.

Which of the following is true of the Academy's Standards of Practice in Nutrition Care? They are common to all registered dietetics professionals. They are supported by data contained in the Academy's Evidence Analysis Library. They evolved following the granting of Medicare Medical Nutrition Therapy Benefit Provider Status to RDNs. They evolved independently of the Accreditation Council for Education in Nutrition and Dietetics core educational competencies.

The Standards of Practice evolved from the need to describe competencies in practice for RDNs when they were granted Medicare MNT benefits and adopted the Nutrition Care Process model.

The Standards of Professional Performance for dietetics practitioners includes which of the following? Professional accountability Nutritional intervention Nutrition monitoring and evaluation Nutrition diagnosis

The Standards of Professional Performance refer to actions and accountability of the dietetic practitioner. The SOPP are not a part of the Nutrition Care Process; rather, they are focused on the behavior and competence of the practitioner. Nutrition diagnosis, monitoring and evaluation, and nutrition intervention refer to steps in the Nutrition Care Process.

According to regulations, what is the most caffeine that can be in a 12-oz serving of soda pop?

The US Food and Drug Administration (FDA) regulates caffeine in soda. A 12-oz can cannot exceed 71 mg caffeine.

What government branch is responsible for yield grades and defining the term "organic" as it relates to farming practices? FDA USDA NSIP NMFS

The USDA is responsible for yield grades and defining organic standards. The FDA is responsible for ensuring that foods sold in the United States are safe, wholesome, and properly labeled. The Nutrition Services Incentive Program (NSIP) rewards state agencies and Indian tribal organizations that efficiently deliver nutritious meals to older Americans. The National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS) regulates commercial and recreational ocean fishing and manages marine species.

Making homemade dried meat products such as jerky is a very popular home food preservation practice. Which of the following procedures would be considered appropriate and safe for this process, considering that the meat type has not been specified? Marinate the meat for directed amount of time in the recipe, then place in dehydrator set at 130°F - 140°F, process until dry. Marinate the meat for directed amount of time in the recipe, then cook in a preheated oven until the meat reaches a minimum internal temperature of 165°F, move to the dehydrator set at 130°F - 140°F, and continue to process until dry. Marinate the meat for directed amount of time in the recipe, then cook in a preheated oven until the meat reaches a minimum internal temperature of 160°F, move to the dehydrator set at 130°F - 140°F, and continue to process until dry. Marinate the meat for directed amount of time in the recipe, move to the dehydrator set at 130°F - 140°F, and continue to process until dry, then cook in a preheated oven until the meat reaches a minimum internal temperature of 160°F.

The USDA's current recommendation for making jerky safely is to heat meat to 160°F and poultry to 165°F before the dehydrating process. This step ensures that any bacteria present will be destroyed by wet heat. After heating to 160°F or 165°F, maintaining a constant dehydrator temperature of 130°F to 140°F during the drying process is important because the process must be fast enough to dry food before it spoils and it must remove enough water so that microorganisms are unable to grow.

Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding the Codex Alimentarius Commission (CAC)? The CAC is funded by the Food and Agricultural Organization of the United Nations (FAO) and the World Health Organization (WHO). The CAC develops international standards and codes to protect consumers. The United States is required by international law to abide by Codex standards. The Codex has a standard for labeling of prepackaged foods.

The United States is not required by international law to abide by Codex standards.

Which of these individuals is most likely to present with Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome? A premature infant An alcoholic man A postmenopausal woman A disabled child

The abuse of alcohol often leads to a severe form of thiamin deficiency known as Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome.

Which of the following is designed to examine how effectively an organization is utilizing its assets? Assets to liabilities Debt to equity Inventory turnover Break-even point

The assets-to-liabilities ratio calculates the percentage of assets provided by debt. The debt-to-equity ratio tells what percentage of the company's assets are funded by shareholders' equity and debt. The break-even point is where expenses and revenue are equal. Effective use of inventory assets is reflected in the inventory turnover ratio.

Which USDA grade of beef is not purchased for general foodservice use? Choice Select Standard Commercial

The grades for beef from highest to lowest are prime, choice, select, standard, commercial, utility, cutter, and canner. Commercial, utility, cutter, and canner are not purchased for general foodservice use because of their poor taste quality.

Which ratio is designed to examine how effectively an organization is utilizing its assets? Assets to liabilities Debt to equity Inventory turnover Break-even point

The assets-to-liabilities ratio calculates the percentage of assets provided by debt. The debt-to-equity ratio tells what percentage of the company's assets are funded by shareholders' equity and debt. The break-even point is where expenses and revenue are equal. Effective use of inventory assets is reflected in the inventory turnover ratio.

Which of the following marketing channel distributors does not take title to goods being sold, yet receives a commission for negotiating between the buyer and seller? Wholesaler Broker Manufacturer's representative Special breed delegate

The broker is an independent sales representative who contracts to represent certain manufacturers, processors, or prime source producers to sell and market their products to foodservice operators and wholesalers. The broker does not take title to goods being sold (he or she doesn't keep an inventory) and is paid on commission.

When changing a static patient menu to a cycled menu, it is important to work with the chef or production manager because the person in that role will have skills in which of the following areas? Usage of equipment Labor skill level Inventory and food usage All of the above

The chef or production manager has the most knowledge about which menu items can be produced considering what equipment is available, the skill level of the cooking staff, and the food in inventory.

Which grouping of established USDA standards contains the correct relationship? a Round inspection stamp, wholesomeness, mandatory process b Grade shield, quality, mandatory process c Round inspection stamp, quality, voluntary process d Grade shield, wholesomeness, voluntary process

The correct answer is A. The round federal inspection stamp on meat and poultry means that the food has been inspected for wholesomeness, which is mandatory. The grade shield on meat and poultry provides information about the quality of the product. Grading is voluntary.

Which of the following examples of a snack provided at a child care center would meet reimbursement guidelines and comply with USDA regulations for Child and Adult Care Food Program meals? a Carrot sticks and 100% fruit juice b Oatmeal, corn muffins, and water c Apple slices and orange wedges d Cottage cheese, mandarin oranges, and water

The correct answer is D. The nutritional requirement for snacks is that they must provide a combination of at least two food items from the meat, milk, grains, and fruit/vegetable categories. The foods listed in choice D represent the only answer where two different groups were combined.

The observed result or outcome of interest in a research project is the dependent variable. independent variable. population variable. individual variable.

The dependent variable indicates changes, if any, that are a result of the research. It is the measurable outcome indicator.

