Practice Test Questions Wrong
If the red line in the Balmer series has a wavelength of 656 nm, which of the following is closest to its frequency (c = 3.0 x 10^8 m/s)? A. 4.6 × 10^14 Hz B. 4.6 × 10^−14 Hz C. 2.1 × 10^15 Hz D. 2.1 × 10^−15 Hz
A. 4.6 × 10^14 Hz
If a defibrillator (3000 V, 25 microfarad (uF)) were fully charged and the entire charge were discharged through a patient in 10 ms, which of the following is closest to the average electrical current that would flow through the paddles? A. 7.5 A B. 15 A C. 22.5 A D. 30 A
A. 7.5 A
Using AR biopsy specimens, researchers measured the levels of CD3 (T cell) mRNA and CD20 (B cell) mRNA and determined that there was a positive correlation between these mRNA levels and the levels of miR-142-5p, miR-155, and miR-223 but not with miR-10b, miR-30a-3p and let-7c. The association observed experimentally between the expression of miRNAs and mRNAs in AR kidney transplants indicates that miRNAs regulate the expression of genes implicated in which type(s) of immune response(s)? A. Adaptive immunity only B. Humoral immunity only C. Innate and cell-mediated immunity only D. Adaptive and innate immunity only
A. Adaptive immunity only
In chromatography, (His)6 tag labeled proteins can be eluted from Ni2+-supported columns by adding a small molecule to the eluent that mimics the side chain of histidine. The researchers purified the hMPRα with two successive rounds of chromatography that exploited each of the tags. The buffers used to elute the protein contained 300 mM NaCl, 50 mM NaH2PO4 (pKa = 7.2), and various amounts of NaOH (MM = 40 g/mol). During the first chromatography step, a specific chemical agent was immobilized on the stationary phase to bind to the Compound 1 tag. After the second chromatography step, which utilized the (His)6 tag, the researchers used the same binding assay and found that Kd was similar. The second purification step is which type of chromatographic separation? A. Affinity B. Size exclusion C. Cation exchange D. Anion exchange
A. Affinity
Upon exposure to pro-inflammatory agents such as TNFα, cells produce reactive oxygen species (ROS), which can react with guanine bases in DNA to generate 8-oxo-G. This modified guanine can participate in Hoogsteen base pairs with adenine, an event that upon DNA replication results in G to T and C to A mutations. Guanine-rich promoter regions are particularly susceptible to this type of ROS-induced DNA damage. OGG1 is a DNA glycosylase that recognizes 8-oxo-G. OGG1 is involved in two processes: base excision repair of 8-oxo-G as well as transcription initiation for pro-inflammatory genes such as Cxcl family members. These transcription events also involve binding of NF-κB to promoters as NF-κB recruitment increases dramatically following OGG1 binding to DNA. TH5487 is a compound that mimics 8-oxo-G structure and binds to the active site of OGG1. Which outcome most likely results from exposure of Ogg1-/- mice to TNFα? A. Increase in cancer incidence B. Increase in Cxcl2 expression C. Decrease in cellular ROS levels D. Decrease in KD of TH5487 for its target
A. Increase in cancer incidence
Biases can influence how we process new information and update our beliefs. In Study 1, researchers examined the conditions under which individuals are willing to update their beliefs about the frequency of various negative life events, such as Alzheimer's disease or robbery. In the first phase of the experiment, the participants were asked about their preconceived notions of the frequency of negative events. The researchers found a tendency to underestimate the frequency of negative events. The participants also believed that they were at a lower risk of experiencing negative events compared to other individuals. In the second phase of the experiment, the participants were given new information about the frequency of various negative events. Sometimes the new information was better than what the participant expected (for example, they were told that negative events occur less frequently than they had thought). Other times, the new information was worse than expected. The results showed that people were more likely to update their beliefs when the new information suggested that negative events were less likely than they expected. The researchers who conducted Study 1 were interested in the individual differences between the participants in terms of how they update their beliefs. The participants' scores on which variable would be most likely to predict how they update their beliefs? A. Optimism B. Self-esteem C. Impression management D. Self-efficacy
A. Optimism
What functional group transformation occurs in the product of the reaction catalyzed by Na+-NQR, a transmembrane protein that catalyzes the reaction between NADH and ubiquinone coupled to the pumping of Na+ across the plasma membrane, resulting in a Na+ concentration gradient? A. RC(=O)R → RCH(OH)R B. ROPO32- → ROH + Pi C. RC(=O)NHR'→ RCOOH + R'NH2 D. RC(=O)OR'→ RCOOH + R'OH
