Practice Quiz Questions

What position is the hip typically in during heel strike? -neutral flexion/extension -15 degrees flexion -30 degrees flexion -40 degrees flexion

30 degrees flexion

What is the standard clearance for knee joints on a KAFO? -3mm laterally, 5mm medially -3mm laterally, 6mm medially -6mm laterally, 3mm medially -6mm laterally, 5mm medially

3mm laterally, 6mm medially

What is the optimal age for beginning cranial remolding orthosis treatment? -2-4 months of age -4-6 months of age -before 8 months of age -before 12 months of age

4-6 months of age

A 240 pound female bears hoe much weight collectively though her right 2nd-5th MTP joints while standing evenly on both feet: -20 lbs -40 lbs -60 lbs -120 lbs

40 lbs

How long do The Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services require medical records to be retained for their beneficiaries? -18 months -3 years -5 years -7 years

5 years

How long does medicare requires that medical records be retained for medicare beneficiaries? -2 years -3 years -5 years -7 years

5 years

Which ligament prevents hyperextension of the hip joint? -ischiofemoral ligament -inguinal ligament -obturator membrane -Iliofemoral ligament

iliofemoral ligament

Poliomyelitis is what type of pathology? -lower motor neuron -upper motor neuron -progressive -sensory

lower motor neuron

Flaccid paralysis is most often seen in: -central nervous system injuries -lower motor neuron injuries -upper motor neuron injuries -both central nervous system and upper neuron injuries

lower motor neuron injures

Which of the following is not considered a sesamoid bone? -patella -pisiform -lunate -hyoid

lunate

Oftentimes, we are asked to see patients with an abdominal hernia. When fitting patients with this disorder, they are best fitted in which position? -lying on their back with knees flexed -prone with arms extended -standing with knees flexed -sitting with knees extended

lying on their back with knees flexed

Articulation between the sternum and the clavicle occurs at the: -coronoid tubercle -acromion -manubrium -xyphoid

manubrium

When you are working with a patient with left hemiplegia you would expect that they would be least likely to respond to you if you were emphasizing: -maximum use of demonstration and gesture -simple verbal cues -minimizing open ended questions -simplification of treatment

maximum use of demonstration and gesture

A patient wearing a KAFO is seen in clinic. The patient complains of anterior thigh pressure while sitting. What could be the cause: -mechanical knee joint is too proximal in relation to the anatomical joint -mechanical knee joint is too distal in relation to the anatomical joint -mechanical knee joint is too posterior in relation to the anatomical joint -mechanical knee joint is too anterior in relation to the anatomical joint

mechanical knee joint is too distal in relation to the anatomical joint

Carpal tunnel syndrome results in compression of which nerve? -median -radial -axillary -ulnar

median

Carpal tunnel syndrome results in compression of which nerve? -radial -ulnar -axillary -median

median

Which of the following is inflammation of the outer covering of the brain and spinal cord? -cerebral palsy -meningitis -multiple sclerosis -pleuritis

meningitis

The POSTERIOR trimlines of the TLSO orthotic device for optimum support and ROM should be at the level of: -circumferentially to promote circulation & support -mid costal level superior & mid lateral coccyx inferior -mid axilla superior & trochanteric prominence inferior -mid scapula superior & mid gluteal inferior

mid scapula superior & mid gluteal inferior

Which column(s) of the spine do you expect to see damaged in a burst fracture? -posterior and middle -middle and anterior -anterior -posterior

middle and anterior

During ambulation the body's center of mass reaches its highest point at: -heel strike -midstance -terminal stance -preswing

midstance

Torque is calculated by: -multiplying lever arm length by force applied -multiplying distance from the joint center by velocity -multiplying the radius by the lever arm length -adding the center of mass vector to the joint center vector

multiplying lever arm length by force applied

Which of the following nerves innervated all the anterior muscles of the arm? -radial -axillary -musculocutaneous -median

musculocutaneous

Failure of the vertebral arch to unite is referred to as: -myelopathy -spondylolisthesis -spinadyspasia -myelomeningocele

myelomeningocele

If drainage around a HALO pin develops, the recommended treatment is to: -obtain a culture, and treat with the appropriate oral treatment if necessary -remove/relocate the pin, if cellulites abscess or inability to easily retorque occurs -none of the provided answers -start local pin site care and cleansing

non of the provided answers

Which of the proximal row of carpal bones is usually considered a sesamoid? -triquetrum -lunate -pisiform -navicular

pisiform

The definition of ________, is a cranial asymmetry "nonsynostotic origin" caused by external forces and sometimes attributes to the SIDS: -Torticollis -hydrocephaly -plagiocephaly -craniocephaly

plagiocephaly

The muscles that pass the posterior to the lateral malleolus act to: -plantarflex and evert the foot -dorsiflex and evert the foot -plantarflex and invert the foot -dorsiflex and invert the foot

plantarflex and evert the foot

When the limb moves from midstance to terminal stance what muscle group contracts and in what manner? -plantarflexors: concentric -plantarflexors: eccentric -dorsiflexors: concentric -dorsiflexors: eccentric

plantarflexors: eccentric

A patient is seen in the hospital. The patient presents with a L1 burst fracture from a snowmobile accident. Which orthosis would be more appropriate: -knight-taylor TLSO -BOB "overlapping style" LSO -Jewett TLSO -Polymer TLSO

polymer TLSO

The position of the thoracic facets most easily allows for which movements? -rotation and extension -rotation and lateral flexion -flexion and abduction -flexion and extension

rotation and lateral flexion

Hydrocephalus often accompanies which of the following? -meningitis -positional plagiocephaly -ehlers-danlos syndrome -spina bifida

spina bifida

Spastic paralysis may result from? -spinal cord injury -peripheral nerve injury -poliomyelitis

spinal cord injury

What is the superior margin of the paraspinal bars on a Taylor TLSO? -L1 -spine of the scapula -inferior angle of he scapula superior angle of the scapula

spine of the scapula

Anterior displacement of the vertebral body on the lower vertebrae is called what: -spondylolisthesis -spondylosis -spondylitis -spinal stenosis

spondylolisthesis

What pathology would indicate the use of a Williams Flexion LSO: -anterior compression fractures -burst fractures -spondylolisthesis -lumbar scoliosis

spondylolisthesis

When turning a conventional AFO into a dorsiflexion assist AFO, how would you set up the double action ankle joint: -springs in the anterior channel -pins in the anterior channel -springs in the posterior channel -pins in the posterior channel

springs in the posterior channel

The opposition of the thumb and index finger is known as: -tendonesis -flexion -extension -lumbrical opposition

tendonesis

All of the following muscle insert on the greater trochanter of the femur EXCEPT: -gluteus medius -piriformis -gluteus minimus -obturator internus -tensor fascia latae

tensor fascia latae

In addition to the deltoid, the axillary nerve innervates the: -teres minor -teres major -short head of the triceps brachii -subscapularis

teres minor

Maximum dorsiflexion occurs during which phase of gai? -initial contact -mid swing -terminal stance -push off

terminal stance

The muscle length-tension relationship describes: -the concept that strength of a muscle changes depending on the affected joint's position through its arc of motion -the concept that a contracted muscle is inherently a strong muscle -the concept that the farther a force is placed from a fulcrum point, the stronger the force on the fulcrum will be -the concept that the strength of a muscle can be measured in direct relation to the cross sectional area of the muscle

the concept that strength of a muscle changes depending on the affected joint's position through its arc of motion

Which of the following is charged with regulating workplace safety and health legislation? -HIPAA -OSHA -AAOP -CMS

OSHA

Having a patient perform a heel raise, screens what myotomal level: -L4 -L2 -S1 -L5

S1

A patient presenting with hyperextension of the 4th and 5th metacarpal phalangeal joints and flexion of the interphalangeal joints likely has a wrist level lesion of which nerve? -musculocutaneous -median -radial -ulnar

ulnar

The claw hand appearance is characterized by an injury to what nerve: -ulnar nerve -median nerve -radial nerve -musculocutaneous nerve

ulnar nerve

The clawhand appearance of the hand is due to damage of what nerve: -ulnar nerve -median nerve -radial nerve -musculocutaneous nerve

ulnar nerve

What gait deviation would you primarily expect to see with a tibial nerve lesion? -dropfoot through swing phase -over pronation in weight bearing -plantarflexion contracture -uncontrolled tibial advancement in stance phase

uncontrolled tibial advancement in stance phase

Which of the following is not a biarticular muscle? -semitendinosis -biceps femoris -vastus medialis -rectus femoris

vastus medialis

Which term best pertains to the palm of the hand and the sole of the foot? -dorsum -caudal -volar -varum

volar

A patient is seen in the hospital. The patient presents with a T11 anterior compression fracture from a bike accident. The patient is neurologically intact and the fracture is stable. Which orthosis(s) would be most appropriate: -CASH TLSO -Williams LSO -Jewett TLSO -Corset LSO

-CASH TLSO -Jewett TLSO

What are some of the biomechanical principals behind a LSO coreset? Choose all that apply: -Kinesthetic reminder -Increased intra-abdominal pressure -Multiple three point pressure systems -Decreased lumbar lordosis

-Kinesthetic reminder -Increased intra-abdominal pressure -Multiple three point pressure systems

A patient is seen in clinic. The patient is utilizing foot orthotics with 3/8" heel lifts to decrease inflammation of her heel chord "achilles tendonitis." What lumbar pathologies could this aggravate: -anterior compression fractures of the lumbar spine -L5-S1 spondylolisthesis -DJD of the lumbar facet joints -Lumbar spondylolysis

-L5-S1 spondylolisthesis -DJD of the lumbar facet joints -Lumbar spondylolysis

A patient is seen in clinic. The patient presents with a separated connective tissue in her symphysis pubis. What orthosis is recommended and what hormone can cause the elasticity of the symphysis pubis to increase during pregnancy, choose two answers: -Custom LSO with bilateral hip spica' s -Relaxin hormone -Elastin Hormone -SI Belt