Which of the following statements about lipids is true? Steroid hormones are made from one or more fat-soluble vitamins. Digestion of triglycerides requires bile and lipases. Triglyceride digestion is completed in the large intestine. Insulin stimulates lipolysis and the mobilization of triglycerides.

The digestion of regular fats and oils, which are usually long-chain triglycerides, requires bile acids as well as lipases. In adults, this digestion usually starts in the small intestine and is done with the aid of lipases and bile acids. The bile acids allow the triglycerides to be properly emulsified and the lipases break the triglycerides into individual fatty acids and monoglycerides in the small intestine.

A report indicates that survivors of a massive earthquake who are 24 months of age or younger have an RR for cholera of 3.3. This means that children who are 24 months of age or younger who are living in an earthquake devastated-area are approximately 30% more likely to develop cholera than children of this age who live outside the post-earthquake area. have more than three times greater risk of developing cholera than children of this age who live outside the post-earthquake area. have approximately 30% lower risk of developing cholera than children of this age who live outside the post-earthquake area. are one-third as likely to develop cholera as children of this age who live outside the post-earthquake area.

The epidemiologic term "relative risk," or RR, is defined as follows: if RR > 1.0, the exposed group (in this case, children living in the earthquake area) are at a greater risk of a disease than the unexposed group.

When assessing a population of preschoolers for acceptability of menu items, the most commonly used measurement tool has been the food frequency questionnaire. facial hedonic scale. self-reported consumption data. food preference survey.

The facial hedonic scale, rather than words or numbers, is the easiest to use with children. Children of different ages and backgrounds can easily learn and understand how to use it. All of the other methods require a significant amount of reading and/or writing that may be difficult for preschoolers.

In the receiving process, what step should be taken first?

The first step for receiving is comparing the purchase order to the invoice to make sure the products accepted were, in fact, ordered. The next step is to inspect items against the invoice, accept or reject items, complete receiving records, and then put products into storage.

For a food to be labeled "light" or "lite," how many calories can it contain? At least 25% fewer calories than the regular food Less than 5 calories One-third fewer calories than the regular food No more than 40 calories

The food labeling law defines "light" or "lite" as 1/3 fewer calories than the regular food.

The foodservice manager has completed instructing new hires regarding the safe handling of knives. During the session, the manager talked about how to use knives responsibly, determined what the new hires already knew about knife safety, demonstrated how to handle knives safely, and encouraged questions. What else should the manager have included so that all four steps in "How to Instruct" were covered? Share data about the number of injuries that have occurred. Develop interest in learning about knife safety. Summarize knife safety again in a second session. Require the new hires to explain key points while handling knives.

The four steps in "How to Instruct" are: Step 1 - Prepare the learner and find out that the individual knows about the job; Step 2 - Present the operation by tell, show, and illustrate; Step 3 - Try out performance by having the learner explain key points and do the job; Step 4 - Follow-up and designate where to obtain help and supervise the independent work of the learner and reinforce key concepts as necessary.

The management functions of planning, organizing, and staffing are linked directly to transformation of inputs to outputs. used to coordinate subsystems to achieve objectives. linking processes for communication and decision making. used to maximize employee satisfaction.

The goal of management is to achieve objectives such as making a profit and/or satisfying customers. Management functions include planning, organization, staffing, directing, and controlling. These management functions are employed in managing subsystems such as human resources, finance, and marketing. Managing subsystems through planning, organization, staffing, directing, and controlling is expected to result in the achievement of objectives.

Which USDA grade of beef is not purchased for general foodservice use?

The grades for beef from highest to lowest are prime, choice, select, standard, commercial, utility, cutter, and canner. Commercial, utility, cutter, and canner are not purchased for general foodservice use because of their poor taste quality.

To comply with Joint Commission certification standards, who should perform documentation of nutrition screening? Registered dietitian nutritionists on staff at the hospital Registered dietitian nutritionists or nutrition and dietetic technicians registered Staff selected at discretion of the hospital Food and nutrition services department managers

The hospital determines who will conduct the screening and document results to meet standard DSCT.5 EP.4.a of the Joint Commission Standards.

The variable that is manipulated in an experimental research study is the

The independent variable is the variable that is changed or manipulated in experimental research to determine outcome.

The indicator head of a bimetallic stemmed thermometer ranges from 32˚F to 212˚F. 32˚F to 220˚F. 0˚F to 220˚F. 0˚F to 212˚F.

The indicator must register temperatures below 32˚F to accommodate incoming frozen food shipments and above 212˚F to accommodate hot holdings.

The dominant force in how a patient views health care is likely to be ______. social hierarchy race individual experience ethnicity

The individual experience is the dominant force in how a patient views health care; the other tenets listed are secondary.

A foodservice operation's Net Profit is $41,137, Cost of Goods Sold is $145,350, Average Inventory Value is $7,330, and Total Meals Served Per Day is 200. What is the inventory turnover rate?

The inventory turnover rate is determined by dividing the cost of goods sold by the average inventory value. $145,350/$7,330 = 19.83.

A patient in residential care receives a parenteral formula of D40W of 500 ml in one day. The number of kilocalories delivered is 560 kcal 680 kcal 800 kcal 920 kcal

The kilocalories delivered by dextrose in solution is 3.4 kcal/g—not the typical 4 kcal/g—so the correct answer is 680 kcal. In 1 L of D40W, there is 400 g dextrose, but the patient is only receiving 500 ml; thus, 200 g dextrose x 3.4 kcal/g = 680 kcal.

Which of the components of total energy expenditure accounts for the largest percentage of total energy expenditure? Thermic effect of food Physical activity Nonexercise activity thermogenesis Basal metabolism

The largest percentage of total energy expenditure is basal metabolic rate, or BMR, and the closely related resting metabolic rate. BMR can range from 45% for people with a physically active lifestyle to 70% for those who are sedentary.

Public health policy is generally created by legislators. judges and magistrates. political action committees. the President and cabinet.

The legislative branch is responsible for creating law, the executive branch for enforcing law, and judicial branch for interpreting law. Political action committees are not part of the three branches of government. Legislators create public health policy.

Which enteral feeding access device will deliver nutrition past the ligament of Treitz? Nasogastric Nasoduodenal Percutaneous jejunostomy Percutaneous gastrostomy

The ligament of Treitz ligament marks the separation of the duodenum and jejunum. To bypass it, one would need to use percutaneous jejunostomy for feeding access.