A. RC(=O)R → RCH(OH)R
When caring for a family member with advanced cancer, caregivers are often faced with the demands of completing many tasks for the patient while maintaining employment and other personal responsibilities. This situation describes which role dynamic? A. Role conflict B. Role adjustment C. Role strain D. Role engulfment
A. Role conflict
Sommeliers are under a great deal of pressure to perform the difficult task of describing wines correctly. The ability to pick out specific flavor notes from the overall wine flavor and name them accurately requires considerable practice. As more sugar is added, subtle changes in the sweetness of wine can be detected by both experts and novices. However, the lowest level of an odor that can be detected does not seem to be improved with training. Which construct is most relevant to the description about the comparison of two wines with different levels of sweetness? A. Weber's law B. Perceptual constancy C. Natural selection D. Absolute threshold
A. Weber's law
In which phase of meiosis does nondisjunction occur? A: Anaphase I B: Metaphase II C: Prophase I D: Telophase II
A: Anaphase I
The principal quantum number is a measure of which of the following? A: Approximate radial size of an electron cloud B: Approximate shape of an electron cloud C: Number of valence electrons that orbit a nucleus D: Number of protons and neutrons found in the nucleus of an atom
A: Approximate radial size of an electron cloud
Variations in the human gene CDKAL1, which encodes CDKAL1, are associated with impaired insulin secretion and increased risk of type 2 diabetes (T2D). CDKAL1 and its bacterial homolog YqeV (encoded by yqeV) are methylthiotransferases that complete the synthesis of a modified nucleotide called ms2t6A (Figure 1) immediately 3 of the UUU anticodon in lysine tRNA. Based on the passage, the level of which of the following is most likely lower in nonfasting wild-type mice than in nonfasting Cdkal1-/- mice? A: Blood glucose levels B: Cellular glucose uptake C: Liver glycogen synthesis D: Cellular protein synthesis
A: Blood glucose levels
Antigenic variation is a survival strategy used by the human malaria parasite Plasmodium falciparum to avoid destruction by the host's immune system. This variation is mediated by the differential control of a family of surface adhesion molecules termed PfEMP1, which are encoded by approximately 60 var genes. PfEMP1 enhances P. falciparum survival by binding infected erythrocytes to endothelium. Different PfEMP1 subsets bind different endothelial proteins; for example, binding of infected erythrocytes to ICAM1 protein in brain venules causes cerebral malaria. The information in the passage suggests that which symptom or characteristic of malaria is PfEMP1-mediated? A: Blood vessel blockage B: Low red blood cell count C: Recurring fever and chills D: Sickle cell hemoglobin-mediated malaria resistance
A: Blood vessel blockage
Which amino acid is neutral, but zwitterionic at pH 7, despite possessing two nitrogen atoms in its formula? A: Gln B: Lys C: Tyr D: Arg
A: Gln
In the ocean, many animals use organic material dissolved in seawater as a nutrient source. The ability of these organisms to absorb dissolved organic matter (DOM), such as amino acids, across the body wall is believed to play an important role in their survival in low-food, nutrient-poor conditions. Moreover, survival in a nutrient-poor water column is likely enhanced if animals have low rates of utilization of cellular energy reserves. Which feature of the kinetics of L-alanine transport would provide evidence that DOM is an important source of nutrients under low-food conditions? A: High-affinity transport (Kt) of L-alanine B: Low-affinity transport (Kt) of L-alanine C: High transport capacity (Jmax) of L-alanine D: Low transport capacity (Jmax) of L-alanine
A: High-affinity transport (Kt) of L-alanine
In humans, the lining of which structure is NOT primarily derived from the endoderm? A: Mouth B: Bronchi C: Bladder D: Stomach
A: Mouth
Which development from the passage best illustrates an organizational change in the context of child abuse diagnosis and prevention? A: The addition of a pediatric subspecialty in child abuse pediatrics B: The increase in research on child abuse since the influential 1962 article C: The passage of state laws in the 1960s that mandate child abuse reporting D: The continued debate over how to understand the problem of child abuse
A: The addition of a pediatric subspecialty in child abuse pediatrics
The density of a human body can be calculated from its weight in air, Wair, and its weight while submersed in water, Ww. The density of a human body is proportional to: A: Wair/(Wair - Ww). B: (Wair - Ww)/Wair. C: (Wair - Ww)/Ww. D: Ww/(Wair - Ww).