-Relaxin hormone -SI belt

When applying a HALO CTLSO for pediatric applications, how may your protocol differ from adult applications: -Use less HALO pins -Use more HALO pins -Use more torque on the pins -Use less torque on the pins

-Use more HALO pins -Use less torque on the HAL pins

A patient is seen in clinic, you are filling in for a sick practitioner whom delivered a KAFO 1 week earlier. The patient was provided the KAFO as he has 30 degrees genu Recurvatum and a 15 degree fixed plantarflexion contracture. The patient states he has a hard time getting over his foot at midstance and that while his knee extension is decreased he feels excessive pressure on the posterior aspect of his knee. What adjustments or additions can you make to remedy this problem: -dorsiflex the ankle joint -add a 15 degree tapered heel wedge to the foot plate -recommend rocker sole shoe -add a contralateral heel lift

-add a 15 degree tapered heel wedge to the foot plate -add a contralateral heel lift

With regards to spondylolisthesis, what are the radiographic signs that contraindicate orthotic intervention and indicate a surgical candidate: -anterior translation of the superior vertebrae over the inferior vertebrae greater than 25% -superior vertebrae angulation of 25 degrees relative to the inferior vertebrae -anterior translation of the superior vertebrae over the inferior vertebrae greater than 50% -superior vertebrae angulation of 50 degrees relative to the inferior vertebrae

-anterior translation of the superior vertebrae over the inferior vertebrae greater than 50% -superior vertebrae angulation of 50 degrees relative to the inferior vertebrae

Choose all that describe the design of a GRAFO: -anterior/distal and posterior/proximal openings -anterior/distal and posterior/proximal areas of AFO contact -posterior/distal and anterior/proximal openings -posterior/distal and anterior/proximal areas of AFO contact

-anterior/distal and posterior/proximal openings -posterior/distal and anterior/proximal areas of AFO contact

Choose all answers that are clinical "visible by the eye" signs of scoliosis: -arm gap, shoulder asymmetry -pelvic obliquity -rib hump -prominent scapula

-arm gap, shoulder asymmetry -pelvic obliquity -rib hump -prominent scapula

Choose all the pathologies that indicate the need for a first ray relief and lateral wedge in a functional foot orthotic: -cavo varus foot -peroneal tendon dysfunction -chronic lateral ankle sprains -jones fracture

-cavo varus foot -peroneal tendon dysfunction -chronic lateral ankle sprains -jones fracture

A patellar tendon bearing AFO is indicated for which pathologies: -charcot joint -avascular necrosis of the talus -osteoarthritis of the ankle joint -calcaneal fracture

-charcot joint -avascular necrosis of the talus -osteoarthritis of the ankle joint -calcaneal fracture

What are the characteristics of the congenital abnormality in infants called torticollis? Choose all that apply: -contracture of the sternocleidomastoid -ipsilateral head tilt -contralateral head rotation -often treated with a TOT orthosis "tubular orthosis for torticollis" which can be worn while the infant is sleeping

-contracture of the sternocleidomastoid -ipsilateral head tilt -contralateral head rotation

What would you recommend for additions to an articulated AFO for drop foot and posterior lateral hyperextension thrust of the knee (mild tone is present): -elevation of the 2nd-5th MTP joints and digits -1/4" heel/lateral wedge -PF stop -metatarsal pad

-elevation of the 2nd-5th MTP joints and digits -1/4" heel/lateral wedge -PF stop -metatarsal pad

When designing a thermoplastic KAFO for a patient with severe genu Recurvatum, what can you incorporate that will help control knee hyperextension: -extending the distal/posterior thigh trimline more distally -decreasing the depth of the thigh section -extending the proximal/posterior trimline proximally -decreasing the depth of the calf section

-extending the distal/posterior thigh trimline more distally -decreasing the depth of the thigh section -extending the proximal/posterior trimline proximally -decreasing the depth of the calf section

What additions can you make to an AFO to decrease excessive pronation within the AFO: -extrinsic medial wedge -medial sabolich tab or trimline -sustentaculum tali "ST" pad -extrinsic lateral wedge

-extrinsic medial wedge -medial sabolich tab or trimline -sustentaculum tali "ST" pad

Select all that are found in Scarpa's triangle (femoral triangle): -femoral nerve -femoral artery -sartorius muscle -inguinal lymph nodes

-femoral nerve -femoral artery -sartorius muscle -inguinal lymph nodes

You have provided a patient with an articulated AFO and PF stop. When the patient ambulates you notice that they have pronounced knee flexion during loading response. Choose the options that can cause this: -firm extrinsic heel wedge -PF stop is too dorsiflexed -shoe heel is too soft -PF stop is too plantarflexed

-firm extrinsic heel wedge -PF stop is too dorsiflexed

A patient has failed conservative treatment for plantar fasciitis including foot orthotics, physical therapy, shoe wear modifications. Choose all that are common surgical interventions: -gastroc lengthening procedure -plantar fascia release -ankle fusion -triple arthrodesis

-gastroc lengthening procedure -plantar fascia release

Sarmiento style fracture orthoses utilize which biomechanical principles for fracture management? Choose all that apply: -multiple 3-point pressure system -total contact -long lever arms -hydrostatic tissue loading

-multiple 3-point pressure system -total contact -long lever arms -hydrostatic tissue loading

A patient is seen in clinic with a flaccid ankle plantarflexors and dorsiflexors. Choose appropriate double action ankle joint configurations: -springs in anterior and posterior channels -pins in the posterior channels with springs in the anterior channels -pins in the anterior and posterior channels -springs in the posterior channel and pins in the anterior channels

-pins in the anterior and posterior channels -springs in the posterior channel and pins in the anterior channels

Choose all the pathologies that indicate the need for medial longitudinal arch support in a functional foot orthotic: -plantar fasciitis -posterior tibialis tendon dysfunction -knee osteoarthritis in the lateral compartment -pes plano valgus

-plantar fasciitis -posterior tibialis tendon dysfunction -knee osteoarthritis in the lateral compartment -pes plano valgus

How much length beyond the toes should be allowed when measuring in non-weight bearing for diabetic extra depth shoes? -1/4" -1/2" -3/4" -1"

1/2"

When fabricating a rancho style HO (hand orthosis), what length would you terminate the thumb post at: -1st digit IP joint -2nd digit mid finger nail bed -1st digit MP joint -1st digit mid finger nail bed

1st digit mid finger nail bed

What percent of the gait cycle is spent in double limb support? -10% -20% -40% -60%

20%

What is the proper placement of the proximal edge of the calf band on a conventional AFO? -20mm below fibular neck -30mm below fibular neck -35mm below fibular neck -54mm below fibular neck

20mm below fibular neck

During normal heel strike, the forward hip is how flexed: -neutral -10 degrees flexed -25 degrees flexed -40 degrees flexed

25 degrees flexed

The medial edge of an adult KAFO should terminate proximally: -at the transverse plane of the ischial tuberosity -1.25cm (0.5") distal to the greater trochanter -3.8cm (1.5") distal to the perineum -5.1cm (2") inferior to the lateral proximal edge

3.8cm (1.5") distal to the perineum

When a HALO application is finished all pins for an adult should be torqued to ________ and between 24-48 hours the pins should be_________: -6-8 inch pounds -6-8 newton meters -re-torqued -removed, disinfected, applied, and re-torqued

6-8 inch pounds re-torqued

The stance phase of gait makes up what percent of the gait cycle during ordinary walking speeds: -40% -60% -50% -20%

60%

In normal gait, maximum knee flexion reached approximately: -30-35 degrees -35-40 degrees -45-50 degrees -60-65 degrees

60-65 degrees

How many continuing education credits must a single discipline orthotist earn every 5 years in order to remain compliant with American Board for Certification? How many must be Scientific Class I credits? -50:25 -50:50 -75:50 -100:75

75:50

What is the appropriate torque for halo pins in an adult patient? -4 inch pounds -8 inch pounds -4 newton meters -8 newton meters

8 inch pounds

The measured ML of an anatomical ankle joint is 8.3cm (3 1/4"). What should the inside measurement for your mechanical ankle joint be? -8.7cm (3 7/16") -9.2cm (3 5/8") -9.4cm (3 11/16") -10.0cm (3 15/16")

9.2cm (3 5/8")

The "unhappy triad" includes injury to what structures: -ACL, PCL, medial meniscus -MCL, PCL, lateral meniscus -LCL, ACL, medial meniscus -ACL, MCL, medial meniscus

ACL, MCL, medial meniscus

You are seeing a patient with a one year history of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis. She is ambulating with bilateral canes, shows limited endurance and foot drop. Based on the diagnosis what device would you recommend for trial: -ALS is a progressive degenerative disease where due to the progressive nature you feel trial of AFO would be appropriate due to her fatigue and foot drop -ALS is an acute inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy affecting the peripheral nervous system. Due to her likely full recovery, you feel she will regain strength in her ankle dorsiflexors and therefore would not need an AFO. Would be best to wait to see progress -ALS usually presents with ataxia. You feel the patient would be better served with a walker versus consideration of a wheelchair for safety mobility -ALS will present with cereballar signs and radicular pain. You feel the patient will benefit from an assessment of AFO

ALS is a progressive degenerative disease where due to the progressive nature you feel trial of AFO would be appropriate due to her fatigue and foot drop

A Knight Taylor TLSO is classified as __________ where a Taylor TLSO is classified as_________: -ML control, AP control -AP ML control, ML control -AP ML control, AP control -AP control, ML control

AP ML control, AP control

A patient is seen in clinic. She presents with severe chronic bilateral posterior tibialis tendon dysfunction "PTTD." She has worn custom UCBL's in the past but they were ineffective. What would be the most appropriate recommendation given her presentation and past: -SMO's -Motion control pronator type shoes -Articulating AFO -Walking boot "off the shelf type"

Articulating AFO

Which is not considered a business associate under HIPAA regulations? -Courier -Attorney -Accounting Services -Independent medical transcriptionist