In developing a community nutrition intervention, a logic model graphically shows how various elements of planning lead to intended outcomes. provides a detailed budget that addresses various types of costs of the project. is used primarily for planning rather than implementation or evaluation. illustrates the underlying educational philosophies used in the intervention.

The logic model is a graphic that shows inputs, outputs, and outcomes or impact. It is used in program planning, implementation, and evaluation.

When cooking fish, it should reach an internal temperature of: 135°F for 15 seconds. 145°F for 15 seconds. 155°F for 15 seconds. 165°F for 15 seconds.

The minimum internal temperature to ensure safety for consuming fish is 145°F.

Which foods represent the source of most food allergies? Cheese, strawberries, and beef Fish, rice, and corn Milk, eggs, and peanuts Wheat, tomatoes, and chicken

The most common food allergies are: Eggs (mostly in children); fish (older children and adults); milk (mostly in children); peanuts (people of all ages); shellfish such as shrimp, crab, and lobster (people of all ages); soy (mostly in children); tree nuts (people of all ages); and wheat (mostly in children).

An employee finds the job tasks to be too demanding. To enhance the employee's performance, which of the following solutions should a manager consider first? Provide assistance, equipment, and raw materials as deemed appropriate Simplify tasks, lessen the work load, and reduce time pressures Provide guidance concerning expected goals and standards Redesign the job to match the employee's needs

The most efficient and effective solution would be to help the employee improve performance by simplifying tasks, lessening the work load, and reducing time pressures to empower and motivate the employee to do well. Providing assistance, equipment, and raw materials is less empowering for the employee and/or more costly to the organization. Focusing on expected goals and standards of the job will do little toward decreasing job demands or improving performance. Jobs should not be redesigned to match an employee; an employee is assigned to a position for which he or she is qualified.

Which of the following dietary lipids is most heart healthy? Vegetable oil in a squeezable bottle Margarine in a tub Vegetable oil in stick form Whipped margarine

The most heart healthy lipids have zero grams of trans fat, do not contain partially hydrogenated oils, and are a plant oil in liquid form.

Freezing foods at _____ is the least damaging to the food's original flavor, nutrient content, and texture compared to most other preservation methods. ≤10°F ≤32°F ≤0°F ≤20°

The optimum temperature for freezing foods is 0°F or slightly colder. At temperatures above 0°F, food quality is quickly lost, and flavor and texture are compromised.

If raw and ready-to-eat products must be stored in the same refrigerator, how would the items be stored correctly? Raw meat placed above fresh broccoli Raw whole cuts of beef placed above raw fish Raw poultry placed above raw whole cuts of beef Raw fish placed above raw poultry

The order of placement in the refrigerator is based on the minimum internal cooking temperature of each food.

An isotonic enteral formula would have an osmolality of 0 mOsm/L. 300 mOsm/L. 550 mOsm/L. 700 mOsm/L.

The osmolality of an isotonic solution (one that is similar to the osmolality of the blood) is approximately 300 mOsm/L.

A dietitian is working with a client to reduce blood cholesterol levels. The client is knowledgeable about a hyperlipidemia diet and is able to devise healthful meal plans, but has moderate readiness in being independent in nutrition care. To be most effective, what would be the dietitian's approach? Continue to provide dietary instructions to the client and closely monitor compliance. Help the client gain confidence through listening, advising, and coaching. Listen to the client. Encourage and support the skills the client has developed. Turn over responsibility for nutrition care to the client.

The patient is knowledgeable with moderate readiness so the dietitian needs to find out what the client knows by listening to, encouraging, and supporting the client to help him or her be fully ready to execute the diet to reduce blood cholesterol.

Which grouping of words best represents transformation processes for a foodservice system? Following standards, communication, management functions Linking processes, management functions, functional subsystems Management functions, establishing goals/objectives, linking processes Functional subsystems, management functions, following standards

The process of transforming inputs into outputs in foodservice involves linking, managing, and building functional subsystems.

The purpose of registration for dietitians and dietetic technicians is to _____. protect the nutritional health, safety, and welfare of the public. ensure a degree of uniformity in the way that dietetics practice is conducted throughout the United States. protect the scope of practice of dietetics and nutrition professionals. provide recognition for nutrition professionals so that they can provide services in federal health care systems such as Medicare.

The purpose of registration is to protect the nutritional health, safety, and welfare of the public by encouraging high standards of performance of individuals practicing in the profession of dietetics.

According to USDA guidelines, during a power outage the refrigerator should keep food safely cold for about ____ hour(s) and a full freezer will hold the temperature for approximately ______ hours if the door remains closed. 4, 48 1, 12 2, 24 6, 72

The refrigerator should keep food safely cold for about 4 hours if it is unopened. A full freezer will hold the temperature for approximately 48 hours (24 hours if it is half full and the door remains closed).

If the tool that the dietitian is using to measure food intake is reliable, it means that the tool _____. produces a cost-benefit ratio that is higher than the established limits offers the amount of factual information needed provides consistent and accurate results each time it is used produces a cost-benefit ratio that is within the defined parameters

The reliability of an assessment tool is the extent to which it consistently and accurately measures learning. When the results of an assessment are reliable, we can be confident that repeated or equivalent assessments will provide consistent results.

Alcohol metabolism can cause decreased uptake of fatty acids from the blood. fatty acid syntheses. lipogenesis. beta-oxidation.

The shift in the NADH/NAD+ ratio inhibits beta-oxidation of fatty acids and promotes triglyceride synthesis.

Which of the following fats/oils have the highest smoke point, making it ideal for high heat cooking? Peanut oil Olive oil Shortening Safflower oil

The smoke point in fats and oils is the temperature at which a fat or oil will begin to smoke. If heated beyond their smoke point, fats can reach their flash point and ignite. Monoglycerides have lower smoke points; diglycerides and triglycerides have higher smoke points. Of the fats/oils listed, safflower oil has a smoke point of 513°F, peanut oil has a smoke point of 453° F, olive oil has a smoke point of 375°F, and shortening has a smoke point of 356°F to 370°F.

When cooking fish, it should reach an internal temperature of: 135°F for 15 seconds. 145°F for 15 seconds. 155°F for 15 seconds. 165°F for 15 seconds.

The standard internal temperature for cooking fish is 145°F.

The temperature range of the "danger zone" is between 41°F and 125°F. 135°F. 145°F. 165°F.

The temperature guideline of 41°F to 135°F, based on research studies in food safety, was recently revised. This temperature guideline is the minimum internal temperature to prevent foodborne illness.