A: Wair/(Wair - Ww).
In oxidative phosphorylation, cytochrome c acts as: A: a 1-electron carrier. B: a 2-electron carrier. C: a 3-electron carrier. D: a 4-electron carrier.
A: a 1-electron carrier.
In a study examining CP of color (Study 1), native English speakers were presented with a target color from the blue-green continuum. After a five-second delay, they were shown the response options of two color patches, one of which matched the target color. They were asked to select the option that best matched the target color. Participants' responses were significantly faster and more accurate when the response options belonged to different color categories than when they were from the same color category. This finding occurred even when the difference in hues between cross-category options was equal to the difference in hues between within-category options. The linguistic determinism hypothesis suggests that CP of color is a consequence of language. Native speakers become attuned to the cross-category differences that are defined by the color names in their language and less attentive to the within-category differences. To seek support for this hypothesis, Study 2 sought to replicate Study 1 with Berinmo speakers. The Berinmo language does not have separate color names for blue and green but distinguishes between nol and wor, which are two categories that vary on the yellow-green continuum. The Berinmo participants were trained on the English blue-green distinction and were tested both with stimuli from the nol-wor continuum and the blue-green continuum. A follow-up study compares the perceptual discrimination performance of Berinmo speakers and native English speakers. What does the linguistic determinism hypothesis predict? Compared to the perceptual discrimination performance of native English speakers, performance of the Berinmo speakers will be: A: equal on the nol-wor continuum and worse on the blue-green continuum. B: equal on both the nol-wor continuum and the blue-green continuum. C: worse on both the nol-wor continuum and the blue-green continuum. D: worse on the nol-wor continuum and better on the blue-green continuum.
A: equal on the nol-wor continuum and worse on the blue-green continuum.
How would the James-Lange theory of emotion explain the aggressive emotions experienced by the participants in the experimental condition? Participants experience physiological arousal from watching violent programs and: A: this arousal is followed by aggressive emotions. B: they simultaneously experience aggressive emotions. C: they interpret their arousal, which results in aggressive emotions. D: this leads to fight-or-flight responses that are perceived as aggressive emotions.
A: this arousal is followed by aggressive emotions.
Studies have implicated sodium bioenergetics in the pathogenesis of V. cholerae in humans. An electrochemical gradient of Na+ known as the "sodium motive force" provides V. cholerae with the energy for key functions. The gradient is predominantly established by the Na+-pumping NADH:quinone oxidoreductase (Na+-NQR) enzyme. What is the most likely effect of adding a sodium ionophore to a culture of V. cholerae? A. Decreased activity of Na+-NQR B. Decreased production of ATP C. Decreased pH of the periplasm D. Decreased consumption of O2
B. Decreased production of ATP
The number of calories used during physical exercise is greater than the number of calories used for the movements themselves. This may be caused in part by exercise-induced expression of uncoupling protein 1 (UCP1) in subcutaneous fat. Subcutaneous fat is mostly white fat cells but can also contain brown fat cells in mice and humans. As part of a thermogenesis program, UCP1 directly reduces the proton gradient driving oxidative phosphorylation. UCP1 expression is a characteristic of brown fat cells only and is induced by the protein irisin. The information in the passage best supports which hypothesis? A. Exercise prevents glucose uptake. B. Exercise promotes less effective cellular respiration. C. Exocrine secretions of skeletal muscle act on adipose tissue. D. Endocrine secretions of adipose tissue act on skeletal muscle.