Courier

During which phase of gait are the hip extensors must active? -loading response -midstance -preswing -terminal stance

loading stance

An injury to the axillary nerve results in paralysis of the teres minor and ____________ . -rotator cuff muscles -brachial plexus -deltoid -teres major

Deltoid

Gowers sign is seen when a person gets up from the floor, walking hands up his leg to get upright. Choose the most common diagnosis where this is seen: -Duschenne Muscular Dystrophy -Spina Bifida -Cerebral Palsy -Legg-Calve Perthes

Duschenne Muscular Dystrophy

Which of the following is often the result of an irregular birth? -Gower's -down syndrome -Erb's Palsy -spina bifida

Erb's Palsy

A brachial plexus injury occurs resulting in decreased wrist and hand function. Choose which type of brachial plexus injury would likely be the cause: -Erb's palsy -Klumpke's palsy -Trisomy 21 -Ulnar neuritis

Erb's palsy

A patient with cavo varus foot and peroneal tendonitis should utilize their functional foot orthotics (1st ray relief, extrinsic lateral wedge) with a pronator motion control type shoe. True or False

False

A 16 year old patient suffered fractures of C4 and C5 following trauma received in MVA. Maximum stabilization of his cervical spine can best be achieved with a: -four post orthosis -SOMI -milwaukee -HALO

HALO

A patient is seen at the local hospital ortho/neuro floor. The patient presents with an unstable odontoid fracture. What orthosis would you recommend: -minerva -malibu -CTO -HALO CTLSO

HALO CTLSO

You are working with a therapist on gait training for a patient that has a L1 complete spinal cord injury along with another patient that has an L4 spinal cord injury. What bracing would you expect most appropriate for these patients and ambulation tolerance respectively: -L1 spinal cord injury: independent ambulation with KAFO household distance. L4 spinal cord injury: AFO, community ambulator independent -L1 spinal cord injury: Independent with all manual wheelchair skills, non ambulatory, no bracing. L4 spinal cord injury: KAFO, independent with household distances -L1 spinal cord injury: no ambulation, independent with transfers, bed mobility, wheelchair mobility. L4 spinal cord injury: AFO, independent with community mobility -L1 spinal cord injury: AFO, household mobility. L4 spinal cord injury: AFO, independent with community mobility

L1 spinal cord injury: independent ambulation with KAFO household distance. L4 spinal cord injury: AFO, community ambulator independent

At which vertebral level does the cauda equine begin? -L2 -L3 -L5 -S1

L2

The most superior part of the iliac crest corresponds to: -L1 -L4 -T11 -T10

L4

A patient is seen in clinic. The patient presents with DX: lower lumbar stenosis and a RX: LSO align appropriately. Which option would you recommend: -LSO aligned in flexion -LSO aligned in extension -TLSO aligned in flexion -TLSO aligned in extension

LSO aligned in flexion

Which components of an upper extremity orthosis would best aid in prevention of a claw had deformity? -thumb post and IP extension assist -MCP extension stop and IP extension assist -MCP flexion stop and IP flexion assist -lateral thumb post and MCP extension stop

MCP extension stop and IP extension assist

Pick the following choices that best describes Legg-Calve-Perthes disease (osteochondrosis): -Males>Females, age onset 13 years, AROM restricted in abduction, flexion and internal rotation, vague pain at hip, knee and thigh -Etiologies resulting in lack of blood supply to the femoral head, AROM is decreased in hip flexion, internal rotation, and abduction, pain at groin, thigh, tenderness at hip -Males>Females, average age onset 6 years old, psoatic limp due to psoas major weakness, lower extremity moves into external rotation, flexion and adduction, MRI will show collapse of subchondral bone at femoral neck -characterized by restriction in shoulder motion in external rotation, abduction and flexion, inflammation and fibrosis at the shoulder

Males>Females, average age onset 6 years old, psoatic limp due to psoas major weakness, lower extremity moves into external rotation, flexion and adduction, MRI will show collapse of subchondral bone at femoral neck

A scoliosis patient is seen in clinic. Upon radiographic reading you note that the thoracic curve apex is located at T6. Which orthosis is appropriate: -Boston System -Charleston Bending Brace -Jewett TLSO -Milwaukee CTLSO

Milwaukee CTLSO

Mrs. Backscratch, a patient of Dr. Heart comes into your office and tells you that her friend was fitted with a lumbosacral support low back pain and that she tried her corset on and it felt really good. You have an excellent working relationship with Dr. Heart, and you feel it will be ok with him to fit her with a corset similar to her friend. Are you correct in fitting her with the device even though you do not have a prescription and plan on billing Ms. Backscratch's insurance company. Yes or No?

No

When taking an impression for a custom polymer LSO for a patient with L5, S1 spondylolisthesis, how would you position the patient if they were allowed to stand through the procedure: -Patient should be standing upright with hips extended -Patient should stand with normal posture -Patient should be asked to arch their lower lumbar spine -Patient should be asked to flex their hip and knees slightly

Patient should be asked to flex their hip and knees slightly

A patient with a diagnosis of Brown Sequard Syndrome (SCI) which occurred at C4 affecting his right upper extremity and right lower extremity comes to your clinic for an LE orthosis. He is ambulatory but requires minimal assistance. Initially, what assistive device would be most appropriate and in what extremity: -SPC "cane" on the right side -SPC "cane" on the left side -Front wheeled walker -crutches

SPC "cane" on the left side

Why is Sheurmann's Kyphosis typically easier to manage with an orthosis compared to scoliosis: -it is more common in males and previous research suggests male patient's are more compliant with orthotic wearing schedules relative to female patient's -the curve magnitudes are always less than scoliotic curve magnitudes making them easier to correct -Sheurmann's Kyphosis only has a sagittal plane components of deformity -It is easier to diagnose early in life relative to scoliosis

Sheurmann's Kyphosis only has a sagittal plane component of deformity

Which diagnosis would be most appropriate to fit with a CASH or Jewett style orthosis? -T12 compression fx -L3 burst fx -T6 compression fx -T11 chance fx

T12 compression fx

Prior to making adjustment on a patient's device, the technician should use universal precautions. true or false

True

The mechanical ankle and knee joints on a patient's KAFO device must be aligned in the same plane in order to achieve optimum performance and minimize joint wear. True or No?

True

A patient has sustained a stroke and you note that he has a flexion synergy pattern in his upper extremity and lower extremity. Pick the best answer that describes both synergy patterns: -UE: shoulder abduction, internal rotation, elbow flexion, forearm pronation, wrist flexion. LE: hip flexion, abduction, external rotation, knee flexion, ankle dorsiflexion, inversion -UE: shoulder abduction, internal rotation, elbow flexion, forearm supination, wrist flexion. LE: hip flexion, abduction, external rotation, knee flexion, ankle dorsiflexion, inversion -UE: shoulder adduction, internal rotation, elbow extension, forearm pronation, wrist flexion. LE: hip flexion, abduction, knee extension, ankle plantarflexion -UE: shoulder adduction, internal rotation, elbow extension, forearm pronation, wrist flexion. LE: hip extension, adduction, internal rotation, ankle plantarflexion

UE: shoulder abduction, internal rotation, elbow flexion, forearm supination, wrist flexion. LE: hip flexion, abduction, external rotation, knee flexion, ankle dorsiflexion, inversion

A patient is seen in clinic. The patient presents with her radial nerve intact and severed median and ulnar nerves. What orthosis would you recommended: -rancho style HO -WHFO (wrist driven flexor hinge) -Static WHFO -WHO (in anatomical position)

WHFO (wrist driven flexor hinge)

What is the most appropriate for a median nerve injury at the wrist? -WHO -WHO with C bar -HO -WHO with thumb post

WHO with thumb post

Which of the following is not true about Sheurmann's kyphosis? -it may be treated using a Milwaukee CTLSO -it is a sagittal plane deformity -a LSO to posteriorly tilt pelvis will improve this condition -it is an idiopathic juvenile disorder

a LSO to posteriorly tilt pelvis will improve this condition

To best minimize gait deviations in a patient with right gluteus maximus and gluteus minimus weakness a patient requires: -a cane on the right side -a cane on the left side -an walker or bilateral forearm crutches -an KAFO on the right side

a cane on the left side

A patient with a charcot foot is most likely to present with: -a rigid hallux valgus -a high cavus arch -weakness in the plantarflexors -a collapsed and inflamed arch

a collapsed inflamed arch

A patient presents in your office for treatment off knee pain due to medial osteoarthritis. Which is most likely to improve your patient's symptoms? -a neoprene knee orthosis with hinges to limit flexion to 60 degrees -a double upright knee orthosis aligned in valgus -a double upright knee orthosis with the corrective pressure on the medial condyle pad -a solid ankle AFO with medial rearfoot wedge

a double upright knee orthosis aligned in valgus

Aponeurosis is: -a flat broad tendon -a thin tendon sheath -a membrane dividing muscle compartment -synovial joint lining

a flat broad tendon

You see a patient post triple ankle arthrodesis. What is the best device to provide? -a negative heel shoe modification -a rocker sole with SACH heel wedge -a corrective foot orthosis -a CROW boot

a rocker sole with SACH heel wedge

You are seeing a patient in acute rehab with a physical therapist. This patient has had a CVA. Upon examination you see foot drop during gait, weak dorsiflexors grade 2, weak inversion and eversion grade 2, and increased tone in her plantarflexors. What would be an appropriate orthotic device: -a dorsiflexion assist -off the shelf carbon fiber AFO -spiral AFO -a solid ankle AFO

a solid ankle AFO

A patient comes into your office for an orthosis to prevent glenohumeral subluxation. What position should the shoulder be placed in? -flexion and internal rotation -adduction and external rotation -extension and external rotation -abduction and internal rotation

abduction and internal rotation

To promote healing in a case of Legg Calve Perthes disease, the hip should be positioned in: -abduction and internal rotation -adduction and external rotation -abduction and flexion -adduction and extension

