Practice RD Exam Questions from EatRight

Q. A patient in residential care is receiving an enteral formula that contains 1.5 kcal/ml at a rate of 75 ml for a 12-hour time frame. The patient will receive:

1,350 kcal This client would receive a total of 900 ml over the 12-hour time frame x 1.5 kcal/ml = 1,350 kcal.

Q. Overweight is defined as a BMI of:

25 to 29. Overweight BMI is 25.0-29.9. Obesity (class 1) BMI is 30.0-34.9. Class 2 BMI is 35.0-39.9. Severe obesity (class 3) BMI is 40.0-49.9

Q. It takes ___ FTE(s) to fill one 8-hour, 7-day-per-week position.

1.4 8 hours × 7 days = 56 hours ÷ 40 hour workweek = 1.4 FTE

Q. Full-time employees generally work 236 days per year. What is the full-time equivalent?

1.55 365 days each year ÷ 236 full-time workdays = 1.55 full-time equivalents (FTEs); therefore, 1.55 FTEs are required for each full-time position.

Q. The FDA defines the term "gluten-free" to mean that the food bearing the claim contains no more than _____ parts per million (ppm) or _____milligrams (mg) or more gluten per kilogram (kg) of food.

20, 20 In 2013, the FDA issued a final rule to define the term "gluten-free" for voluntary use in the labeling of foods. The final rule defines the term "gluten-free" to mean that the food bearing the claim does not contain an ingredient that is a gluten-containing grain (eg, spelt wheat); an ingredient that is derived from a gluten-containing grain and that has not been processed to remove gluten (eg, wheat flour); or an ingredient that is derived from a gluten-containing grain and that has been processed to remove gluten (eg, wheat starch), if the use of that ingredient results in the presence of 20 parts per million (ppm).

Q. Large institutions most often plan meals using cycle menus. Which of the following cycle lengths is most appropriate for a long-term-care facility?

4-week cycle menu The average length of stay is an important consideration in determining the cycle length. Since the length of stay in long-term care tends to be measured in months or years, rather than days or weeks, a longer cycle menu, such as 4 weeks, would be most appropriate.

Q. Labor costs for a roast beef dinner were $764, operating costs were $129, profit was $210, and the cost for food for the event was $895. What was the food cost percentage?

50% Food cost percentage is calculated according to the following formula: Cost of food divided by total production costs. Total production costs include the cost of food, labor and overhead/operations costs. These costs include taxes, utilities, maintenance, etc. Profit is not included in the calculation as it is not a production cost. 764+129+895= 1,788 895/1788= .50 x100= 50%

Q. A food product may be labeled "Made with Organic Ingredients" if _____% of the finished product's ingredients meet organic criteria.

70

Q. Which of the following disease states may require a fluid restriction?

All of the above (Liver disease with ascites, Chronic renal failure, Congestive heart failure)

Q. Which of the following is a disadvantage of a cohort study? A. It is difficult to define characteristics of the participants. B. It is difficult, if not impossible, to validate data. C. It is rarely possible to study the mechanism of a disease. D. Incidence rates among participants cannot be calculated.

C. It is rarely possible to study the mechanism of a disease. Validating data (B) is a disadvantage of case control studies. It is quite feasible to use demographic data to define the participants in a cohort study and the ability to calculate incidence rates among participants is an advantage of cohort study.

Q. Which of the following changes in eating pattern has research shown to most positively contribute to a decrease in energy consumption among children? A. Children participating in family-style meals at home B. Children being provided a child-special meal. C. Parents or caregivers serving children on individual plates D. Parents or caregivers providing scheduled meals and snacks in the home

Children participating in family-style meals at home Participating in family-style meals at home discourages children from overeating.

Q. Which of the following must be true for a food to be labeled "low fat"?

Contains less than 3 g fat per serving Following food labeling laws, to be identified as low in fat, a serving of food must contain less than 3 g fat.

Q. Which of the following is NOT a component of meta-analysis?

Data are presented in a narrative manner. Meta-analysis uses studies with similar design, defines inclusion criteria, and usually uses peer-reviewed articles. There is no criterion or requirement that data have to be presented in a narrative manner.

Q. During a snow storm, the assistant cook (AC) can't get to work. The person working in the "floater" position is unable to take over all AC responsibilities but is somewhat confident and is willing to assist the head cook in preparing items on the daily production schedule. To be most effective, what would be the manager's approach?

Define roles and tasks for the willing employee, provide opportunity for role clarification and questions, and give support. Defining roles and tasks and providing opportunity for role clarification and questions allows the floater the opportunity to redefine his or her role and to take on a different task. The manager empowers the floater this way by supporting the new role, which should result in more confidence to change roles.

Q. Which word best describes doing things correctly or getting the most output from the least amount of input?

Efficient Efficiency is "doing things right." Effectiveness is "doing the right things." Economical describes prudent use of resources. Expedient describes doing something quickly.

Q. Which of the following foods must a child with phenylketonuria avoid?

Egg Children with phenylketonuria are unable to metabolize the amino acid phenylalanine to tyrosine because of a deficiency or inactivity of phenylalanine hydroxylase. Thus, phenylalanine intake must be restricted to the amount needed for protein synthesis. To accomplish this, protein needs to be limited and all high-protein foods, including eggs, milk, cheese, nuts, beans and meat, should be avoided.

Q. The following blood test result puts a patient at greatest risk for developing heart disease:

Elevated LDL-dense particles of cholesterol Elevated LDL-dense particles of cholesterol are most likely to lead to inflammatory heart disease and plaque formation.

Q. Which agency determines the safety of new pesticides and sets a tolerance level for all pesticides and their residue in food?

Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) The EPA is responsible for determining the safety of any pesticide before it can be used on a commodity food. Once approved for use, the EPA is responsible for setting tolerable residue limits for pesticides on food. Once these tolerance levels are set by the EPA, enforcement is overseen by the FDA.

Q. Participants are randomly assigned to follow one of three specific diets plans for 7 weeks to assess the impact of varying amounts of high-fructose corn syrup consumption on serum triglyceride levels. What kind of study is this?

Experimental In experimental study design, participants are randomly assigned to treatment groups. This does not occur in case control or qualitative studies. "Descriptive" is not a type of study.

Q. Which agency approves the use of food additives in breakfast cereal?

Food and Drug Administration (FDA)

Q. Standards of identity that specify minimum and maximum ingredient requirements, optional ingredients, and prohibited ingredients in a food product are established by which federal agency?

Food and Drug Administration (FDA) The FDA established standards of identity for common food products to ensure quality and consistency. These standards clearly define required ingredients and specified amounts of these ingredients, as well as prohibited ingredients in foods. Foods must conform to the defined standards of identity to use the corresponding food name (eg, mayonnaise)

Q. The implementation of more liberal food choices in the menu planning process for long-term-care (LTC) settings has been associated with which of the following?

Increased nutrient and fluid intake among LTC residents Liberalizing food choices in long-term care encourages older adults to increase food consumption and meal satisfaction. It does not increase obesity risk.