Which of the following best represents transformation processes for a foodservice system? Following standards, communication, management functions Management functions, establishing goals and objectives, linking processes Linking processes, management functions, functional subsystems Functional subsystems, management functions, following standards

The transformation process for a foodservice system involves actions or activities used in changing inputs into outputs, and includes functional subsystems (ie, procurement, production, safety/sanitation/maintenance, distribution and service), management functions (ie, planning, organizing, staffing, directing, controlling), and linking processes (ie, decision making, communication, balance). All other terms listed in the options have no relevance to the transformation processes for a foodservice system.

Two federal agencies control alcoholic beverages. Where are the agencies housed? Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) US Department of Commerce (USDC) Federal Trade Commission (FTC) Department of the Treasury

The two federal agencies that control alcoholic beverages are part of the Department of the Treasury.

After protein digestion, what is the predominant product absorbed into circulation? Amino acids Amino acids and oligopeptides Amino acids and dipeptides Amino acids, dipeptides, and tripeptides

The two main products of protein digestion are free amino acids and peptides (including dipeptides and tripeptides). The body has intestinal carriers for both products to be absorbed; however, the predominant form absorbed into circulation is amino acids. The amino acids are then absorbed into the blood and used to build up the body's own proteins.

Bacterial spoilage is most likely to occur at which water activity (aw)? 0.90 0.70 0.50 0.30

The water activity of a food is the ratio between the vapor pressure of the food itself, when in a completely undisturbed balance with the surrounding air media and the vapor pressure of distilled water under identical conditions. A water activity of 0.80 means the vapor pressure is 80% of that of pure water. The water activity increases with temperature. The moisture condition of a product can be measured as the equilibrium relative humidity expressed in percentage or as the water activity expressed as a decimal. The higher the water activity, the more likely the food is to spoil.

Bacterial spoilage is most likely to occur at which water activity? 0.9 0.7 0.5 0.3

The water activity of a food is the ratio between the vapor pressure of the food itself, when in a completely undisturbed balance with the surrounding air media, and the vapor pressure of distilled water under identical conditions. A water activity of 0.80 means the vapor pressure is 80% of that of pure water. The water activity increases with temperature. The moisture condition of a product can be measured as the equilibrium relative humidity expressed in percentage or as the water activity expressed as a decimal. The higher the water activity, the more likely the food is to spoil.

One of the key features of andragogy is that adults _____. expect learning to be subject-centered want learning that is relevant to their needs desire external sources of motivation learn what others think is important

There are 4 principles of andragogy. 1. Adults need to be involved in the planning and evaluation of their instruction. 2. Experience provides the basis for learning activities. 3. Adults are most interested in learning subjects that have immediate relevance to their job or personal life. 4. Adult learning is problem-centered rather than content-oriented.

Regarding food-drug interactions, which food-drug combination requires client counseling? Warfarin and vitamin D-containing foods MAO inhibitors and tyramine-containing foods Prednisone and grapefruit juice Sibutramine and vitamin C-containing foods

There are no known interactions between warfarin and vitamin D foods, and prednisone and sibutramin do not interact with vitamin C foods or juices.

Approximately how many carbohydrate servings are 48 grapes? 1 2 3 4

There are roughly 15 grapes in 1 carbohydrate serving, so 48 grapes would provide approximately 3 carbohydrate servings.

The dietitian has written the following objective: "The clients with high blood pressure who attend the six class sessions planned will accept the goal of following a reduced-salt diet." Which learning domain does this objective represent? Psychomotor Rational Cognitive Affective

There are three domains of educational activities. Cognitive is mental skills or knowledge. Affective is attitude and growth in feelings or emotional areas. Psychomotor is manual or physical skills. The affective domain includes the manner in which people deal with things emotionally, such as feelings, values, appreciation, enthusiasm, motivations, and attitudes.

Which of the following is an application of nanotechnology in the foodservice industry? Computer software that manages inventory via the tracking of sales Foodservice storage containers that are permeable to gasses that contribute to spoilage A frying oil that catalytically inhibits the thermal polymerization of the oil Increasing the concentration of vitamin D in low-fat dairy products to increase the potential for absorption

There is a catalytic device that conditions frying oil through the use of nanotechnology. By catalytically inhibiting the thermal polymerization of frying oil, the product promises to slow the oil's deterioration, thus preserving its freshness and lengthening its use. The result is crispier fries, higher food quality, and reduced oil and disposal costs.

Which of the following food items are not identified by quality grading? Chicken Eggs Canned fruit Pork chops

There is a grading system for pork, but it is only at the processing level. Pork is not graded with USDA quality grades as it is generally produced from young animals that have been bred and fed to produce more uniformly tender meat.

All of the following statements are true regarding cardiovascular disease (CVD) and women, EXCEPT heart disease is the number one killer of women. the highest rates of cardiovascular morbidity and mortality occur in black women. for primary prevention, all women older than 40 should take a baby aspirin daily. specific nutrition recommendations for women include quantitative limits on the amount of sugar consumed per week.

There is no benefit for all women to take aspirin; in fact, in women younger than 65, there may be harm in anti-platelet therapy. This is not true for men, however.

A 56-year-old male client presents to the ambulatory clinic for a team visit. Physical exam reveals: Height: 5'9"; weight: 223 pounds; body mass index (BMI) 33; blood pressure: 168/96; heart rate 74. Pertinent laboratory results : hemoglobin A1c: 7.0%, thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH): 2.0 mU/L, Medications: Metformin (Glucophage 1000 mg daily), Hydrochlorothiazide 25 mg, Lisinopril 20 mg. Review of symptoms: positive for daytime sleepiness, wife complains of loud snoring. Mood: affect appears to be good. Despite excellent adherence to DASH (Dietary Approaches to Stop Hypertension) meal plan, blood pressure continues to be elevated. What is the best explanation for his elevation in blood pressure and daytime somnolence? A drug/drug interaction of hydrochlorothiazide and Metformin Untreated thyroid disease Undiagnosed obstructive sleep apnea Untreated depression

There is no drug/drug interaction with these two medications, TSH is normal, and mood has been assessed as positive so depression can be ruled out. All symptoms point to the likely possibility of obstructive sleep apnea

Purchasing locally grown produce, using permanent ware (plates, flatware, etc.), and reducing solid waste are practices that support a ________________ program. hazard analysis and critical control points food safety sustainability risk management

These are sustainable practices that promote waste reduction, energy/water conservation, and other forms of reduced environmental impact.