abduction and internal rotation

Injury to the tibial nerve on the right leg, would cause which gait deviation: -step to pattern on the unaffected side -step to pattern on the affected side -foot drop and shortened step length on the unaffected side -absent push off during gait cycle, decreased step length on unaffected side

absent push off during gait cycle, decreased step length on unaffected side

Taking assignment with medicare means that the provider will: -accept reimbursement as 80% of medicare usually and customary -accept the amount medicare approves as payment in full -accept medicare payment as 80% and bill the patient remaining 20% -accept all medicare patients seeking devices described by a-codes (diabetic codes)

accept the amount medicare approves as payment in full

Venous return of the blood to the heart is assisted by which of the following? -positive pressure in the heart -action of the skeletal muscles -dilation of the arterial walls -arterial blood pressure

action of the skeletal muscles

A patient is seen in clinic. The patient has bilateral pars fractures at L5 and is currently utilizing a custom polymer overlapping style LSO with decreased lumbar lordosis. The physician is not satisfied with the orthosis results and wants to know what you can do to further immobilize the fracture site? Choose the appropriate answer: -Decrease lumbar lordosis further -Recommend an RX change to a polymer TLSO -Increase lumbar lordosis slightly -Add a hip spica to the LSO

add a hip spica to the LSO

During a follow up appointment with a 71 y.o. status post CVA patient who lives alone, you fitted with a custom fab AFO with solid ankle & flexible full footplate, PE reveals a reddened area on the tibial crest area the patient deny any pain or discomfort. Prior to scheduling for her 6 month follow up visit you should: -add a hypoallergenic pad to the anterior Velcro closure -shorten footplate to reduce friction in her shoe -counsel the patient to watch the pressure area & add a 'band-aid' to her skin if blistule present -call her insurance company to ask for permission to make new AFO device

add a hypoallergenic pad to the anterior Velcro closure

A patient is seen in clinic for a follow up appointment and is disappointed with the results of his custom foot orthotics. The patient is being treated by you for a Mortons Neuroma (between the 3rd and 4th metatarsals). The foot orthotic you provided has utilized "MLA support and Carlson modifications." what modification would be most effective to increase the effectiveness of the foot orthotics: -increase MLA support -change the top cover to softer durometer -add a metatarsal pad -add a lateral extrinsic wedge

add a metatarsal pad

Following a circular amputation at the mid thigh, muscles retract unevenly, with those having no femoral attachment retracting the most. Which of the muscle would retract the LEAST? -sartorius -adductor longus -semimembranous -gracilis -rectus femoris

adductor longus

In the hospital you see a 6 year old girl with spina bifida. You are consulted due to the patient's club foot and 30 degree thoracic curvature. Please circle one choice that would be part of the normal treatment for a child with spina bifida: -prevent contractures due to neurologic deformities -with hydrocephalus, decompress and place shunt in place -prevent pressure sores -fit patient with an AFO with a TLSO -all of the above

all of the above

A 16 year old patient has suffered an L2 complete spinal cord injury. What would be the most likely functional expectation and orthosis for this patient: -ambulation using bilateral KAFOs and a walker -ambulation using reciprocating gait orthosis -ambulation with bilateral AFOs and canes -wheelchair mobility

ambulation with bilateral AFOs and canes

The axis of rotation of the hip joint is located: -anterior & superior to the greater trochanter -posterior & superior to the greater trochanter -anterior & inferior to the greater trochanter -posterior & inferior to the greater trochanter

anterior & superior to the greater trochanter

The most appropriate orthotic treatment of a patient with a T12 compression fracture is: -thoracolumbar corset -CTO -bivalve TLSO with reduced lordosis -anterior control hyperextension orthosis

anterior control hyperextension orthosis

Spondylolisthesis is a condition best described as: -a fracture of the pars articularis -anterior displacement of the L5 vertebra in relation tot he sacrum -anterior displacement of the sacrum in relation to the L5 vertebra -a subluxation of the superior facet

anterior displacement of the L5 vertebrae in relation to the sacrum

An orthosis for a patient post anterior cruciate ligament reconstruction should primarily control: -flexion of the knee -varus angulation of the knee -anterior displacement of the tibia on the femur -posterior displacement of the tibia on the femur

anterior displacement of the tibia on the femur

A patient with hyperkyphosis is placed in a Milwaukee CTLSO for treatment. Where should the corrective pressures be placed? -anterior throat ring, anterior thoracic pad -anterior throat ring, posterior thoracic pad -posterior throat ring, anterior thoracic pad -posterior throat ring, posterior thoracic pad

anterior throat ring, posterior thoracic pad

During swing phase of the gait cycle what muscles are active to achieve dorsiflexion: -anterior tibialis, extensor hallucis longus, extensor digitorum longus -anterior tibialis, peronous brevis, extensor digitorum longus -anterior tibialis, gastroc soleus, extensor digitorum longus -anterior tibialis, extensor hallucis longus, tibialis posterior

anterior tibialis, extensor hallucis longus, extensor digitorum longus

Injury to the median nerve will result in what characteristic appearance when a patient tries to make a fist: -ape hand -claw hand -hand of benediction

ape hand hand of benediction

When instructing a patient to ascend/descend stairs with unilateral weakness, which is appropriate? -ascending leading with the sound limb; descend leading with the sound limb -ascend leading with the affected limb; descend leading with the sound limb -ascend leading with the sound limb; descend leading with the affected limb -always use a step-to gait, leading with the sound limb on ascent and decent

ascend leading with the sound limb; descend leading with the affected limb

A patient comes into the office exhibiting lasting redness on the navicular and medial malleolus after wearing her new AFO. What adjustment is most likely to correct this problem? -remake with a lateral sabolich extension -move the ankle strap so that the chafe is medial and the strap is lateral -adjust the medial trimline posterior to the medial malleolus and inferior to the navicular -at a firm pad to increase pressure under the sustentaculum tali

at a firm pad to increase pressure under the sustentaculum tali

At heel strike the knee joint is at ________ while the ankle joint is at ________: -at neutral/full extension, 90 degrees/neutral -10 degrees flexed, 5 degrees plantarflexed -neutral, 10 degrees dorsiflexion

at neutral/full extension, 90 degrees/neutral

A patient sustains a Hangman fracture. This fracture can cause quadriplegia. What vertebrae and location of the facture is damaged: -atlas, lamina (pars Interarticularis), C2 -Axis, lamina (pars Interarticularis), C1 -C3, transverse process -Axis, spinous process C1

atlas, lamina (pars Interarticularis), C2

A patient comes into your office stating low back pain caused by hyperlordosis. What advise might you give your patient to reduce symptoms? -avoid sleeping with the knees flexed -avoid wearing shoes with a heel higher than 3/8" -avoid crunches or other core exercises -focus on posture and practicing decreasing posterior pelvic tilt

avoid wearing shoes with a heel height higher than 3/8"

Which of the following is the least likely to increase the likelihood of an infant developing a positional deformation of the cranium? -infant is a twin or triplet -low amniotic fluid in utero -diagnosis of osteogenesis imperfect -below 50% on weight chart at 4 months of age

below 50% on weight chart at 4 months of age

When measuring a patient for a TLSO hyperextension orthosis, the patient should be in which position; -sitting -standing -supine -prone -both supine & standing

both supine & standing

What is the prime elbow flexor? -brachialis -coracobrachialis -biceps femoris -brachioradialis

brachialis

Which muscle does not act on the wrist: -flexor digitorum profundus -palmaris longus -brachioradialis -flexor carpi ulnaris

brachioradialis

Which of the following would not be affected by a proximal lesion of the musculocutaneous nerve? -brachioradialis -biceps brachii -coracobrachialis -brachialis

brachioradialis

What is the lubricant filled sac which, if removed, results in increased friction? -bursa -synovium -ganglia -nucleus pulposis

bursa

The superficial group of calf muscle (posterior crural muscles) are all inserted into the? -fibula -navicular -talus -tibia -calcaneus

calcaneus

The subtalar joint is an articulation between the talus and the ________ and primarily allows ___________. -calcaneus: inversion/eversion -tibia and fibula: inversion/eversion -calcaneus: dorsiflexion/plantarflexion -tibia and fibula: dorsiflexion/plantarflexion

calcaneus: inversion/eversion

What abnormal motion of the calf band will occur if the mechanical ankle joint of an AFO is located too proximal in relation to the anatomical ankle joint? -calf band migrates proximally with plantarflexion and distally with dorsiflexion -calf band migrates proximally with plantarflexion and dorsiflexion -calf band migrates distally with plantarflexion and proximally with dorsiflexion -calf band migrates distally with plantarflexion and dorsiflexion

calf band migrates distally with plantarflexion and dorsiflexion

Movement of the thumb called opposition occurs at the? -carpo-metacarpal joint -interphalangeal joint -radiocarpal joint -metacarpophalangeal joint

carpometacarpal joint

Opposition of the thumb occurs at which joint? -metacarpophalangeal joint -interphalangeal joint -radiocarpal joint -carpometacarpal joint

carpometacarpal joint

What is the primary target organ in rheumatoid arthritis? -bone -collagen -ligament -cartilage

cartilage

Which motion is viewed in the coronal plane? -elbow flexion/extension -forearm supination/pronation -cervical lateral flexion -ankle plantarflexion/dorsiflexion

cervical lateral flexion

Which diagnosis best fits the following description: A hereditary disease that affects both the sensory and motor peripheral nerves. -poliomyelitis -charcot marie tooth -guillain barre -duchenne muscular dystrophy

charcot marie tooth

A patient is seen in clinic for a follow up appointment and is disappointed with the results of his custom solid ankle foot orthotic as he still has a pronounced knee hyperextension moment during stance phase of gait. You noticed this at his last follow up and had your technician add a 1/4" heel lift to relatively dorsiflex the SAFO to decrease the knee extension moment in stance. What should your first reaction be to this: -Re-fabricate the SAFO and incorporate increased dorsiflexion -check the durometer of the 1/4" heel lift your technician added -re-fabricate the SAFO to incorporate increased plantarflexion -add a SACH heel to the patient's shoe