Q. Which of the following statements is accurate concerning fruit juice?

Intake of juice should be limited to 4 to 6 oz per day for children 1 to 6 years of age. Juice should not be introduced until 6 months of age, and bedtime bottle feeding and unpasteurized juice in young children increase the risk for tooth decay or "bottle mouth" and foodborne illness. The accurate statement is that juice intake should be limited in children aged 1 to 6 years.

Q. Which of the following characteristics is key to an efficient and effective system?

Interdependency of parts A system is a collection of interrelated parts or subsystems unified by design to obtain one or more objectives. Interdependency is the reciprocal relationship of the parts of a system; each part mutually affects the performance of the others. Interdependency emphasizes the importance of viewing the organization as a whole rather than as isolated parts. The other responses (ie, continuous response and adaptation to a system, flow of resources through a system, and achievement of subunit objectives) all are isolated parts of a system.

Q. ____________ must be up to date and reflect consistent expectations.

Personnel policies Personnel policies should reflect current realities of the workplace. Supervisors should employ these policies to ensure that employees are being treated fairly and expectations are consistent.

Q. Diagnosis is the second step in the Academy's Nutrition Care Process and Model. Part of the Diagnosis step is to document PES. PES stands for _____.

Problem, Etiology, Signs and Symptoms

Q. What elements comprise the marketing mix?

Product, price, promotion, and place

Q. Heat applied to a food will denature which of the food's components?

Proteins Denaturation of proteins occurs when foods are subjected to heat, agitation, or ultraviolet light. Denaturation is the relaxing of a protein's tertiary structure to the secondary structure. Heat can degrade vitamins, fats, and carbohydrates.

Q. Which of the following techniques offers the least constructive information to someone being disciplined?

Providing advice. The purpose of disciplining is for a manager to provide constructive information to help the subordinate become aware of how his or her actions affect the organization's system. The goal is to provide maximum information with minimum threat. Providing advice is not constructive. Feedback should focus on ideas and information, not advice.

Q. Which of the following flooring materials would be best suited for high-traffic cooking areas?

Quarry tiles Quarry tile is wear resistant and nonporous. Ceramic tile is best used on walls. Concrete is hard, tires employees by causing muscle fatigue, and may cause accidents if individuals slip or fall when the floor is wet. Rubber floors are more difficult to clean.

Q. Daily Values are nutrient standards derived from the Daily Reference Values and the

Reference Daily Intakes. Daily Values are nutrient standards derived from the Daily Reference Values (DRV) and Reference Daily Intakes (RDI). DRVs are provided for total fat, saturated fat, cholesterol, total carbohydrate, dietary fiber, sodium, potassium, and protein. RDIs are provided for vitamins; minerals; and protein for children younger than 4 years of age and for pregnant and lactating women. In order to limit consumer confusion, however, the label includes a single term (ie, Daily Value [DV]), to designate both the DRVs and RDIs.

Q. What inventory control method classifies products according to their value? A. ABC B. Mini-max C. Perpetual inventory D. Par rate

The correct answer is A. The ABC method classifies inventory products according to value. For example, the high-value A products may represent only about 20% of inventory but up to 80% of the inventory value. Mini-max and par rate are methods to help determine how much to order. Perpetual inventory is an up-to-date, ongoing count of food and supplies in storage.

Q. A pregnant woman should avoid excessive intake of which of the following nutrients? Vitamin A Vitamin B-6 Folic acid Iron

Solution: The correct answer is A. A pregnant woman should avoid excessive intake of vitamin A, as it appears to cause birth defects. Vitamin B-6 is water soluble, and folic acid and iron should be increased during pregnancy.

Q. You want to conduct a research project that evaluates food habits among adults with a BMI >30 who eat at buffet-style restaurants at least once a month. You are going to conduct a focus group. What type of research study is this? A. Meta-analysis B. Qualitative C. Quantitative D. Experimental

Solution: The correct answer is B. A focus group is a form of qualitative research that is used to ask people about their habits, behavior, practices, beliefs, etc

Q. Which ratio would be used to examine an establishment's ability to meet its long-term financial obligations and its financial leverage? Debt to assets Assets to liabilities Debt to liabilities Profit to losses

The correct answer is A. The assets-to-liabilities ratio calculates the percentage of assets provided by debt. Return on assets refers to the profitability of a company. Return on equity is a measure of company earnings compared to total shareholder equity. The debt-to-assets ratio examines ability to meet long-term financial obligations and financial leverage.

Q. Intrinsic factor is required for the absorption of which vitamin? A. B2 B. B6 C. C D. B12

The correct answer is D. Intrinsic factor (IF) is made in the stomach and as soon as the R protein loses affinity for vitamin B12 in the more alkaline duodenum, vitamin B12 binds to IF. This complex, B12-IF, is necessary in order for vitamin B12 to be absorbed.

Q. Which of the following ratios indicates an organization's ability to meet current financial obligations? Liquidity Operating Activity Profitability

The correct answer is A. "Current" signifies within 12 months. Liquidity is ease with which assets (ie, cash, accounts receivable, inventory, and prepaid expenses) can be converted to cash. Therefore, liquidity ratios indicate an organization's ability to repay its debts within the next 12 months or its ability to meet current obligations. Operating ratios indicate an operation's success in generating sales and controlling expenses (eg, food and labor cost percentages). Activity ratios examine how effectively an organization utilizes its assets (eg, inventory turnover). Profitability ratios measure an organization's ability to generate profit in relation to sales.

Q. The five principles of motivational interviewing are: express empathy, avoid arguments, roll with resistance, support self-efficacy, and _____. A. develop discrepancy B. listen reflectively C. demonstrate reassuring responses D. provide evaluative replies

The correct answer is A. "Developing discrepancy" allows the participant to realize that his or her current situation may not agree with values or future goals. This tenet helps to present the argument for change, and change is motivated by discrepancy.

Q. Which of the following is a true statement regarding organic foods? A. Raw or processed agricultural products in the organic category may contain up to 5% non-organic ingredients allowed per the National List. B. Some operations are exempt from certification, including organic farmers who sell organic foods or crops worth $10,000 or less. C. Raw or processed agricultural products in the "100% organic" category must contain ingredients that are at least 90% certified organic. D. A product labeled as "MADE WITH" organic may use the USDA organic seal if no more than three ingredients are not certified.

The correct answer is A. According to the USDA, "Organic" can be used to label any product that contains a minimum of 95 percent organic ingredients (excluding salt and water). Up to 5 percent of the ingredients may be nonorganic agricultural products that are not commercially available as organic and/or nonagricultural products that are on the National List.

Q. The first step toward attaining cultural competence is for the dietetics professional to _____. A. examine his/her own cultural background B. study the relevant cultural norms, values, and practicalities of the daily lives of clients C. identify cultural variations in family relationships D. note culturally-specific health beliefs and practices

The correct answer is A. According to this book, dietetics practitioners must first examine their own cultural backgrounds before understanding others.