A 72-year-old woman with chronic heart failure and symptomatic edema who is on enteral feeding is treated with thiazide medication. What would you expect her labs to reveal as a result of this medication and its delivery method? Hypokalemia Hypernatremia Hypocalcemia Hypoglycemia

Thiazide is a diuretic that pulls potassium from the blood. Hypokalemia should be expected in the laboratory results.

Which category of oral hyperglycemic medication would NOT be appropriate for a client with congestive heart failure? Sulfonylureas Biguanides Meglitinides Thiazolidinediones

Thiazolidinediones can worsen congestive heart failure by promoting weight gain/edema.

A continuous and systematic process in which decisions are made about intended future outcomes, and how success is measured and evaluated is known as: accountability. effectiveness. organizing. strategic planning.

This is the definition of strategic planning: it is a continuous and systematic process in which people make decisions about intended future outcomes, how outcomes are to be accomplished, and how success is measured and evaluated.

In a community needs assessment report, the passage "...the southeast region of Essex County, including the adjoining municipalities of Kardon, Greenwalt, and Addison...," is an example of the target population. the lead organizations. the definition of the community. the stakeholders.

This passage defines the community. Community can be defined by not only common interest and values but also geographic boundaries.

A patient with a new diagnosis of iron-deficiency anemia has been referred to the dietetics practitioner. She did not know she was anemic; however, she admits to feeling tired lately. At which stage of change is this person?

This patient is in the precontemplative stage, because she was not aware that she had anemia, and she was not thinking about changing her diet. Ignorance and denial are characteristics of precontemplation.

Which "leadership powers" tend to be related to subordinate satisfaction and performance? Expert, referent Legitimate, expert Referent, reward Reward, legitimate

Those with expert leadership powers are viewed as competent and those with referent leadership power are well-liked. Legitimate leadership power is based on position in the organization, and reward leadership power allows leader to reward others.

What decisional roles does a manager perform when committing an organization to specific courses of action and/or determining unit strategy? Disseminator, leader, disturbance handler, and/or negotiator Monitor, resource allocator, entrepreneur, and/or figurehead Liaison, spokesperson, monitor, and/or disseminator Entrepreneur, resource allocator, disturbance handler, and/or negotiator

To accomplish their work and use their skills, managers perform 10 different roles grouped into three categories: interpersonal, informational, and decisional. Decisional roles include entrepreneur, disturbance handler, resource allocator, and/or negotiator.

A food product may be labeled "Made with Organic Ingredients" if _____% of the finished product's ingredients meet organic criteria.

To be labeled "Made with Organic Products," at least 70% of the finished product's ingredients must meet organic criteria. If there is less than 70% organic ingredients in a product, the manufacturer can list them on the ingredient panel and can list the organic ingredient percentage on the information panel, but "organic" cannot be claimed on the principal display panel.

To calculate food costs for a specific month, managers would add the costs of purchases to the value of the _________at the beginning of the month and then subtract the value of the _____at the end of the month. accounts receivable, accounts payable accounts payable, accounts receivable gross sales, net sales inventory, inventory

To calculate food costs for a specific month, managers add the value of the inventory at the beginning of the month to the cost of any purchases made throughout the month. They then subtract the value of the inventory left at the end of the month to determine food costs.

There are four National School Lunch Program (NSLP) menu planning options: NuMenus, Assisted NuMenus, Enhanced Food-Based, and Traditional Food-Based. When compared, there are many similarities as well as differences. Which of the following components is specific to the NuMenus planning option? Menus will meet the Dietary Guidelines for Americans. There is greater flexibility in menu planning. Compressive nutritional data are both quickly and readily available. The school district must have computer hardware and USDA nutrient analysis software.

Using the NuMenus (Nutrient Standard Menu Planning) system requires the district to have and use computer hardware and USDA-approved nutrient analysis software to perform nutrition analysis of each week's menu. Assisted NuMenus nutrient analysis may be done by another school, a consultant, or a school food co-op. Computers are not required in the Enhanced Food-Based or Traditional Food-Based systems.

The foodservice manager has determined that food cost percentage should be no more than 28%. Using the factor pricing method, what should you charge for a bowl of chili if the recipe cost is $1.12 per portion? $1.43 $3.14 $3.99 $4.31

Using the factor pricing method, multiply the raw food cost of an item by the pricing factor to get the menu sales price. For a 28% food cost, the pricing factor will be 100 divided by 28, or 3.57. Next, multiply $1.12 by 3.57 to get $3.99.

Calculating protein needs above 1.5 g/kg body weight in an elderly patient with stage III pressure ulcer and impaired renal function may cause hyperglycemia. dyslipidemia. dehydration. increased wound healing.

Usually protein intake is increased for patients with pressure ulcers to promote wound healing. In patients who also have compromised renal function, the higher protein concentrations must be monitored to assure that fluids are not pulled from the system, causing dehydration.

What term is used to describe the methodical investigation of all components of an existing product or service with the goal of discovering and eliminating unnecessary costs without interfering with the effectiveness of the product or service? Make-or-buy decision Can cutting Value analysis Value-added research

Value analysis looks to maintain the effectiveness of quality of a product or service and at the same time decrease unnecessary costs. Make-or-buy decisions help in determining whether to produce the product or buy it prepared. Can cuttings help in determining the quality of various products such as canned fruit. Value-added research is used to estimate or quantify positive (or negative) effects.

Children on strict vegan diets may be deficient in vitamin B-6. magnesium. vitamin B-12. iron.

Vegans do not consume meat, eggs, or dairy, which are high in vitamin B-12. Children have periods of rapid growth, so careful planning is needed to prevent a vitamin B-12 deficiency. It is suggested that children on a vegan diet consume vitamin B-12 fortified foods, such as most breakfast cereal, soy beverages and plant-based meat substitutes to avoid deficiency.

A patient presents with lesions on his gums and pinpoint hemorrhages on his skin. What vitamin is this patient most likely deficient in? Thiamin Magnesium Vitamin C Selenium

Vitamin C helps keep your gums healthy, heal any cuts and wounds, and protect from bruising. Thiamin may contribute to maintaining mental function and help regulate metabolism. Magnesium signals muscles to relax and contract, may help maintain immune response, and promotes normal blood pressure. Selenium aids cell growth and boosts immune function.

Which of the following measures of obesity correlate best with obesity-associated disease risk?