B. Exercise promotes less effective cellular respiration.
A student sommelier who correctly describes a wine explains his or her success by saying "I just got lucky." Which factor best explains the student's attribution? A. Conformity B. External locus of control C. Social facilitation D. Social inhibition
B. External locus of control
Studies have implicated sodium bioenergetics in the pathogenesis of V. cholerae in humans. An electrochemical gradient of Na+ known as the "sodium motive force" provides V. cholerae with the energy for key functions. The gradient is predominantly established by the Na+-pumping NADH:quinone oxidoreductase (Na+-NQR) enzyme. Which enzyme of the citric acid cycle is NOT directly involved in generation of the dinucleotide required for Na+-NQR activity? A. Malate dehydrogenase B. Succinate dehydrogenase C. Isocitrate dehydrogenase D. Α-Ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
B. Succinate dehydrogenase
MCS oligomers can be obtained from plants via a lipophilic MCS precursor. This MCS precursor was isolated from plant roots through an extraction that involved mixing an aqueous emulsion with tert-butyl methyl ether ((CH3)3COCH3). After NaOH digestion, the active MCS oligomers in Figure 1 were purified on a column containing Amberlyst 15, which is a strongly acidic, neutral stationary phase. In which phase(s) will the MCS precursor be predominantly found after the extraction step? The MCS precursor will: A. be found in the aqueous layer. B. be found in the tert-butyl methyl ether layer. C. be distributed equally between the aqueous layer and the tert-butyl methyl ether layer. D. form a precipitate between the aqueous and tert-butyl methyl ether layers.
B. be found in the tert-butyl methyl ether layer.
Weber's characteristics of an ideal bureaucracy suggest that most formal organizations will: A. train employees to conduct a variety of tasks. B. select employees based on technical qualifications. C. require employees to seek consensus in decisions. D. evaluate employees based on individualized criteria.
B. select employees based on technical qualifications.
A 60 kg person stands inside a 20,000 kg railcar that is attached to a locomotive. For experimental purposes, the person has a ball, a string, a 600 nm wavelength laser, a concave lens, a 100 mF capacitor, and some 12 V, 100 W lightbulbs. The ball and string can be joined to make a pendulum of mass M and length L. After the locomotive releases the railcar, two systems are available to slow the moving railcar. The first system connects an electric generator to the railcar's wheels to charge a 12 V battery mounted on the railcar. Engaging the generator to the wheels puts a decelerating force of 5000 N at 40 m/s, and the force declines linearly with speed. This generator transfers about 80% of the kinetic energy dissipated by this braking force to the battery. The second system allows the person to slow the railcar by the friction of its wheels against a stationary surface in a manner similar to that of the brakes on an automobile. This system can generate a maximum braking force of 14,000 N. The rolling friction of the wheels and the internal friction between the wheels and axles contribute a continuous 1000 N decelerating force any time that the railcar is in motion. What is the total amount of charge and energy, respectively, that the capacitor will store if it is connected to the battery on the railcar? A: 0.12 C and 14.4 J B: 1.20 C and 7.20 J C: 1.44 C and 0.12 J D: 7.20 C and 1.20 J
B: 1.20 C and 7.20 J
Introduction of which amino acid substitution would result in the largest decrease in the entropic penalty associated with a protein folding into its native conformation? A: Ile to Asp substitution at a buried site B: Leu to Thr substitution at a surface-exposed site C: Gly to Pro substitution in a flexible loop D: Arg to Tyr substitution at a surface-exposed site
B: Leu to Thr substitution at a surface-exposed site
One of the main side effects of prolonged use of Compound 1 is the formation of kidney stones composed of calcium oxalate CaC2O4. Researchers used their knowledge of the HIV protease active site, and the metabolic pathways that lead to destruction of Compound 1, to design and synthesize several derivatives of Compound 1 in an effort to modify its properties and increase its potency and half-life. Why do kidney stones form in some individuals treated with Compound 1? A: [Ca2+] + [C2O42-] > Ksp B: [Ca2+][C2O42-] > Ksp C: [Ca2+] + [C2O42-] < Ksp D: [Ca2+][C2O42-] < Ksp
B: [Ca2+][C2O42-] > Ksp
The overall reaction scheme for enzymes of the CYP450 enzyme family is shown with R representing the substrate. NADPH + H+ + O2 + R-H → NADP+ + H2O + R-OH In this reaction, NADPH functions as: A: an oxidizing agent. B: a reducing agent. C: a catalyst. D: an electrophile.