Q. Providing advice and information can be a component of a successful patient interaction. Under what circumstances is it appropriate to provide advice or information? A. When you have asked for permission from the client or if the client requests it B. When you have limited time in your nutrition session C. When you have a talkative client and you need to direct the focus of the interview D. After you've established rapport and the client is ready to set goals

The correct answer is A. Asking permission is a powerful request and places the patient in an autonomous position and readies him or her to be more receptive to information.

Q. Which type of rice is whole-grain with only the outer hull removed? A. Brown B. White C. Wild D. Long-grain

The correct answer is A. Brown rice is whole-grain with only the outer hull removed. It retains most of the bran layers that give it a light brown color. White rice has been milled to remove the outer husk and layers of bran. Long-grain rice refers to the length of the rice. Wild rice is not a true rice but is a large rice-looking weed of an aquatic reed-like grass.

Q. Which of the following actions is believed to increase the effectiveness of an interviewer? A. Clearly defining the purpose of the interview to the interviewee B. Clearly establishing the interviewer's position of authority C. Taking copious notes to aid in the recall of information later D. Developing an emotional attachment

The correct answer is A. Clearly defining the purpose of an interview sets the tone for the interview and allows the interviewee to know what is expected. It also puts the interviewee at ease.

Q. When allergens are transferred from food containing an allergen to the food served to the customer, this is called cross-contact. cross-contamination. cross-connection. cross-transfer.

The correct answer is A. Cross-contamination is when pathogens can be transferred from one surface or food to another. Cross-connection is a physical link between safe water and dirty water, which can come from drains, sewers, or other wastewater sources. Cross-transfer is a made-up term.

Q. Dietetics professionals can expect about one in _____ of their clients to have a disability that will require special accommodations. A. 5 B. 15 C. 25 D. 50

The correct answer is A. Current statistics demonstrate that 20% of clients may have a disability.

Q. Which term best describes overall space planning that includes defining the size, shape, style, and decoration? Design Layout Blueprint Scheme

The correct answer is A. Design refers to the overall space planning; layout is the detailed arrangement of a building and its floor and/or counter space; and blueprint is what the architect will provide to the contractor so the space and its structures are built according to specifications.

Q. In the Nutrition Care Process, the Nutrition Diagnoses should be _____during Nutrition Intervention. A. prioritized B. promulgated C. investigated D. linked

The correct answer is A. During the Nutrition Intervention step, prioritizing diagnoses is crucial.

Q. Which of the following growth charts is currently recommended by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention to assess weight in relation to stature in children ages 2 to 20 years? BMI-for-age Length-for-age Weight-for-age Stature-for-age

The correct answer is A. For children, body mass index (BMI) is age and sex specific and nutritional status is identified based on percentiles. For adults, BMI is neither age nor sex specific. BMI-for-age is the most accurate and best measure to assess weight in children. BMI-for-age figures in a child's height, weight, and age to determine how much body fat he has. It compares the results to those of other children of the same age and sex.

Q. The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) provides a strict definition for functional foods. True False

The correct answer is FALSE. Currently no legal definition exists for functional foods. The US Food and Drug Administration (FDA) regulates claims that manufacturers make about functional foods' nutrient content and effects on disease, health, or body function.

Q. Which of the following is true of additives categorized as GRAS? A. They are generally recognized, among qualified experts, as having been adequately shown to be safe under the conditions of its intended use B. An ingredient approved as GRAS for one use is considered GRAS for all uses. C. Typically, an ingredient used to impart color is classified as GRAS. D. Establishment of GRAS additives is the prerogative of the FTC.

The correct answer is A. GRAS is an acronym for the phrase Generally Recognized As Safe. Under sections 201(s) and 409 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, any substance that is intentionally added to food is a food additive that is subject to premarket review and approval by FDA, unless the substance is generally recognized as safe.

Q. In 2013, changes were made to the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) that have resulted in RDN's needing to modify the way that they conduct business to remain compliant. These changes are collectively known as the A. Omnibus Rule B. HIPAA Addendum C. Client Security Rules D. Notification Addendum

The correct answer is A. In 2013, sweeping changes to HIPAA were announced to the public, resulting in modifications in the way RDNs and other health care providers must conduct business to remain compliant. In an effort to maintain the privacy and security of protected health information (PHI) in today's growing world of technology, the Office for Civil Rights (OCR) of the US Department of Health and Human Services adopted additional modifications to the HIPAA Privacy, Security, Breach Notification and Enforcement Rules. These changes, which took effect on September 23, 2013, are addressed collectively as the Omnibus Rule.

Q. Joint Commission standards require that "nutritional assessments are conducted for patients not consistently reaching glucose targets." The intent of this standard is to identify if A. food intake is creating blood glucose levels outside of the established glucose targets. B. patients are experiencing frequent episodes of hyperglycemia. C. patients are receiving too little enteral nutrition support. D. food intake variations are resulting in elevated A1C levels.

The correct answer is A. In a specific Joint Commission requirement, the diabetes program and the hospital determines who will do the assessment and what glucose targets will trigger the assessment. The intent of this standard is to identify if the food intake or lack thereof is creating blood glucose levels outside of the established glucose targets. The glucose target targets can be hypoglycemic levels or hyperglycemic levels.

Q. In a foodservice operation, which of the following is the most critical point of control? Menu Overtime Quality Spoilage

The correct answer is A. In foodservice operations, menu development provides a critical control point for control of costs, overtime, quality, and spoilage.

Q. Protein needs for patients with stage II pressure ulcers can be calculated as A. 1.2 g to 1.5 g of protein/kg B. 1.1 g to 1.2 g of protein/kg C. 1.5 g to 1.7 g of protein/kg D. 0.8 g to 1.0 g of protein/kg

The correct answer is A. Increased protein needs for stage II wound healing are 1.2 g to 1.5 g protein/kg body weight. Choice D presents normal protein levels; choice C presents protein needs for higher stages of pressure ulcers; and choice B presents the protein needs for stage I pressure ulcers.

Q. The hydrolysis of sucrose with an acid to form a mixture that has equal amounts of fructose and glucose is known as A. inversion. B. reversion. C. ripening. D. crystallization.

The correct answer is A. Inversion occurs when a sugar solution is boiled with the addition of an acid. Hydrolysis of the sucrose molecule results in equal amounts of fructose and glucose.

Q. When introducing infants to solid food, which of the following is recommended to be given first? Iron-fortified rice cereal Iron-fortified oatmeal cereal Iron-fortified wheat cereal Pureed meats

The correct answer is A. Iron-fortified rice cereal is the first solid food recommended for two reasons. First, iron stores become depleted at 4 to 6 months of age, so an iron-fortified cereal mixed with formula or breastmilk should be started. Second, rice cereal is the least allergenic cereal. Other cereals should be introduced gradually, waiting 3 to 5 days before introducing another food to determine if there are allergies or intolerances, with wheat and mixed cereals added last.

Q. According to the Joint Commission, which of the following is fundamental to cost-effective performance improvement? Safety Professional expertise Technology Employee motivation

The correct answer is A. Patient safety is a major concern in all health care settings. A focus on safety in performance improvement programs leads to cost savings through prevention of medical errors.