Waist circumference is the best correlate to obesity-associated disease risk.Skinfold thickness accuracy can vary greatly. BMI accuracy decreases with muscle wasting and increases based on muscularity, age, sex, and ethnicity. There is no abdominal body shape index that has been validated.

Which one of the following statements is INCORRECT regarding the concept of weight bias? Weight bias is more prevalent among registered dietitian nutritionists than mental health workers. Weight bias is more common than sexual orientation bias. Weight bias is comparable to racial discrimination. Weight bias does not exist among registered dietitian nutritionists who often work with obese clients.

Weight bias exists in clinical settings and research from the Yale University Rudd Center for Food Policy and Obesity demonstrates that it is more common among registered dietitian nutritionists than mental health professionals. It is noteworthy that even RDNs who work with obese clients have weight bias and may not know it.

When making omelets using induction—the use of electrical magnetic fields to excite the molecules of metal surfaces—you notice heating is fast, even, and there is no flame. heating is fast, uneven, and there is an open flame. heating is slow, even, and there is an open flame. heating is slow, uneven, and there is no flame.

When using an induction-heat burner, there is no flame. The burner heats up quickly and cooking is even. Electric burners can often cook unevenly and there is no flame. Gas burners do have an open flame and tend to cook evenly.

Which of the following situations reduces a manager's span of control? Managing less complicated work Having a greater geographical dispersion of workers Receiving expert advice from colleagues or superiors Using clear and comprehensive policies

When workers are widely dispersed across a department or organization, a manager's ability to efficiently and effectively supervise all work sites and workers may be severely inhibited.

To prevent deterioration of canned sauces, which should be used? Pregelatinized starch High-amylose starch Resistant starch Cross-linked starch

When you cross-link starch, a chemical bond takes place between the starch chains. By cross-linking the starch, you get the following properties (compared to native starch): shorter texture, stability at low pH values, and heat/shear stability.

When pickling foods, the level of brine acidity is critical not only for acceptable flavor and texture, but also for safety of the product. The appropriate acidity level of the vinegar used must be at least

White distilled and cider vinegars of 5% acidity (50 grain) are recommended for pickling. Vinegar with lower levels of acidity may not provide a high enough acid medium to inhibit unwanted microbial growth and higher levels of acidity may not result in a palatable product.

When preparing most vegetables for freezing, it is imperative that you blanch the vegetable first. The primary purpose of this process is to _______________ and improve product _________

deactivate enzymes, quality. Blanching slows or stops the enzyme action. Enzymes help vegetables grow and mature. After maturation, however, the enzymes cause loss of quality, flavor, color, texture, and nutrients. While blanching will also help to preserve color, its primary purpose is to deactivate enzymes that degrade quality.

Which ratio would be used to examine an establishment's ability to meet its long-term financial obligations and its financial leverage?

debt to assets The assets-to-liabilities ratio calculates the percentage of assets provided by debt. Return on assets refers to the profitability of a company. Return on equity is a measure of company earnings compared to total shareholder equity. The debt-to-assets ratio examines ability to meet long-term financial obligations and financial leverage.

ABC Hospital Food and Nutrition Department prepares and delivers meals to other health care operations in a large metropolitan area. Other hospital foodservices in the metropolitan area have recently begun offering meal delivery service. ABC Hospital modified its service to offer home meal replacements to the health care staff in addition to its other meal delivery service. ABC Hospital is using

focus strategy. Focus strategy uses a cost leadership or differentiation strategy to target a specific, limited-size market niche. ABC Hospital changed its service to reach out to a specific population/market niche in home meal replacement to health care staff. The other hospital is using a competitive approach against ABC hospital.

A deficiency of vitamin B-12 in older adults is most likely due to diverticulosis. fat malabsorption. atrophic gastritis. gallbladder disease.

tamin B-12 requires hydrochloric acid in the stomach to be released from its peptide bonds. It then binds with intrinsic factor in the stomach and is absorbed in the ileum. If a person has atrophic gastritis, which increases significantly with age, there is reduced hydrochloric acid secretion. This can result in decreased bioavailability of vitamin B-12.

Consider the following scenario when the provider/client are talking. RDN "Why don't you try spinach as a choice?" Client responds by rolling her eyes. Which of the following statements from the RDN is the best example of the motivational Interviewing guiding principle "rolling with resistance"?

"You don't like this idea." The other options are examples of "righting reflex," where the provider offers advice. "Rolling with resistance" works to de-escalate the situation and avoid negative reactions; it disrupts the power struggle that may occur and the session thus doesn't become a series of "yes, but" arguments from the client.

A pregnant woman should avoid excessive intake of which of the following nutrients?

A pregnant woman should avoid excessive intake of vitamin A, as it appears to cause birth defects. Vitamin B-6 is water soluble, and folic acid and iron should be increased during pregnancy.

One advantage of using a crossover design over a parallel design is

A reduction in variability Crossover design includes a washout period and does not have to be a shorter study duration, and sample size does not have to be small. The design uses the same subjects who serve as the control, hence a reduction in variability.

After defining the nutritional problem while conducting a community needs assessment, what is your next step? Identify community groups and their leaders. Determine the purpose of the needs assessment. Collect information on health and nutrition resources available in the community. Review available data such as Census records.

After identifying the problem, the next step is setting the parameters of the assessment, which includes determining the purpose. The actions described in the other options would not be performed this early in the process.

Which term best describes overall space planning that includes defining the size, shape, style, and decoration?

Design refers to the overall space planning; layout is the detailed arrangement of a building and its floor and/or counter space; and blueprint is what the architect will provide to the contractor so the space and its structures are built according to specifications.

When using the plan-do-study-act (PDSA) process, which of the following occurs during the plan phase?

Determination of data collection methods occurs during the planning phase. Staff training and evaluation of effectiveness occur after a project has been implemented. Reduction of appointment waiting times would be an example of a quality improvement project goal.

Which statement best describes the "S" component of the PDSA performance improvement model?

Determination of how changes will be made is part of the P component, implementation of the plan is included in D, and maintaining the improvement is part of A.

Which of the following gastrointestinal hormones has the effect of increasing the consumption of food?

Ghrelin is a gastrointestinal hormone produced by epithelial cells lining the fundus of the stomach; it appears to be a stimulant for appetite and feeding but is also a strong stimulant of growth hormone secretion from the anterior pituitary.