B: a reducing agent.
What is the value of Kb for the conjugate base of a weak organic acid that has a pKa of 5? A. 10^−2.5 B. 10^−5 C. 10^−9 D. 10^−10
C. 10^−9
Due to the assertion that the local environment influences adolescents' norms and values, the ecological perspective is most similar to which sociological theory? A. Social strain theory B. Disengagement theory C. Differential association theory D. Labeling theory
C. Differential association theory
In a study, researchers hypothesized that individual attitudes would also be influenced by the presence of others, even when there was no direct communication between the individual and those surrounding them. Participants were randomly assigned to complete a simple card-sorting task administered by a male or female research assistant. Half of the participants were administered the card-sorting task alone, while the other half were administered the task at a table along with other participants. In the study, what is the most likely outcome if participants exhibited social facilitation? A. Participants who are with others will look at others' card-sorting strategies and use a similar strategy to complete the task. B. Participants who are alone will perform better on the card-sorting task than those who are with others. C. Participants who are with others will perform better on the card-sorting task than those alone. D. Participants who are with others will exert less effort to complete the card-sorting task since they are pooling their efforts toward attaining a common goal.
C. Participants who are with others will perform better on the card-sorting task than those alone.
Enantiomers can exhibit a difference in which chemical or physical property? A. Density B. Boiling point C. Smell D. IR spectrum
C. Smell
Which statement is NOT a plausible application of psychodynamic theory to explain psychological responses to upward comparison? A. The superego demands that the individual should either match or surpass the partner on the dimension of comparison. B. The ego fails to satisfy the demands of the superego, and the individual experiences anxiety. C. The id attempts to use the pleasure principle to resolve the subconscious conflict caused by the superego. D. The ego uses rationalization by suggesting that the dimension of comparison is unimportant.
C. The id attempts to use the pleasure principle to resolve the subconscious conflict caused by the superego.
What is the net charge of the peptide Arg-Ala-Phe-Leu at pH 8? A: -1 B: 0 C: +1 D: +2
C: +1
What is the concentration of hydroxide ion for the solution with pH = 10? A: 10^-10 B: 10^-6 C: 10^- 4 D: 10^-2
C: 10^- 4
Polyanionic molecules can be used as templates in the HRP-catalyzed synthesis of PANI to ensure only the desired polymeric structure is obtained. The negative charge of the sulfonate (pKa = 0.7) in polystyrene sulfonate (PSS) interacts with the incoming aniline molecules (pKa = 4.6) and forces them into a conformation that results in a linear polymer. The best-performing PANI had a maximum conductivity of 5.0 × 10-3 (Ω∙cm)-1. What is the resistivity of the best-performing PANI described in the passage? A: 0.002 Ω•cm B: 50 Ω•cm C: 200 Ω•cm D: 500 Ω•cm
C: 200 Ω•cm
The average human body contains approximately 5 liters of blood. If the blood has a density of 1060 kg/m3, what is the total mass of blood in the average human? (Note: 1 L = 1000 cm3.) A: 0.212 kg B: 0.530 kg C: 5.30 kg D: 10.6 kg
C: 5.30 kg
The pH of a 1 L phosphate buffer solution was measured as 7.6, but the experimental procedure calls for a pH 7.2 buffer. Which method will adjust the solution to the proper pH? (Note: The pKa values for phosphoric acid are 2.2, 7.2, and 12.3.) A: Add enough 1 M Na2HPO3 to increase the phosphate anion concentration ten-fold. B: Add 1 M NaOH to neutralize a portion of the hydronium ions found in the solution. C: Alter the ratio of monosodium/disodium phosphate added to favor the monosodium species. D: Add 100 mL distilled, deionized water to dilute the basicity of the buffer.