Q. Older adults are more vulnerable to toxicity of vitamin A. vitamin C. vitamin D. vitamin K.

The correct answer is A. Plasma levels and liver stores of vitamin A increase with age, along with decreased clearance from the blood, making older adults more susceptible to toxicity. Vitamin D, on the other hand, declines with age. Vitamin C is water soluble and thus clearance is easier. Vitamin K levels usually can be controlled via medication.

Q. A community RDN develops an educational and awareness program to teach employees of a local industry to reduce the sodium in their diets. This is an example of primary prevention. secondary prevention. tertiary prevention. workplace rehabilitation.

The correct answer is A. Primary prevention is to protect healthy people before a disease (for example, hypertension) develops. Secondary and tertiary prevention do not occur until a disease has already presented. Workplace rehabilitation is specific to an injury sustained at work.

Q. Resilient flooring A. is able to withstand shock without cracking or breaking. B. is easily damaged by sharp edges. C. is curved with a sealed edge that eliminates sharp edges. D. is not slippery when wet.

The correct answer is A. Resiliency means a material has the ability to react to a shock without breaking or cracking.

Q. In behavior change, which example demonstrates self-efficacy? A. Confidence in ability to consume breakfast daily B. Reading an article regarding regular physical activity and heart disease C. Doing research on family history of diabetes D. Perception that financial status will affect ability to eat recommended servings of fruits and vegetables

The correct answer is A. Self-efficacy is a reflection of confidence to perform and improved self-perception of obtaining success.

Q. Consider the following scenario when the provider/client are talking. RDN "Why don't you try spinach as a choice?" Client responds by rolling her eyes. Which of the following statements from the RDN is the best example of the motivational Interviewing guiding principle "rolling with resistance"? A. "You don't like this idea." B. "You might try fresh spinach instead." C. "Maybe you can try other kinds of green leafy vegetables." D. "You've been talking about making changes, so I'm thinking this is a simple, straightforward change for you."

The correct answer is A. The other options are examples of "righting reflex," where the provider offers advice. "Rolling with resistance" works to de-escalate the situation and avoid negative reactions; it disrupts the power struggle that may occur and the session thus doesn't become a series of "yes, but" arguments from the client.

Q. After completing this step in the Nutrition Care Process, the dietetics professional can decide whether or not a nutrition diagnosis/problem exists. A. Nutrition Assessment B. Nutrition Diagnosis C. Nutrition Intervention D. Nutrition Monitoring and Evaluation

The correct answer is A. The purpose of nutrition assessment is to determine if the professional should progress any further into the plan of care with a nutrition diagnosis. It is the first step in the nutrition care process.

Q. Which of the following micronutrients should be supplemented in a patient with history of alcoholism? Thiamin and folic acid Folic acid and magnesium Calcium and thiamin Calcium and magnesium

The correct answer is A. Thiamine deficiency is common in alcoholics because thiamine absorption from food decreases and thiamine excretion from the body increases. Alcoholism can also cause folic acid deficiency by interfering with the absorption of this nutrient and by influencing the development of unhealthy eating habits.

Q. Yogurt manufacturers have branched out into Greek yogurt, high-fiber yogurt, bacteria-enhanced yogurt, and more because they believe customers prefer yogurt products. By doing so, which of the following marketing concepts are these manufacturers applying? Product Selling Manufacturing Societal

The correct answer is A. Yogurt manufacturers are using the concept of product when they offer many different types and flavors of yogurt. Selling, manufacturing, and societal marketing concepts do not focus on offering different types of the same product.

Q. The Emergency Food Assistance Program and the Disaster Feeding Program are examples of food distribution programs. Which of the following statements best describes the similarities of the two programs? A. Both programs may serve children, adolescent, and other age groups and provide commodity foods to local food distribution and service agencies. B. Both programs serve children and adolescents and provide commodity foods to local food distribution and service agencies C. Both programs serve low-income populations and supplemental food supplies are either distributed to individual households or as meals served in congregate dining centers. D. Both programs may serve children, adolescent, and other age groups and food supplies are either distributed to individual households or as meals served in congregate dining centers.

The correct answer is A: Both programs may serve children, adolescent, and other age groups and provide commodity foods to local food distribution and service agencies. Both of these programs serve children, adolescent and other age groups and provide commodity foods that serve meals. The Emergency Food Assistance Program does not distribute to individual households.

Q. The sentence "We will produce nutritious, high-quality food that meets our customers' needs for service within 30 minutes" is a vision. mission statement. strategy. value.

The correct answer is B. A mission statement describes what a company does that is different from others. A vision is a statement of what a company wants to achieve in the future, and strategies are the decisions and actions to assist a company to meet its objectives.

Q. Which nutrient additive might be added to food as a natural antioxidant? Biotin Alpha-tocopherol Calcium carbonate Pantothenic acid

The correct answer is B. Alpha-tocopherol is a natural antioxidant that is used as a food additive in meat pies and oils to reduce the oxidation of fatty acids and vitamins.

Q. The 2007 Expert Committee Recommendations for the Prevention, Assessment, Treatment, and Recommendations for Pediatric Childhood and Adolescent Obesity defines BMI greater than the 95th percentile as: A. at risk for overweight B. obese C. overweight D. severe childhood obesity

The correct answer is B. Healthy weight is defined as the 5th percentile to less than the 85th percentile. Overweight encompasses the 85th to less than the 95th percentile. Obese is defined as equal to or greater than the 95th percentile.

Q. For the needs of infants born prematurely, human milk is deficient in potassium and phosphorus. calcium and phosphorus. sodium and potassium. calcium and sodium.

The correct answer is B. Human milk does not meet the calcium and phosphorus needs for normal bone mineralization in infants born prematurely. Therefore, breastmilk can be supplemented with human milk fortifiers that contain calcium and phosphorus.

Q. Because insulin and _____ are secreted in the bloodstream in equal amounts, ____ can be used as a clinical indicator of endogenous insulin production. A. glucose B. c-peptide C. glutamic acid D. cortisol

The correct answer is B. Insulin is secreted as two polypeptide chains joined by disulfide bonds. C-peptide is released when the two chains separate.

Q. Which agency sets the mandated guidelines for meals in long-term-care facilities that receive Medicare and Medicaid funding? A. US Department of Agriculture B. Centers for Medicaid and Medicare Services C. Joint Commission D. Food and Nutrition Board of the National Research Council

The correct answer is B. Long-term care facilities receiving Medicare and Medicaid funding must follow guidelines regarding meals served to residents that are established by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services, a division of the US Department of Health and Human Services.

Q. All of the following are criteria for the diagnosis of diabetes, EXCEPT: A. fasting plasma glucose ≥ 126 mg/dL. B. hemoglobin A1C ≤ 6.5%. C. two-hour plasma glucose ≥ 200 mg/dL during an oral glucose tolerance test. D. a random plasma glucose ≥ 200 mg/dL in a person with classic symptoms of hyperglycemia or hyperglycemic crisis.