check the durometer of the 1/4" heel lift your technician added

An involuntary oscillating movement elicited by a rapid stretch is: -spasticity -high tone -contracture -clonus

clonus

Which of the following statement is most accurate? -coding should be done based on your experience as a clinician -it is the office administrator's responsibility to determine accurate coding -coding decisions should accurately reflect appropriately provided services -correctly completed coding should generate the maximum revenue

coding decisions should accurately reflect appropriately provided services

When fabricating an AFO the lateral proximal trimline is located approximately 1 inch inferior to the fibular neck. What anatomical structure are you trying to avoid by doing this: -fibular head -saphenous nerve -common fibular nerve -tibial nerve

common fibular nerve

You see a patient who describes pain in her shoulder after chopping wood. You find on physical examination weakness with shoulder flexion and you note scapular winging. The patient's problem could be accounted by what MOST LIKELY: -compression of axillary nerve -rotator cuff impingement and tendonitis -compression of the long thoracic nerve -compression of the suprascapular nerve

compression of the long thoracic nerve

You see a patient who describes pain in her shoulder after chopping wood. You find on physical examination weakness with shoulder flexion and you note scapular winging. The patient's problem could be accounted by what MOST LIKELY: -compression of axillary nerve -rotator cuff impingement and tendonitis -compression of the long thoracic nerve -compression of the suprascapular nerve

compression of the long thoracic nerve

A patient with spina bifida comes into your office after utilizing bilateral AFOs for 6 weeks. After re-evaluating their muscle strength you will likely tell them which of the following? -continue to wear the AFOs as muscle strength has changed little -the AFOs can now be cut to SMOs as pt has recovered plantarflexor strength -add anterior panels at pt's weakness has progressed -add padding to calf section as pt's sensation deficit has progressed more proximally

continue to wear the AFOs as muscle strength has changed little

A patient is diagnosed with an anterior cerebral artery stroke. You may need to assist with bracing. Based on the diagnosis you expect that the patient will present with: -contralateral hemiparesis, leg more affected than the arm -contralateral hemiparesis, arm more affected than the leg -ipsilateral ataxia, decreased pain and temperature to the face -quadriplegia, bulbar paralysis, preserved consciousness

contralateral hemiparesis, leg more affected than the arm

When examining a scoliosis radiograph, the vertebral body is seen to rotate toward the ___________ in relation to the curve and the spinous process is seen to rotate toward the _______ in relation to the curve: -concavity, convexity -convexity, concavity -convexity, convexity -concavity, concavity

convexity, concavity

Which is not a part of the scapula? -glenoid cavity -coracoid process -coronoid process -acromion process

coronoid process

A patient is seen in clinic. DX: Sheurmann's Kyphosis apex = T9, RX: orthosis. What type of orthosis would you recommend: -an off the self TLSO modified with thoracic extension -custom TLSO -custom CTLSO -Jewett TLSO

custom TLSO

A patient is seen in clinic and presents with L5, S1 spondylolisthesis. The patient has handed you a script with RX: LSO aligned appropriately. How would toy align the patient in the sagittal plane: -increase lumbar lordosis -decrease lumbar lordosis -utilize three point pressure systems to provide ML stability -increase intra-abdominal pressure

decrease lumbar lordosis

A patient is seen in clinic and presents with lumbar DJD. The patient has handed you a script with RX: LSO aligned appropriately. How would you align the patient in the sagittal plane: -increase lumbar lordosis -decrease lumbar lordosis -utilize three point pressure system to provide ML stability -increase intra-abdominal pressure

decrease lumbar lordosis

A patient wearing a metal and leather KAFO with double adjustable ankles experiences excessive knee flexion during standing. To reduce this the orthotist should: -deepen the proximal thigh band -deflect uprights to move knee joints more posterior -deepen the calf band -add a pin to the posterior channel of the ankle joint

deepen the calf band

A patient presents with excessive tibial torsion. How should this be incorporated into a conventional double upright AFO? -provide a lateral t-strap -externally rotate the shoe on the stirrup -deflect the sidebars -externally rotate the joints

deflect the sidebars

The axillary nerve innervates teres minor. What other muscle does it innervate: -deltoid -serratus anterior -levator scapulae -pectoralis minor

deltoid

Which is not considered an upper motor neuron disease or injury? -multiple sclerosis -cerebral palsy -diabetic neuropathy -cerebrovascular accident

diabetic neuropathy

Patient is in your office for a scoliosis TLSO adjustment. You note the orthosis is too small and her latest x-ray shows risser sign of 4. What action should you take? -contact the physician for a prescription for a new orthosis -discuss weaning out of the orthosis and refer patient to physician for end of treatment -discuss moving to a nocturnal style of scoliosis TLSO -adjust the orthosis by heating and relieving the tight areas

discuss weaning out of the orthosis and refer patient to physician for end of treatment

The correct height of a mechanical ankle joint is: -apex of the medial malleolus -apex of the lateral malleolus -distal tip of the medial malleolus -1/3 of the difference between the medial and lateral malleolus

distal tip of the medial malleolus

Which of the following is not a prehension pattern? -hook -dorsal -cylindrical -lateral

dorsal

Damage to which of the following structures leads to sensation deficits? -golgi tendon organ -ventral branch of the nerve roots -dorsal branch of the nerve roots -sympathetic ganglia

dorsal branch of the nerve roots

Which muscle serves to abduct the phalanges away from the 3rd digit? -lumbricals -plantar interossei -dorsal interossei -adductor pollicis

dorsal interossei

You are seeing a patient with diagnosis of peripheral vascular disease. What is the common artery that you can palpate to assess blood flow: -dorsal pedis -popliteal artery -femoral artery -radial artery

dorsal pedis

Which nerve innervates the rhomboid muscles and levator scapulae: -long thoracic -suprascapular -dorsal scapular

dorsal scapular

The primary purpose of an AFO with trimlines posterior to the malleoli is: -knee stability -medial/lateral stability of the ankle -increase toe lever arm for push-off at terminal stance -dorsiflexion assist

dorsiflexion assist

A child is seen in clinic. The child is playing on the floor and proceeds to use his hands to stand up by pushing off of his lower extremities until upright. What is the name of this maneuver and what diagnosis does this boy most likely have: -duchennes muscular dystrophy -tinel sign -gowers sign -amyotrophic lateral sclerosis

duchennes muscular dystrophy gowers sign

Clear liquid leaking from around a loose HALO skull pin may indicate: -dural puncture -urinary retention -musculoskeletal infection

dural puncture

The Williams flexion spinal orthosis differs from APML style device in that it has a: -dynamic superior band -incongruent lateral aperture -full coreset front with buckle closure -apron front

dynamic superior band

How many pairs of nerve roots arise from the cervical areas of the spinal cord? -six -seven -eight -nine

eight

The primary function of the brachioradialis is: -elbow flexion, wrist extension -elbow flexion -supination, wrist extension -wrist radial deviation

elbow flexion

What is the primary function of brachioradialis: -elbow flexion -elbow flexion and forearm pronation -elbow flexion and wrist extension -elbow flexion and wrist flexion

elbow flexion

Which is the prime extensor of the vertebral column? -iliocostalis -erector spinae -semispinalis -quadratus lumborum

erector spinae

A patient with a complete C6 spinal cord injury powers a wrist-driven flexor hinge tenodesis orthosis by using the: -flexor digitorum sublimis -extensor digitorum communis and extensor carpi radialis -extensor carpi radialis longus and brevis -extensor digitorum communis and extensor carpi ulnaris

extensor digitorum communis and extensor carpi ulnaris

Which muscle most closely duplicates the function of the tibialis anterior? -tibialis posterior -peroneus longus -extensor hallucis longus -extensor digitorum longus

extensor hallucis longus

A child wearing a Pavlic harness in treatment for congenital dislocation of the hips should have their hips oriented in flexion and adduction. true or false

false

To find the anatomical waist you must measure the distance between the inferior costal margin and the posterior superior iliac spine, and then divide by two. True or False

false

When fabricating a Williams Flexion LSO for spondylolisthesis, the anterior corset panel should be fabricated out of an inelastic material. True or false

false

The lumbricals function to: -flex the MCP joints and the PIP joints -extend the MCP joints -flex the MCP joints and extend the PIP joints -abduct the phalanges

flex the MCP joints and extend the PIP joints

The lumbricals act to: -flex the MP joints and abduct the thumb -flex the MP joints and extend the IP joints -abduct the phalanges -extend the MP joints and flex the IP joints

flex the MP joints and extend the IP joints

Swan neck deformity refers to which position? -Flexion of the PIP joint, hyperextension of the DIP joint -flexion of the DIP joint, hyperextension of the PIP joint -hyperextension of the DIP joint, hyperextension of the PIP joint, flexion of the MCP joint -flexion of the DIP joint, flexion of the PIP joint, hyperextension of the MCP joint

flexion of the DIP joint, hyperextension of the PIP joint

A patient you are working with has a medial nerve lesion, you would expect that they will have loss of all functions EXCEPT one of the following: -abductor pollicis brevis -flexor pollicis brevis -opponens pollicis -flexor carpi ulnaris

flexor carpi ulnaris

Pressure is determined by which of the following? -force divided by torque -torque divided by area -force divided by area -area divided by force

force divided by area

What compensatory motion would most likely be seen in an individual with quadriceps weakness? -steppage gait -forward trunk lean -Trendelenburg gait -circumduction

forward trunk lean

What is the most appropriate foot orthotic for a type two diabetic: -accommodative -accommodative, fabricated out of diabetic multidensity trilaminated foam with a polypropylene base -accommodative, fabricated out of diabetic multidensity trilaminated foam with a medicare approved foam base layer -functional/accommodative, fabricated out of diabetic multidensity trilaminated foam with a medicare approved foam base layer

functional/accommodative, fabricated out of diabetic multidensity trilaminated foam with a medicare approved foam base layer