C: Alter the ratio of monosodium/disodium phosphate added to favor the monosodium species.
The two age groups that participated in Study 1 (ages 5-6 years and 8-9 years) are most likely to perform differently in which task developed by Piaget? A: Looking for an object that the researcher hides from the participant's sight B: Using accommodation to acquire knowledge about novel experiences C: Deciding whether a given quantity of a liquid changes if it is poured from a narrow container to a wide container D: Reasoning about how the end result of a story might have changed if the main character had acted differently
C: Deciding whether a given quantity of a liquid changes if it is poured from a narrow container to a wide container
According to Mead, the spontaneous and autonomous part of our unified self is the: A: id. B: ego. C: I. D: me.
C: I.
Helping to instill norms and values related to violence and violent behavior, media exposure is an aspect of which process? A: Assimilation B: Discrimination C: Socialization D: Stratification
C: Socialization
The tissue injury that results from ischemia (loss of blood flow) and subsequent blood reperfusion underlies several common, life-threatening disorders including heart attack, stroke, organ failure, and circulatory shock. Until recently, it was believed that the devastating tissue damage in these conditions resulted exclusively from anoxia (lack of oxygen). A scientist observed that during these disorders, neutrophils (a type of leukocyte) adhered to the vascular endothelium and then migrated into surrounding tissues. The adherence of neutrophils was facilitated by an adhesion receptor on the neutrophil membrane. During reperfusion, adherent neutrophils released toxic products including oxygen-derived free radicals, proteases, and prostaglandin products. The scientist hypothesized that most of the tissue damage was actually a neutrophil-mediated phenomenon (the toxic products were the actual cause of tissue damage). After extensive research, the scientist found that the neutrophil adhesion receptors are heterodimer molecules consisting of a beta subunit noncovalently associated with an alpha subunit. The two subunits were isolated from neutrophils and each was used to generate mouse antibodies. Antibody A was directed against the alpha subunit and antibody B was directed against the beta subunit. When these antibodies were applied to lab animals subjected to ischemia of the heart, only animals that received antibody B showed a great reduction in subsequent tissue injury; antibody A had no effect and the animals died. The scientist concluded that the majority of the injury was indeed caused by neutrophils. A neutrophil has point mutations in the genes coding for the alpha and the beta subunits of the adhesion receptor. However, this cell can still migrate through endothelium. Which of the following conclusions about the effect of this mutation can be drawn? A: The cell cannot release toxic products such as prostaglandins. B: The cell has only functional beta subunits. C: The cell can bind to endothelium. D: The cell has a defective cell membrane.
C: The cell can bind to endothelium.