The correct answer is B. Measurement of hemoglobin A1C ≤ 6.5% is not a criterion. Criteria for diagnosis of diabetes are (1) a fasting plasma glucose of 126 mg/dL or higher, OR (2) a 2-hour plasma glucose of 200 mg/dL or more during OGTT, (3) OR a hemoglobin A1c of 6.5% of more, OR (4) random plasma glucose of 200 mg/dL or higher (in a patient with classic symptoms of hyperglycemia or hyperglycemic crisis.

Q. Which of these acronyms requires compliance with safety standards? SDS OSHA HACCP MDS

The correct answer is B. OSHA is the Occupational Safety and Health Administration. The agency requires employers to comply with the Hazard Communication Standard, also known as Right-to-Know, which requires employers to train employees on how to safely use the chemicals they work with. SDS is a Safety Data Sheet contains important safety information about chemicals and has replaced the material safety data sheet (MSDS). HACCP, Hazard Analysis Critical Control Points, is based on identifying significant biological, chemical, or physical hazards at specific points within a product's flow. MDS is Minimum Data Set is a standardized screening and assessment tool of health status used in long-term care.

Q. Studies suggest that the most serious and prevalent long-term consequences of childhood overweight is: A. dyslipidemia and glucose intolerance. B. obesity and morbidity in adulthood. C. lowered self-esteem and increased depression as an adolescent. D. excessive body weight and hormonal imbalance before puberty leading to growth plate injuries.

The correct answer is B. Research shows that obese children have a significantly higher chance of being obese in adulthood. The implications in the other options are of concern but represent short-term complications.

Q. When using the Nutrition Care Process, what three things do dietetics practitioners do in completing Nutrition Monitoring and Evaluation? A. Prioritize nutrition diagnoses, consult the Academy's evidence-based nutrition practice guidelines, and determine patient-focused expected outcomes. B. Scrutinize, measure, and assess the changes in nutrition care indicators. C. Confer with patient/client/caregivers, define a nutrition plan and strategies, and determine time and frequency of care. D. Identify resources needed, communicate the nutrition care plan, and implement the plan.

The correct answer is B. Scrutinizing, measuring, and assessing are the key activities during the monitoring and evaluation step.

Q. What is the first step in the Nutrition Care Process? A. Nutrition screening B. Nutrition assessment C. Nutrition diagnosis D. Goal setting

The correct answer is B. Sequential steps in the Nutrition Care Process are nutrition assessment, nutrition diagnosis, nutrition intervention, and nutrition monitoring and evaluation.

Q. An adult is described as overweight when their body mass index is 18.5 to 24.9. 25.0 to 29.9. 25.0 to 34.9. 30.0 to 40.0.

The correct answer is B. The BMI range for overweight is 25.0 to 29.9. Above 29.9 is obese.

Q. Which of the following lunch menus reflect proper menu planning principles? A. Steamed haddock, rice, roasted cauliflower, vanilla frozen yogurt with fresh pineapple B. Baked pork chop, sautéed broccoli, rice pilaf, vanilla frozen yogurt with strawberries C. Grilled chicken breast, mashed potatoes, steamed parsnips, lemon sorbet D. Meatballs, tiny whole potatoes, Brussels sprouts, fresh bing cherries

The correct answer is B. The meal in choice B (baked pork chop, sautéed broccoli, rice pilaf, vanilla frozen yogurt with strawberries) shows the best use of color in a lunch meal, as well as a variety of flavors, textures, consistency, and food shapes that are balanced. The foods complement each other and employ a variety of cooking methods. The meals in answer choices A and C are mostly white in color and not as visually appealing. The meal in option D has color variety, but all the foods have the same shape (round).

Q. Preparing the following recipe for conversion using the percentage method, what is the percentage of flour? 1 kg plain flour 4.7 g teaspoon salt 3.5 g baking powder 900 g unsalted butter 400 g granulated sugar A. 0.43% B. 43.32% C. 7.60% D. 76%

The correct answer is B. Total weight of the recipe is 2308.2 g. Individual ingredient weight/total weight x 100 = percentage of individual ingredient; so 1 kg = 1000 g/2308.2 = 0.4332 x 100 = 43.32%. Flour = 43.32%.

Q. Which decision-making process would be most appropriate for determining whether medication, consultations with a registered dietitian nutritionist, or some combination of the two is the best approach for lowering serum triglyceride levels? A. Decision tree B. Cost-effectiveness analysis C. Network chart D. Cost-benefit analysis

The correct answer is B. Various techniques have been developed to assist managers with decision making. Cost-effectiveness provides a comparison of alternative courses of action in terms of their cost, financial gains and savings, and effectiveness in obtaining an objective. This technique does not include costs or effectiveness in obtaining objectives. Network charts are useful for presenting a graphic representation of a project, depicting the flow and sequence of defined activities and events; for example, planning, scheduling, and controlling a catered lunch. Cost-benefit provides a comparison of costs to financial gains -effectiveness is not considered.

Q. A dietary supplement with the statement "Vitamin K helps support normal blood clotting" on the label is making a A. health claim. B. nutrient claim. C. structure/function claim. D. qualified health claim.

The correct answer is C. A dietary supplement that makes this type of statement is presenting a structure/function claim as per the FDA's functional foods guidelines.

Q. A worksite weight management program is being planned for use with small groups of employees. A long-term goal is to reduce health care claims. During a pilot series, participants are asked to rate and comment on the relevance of the visuals, handouts, and activities. Results will be used in revising the program before widespread implementation. This is an example of A. outcome evaluation. B. income evaluation. C. formative evaluation. D. impact evaluation.

The correct answer is C. A formative evaluation occurs as a program is being developed, perhaps as a pilot test, as contrasted with a summative evaluation that occurs at the end of the program or as participants complete the program.

Q. A client verbally attacks the registered dietitian nutritionist, indicating that weight loss expectations are unrealistic and no one could meet them. What defense mechanism is being exhibited? A. Regression B. Repression C. Aggression D. Projection

The correct answer is C. Aggression is directly attacking the source of frustration—in this case, the RDN.

Q. Which would be added to a cola beverage as a natural colorant? A. Sodium benzoate B. Caffeine C. Caramel D. Vanillin

The correct answer is C. Amber-hued colas get their color from natural caramel.

Q. According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention's worst-case projection made in 2010, what proportion of the US adult population will have diabetes by the year 2050? 15% 20% 30% 50%

The correct answer is C. Approximately 30% of the nation's adults are projected to have diabetes by 2050.

Q. In December 2014, the FDA approved a final rule that calorie and other nutrition labeling would be required for standard menu items offered for sale in a restaurant or similar retail food establishment that is part of a chain with _____ or more locations, doing business under the same name, and offering for sale substantially the same menu items. A. 5 B. 10 C. 20 D. 30

The correct answer is C. As part of the Affordable Care Act, the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act was amended to require restaurants and similar retail food establishments that are part of a chain with 20 or more locations doing business under the same name and offering for sale substantially the same menu items to provide calorie and other nutrition information for standard menu items. US Food and Drug Administration. Food Labeling; Nutrition Labeling of Standard Menu Items in Restaurants and Similar Retail Food Establishments. Federal Register: The Daily Journal of the United States Government. December 12, 2014. Available at: https://www.federalregister.gov/articles/2014/12/01/2014-27833/food-labeling-nutrition-labeling-of-standard-menu-items-in-restaurants-and-similar-retail-food#h-15.