The dorsiflexion stop performs the function of which muscle(s)? -gastrocnemius/soleus -tibialis anterior/extensor hallucis longus -tibialis posterior -tibialis anterior

gastrocnemius/soleus

Which would you most expect to see in a patient with a plantarflexion contracture? -late heel rise at terminal stance -genu recurvatum at midstance -increased knee flexion at loading response -reduced knee flexion at midswing

genu recurvatum at midstance

Which pathology is most likely to be fit with free knee joints? -L2 spinal cord injury -damage to the femoral nerve -moderate knee flexion contracture -genu varum deformity

genu varum deformity

Lateral stability of the pelvis in stance phase is accomplished through the action of which muscle? -iliopsoas -gluteus medius -gluteus minimus -internal obliques

gluteus medius

The sciatic nerve innervates all these muscles EXCEPT: -semitendinosis -biceps femoris -semimembranosis -gluteus medius

gluteus medius

Trendelenburg gait can be seen in patients after they have a total hip arthroplasty, injury to the superior gluteal nerve and poliomyelitis. This is caused by weakness in what muscle: -gluteus maximus -iliopsoas -gluteus medius -abductor magnus

gluteus medius

Gower's sign is best described by which of the following? -with a semi-flexed knee and foot resting on a firm surface move the proximal tibia anteriorly and posteriorly on the femur. A tibia that moves posteriorly is a positive sign -with patient side-lying and knee supported abducted and extend the hip, a knee that does not adduct when released is a positive sign -have the patient move from a seated position on the floor to standing. the patient using his or her arms to walk up the thighs is a positive sign -have the patient supine on the bed with one leg pulled to the chest and the opposite leg extended off the table with knee flexed. a positive sign is the extended leg flexing or abducting at the hip

have the patient move from a seated position on the floor to standing. the patient using his or her arms to walk up the thighs is a positive sign

Your patient is experiencing pressure at the proximal posterior of the AFO he wears to control and mild genu recurvatum. What is the best choice to eliminate this pressure? -lower the proximal trimline 2 cm -add a 0.5 cm lift under the heel of the orthosis -heat and flare the proximal trimline -adjust the ankle joint to allow 10 degrees plantarflexion

head and flare the proximal trimline

Gait cycle is described by the activity between: -heel strike and push off -heel strike on one side and the following heel strike on the opposite side -heel off to push off on the same side -heel strike on one side and the following heel strike on the same side

heel strike on one side and the following heel strike on the same side

A single gait cycle is defined as the activity that occurs from: -heel strike on one side to heel strike on the ipsilateral side -double limb support on one side to double limb support on the contralateral side -heel off on one side to heel strike on the ipsilateral side -heel off on one side to heel strike on the contralateral side

heel strike on one side to heel strike on the ipsilateral side

A patient with Duchennes Muscular Dystrophy is seen to ambulate with increased lumbar lordosis secondary to which muscular weakness: -hip flexors -hip extensors -hip adductors -hip abductors

hip extensors

Which of the following actions are carried out by the sartorius? -hip flexion and external rotation; knee flexion -hip flexion; knee extension -hip abduction and external rotation; knee extension -hip abduction and internal rotation; knee flexion

hip flexion and external rotation; knee flexion

When testing the quad muscles group, a grade of 3 good, requires the patient to be tested in the horizontal plane and -holds test position under STRONG pressure -shows the ability to abduct the femur under moderate pressure -moves through partial ROM with minimal assistance -holds test position with no added pressure

holds test position with no added pressure

Anterior dislocation of the hip is very rare. The ligament most responsible for prevention of anterior dislocation is the? -transverse -ischiofemoral -ligament of the head of the femur -iliofemoral -pubofemoral

iliofemoral

Following a fracture of the upper third of the shaft of the femur, the proximal fragment will be flexed by full of? -gluteus maximus -iliopsoas -obturator internus -semimembranosus -vastus intermedius

iliopsoas

The primary hip flexor is the: -tensor fascia latae -iliopsoas -rectus femoris -quadriceps

iliopsoas

Which of the following muscles inserts on the lesser trochanter? -adductor longus -gluteus medius -tensor fascia latae -iliopsoas

iliopsoas

A scoliosis patient is seen in clinic for her initial evaluation. After cobbing her x-ray, you and her physician agree that she has a 35 degree left lumbar curve with no signs of progression. What should your treatment consist of at this time: -observation only at this time -refer her back to her physician for a surgical consult -recommend the use of an off the shelf corset until progression is noted -immediate scoliosis orthotics management

immediate scoliosis orthotic management

A KAFO patient is seen in clinic for follow up. The patient has utilized a KAFO for three years but has developed avascular necrosis "AVN" of the femoral condyles. What change could you make to the current KAFO to allow for minimal ambulation without slowing the reversal of AVN: -incorporate patellar tendon weight bearing -loosen thigh cuff adjacent to the femoral condyles -incorporate ischial weight bearing -lock the knee and ankle joints in the sagittal plane

incorporate ischial weight bearing

What modification can you make to an ulnar fracture orthosis to increase its effectiveness at immobilizing a distal 2/3 ulnar fracture: -cross the elbow joint for a longer lever arm -increase pressure ML for increased immobilization -increase pressure AP for increased immobilization -Add rigid aluminum stays for increased immobilization

increase pressure AP for increased immobilization

Posterior trimlines on an LSO extend from the sacrococcygeal joint to just inferior to _______. Anterior trimlines extend from symphysis pubis to the_________: -inferior angle of the scapula, xiphoid process -xiphoid process, inferior angle of the scapula -inferior angle of the scapula, sternal notch -inferior angle of the scapula, mid sternum

inferior angle of the scapula, xiphoid process

You deliver a TLSO to a patient scheduled to discharge from the hospital in one week. The hospital states they cannot issue a purchase order because the device should be billed to Medicare. You should: -bill medicare using the date of delivery at the date of service -bill medicare using the date of discharge as the date of service -inform the hospital that you cannot legally bill medicare in this situation -bill the skilled nursing facility to which the patient is scheduled to discharge

inform the hospital that you cannot legally bill medicare in this situation

Which of the following is not true of gait? -the percent of gait spent in double limb support decreases with gait speed -initial swing begins at toe off and continues until the tibia reaches vertical -stance phase accounts for approximately 60 percent of the gait cycle -when the right leg is in loading response the left leg is in preswing

initial swing begins at toe off and continues until the tibia reaches vertical

Which of the following is a benefit of fitting a SOMI CTO? -it can be fit with the patient in supine position -the chin rest can be easily removed for washing -it can be donned independently using only one hand -it restricts sagittal plane motion at C2-C4 better than other devices

it can be fit with the patient in supine position

Which of the following statements about the gluteus maximus is incorrect? -it is innervated by the inferior gluteal nerve -it functions as an internal rotator of the hip -it inserts on the gluteal tuberosity of the femur -parts of it originates on the ilium

it functions as an internal rotator of the hip

Which is not true of the thoracic pad in a Milwaukee TLSO? -it is typically L shaped -It is fitted on the convex side of the curve -it is placed over the rib that articulates with the apical vertebrae and one rib superior -for a patient with hypokyphosis the pad is directly lateral instead of posterolateral

it is placed over the rib that articulates with the apical vertebrae and one rib superior

You are testing a patient's L3, L4, and L5 myotones. Which of the following motions do you test? -hip flexion/knee extension/plantarflexion -hip flexion/knee extension/dorsiflexion -knee extension/plantarflexion/great toe flexion -knee extension/dorsiflexion/great toe extension

knee extension/dorsiflexion/great toe extension

Damage to the femoral nerve will result in weakness of what main muscle group: -hip extensors -knee extensors -hip abductors -ankle plantarflexors

knee extensors

A patient is seen in clinic whom has been diagnosed with Guillain-Barre syndrome. The patient has weak knee extensors, knee flexors, ankle plantarflexors, and ankle dorsiflexors. What muscle groups would you expect to regain strength first if the syndrome begins to remit: -knee extensors -ankle plantarflexors -ankle dorsiflexors -knee flexors

knee extensors knee flexors

Active plantarflexion of the ankle is strongest when the: -hip is extended -hip is flexed -knee is extended -knee is flexed

knee is extended

When selecting anterior pin placement in a HALO CTLSO application, where is the proper starting position: -eyebrow level, middle 1/2 of eyebrow -1.5" superior to eyebrow, middle 1/2 of eyebrow -20mm superior to eyebrow, lateral 1/3 of eyebrow -lateral 1/3 of eyebrow, slightly superior to eyebrow

lateral 1/3 of eyebrow, slightly superior to eyebrow

The erector spinae muscles are found in the intermediate layer of the muscles in the back. When they act bilaterally, they extend the vertebral column. When they act unilaterally what action do they perform: -rotate the spine -rotate and laterally bend to the side of active muscles -laterally bend the vertebral column -stabilize vertebrae during local movements of the vertebral columb

laterally bends the vertebral column

A patient presents to your office with bossing of the right posterior cranium and flattening on the left posterior cranium. How would you classify this? -right posterior brachycephalic -right posterior plagiocephaly -left posterior brachycephalic -left posterior plagiocephaly

left posterior brachycephalic

All of the following bony landmarks of the lower limb are easily palpable EXCEPT the: -lateral malleolus -medial condyle of the femur -lesser trochanter -tibial tuberosity -ASIS

lesser trochanter

Which type of scoliosis is most likely the result of a leg length discrepancy? -neuromuscular scoliosis -congenital scoliosis -nonstructural scoliosis -idiopathic scoliosis

nonstructural scoliosis

The gelatinous center of a spinal disc is the: -annulus fibrosis -conus medullaris -articular capsule -nucleus pulposus

nucleus pulposus

A 15 year old scoliosis patient is seen in clinic for her initial evaluation. After cobbing her x-ray, you and her physician agree that she has a 20 degree left lumbar and 22 degree right thoracic curves with no signs of progression. What should your treatment consist of at this time: -observation only at this time and schedule a follow up appointment after her next radiograph series -refer her back to her physician for a surgical consult -recommend the use of an off the shelf corset until progression is noted -immediate scoliosis orthotic management

observation only at this time and schedule a follow up appointment after her next radiograph series