All of the following are criteria for the diagnosis of diabetes, EXCEPT: fasting plasma glucose ≥ 125 mg/dL. hemoglobin A1C ≤ 6.5%. two-hour plasma glucose ≥ 200 mg/dL during an oral glucose tolerance test. a random plasma glucose ≥ 200 mg/dL in a person with classic symptoms of hyperglycemia or hyperglycemic crisis.

Measurement of hemoglobin A1C ≤ 6.5% is not a criterion. Criteria for diagnosis of diabetes are (1) a fasting plasma glucose of 126 mg/dL or higher, OR (2) a 2-hour plasma glucose of 200 mg/dL or more during OGTT, (3) OR a hemoglobin A1c of 6.5% of more, OR (4) random plasma glucose of 200 mg/dL or higher (in a patient with classic symptoms of hyperglycemia or hyperglycemic crisis.

The two financial statements primarily used by foodservice managers to analyze operational effectiveness are the

The inventory valuation record contains an accounting of the cost of items kept in the inventory. The balance sheet is a list of assets, liabilities, and capital, and the income statement is a financial statement that shows all operating results for a desired time period.

Which of the following lunch menus reflect proper menu planning principles? Steamed haddock, rice, roasted cauliflower, vanilla frozen yogurt with fresh pineapple Baked pork chop, sautéed broccoli, rice pilaf, vanilla frozen yogurt with strawberries Grilled chicken breast, mashed potatoes, steamed parsnips, lemon sorbet Meatballs, tiny whole potatoes, Brussels sprouts, fresh bing cherries

The meal in choice B (baked pork chop, sautéed broccoli, rice pilaf, vanilla frozen yogurt with strawberries) shows the best use of color in a lunch meal, as well as a variety of flavors, textures, consistency, and food shapes that are balanced. The foods complement each other and employ a variety of cooking methods. The meals in answer choices A and C are mostly white in color and not as visually appealing. The meal in option D has color, but all the foods have the same shape (round).

Which of the following is true of additives categorized as GRAS?

They are generally recognized, among qualified experts, as having been adequately shown to be safe under the conditions of its intended use GRAS is an acronym for the phrase Generally Recognized As Safe. Under sections 201(s) and 409 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, any substance that is intentionally added to food is a food additive that is subject to premarket review and approval by FDA, unless the substance is generally recognized as safe.

Which flavor enhancer from seaweed might be included in a recipe to provide "umami"?

Umami is a savory taste that is enhanced by the addition of monosodium glutamate, which has no distinct flavor of its own.

Yogurt manufacturers have branched out into Greek yogurt, high-fiber yogurt, bacteria-enhanced yogurt, and more because they believe customers prefer yogurt products. By doing so, which of the following marketing concepts are these manufactures applying?

Yogurt manufacturers are using the concept of product when they offer many different types and flavors of yogurt. Selling, manufacturing, and societal marketing concepts do not focus on offering different types of the same product.

Critical nutrition concerns in children ages 2-11 years of age include:

excessive intakes of dietary fat, especially saturated fats. decreased intakes of foods that are good sources of calcium, fiber, iron, vitamin E, folate, magnesium, and potassium. sedentary lifestyles. Based on the Academy's position on nutrition guidance for children aged 2 to 11 years, all the factors listed contribute to concerns in this population.

Employees should be excluded from working in any type of foodservice establishment if they have any of the following symptoms:

vomiting, diarrhea, jaundice. Sore throat, coughing, and nausea are not reasons to exclude a worker.

In December 2014, the FDA approved a final rule that calorie and other nutrition labeling would be required for standard menu items offered for sale in a restaurant or similar retail food establishment that is part of a chain with _____ or more locations, doing business under the same name, and offering for sale substantially the same menu items.

20 As part of the Affordable Care Act, the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act was amended to require restaurants and similar retail food establishments that are part of a chain with 20 or more locations doing business under the same name and offering for sale substantially the same menu items to provide calorie and other nutrition information for standard menu items.

Full-time employees generally work 236 days per year. What is the full-time equivalent?

365 days each year ÷ 236 full-time workdays = 1.55 full-time equivalents (FTEs); therefore, 1.55 FTEs are required for each full-time position.

Which of the following is the recommended amount of caffeine for healthy children aged 5 to 12?

3mg/kg Children should not exceed ~100 mg caffeine. As children increasingly consume energy beverages, which are typically packaged in 12 oz or 20 oz containers, their caffeine intake could exceed 400 mg. Such high caffeine intakes are unsafe for children.

Which of the following is a physical link between safe water and dirty water, which can come from drains, sewers, or other wastewater sources?

A cross-connection is dangerous because it can let backflow occur. Backflow is the reverse flow of contaminants through a cross-connection into a drinkable water supply. An air gap is the space that separates a water supply outlet from a potentially contaminated source. A vacuum breaker is a mechanical device that prevents back siphonage.

What production forecasting method would be used if an assumption was made that actual occurrences follow an identifiable pattern over time?

Exponential smoothing and moving average According to Gregoire and Spears, "The frequently used time series forecasting model involves the assumption that actual occurrences follow an identifiable pattern over time." Moving average forecasting model Time series model that uses a repetitive process for developing a trend line by averaging the number of servings for a specified number of times for the first point on the line and then dropping the oldest and adding the newest number of servings for subsequent points. Exponential smoothing forecasting model Time series model in which an exponentially decreasing set of weights is used, giving recent values more weight than older ones

Which agency sets the mandated guidelines for meals in long-term-care facilities that receive Medicare and Medicaid funding?

Long-term care facilities receiving Medicare and Medicaid funding must follow guidelines regarding meals served to residents that are established by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services, a division of the US Department of Health and Human Services.

Which of these acronyms requires compliance with safety standards?

OSHA is the Occupational Safety and Health Administration. The agency requires employers to comply with the Hazard Communication Standard, also known as Right-to-Know, which requires employers to train employees on how to safely use the chemicals they work with. SDS is a Safety Data Sheet contains important safety information about chemicals and has replaced the material safety data sheet (MSDS). HACCP, Hazard Analysis Critical Control Points, is based on identifying significant biological, chemical, or physical hazards at specific points within a product's flow. MDS is Minimum Data Set is a standardized screening and assessment tool of health status used in long-term care.

In 2013, changes were made to the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) that have resulted in RDN's needing to modify the way that they conduct business to remain compliant. These changes are collectively known as the

Omnibus Rule In 2013, sweeping changes to HIPAA were announced to the public, resulting in modifications in the way RDNs and other health care providers must conduct business to remain compliant. In an effort to maintain the privacy and security of protected health information (PHI) in today's growing world of technology, the Office for Civil Rights (OCR) of the US Department of Health and Human Services adopted additional modifications to the HIPAA Privacy, Security, Breach Notification and Enforcement Rules. These changes, which took effect on September 23, 2013, are addressed collectively as the Omnibus Rule.