Q. Which of the Standards of Practice is being applied when the RD plans for care of a patient following discharge? A. Nutrition assessment B. Nutrition intervention C. Nutrition monitoring and evaluation D. Nutrition diagnosis

The correct answer is C. Assessment, diagnosis, and intervention would have already been completed at this point. The next phase is nutrition monitoring and evaluation, which is conducted after a patient is discharged.

Q. The foodservice department has been asked to prepare a special luncheon for the Grandway Hospital Board of Directors on Tuesday. There will be 25 board members at the luncheon. There are 125 portions of vegetable lasagna needed for the hospital's lunch service that day. The standardized vegetable lasagna recipe yields 125 portions and requires 21 lb of ricotta cheese. How much ricotta cheese must Chef Carl order to meet production needs? A. 42 lb B. 149 lb C. 26 lb D. 20 lb

The correct answer is C. Carl has a recipe for 125 portions and he needs to increase the yield to 150 portions. Divide 150 by 125 to get the factor, which is 1.2. Then multiply 21 pounds by 1.2 to get 25.2 pounds and round up to 26 pounds.

Q. For a food to be labeled "high in," "rich in," or an "excellent source" of a nutrient, what percentage of the Daily Value for that nutrient must be present? 10% 15% 20% 25%

The correct answer is C. Food labeling laws require that a food provide 20% of a nutrient's daily value in order to be labeled "high in," "rich in," or an "excellent source" of that nutrient.

Q. Which additive derived from collagen might be used in a frozen dessert as a stabilizer, thickener, and texturizer? A. Gum ghatti B. Modified food starch C. Gelatin D. Corn syrup

The correct answer is C. Gelatin is a translucent, colorless, brittle (when dry), and flavorless solid substance, derived from collagen obtained from various animal byproducts.

Q. Which of the following study design types is characterized as "the most powerful design for evaluating practices and medical treatments"? Qualitative research Prospective studies Randomized trials Cohort studies

The correct answer is C. In randomized trials, participants are randomly assigned to control or treatment groups. This allows the researcher to derive knowledge about causes of diseases and to evaluate the effectiveness of results from the various treatment groups.

Q. A typical feeding/eating pattern for infants is to require apple juice at 4 months to regulate stooling. to require cereal at bedtime after 3 months to sleep through the night. to require only breastmilk or iron-fortified formula for the first 6 months of age. hard to predict since their interest in eating is so variable.

The correct answer is C. Infants only need breastmilk or iron-fortified formula for the first 6 months of life.

Q. When determining presentation of items on a printed menu, considerations are taken for their position on the menu. Items you wish to sell more of should be placed so that they are the first and/or last thing a customer sees. This positioning strategy is the science of A. menu design. B. menu placement. C. menu psychology. D. menu structure.

The correct answer is C. Menu psychology is an examination of how to design a menu to influence what customers pick to eat.

Q. What organization creates national standards for foodservice equipment? CDC FDA NSF OSHA

The correct answer is C. NSF is accredited by the American National Standards Institute (ANSI). NSF has developed more than 80 voluntary American National Standards under the scope of public health, safety, environment, and sustainability assessment. NSF/ANSI standards are developed through a public process that ensures balanced input from industry representatives, public health/regulatory officials, and users/consumer representatives. The CDC investigates foodborne illnesses. The FDA issues the Model Food Code. OSHA investigates workplace accidents.

Q. A foodservice facility posted signs indicating that all employees must wash hands before returning to the production area after a break. This is referred to as a A. single-use plan. B. procedure. C. policy. D. foodservice law.

The correct answer is C. Policy indicates what should be done whereas a procedure indicates how it should be done. There is no such thing as foodservice law. A single-use plan is not applicable in this context.

Q. Which federal agency regulates wines with less than 7% alcohol? A. Federal Trade Commission (FTC) B. US Department of Commerce (USDC) C. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) D. Department of the Treasury

The correct answer is C. The FDA regulates wines with lower alcohol content (less than 7%). The Alcohol and Tobacco Tax and Trade Bureau is responsible for oversight and regulation of all other alcoholic beverages.

Q. An instrument to collect data on the use of dietary supplements would be viewed as valid if it has been used previously many times. contains words and phrases familiar to participants. measures accurately what it is intended to measure. yields primarily quantitative data.

The correct answer is C. The defining feature of validity is whether the instrument accurately measures what it intends to measure. In contrast, reliability indicates that an instrument will provide similar results when used multiple times for the same measurement (but the information may not necessarily be accurate).

Q. A foodservice operation's Net Profit is $41,137, Cost of Goods Sold is $145,350, Average Inventory Value is $7,330, and Total Meals Served Per Day is 200. What is the inventory turnover rate? A. 3.53 B. 5.61 C. 19.83 D. 36.65

The correct answer is C. The inventory turnover rate is determined by dividing the cost of goods sold by the average inventory value. $145,350/$7,330 = 19.83.

Q. The distinction between a franchise quick service restaurant (QSR) located in a shopping mall and the same franchise QSR located in a medical facility is that A. the shopping mall QSR is the only one allowed to make a profit. B. the medical facility QSR is expected to operate at a loss. C. the QSR in the hospital serves a secondary purpose while the QSR in the shopping mall serves as the primary purpose. D. the QSR in the shopping mall satisfies a level 1 customer-driven need while the QSR in the hospital does not.

The correct answer is C. The onsite foodservice operation is where sale of food is secondary to the goal of the organization. Foodservice in the hospital serves a secondary purpose of providing convenient access to food for employees and visitors. It may or may not be expected to generate a profit. However, the goal of the QSR in the shopping mall serves the primary purpose of selling food for a profit.

Q. A patient with a new diagnosis of iron-deficiency anemia has been referred to the dietetics practitioner. She did not know she was anemic; however, she admits to feeling tired lately. At which stage of change is this person? Prepared Contemplative Precontemplative Maintenance

The correct answer is C. This patient is in the precontemplative stage, because she was not aware that she had anemia, and she was not thinking about changing her diet. Ignorance and denial are characteristics of precontemplation.

Q. Which of the following is a physical link between safe water and dirty water, which can come from drains, sewers, or other wastewater sources? Air gap Backflow Vacuum breaker Cross-connection

The correct answer is D. A cross-connection is dangerous because it can let backflow occur. Backflow is the reverse flow of contaminants through a cross-connection into a drinkable water supply. An air gap is the space that separates a water supply outlet from a potentially contaminated source. A vacuum breaker is a mechanical device that prevents back siphonage.

Q. The facility is planning a kitchen upgrade and the chef requests a number of pieces of equipment that would best allow for flexibility in menu item preparation methods. Soups, stews, and pasta dishes are very popular menu items. The concern is that there is limited space to work with. Which of the following pieces of equipment would best serve the facility in terms of functionality and space? Combo oven Steam-jacketed kettle Eight-burner cook top Tilting skillet

The correct answer is D. A tilting skillet has the capacity to meet a broad range of cooking needs. It can be used for soups, stews, and pasta, as well as serve as a fryer, griddle, oven, and hot holding.