A 15 year old scoliosis patient is seen in clinic for her initial evaluation. After cobbing her x-ray, you and her physician agree that she has a 20 degrees left lumbar, 22 degree right thoracic curves with no signs of progression. What should your treatment consist of at this time: -observation only at this time and schedule a follow up appointment after her next radiograph series -refer her back to her physicians for a surgical consult -recommend the use of an off the shelf corset until progression is noted -immediate scoliosis orthotic management

observation only at this time and schedule a follow up appointment after her next radiograph series

A scoliosis patient is seen in clinic. Upon radiographic reading you note that the patient has a risser sign of 5. How would you describe this risser sign: -osseous cap noted on lateral 25% of the iliac crest apophyseal plate -osseous cap noted on lateral 50% of the iliac crest apophyseal plate -osseous cap noted on lateral 75% of the iliac crest apophyseal plate -osseous cap noted on 100% of the iliac crest apophyseal plate

osseous cap noted on 100% of the iliac crest apophyseal plate

A hand orthosis controls: -palmar arch and thumb position -radial deviation -first dorsal interosseous -transverse arch and carpal tunnel

palmar arch and thumb position

A young child with a T12 myelomeningocele is seen in your office for a device that will help patient ambulate in the home and classroom and will allow hands free standing. What device do you evaluate him for? -bilateral locked knee KAFOs with Lofstrand crutches -parapodium -bilateral stance control KAFOs -ground reaction AFOs

parapodium

Which scenario is best to test to differential between a grade 3 and a grade 4 psoas major strength? -patient lies supine with knee extended; examiner resists hip flexion -patient lies prone with knee flexed; examiner resists hip extension -patient lies supine with knee extended; examiner resists hip extension -patient lies side-lying with knee flexed; examiner resists hip flexion

patient lies supine with knee extended; examiner resists hip flexion

A patient exhibiting marked lordosis is referred to your office for low back pain; which of the following may not be true? -patient may have PF contracture -patient may have tight hip extensors -patient may have spondylosthesis -patient may have tight abdominal muscles

patient may have spondylosthesis

A patient states he has worn a ground reaction AFO comfortably for about 6 months, but recently he switched shoes and is experiencing his knee being forced backward. What would you most expect to see and how will you fix it? -patient switched to higher heeled shoe and you fix by dorsiflexing the orthosis -patient switched to a lower heel height shoe and you fix by adding a dorsiflexion stop -patient switched to a higher heel height shoe and you fix by adding a forefoot wedge -patient switched to a lower heel height shoe and you fix by added a heel wedge

patient switched to a lower heel height shoe and you fix by adding a heel wedge

Which of the following is not part of the humerus? -trochlea -pectineal line -capitulum -radial groove

pectineal line

Which one of the following muscles is NOT an abductor of thigh? -gluteus minimus -tensor fascia latae -sartorius -pectineus -gluteus medius

pectineus

A patient reports pain at the navicular and posterior to the medial malleolus. What is the most likely pathology? -charcot foot -posterior tibial tendon dysfunction -diabetic neuropathy -plantar fasciitis

posterior tibial tendon dysfunction

A patient has chief complaint of pain on the medial side of her ankle just below the medial malleoli. On clinical examination the patient has slight weakness with inversion, pes planus, pain with heel raises and tenderness and swelling under the medial malleoli. The most likely cause of the symptoms would be: -posterior tibial tendonitis -tarsal tunnel syndrome -accessory navicular -compartmental syndrome

posterior tibial tendonitis

Which muscle inserts on the navicular and medial cuneiform? -posterior tibialis -peroneus longus -peroneus tertius -extensor digitorum longus

posterior tibialis

The lower extremity is most stable in stance when the weight line falls: -anterior to the hip and anterior to the knee -posterior to the hip and posterior to the knee -anterior to the hip and posterior to the knee -posterior to the hip and anterior to the knee

posterior to the hip and anterior to the knee

Maximum plantarflexion occurs at what phase of gait? -loading response -preswing -terminal swing -heel off

preswing

The biceps is not a good flexor of the elbow when the forearm is: -supinated -flexed to 90 -supinated & flexed to 45 -supinated & flexed to 90 -pronated

pronated

What is the normal range of motion for pronation and supination of the forearm? -pronation 65 degrees, supination 75 degrees -pronation 75 degrees, supination 85 degrees -pronation 80 degrees, supination 80 degrees -pronation 85 degrees, supination 90 degrees

pronation 80 degrees, supination 80 degrees

You deliver a device in the hospital to a patient who is not able to communicate. You should: -provide the nurse with thorough verbal instructions -provide the patient with thorough verbal instructions -provide the nurse with verbal instructions and leave written instructions -leave written instructions at the patient's bedside

provide the nurse with verbal instructions and leave written instructions

The primary muscles of the lower extremity that both flex the hip and extend the knee are known as the: -quadriceps -hamstrings -biceps -gastroc & soleus

quadriceps

You see a patient with wrist drop, paralysis of the triceps, brachioradialis, supinator, and extensor muscles of the wrist and digits. What nerve is responsible for this and where likely is the injury: -radial nerve; distal elbow -median nerve; radial groove -radial nerve; superior to the triceps brachii muscle -ulnar nerve; shoulder joint

radial nerve; superior to the triceps brachii muscles

At which joint does upper extremity pronation and supination occur? -radiocarpal -intercarpal -elbow -radioulnar

radioulnar

A patient is seen in clinic. The patient is utilizing a WHFO (wrist driven flexor hinge). The patient states that she can grasp objects but cannot maintain for long periods of time due to muscular fatigue. What addition can you add to this orthosis to allow for long periods of three point palmer prehension: -wrist extension assist -ratchet lock at the wrist -flexion stop at the wrist -extension stop at the wrist

ratchet lock at the wrist

A patient comes into your office stating her AFO causes her knee to buckle each time she walks down the hill by her house. How will you adjust her AFO to reduce this? -add a firm plantarflexion stop -increase dorsiflexion assistance -reduce plantarflexion resistance -increase the length of the footplate

reduce plantarflexion resistance

Scoliosis is sometimes sub-divided into different types. What are signs of neuromuscular scoliosis: -left lumbar curve and right thoracic curve -right lumbar curve and left thoracic curve -curvature correction with heel lift -lumbar curves greater than 20 degrees

right lumbar curve and left thoracic curve

A patient comes into your office for orthotic treatment for a right thoracic scoliosis, which are you most likely incorporate into the orthosis? -right axillary extension and left trochanter extension -right thoracic pad and left axillary extension -right axillary extension and left trochanter extension -right axillary extension and right thoracic pad

right thoracic pad and left axillary extension

Parkinson's disease is a chronic, progressive disease of the CNS with degeneration of dopaminergic neurons. What are the four hallmark symptoms of PD: -rigidity, brachykinesia, tremor, and impaired postural reflexes -rigidity , brachykinesia, tremor, and ataxia -rigidity, tremor, radiculopathy, and impaired postural reflexes -rigidity, tremor, festinating gait, and Lhermitte's sign

rigidity, brachykinesia, tremor, and impaired postural reflexes

When evaluating to see if a scoliotic curve is non-structural what will you notice with forced lateral side bending: -total curve correction -no curve correction -rotational components of the curve will correct themselves -rotational components of the curve will not correct themselves

rotational components of the curve will correct themselves

The nominate bone of the pelvic girdle is known as: -sacrum -ilium -ischium -symphysis pubis

sacrum

For the patient with drop foot, we are concerned with motion in which plane? -frontal -transverse -lateral -sagittal

sagittal

True dorsiflexion and plantarflexion occurs in what plane? -sagittal -coronal -frontal -transverse

sagittal

Which of the following is purely a sensory nerve? -obturator -tibial -femoral -saphenous

saphenous

A patient is seen in clinic. The patient presents with a midshaft humeral fracture (10 degrees of varus is noted at the fracture sight). What orthosis would you recommend: -sling combined with their current long arm cast -sarmiento humeral fracture orthosis -SEWHO -midshaft humeral fractures cannot be managed with an orthosis

sarmiento humeral fracture orthosis

Which muscle is not innervated by the obturator nerve? -adductor brevis -adductor longus -sartorius -gracilis

sartorius

Posterior trimlines on a TLSO extend from the sacrococcygeal joint to just inferior to _________. Anterior trimlines extend from symphysis pubis to the _______________: -inferior angle of the scapual, xiphoid process -scapular spine, sternal notch -scapular spine, metasternum -T7, xiphoid process

scapular spine, sternal notch

Which of the following nerves divides into the common peroneal nerve and the tibial nerve? -sciatic nerve -femoral nerve -saphenous nerve -obturator nerve

sciatic nerve

The lateral curvature of the spine is known as: -kypho-lordosis -kyphosis -lordosis -scoliosis

scoliosis

Which muscle aids in stabilizing the scapula and is important in motions such as pushing and punching? -serratus anterior -levator scapulae -teres major -trapezius

serratus anterior

the adductors of the scapula include all but the: -middle trapezius -rhomboids -latissimus dorsi -serratus anterior

serratus anterior

Which type of scoliotic curves would you expect to progress more given only the location of the curve: -thoracic -single lumbar -thoracolumbar -double major

single lumbar and thoracolumbar

When selecting posterior pin placement in a HALO CTLSO application, where is the proper starting position: -above the ear and the largest circumference of the cranium -slightly superior to ear, opposing the anterior pin directly, inferior to equator of the cranium -at the level of the ear and inferior to the equator of the cranium -1/4" inferior to the top of the ear, with posterior pins opposing each other

slightly superior to ear, opposing the anterior pin directly, inferior to equator of the cranium