Which of the following flooring materials would be best suited for high-traffic cooking areas?

Quarry tile is wear resistant and nonporous. Ceramic tile is best used on walls. Concrete is hard, tires employees by causing muscle fatigue, and may cause accidents if individuals slip or fall when the floor is wet. Rubber floors are more difficult to clean.

Studies suggest that the most serious and prevalent long-term consequences of childhood overweight is:

Research shows that obese children have a significantly higher chance of being obese in adulthood. The implications in the other options are of concern but represent short-term complications.

The Academy of Nutrition and Dietetics takes the position that pediatric overweight intervention programs require a combination of which of the following programs:

The Academy's position is that family-based and multi-component programs are the most effective in reducing obesity.

Upon quarterly audit, the accountant found an error: The beginning inventory for the month of January was overstated. How would this effect the cost of goods sold (COGS) and net income for the month of January?

The COGS for January would be more than it actually was, and the net income would be less than it actually was. Beginning inventory serves as the basis for calculations of cost of goods purchased to meet production needs, the resulting cost of goods sold, and, consequently, the net income of the facility. Beginning with an overstated figure will appear as if the cost of goods sold was higher (adding the higher beginning inventory figure to the actual purchases made to meet production needs). This will also result in the appearance that it cost more to produce what was sold and therefore net income was lower.

Standards of identity that specify minimum and maximum ingredient requirements, optional ingredients, and prohibited ingredients in a food product are established by which federal agency?

The FDA established standards of identity for common food products to ensure quality and consistency. These standards clearly define required ingredients and specified amounts of these ingredients, as well as prohibited ingredients in foods. Foods must conform to the defined standards of identity to use the corresponding food name (eg, mayonnaise).

Which agency approves the use of food additives in breakfast cereal?

The FDA regulates use of food additives—including coloring agents considered safe for human consumption and additives that are considered safe for human consumption or generally recognized as safe (GRAS) by the scientific community. Any food that contains a food additive that is not deemed safe is considered an adulterated food by FDA standards.

Which federal agency regulates wines with less than 7% alcohol?

The FDA regulates wines with lower alcohol content (less than 7%). The Alcohol and Tobacco Tax and Trade Bureau is responsible for oversight and regulation of all other alcoholic beverages.

The Food Safety Modernization Act (FSMA) enables the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) to better protect public health because it allows FDA to now focus more on

The Food Safety Modernization Act (FSMA), signed into law by President Obama on January 4, 2011, enables the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) to better protect public health by strengthening the food safety system. It allows FDA to focus more on preventing food safety problems, rather than reacting to problems after they occur.

Consider the following clinical scenario: Age: 52-year-old male; weight 163 lb; Height: 5'11" BMI: 22.7; Current medications: Metformin 1 g; Saxagliptin 5 mg; Glucotrol XL 10 mg. Laboratory work: Hemoglobin A1c: 13.9%; fasting blood glucose: 356 mg/dl; + glutamic acid decarboxylase (GAD) auto antibodies test). The referring physician note states: "Patient needs diet instruction." Which of the following is the best action for the RDN to take? Educate the patient about low carbohydrate foods to minimize glucose elevations. Contact the referring physician to consider insulin therapy. Emphasize meal spacing and carbohydrate consistency. Negotiate a weight loss of 5% to 7% body weight loss.

The GAD shows that the patient has type 1 diabetes and will need insulin therapy for glucose control. Options A, C, and D would be appropriate actions for individuals with type 2 diabetes mellitus who have insulin resistance. Dietary or nutrition approaches will not fix the glucose problem for this patient

What organization created standards for cultural competence that resulted in the 2014 publication of a monograph to inspire hospitals to integrate cultural competence as well as other patient- and family-centered care concepts?

The Joint Commission published this monograph to inspire hospitals to integrate concepts from the communication, cultural competence, and patient- and family-centered care fields into their organizations. The Roadmap for Hospitals provides recommendations to help hospitals address unique patient needs, meet the patient-centered communication standards, and comply with related Joint Commission requirements

The Standards of Professional _____ for dietetics professionals describes in general terms a competent level of behavior in the professional role.

The Standards of Professional Performance describe competency levels of professional behavior by an individual. They specifically describe the performance of dietetics practitioners.

Which of the following micronutrients should be supplemented in a patient with history of alcoholism?

Thiamine deficiency is common in alcoholics because thiamine absorption from food decreases and thiamine excretion from the body increases. Alcoholism can also cause folic acid deficiency by interfering with the absorption of this nutrient and by influencing the development of unhealthy eating habits.

Which decision-making process would be most appropriate for determining whether medication, consultations with a registered dietitian nutritionist, or some combination of the two is the best approach for lowering serum triglyceride levels?

Various techniques have been developed to assist managers with decision making. Cost-effectiveness provides a comparison of alternative courses of action in terms of their cost, financial gains and savings, and effectiveness in obtaining an objective. This technique does not include costs or effectiveness in obtaining objectives. Network charts are useful for presenting a graphic representation of a project, depicting the flow and sequence of defined activities and events; for example, planning, scheduling, and controlling a catered lunch. Cost-benefit provides a comparison of costs to financial gains -effectiveness is not considered.

The breakdown of fatty acids to yield acetyl-CoA is called

beta-oxidation. Fatty acid catabolism involve three stages. The first stage of fatty acid catabolism is beta-oxidation. The second stage is acetyl coA oxidation to carbon dioxide. The third stage is electron transfer from electron carriers to the electron transfer chain.

According to the Academy of Nutrition and Dietetics, each registered dietitian nutritionist is expected to promote public access and referral to credentialed dietetics practitioners for quality food and nutrition programs and services by

monitoring the effectiveness of referral systems and modifying them as needed to achieve desirable outcomes. Standard 3 of the Standards of Professional Performance for Registered Dietitians includes 3.2—promotes public access and referral to credentialed dietetics practitioners for quality food and nutrition programs and service. The three components are: 3.2A "Contributes to or designs referral systems that promote access to qualified, credentialed dietetics practitioners"; 3.2B "Refers customers to appropriate providers when requested services or identified needs exceed the RD's individual scope of practice"; and 3.2c "Monitors effectiveness of referral systems and modifies as needed to achieve desirable outcomes."