Q. Which one of the following is NOT included in the statin benefit group according to the 2013 American College of Cardiology (ACC)/American Heart Association (AHA) Guidelines on the Treatment of Blood Cholesterol to Reduce Atherosclerotic Cardiovascular Risk in Adults? A. Individuals with low-density lipoprotein cholesterol (LDL-C) elevations > 190 mg/dL B. Individuals 40 to 75 years of age with diabetes and LDL-C between 70 and 189 mg/dL C. Individuals with clinical atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease (ASCVD) D. Individuals without ASCVD, diabetes mellitus between the ages of 40 and 75 and who have a 10-year risk of 5.5%

The correct answer is D. According to the ACC/AHA guidelines, the individuals listed in options A, B, and C are routinely prescribed a statin; the individuals listed in option D are not. Statin use is indicated in individuals whose ASCVD risk score is 7.5% and above.

Q. Which of the following glucose-lowering medications would require patient education about treatment of hypoglycemia? Metformin (Glucophage) Sitagliptin (Januvia) Pioglitazone (Actos) Glimepiride (Amaryl)

The correct answer is D. Among the options, glimepiride (Amaryl) is the only secretagogue, which means the mechanism of action is stimulating the pancreas to make insulin, thereby causing the possibility of low blood glucose.

Q. Critical nutrition concerns in children ages 2-11 years of age include: A. excessive intakes of dietary fat, especially saturated fats. B. decreased intakes of foods that are good sources of calcium, fiber, iron, vitamin E, folate, magnesium, and potassium. C. sedentary lifestyles. D. all of the above.

The correct answer is D. Based on the Academy's position on nutrition guidance for children aged 2 to 11 years, all the factors listed contribute to concerns in this population.

Q. Which of the following is an appropriate method to prevent aspiration during enteral feeding? A. Use a fiber-containing formula B. Elevate the head of the bed >15° C. Place a percutaneous gastrostomy D. Place a nasojejunal tube

The correct answer is D. Compared with gastric tube feeding, duodenojejunal (small intestine) tube feeding may be associated with a lower incidence of aspiration. This is especially true if the patient has significantly slowed gastric motility. Some clinicians believe that enteral nutrition delivered to the small bowel is a better choice than feedings delivered to the stomach and will place a nasojejunal feeding tube. This type of feeding tube is more difficult to place than a nasogastric tube 18 French but its proponents say that it decreases the risk of aspiration and may provide more energy; thus, the feeding schedule will be subject to fewer interruptions. However, both the jejunum and the stomach can be safely used to deliver energy, so the differences between the two types of tubes are minimal, both can be effective, and the decision as to which one to use depends on the skill of the practitioner and the potential tolerance of the patient.

Q. Using behavioral learning theory can be problematic in a foodservice environment because one of its tenets is that ______. A. positive reinforcement is used B. its use requires that there be a good role model C. learners have to be permitted to ask questions D. undesirable behaviors are ignored

The correct answer is D. Conditioning is a process by which one learns and that process can be less effective in a chaotic environment. Chaotic environments can wrongly give the impression that multiple, inconsistent behaviors are the correct behavior, leaving the learning confused about the correct behavior.

Q. The term for the study of the distribution and determinants of disease frequency is: meta-analysis. prevalence. incidence. epidemiology.

The correct answer is D. Epidemiology is the study of disease among people. This includes distribution of the disease, how the disease is located among the population, how the disease is spread, what causes the disease, and the frequency of the disease in the population.

Q. The Standards of Practice are structured to include the Standards, Rationales, Examples of Outcomes, and _____. A. Goals B. Targets C. Processes D. Indicators

The correct answer is D. Indicators are included as measurable and quantifiable actions or statements. They illustrate how specific standards of practice may be applied and evaluated.

Q. Which of the following statements about patient-centered medical homes (PCMH) is true? A. The cost for chronic care remains constant B. Traditional medical records are essential. C. Patients are responsible for access to care. D. The team of providers changes as the health care needs differ.

The correct answer is D. One of the biggest advantages of a PCMH is access to care—the team of providers changes as the health care needs differ. All other statements are false with regard to PCMH

Q. In the Cajun and Creole culture, the traiteur is the one _____. A. who provides valued health and wellness information B. who is considered the most revered member of the community C. who blesses the food before it is consumed D. who believes he or she possesses a divine gift for healing

The correct answer is D. Similar to a shaman in other cultures, a traiteur believes he or she possesses an ability to heal.

Q. Which of the following is a secondary characteristic of culture? A. Religion B. Age C. Gender D. Socioeconomic status

The correct answer is D. Socioeconomic status is a secondary characteristic of an individual's cultural identity.

Q. Which is an example of a food preserved by lowering the water activity of the food by adding a solute? A. Canned corn B. Sun-dried tomatoes C. Frozen peas D. Grape jelly

The correct answer is D. Solutes such as sugar added to jams and jellies and salt added to cured meats inhibit microbial growth by lowering water activity. Canning does not lower water activity; freezing forms ice crystals, which removes water from the solution in the foods that are frozen. The lower water activity of sun-dried tomatoes is due to the removal of water, not the addition of a solute. While the vapor pressure is decreased due to the higher levels of sugar and or salt in dehydrated foods, salt and sugar are not added to the product as a solute.

Q. According to the Academy of Nutrition and Dietetics, each registered dietitian nutritionist is expected to promote public access and referral to credentialed dietetics practitioners for quality food and nutrition programs and services by A. participating in public service or other mass media efforts to educate the citizenry. B. monitoring support of food and nutrition programs and services for populations with special needs. C. participating in interdisciplinary teams efforts and referring patients in a manner consistent with HIPAA rules for use and disclosure. D. monitoring the effectiveness of referral systems and modifying them as needed to achieve desirable outcomes.

The correct answer is D. Standard 3 of the Standards of Professional Performance for Registered Dietitians includes 3.2—promotes public access and referral to credentialed dietetics practitioners for quality food and nutrition programs and service. The three components are: 3.2A "Contributes to or designs referral systems that promote access to qualified, credentialed dietetics practitioners"; 3.2B "Refers customers to appropriate providers when requested services or identified needs exceed the RD's individual scope of practice"; and 3.2c "Monitors effectiveness of referral systems and modifies as needed to achieve desirable outcomes."

Q. Which one of the following patient scenarios requires less stringent blood glucose targets? A. A 32-year-old with new diagnosis of type 2 diabetes B. A 65-year-old on metformin only and who is determined to lose weight and get off medication C. A 72-year-old with 8-year history of diabetes starting basal insulin therapy D. A 58-year-old with severe cardiomyopathy, depression, and limited family supports

The correct answer is D. Stringent glucose targets are established with regard to life expectancy, presence of comorbid conditions, risk of hypoglycemia, and support systems. Scenarios A, B, and C represent appropriate supports to initiate basal insulin with low risk for hypoglycemia.