Which AFO is most appropriate for a patient who exhibits both knee instability at initial contact and genu recurvatum at midstance? -double adjustable with pins in the anterior channel -double adjustable with pins in the posterior channel -double adjustable with pins in the posterior channel and springs in the anterior channel -solid ankle AFO

solid ankle AFO

It is early in the recovery phase of a patient with a L3 complete spinal cord injury. The expected outcome would MOST likely be: -with a complete spinal cord injury you would not expect any progress in motor or sensory function below the level of the lesion -a spastic bladder -some recovery of function since damage is to peripheral nerve roots -increased weakness in the upper extremities compared to the lower extremities

some recovery of function since the damage is to peripheral nerve roots

A patient with an upper motor neuron disorder has a posterior loss of balance with immediate sit to standing due to either tight muscles or weakness. What would be the most likely cause of this: -spasticity of the gastrocnemius -contraction of the hip flexors -weakness of hip abductors -contracture of the hamstrings

spasticity of the gastrocnemius

A patient is seen in clinic with flaccid ankle plantarflexors and dorsiflexors. The patient also buckles at the knee during loading response/heel strike. You have chosen to recommend a conventional AFO with double action ankle joints. What would be the most appropriate configuration of the ankle joints: -springs in anterior and posterior channels -pins in the posterior channels with springs in the anterior channels -pins in the anterior channel and posterior channel -springs in the posterior channel and pins in the anterior channels

springs in the posterior channel and pins in the anterior channels

A patient is referred to your facility for a 'lumbosacral spinal corset with 3 pull design.' When fitting the patient, the posterior staves should be shaped to the patient while, -lying on their left side -sitting -standing -lying on their right side

standing

A patient with quadriplegia resulting from a lesion at C7 neurosegmental level is most likely to benefit from which of the following? -wrist cock up splint -wrist driven WHO -mobile arm support -static HO

static HO

The correct ANTERIOR trimlines of a plastic TLSO should be at the inferior level of the symphysis pubis and superior at the: -sternal notch -axilla -chin -xyphoid

sternal notch

A patient has a fixed forefoot varum. All of the following are considered compensatory strategies for a fixed forefoot varus malalignment EXCEPT: -subtalar supination -plantar flexed first ray -subtalar pronation -tibial internal rotation

subtalar supinator

Inversion and eversion of the foot occur at the? -superior & inferior tibiofibular joint -talocrural joint -proximal & distal radiounlar joints -subtalar, talocaneonavicular & transverse tarsal joints

subtalar, talocanceonavicular & transverse tarsal joints

Where is the mechanical axis of the hip joint located relative to the greater trochanter? -superior & posterior -inferior & anterior -inferior & posterior -superior & anterior

superior & anterior

Which of the following arteries does not supply blood to the lower extremity? -superior mesenteric artery -deep femoral artery -popliteal artery -peroneal artery

superior mesenteric artery

In general, terms the radial nerve of the branchial plexus innervates: -pronators & flexors -thenar muscles -supinators & extensors -supinators & flexors -elbow flexors

supinators & extensors

What are the two origins of the biceps brachii? -coronoid process and acromion -supraglenoid tubercle and coracoid process -bicipital tuberosity and glenoid fossa -acromion and subscapular

supraglenoid tubercle and coracoid process

The deltoid muscle acts to abduct the shoulder with what other muscle: -supraspinatus -infraspinatus -subscapularis -trapezius

supraspinatus

Which is not considered a carrier of blood borne pathogens? -sweat -cerebrospinal fluid -semen -synovial fluid

sweat

A patient fit with a CASH orthosis is experiencing discomfort under the sternal pad. What is the best action to take? -contour sternal upright to pull pad away from the patient -add low durometer padding to the sternal pad -switch the sternal pad to pectoral pad -loosen posterior strap to reduce three point pressures

switch the sternal pad to pectoral pad

The space between an axon and a dentrite is called the: -myelin -synovium -schwann's space -synapse

synapse

Which of the following best represents the principles followed when fitting a Milwaukee TLSO? -with more than one curve, the curve with the greatest flexibility (compensatory curve) should be loaded first, as it usually responds to correction more quickly -With double primary curves the superior curve should be loaded first -due to viscoelastic relaxation in the soft tissues, the pads may require loosening periodically -the loading vector for thoracic and lumbar pads should be anteromedial in almost all cases

the loading vector for thoracic and lumbar pads should be anteromedial in almost all cases

When taking an impression and delineation for a KAFO what landmark represents knee center: -MTP (medial tibial plateau) -MPT (mid patellar tendon) -the midpoint between MTP and MPT -the midpoint between MTP and the adductor tubercle

the midpoint between MTP and the adductor tubercle

All of the following muscles are classified as biarticular or multiarticular EXCEPT: - the peroneus longus -the flexor hallucis longus -the plantaris -the quadratus femoris

the quadratus femoris

A positive Trendelenburg sign is assigned when: -there is weakness of the gluteus maximus -the affected side pelvis drops upon weight bearing on the sound side -patient lacks sufficient muscle strength to maintain hip adduction -the sound side pelvis drops upon weight bearing on the affected side

the sound side pelvis drops upon weight bearing on the affected side

You have a patient that presents for evaluation for an AFO after a stroke. You notice he has a forward flexed posture. What positive muscle length test would you expect to see associated with this posture: -Ober test -Thomas test -Hip extensor tightness -Plantar flexion tightness

thomas test

With a traction injury to the anterior division of the brachial plexus you would expect, weakness of the elbow flexors, wrist flexors and forearm pronators. What other muscle group would you expect to be weak: -wrist extensors -thumb abductors -shoulder flexors -elbow extensors

thumb abductors

Blount disease is also known as: -tibia vara -fibular hemimelia -coxa valga -club foot

tibia vara

A patient is seen in clinic. The patient is utilizing a KAFO for post polio syndrome. The ankle joint height is located correctly but the mechanical ankle joint is in need of replacement for the third time. What could cause this: -ankle joint height is incorrect -the ankle joint is not properly lubricated -the patient has switched to a shoe of differing heel height -tibial torsion was not built into the KAFO

tibial torsion was not built into the KAFO

In a double action ankle joint the pins in the posterior channel best simulate what muscle? -tibialis anterior -flexor hallucis longus -peroneus longus -soleus

tibialis anterior

Why was the l-codes established? -to develop a unified method of describing products/services to payers -to justify to the payers the products/services provided -to improve communication between healthcare providers -to systematically classify and document patient diagnosis

to develop a unified method of describing products/services to payers

The deformity caused by unilateral contracture of the sternocleidomastoid is called: -klippel-feil syndrome -plagiocephaly -brachial palsy -torticollis

torticollis

The radial nerve is injured within the radial groove. What muscle would NOT be paralyzed: -triceps -supinator -brachioradialis -extensor carpi ulnaris

triceps

A patient you fit with a TLSO informs you that the orthosis fits well when he stands, but presses into his throat when he sits. How do you best rectify this? -trim the anterior superior edge -trim the anterior inferior edge -pad the anterior superior edge -flare and trim the anterior superior edge

trim the anterior inferior edge

A patient utilizing an articulating AFO with a full foot plate complains that it is hard to roll over their foot smoothly throughout stance. Recommending rocker sole shoes and or cutting the foot plate to sulcus length would be appropriate (assuming they have good knee stability in the sagittal plane). true or false

true

A patient with a pes plano valgus foot and peroneal tendonitis should utilize their functional foot orthotics (MLA support, extrinsic medial wedge, and or carlson modifications) with a pronator motion control type shoe. True or False

true

An RGO allows forward progression by harnessing energy from one's hip extension and translating it into contralateral hip flexion. true or false

true

Guillian-Barre syndrome progresses in an ascending order true or false

true

The duration of double support varies inversely with the speed of walking and in running double support is absent. true or false

true

When designing a ground reaction ankle foot orthosis "GRAFO" foot plate length can be full foot or sulcus length. True or False

true

When fabricating a KAFO the distal/posterior thigh band and the proximal/posterior calf band should be located equidistant from the knee axis. true or false

true

A visually impaired 70 y.o. male patient is referred to your office with a prescription for a "hyperextension back brace" for an anterior thoracic compression fracture as a result to a fall at home. Upon PE, you find a male with marked kyphosis and significant arthritis in both hands. Your choice of orthotic devices should include: -utilization of Velcro for closure to adapt to patients arthritis -total cost for the device as the patient's insurance company has an historically low reimbursement rate -weight of the device fitted -a device that has screws with prominent heads to make adjustments easier as he has problems seeing

utilization of Velcro for closure to adapt to patient's arthritis

A patient with radial nerve weakness would exhibit: -weakness when flexing wrist -claw hand deformity -weakness when extending the wrist -inability to medially deviate wrist

weakness when extending the wrist

Scoliosis is sometimes sub-divided into different types. What are signs of congenital scoliosis: -curvature correction with heel lift -left lumbar curve, right thoracic curve -wedged, bar, and hemi-vertebrae -none of the above

wedged, bar, and hemi-vertebrae

What orthosis would best restore upper extremity function for a patient with a spinal cord injury above the C6 nerve root? -cock up splint -mobile arm support -wrist driven WHO -HO with thumb post

wrist driven WHO

A patient with C6 quadriplegia is able to use a tenodesis grip. What is the action that occurs: -wrist extension causes MP flexion -wrist flexion and MP flexion -wrist extension -elbow flexion and wrist flexion

wrist extension which causes MP flexion

Can a device that is provided prior to admission to a hospital be billed to medicare? -yes: devices necessary post-surgery and fit prior to admission may be billed to medicare -yes: but only if the medical necessity for the device is independent of the patient's admission to the hospital -no: all devices delivered 48 hours or less prior to hospital admission should be billed to the hospital -no: the device cannot be billed to medicare if the patient will not require if in the hospital

yes: but only if the medical necessity for the device is independent of the patient's admission to the hospital