Q. The most influential perception factor in a person's selection of a particular food is A. olfactory. B. mouthfeel or texture. C. visual. D. gustatory.

The correct answer is D. Taste, or gustatory, is the most influential factor in food preferences, more so than mouthfeel (texture), smell (olfactory), or visual.

Q. In accordance with the FDA's product labeling regulations, an item with less than ____ kcal per labeled serving can be considered "calorie free." 45 35 15 5

The correct answer is D. The FDA regulates product nutrient content claims on labels, for example, a label that claims a product is calorie free. These products must have no more than 5 kcal per labeled serving or RACC (reference amounts customarily consumed) to meet regulatory requirements.

Q. What organization created standards for cultural competence that resulted in the 2014 publication of a monograph to inspire hospitals to integrate cultural competence as well as other patient- and family-centered care concepts? A. The Academy of Nutrition and Dietetics B. US Dept. of Education C. US Dept. of Health and Human Services D. Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations

The correct answer is D. The Joint Commission published this monograph to inspire hospitals to integrate concepts from the communication, cultural competence, and patient- and family-centered care fields into their organizations. The Roadmap for Hospitals provides recommendations to help hospitals address unique patient needs, meet the patient-centered communication standards, and comply with related Joint Commission requirements

Q. The two financial statements primarily used by foodservice managers to analyze operational effectiveness are the A. inventory valuation record and budget. B. balance sheet and inventory valuation record. C. budget and income statement. D. income statement and balance sheet.

The correct answer is D. The inventory valuation record contains an accounting of the cost of items kept in the inventory. The balance sheet is a list of assets, liabilities, and capital, and the income statement is a financial statement that shows all operating results for a desired time period.

Q. A diagnosis of hypersensitivity to food requires A. conducting a food challenge without restricting the suspected food. B. documented atopic dermatitis. C. using an elimination diet for 3 weeks. D. verifying the food that causes an adverse reaction and excluding other causes of adverse reactions.

The correct answer is D. To confirm a food hypersensitivity diagnosis, the clinician is required to verify that the food allergen alone causes the adverse reaction.

Q. Food inventory is being valued. Eighteen #10 cans of diced pears are on the shelf. From oldest to newest cans, three cost $6.66 each, six cost $6.72 each, and nine cost $6.78 each. Using the FIFO valuation method, what is the total inventory value of diced pears? $119.88 $120.96 $121.32 $122.04

The correct answer is D. Using the First In, First Out system, the inventory should be valued at the price of the most recent purchase. Multiply 18 cans by $6.78, the most recent price, to get $122.04.

Q. The Nutrition Care Process model consists of:

all of the above: outcomes management systems. dietetics knowledge. critical thinking skills The Nutrition Care Process model is different from the nutrition care process itself. The model encompasses all of the areas listed, not just the Assessment, Diagnosis, Intervention, and Monitoring & Evaluation steps.

Q. What is the intended purpose of Healthy People 2020?

To establish a set of national goals and objectives designed to guide health promotion and disease prevention efforts.

Q. When the diet is adequate in protein, the body can synthesize niacin from which amino acid?

Tryptophan Tryptophan is an amino acid that is converted to niacin in the liver. An estimated 1 mg niacin is made from the ingestion of 60 mg tryptophan.

Q. Which of the following agencies oversees voluntary inspection and grading of fish and fish products?

US Department of Commerce (USDC) Inspection of fish and fish products, which are not subject to mandatory grading, is overseen by the USDC's National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), which is part of the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA). The NMFS will provide inspection of fish, fisheries, and seafood for a fee. The requirements for inspection of fish and seafood are set by the FDA but carried out by the NMFS. The FDA is responsible for all fish imports into the United States.

Q. If a person with type 1 diabetes experiences dramatically low blood glucose and becomes unconscious, the most appropriate action would be to?

administer glucagon and call 9-1-1.. Since the patient is unconscious/unresponsive, glucagon should be administered as the first-line treatment. A glucagon injection will mobilize glucose from the liver to raise the blood sugar level. This treatment minimizes risk of choking for patients who are not conscious. Contact emergency services immediately after administering the glucagon injection.

Q. ABC Hospital Food and Nutrition Department prepares and delivers meals to other health care operations in a large metropolitan area. Other hospital foodservices in the metropolitan area have recently begun offering meal delivery service. ABC Hospital modified its service to offer home meal replacements to the health care staff in addition to its other meal delivery service. ABC Hospital is using

focus strategy. Focus strategy uses a cost leadership or differentiation strategy to target a specific, limited-size market niche. ABC Hospital changed its service to reach out to a specific population/market niche in home meal replacement to health care staff. The other hospital is using a competitive approach against ABC hospital.

Q. The variable that is manipulated in an experimental research study is the?

independent variable. The independent variable is the variable that is changed or manipulated in experimental research to determine outcome.

Q. When preparing a PES statement in situations where there are diagnoses from multiple domains, the dietetics professional should give preference to the diagnosis related to:

intake Intake is the only area of concern at this point in the process so it is the priority.

Q. Customer and employee satisfaction are both

outputs of the foodservice system. The outputs are the goods and services that result from transforming the inputs of the system and express how objectives are achieved. Customer and employee satisfaction and financial accountability are desired outcomes in a foodservice system.

Q. A storeroom staffed with a full-time employee would be considered a(n) ___________ of a university residence hall foodservice.

subsystem A subsystem is a complete system unto itself (such as a storeroom) that is part of a larger system (in this case, a university residence hall foodservice).

Q. Consider the following statement from a patient during a nutrition consult: "I really want to improve my lunch choices by packing my own lunch, but I'm afraid I'll miss the social time with my coworkers." In the setting of motivational interviewing, this is an example of:

sustain talk. The client's statement is not change talk because it argues for the status quo. Developing discrepancy is a technique employed by the clinician. Motivational interviewing rejects the concept of resistance and understands ambivalence is a natural component of the change process. The client's statement is an example of sustain talk.

Q. One advantage of using a crossover design over a parallel design is?

there is a reduction in variability. Crossover design includes a washout period and does not have to be a shorter study duration. The advantage to crossover design is that it uses the same subjects who serve as the control, thus receiving the same treatment, resulting in a reduction in variability. This reduction in variability allows for a smaller sample size.

Q. Consumption of high levels of folate supplements can mask a(n) _____________ deficiency.

vitamin B12 Folate supplements will help the body recover from anemia that occurs from a deficiency of folate and vitamin B12. However, without adequate vitamin B12, neurological problems progress and become irreversible.

Q. The formula for determining value analysis is V=Q/P, where V= value; Q=quality; P=price. If P increases, and there is no change in Q, then V will remain the same. will most likely increase. changes as much as P. will most likely decrease.

will most likely decrease. No change was indicated for Q. If the denominator (P) increases and Q remains the same, the only definite change to be noted in V would be a decrease.

Q. Dietetic students finishing supervised practice should be able to utilize food and nutrition management systems, client educational materials, and

work with electronic health records. Entry-level practitioners need to have a general awareness of entry-level informatics skills, which include electronic health records, food and nutrition management systems, and educational print materials.