To investigate disparities in revascularization usage, a team of researchers randomly sampled 5880 Medicare beneficiaries from five states (patients were between the ages of 65 and 75). From that random sample, 567 patient records were excluded because the hospital refused to participate or because medical records were either missing or incomplete. The researchers reviewed medical records in order to collect the following data: utilization and clinical appropriateness of revascularization by race and gender; the proportion of patients for whom revascularization was medically indicated but that did not receive treatment; and mortality rates for coronary revascularization versus medical therapy. Based on information in the passage, which aspect of the research design poses a methodological limitation? A: The reliance upon medical records as a source of data B: The lack of interview data with patients or providers C: The percent from the sample that was excluded from the study D: The number of patients who were included in the study
C: The percent from the sample that was excluded from the study
Hydrated oxides of carbon and phosphorous are major components of blood serum and serve as buffering agents to this aqueous medium. Molecules with the general formula AOm(OH)n, where A is the central atom, m is either zero or a positive integer, and n is a positive integer, are either oxyacids or bases. For example, the formula for sulfuric acid can be written as SO2(OH)2 (A = S, m = 2, n = 2), while the formula for calcium hydroxide is Ca(OH)2 (A = Ca, m = 0, n = 2).It can be theorized that if the central atom, A, is an alkali or alkaline earth metal, the compound is basic. But if A is a nonmetal, the compound is acidic. A researcher attempted to identify an unknown AOm(OH)n compound. The compound completely dissolved in water and weakly conducted electricity. The hydrogen ion concentration of the unknown aqueous solution was 1 × 10-5 M. A: an alkali or alkaline earth metal. B: a transition metal. C: a nonmetal. D: a noble gas.
C: a nonmetal.
The structures of the PanK3 dimer in complex with its substrate (pantothenate), with its product (phosphopantothenate), with both ADP and pantothenate, as well as apoPanK3 have been determined by X-ray crystallography. These structures reveal that binding is stabilized by interactions between C2′ and C4′ hydroxyl groups of pantothenate and a carboxylate group of PanK3, and, in the ternary complex of PanK3 with pantothenate and ADP, the binding of ADP involves predominantly ionic interactions. The stabilization of pantothenate in PanK3 is most likely due to an active site: A: arginine. B: asparagine. C: aspartate. D: glutamine.
C: aspartate.
Myopia is a condition of the eye where the crystalline lens focuses the light rays to a position between the lens and the retina. To correct for this condition, a thin lens is placed in front of the eye that will help to focus light on the retina. The type of lens required is: A: cylindrical. B: converging. C: diverging. D: spherical.
C: diverging.
Blood flows with a speed of 30 cm/s along a horizontal tube with a cross-section diameter of 1.6 cm. What is the blood flow speed in the part of the same tube that has a diameter of 0.8 cm? A. 7.5 cm/s B. 15 cm/s C. 60 cm/s D. 120 cm/s
D. 120 cm/s
What quantity of compound 1 (molar mass: 483.5 g•mol−1) is required to prepare 100.00 mL of solution with a concentration equal to Ki (60.3 uM)? A. 48.4 mg B. 24.2 mg C. 5.64 mg D. 2.92 mg
D. 2.92 mg
A study examined the relationship between attachment style, distress, and use of coping strategies to regulate emotion in a sample of ambulance workers following exposure to a critical incident. Attachment style was measured with a questionnaire that assessed ambulance workers' feelings about close relationships along three attachment dimensions: secure, avoidant, and anxious-ambivalent. Only those ambulance workers whose scores reflected avoidant attachment were retained as participants in the study. As infants, what type of parent-infant interaction most likely occurred for the participants? A. A confused infant-parent bond that is characterized by mixed separation anxiety and a tendency for the infant to resist and have a dazed behavior B. An infant-parent bond that is characterized by some separation anxiety and a tendency for the infant to seek contact with the parent after separation C. An infant-parent bond that is characterized by strong separation anxiety and a tendency for the infant to resist contact with the parent after separation D. An insecure infant-parent bond that is characterized by little separation anxiety and a tendency for the infant to resist contact with the parent
D. An insecure infant-parent bond that is characterized by little separation anxiety and a tendency for the infant to resist contact with the parent
A study examines how high-SES African American adolescents adapt to predominantly white neighborhoods. Which concept would be LEAST applicable to this study? A. Front stage self B. Intersectionality C. Social role conflict D. Demographic transition
D. Demographic transition
Erythropoietin (EPO) is a glycoprotein hormone that stimulates the production of erythrocytes in red bone marrow. EPO binds the EPO receptor (EPOR) in erythrocyte precursor cells, causing them to differentiate into mature erythrocytes that are released into circulation. In which of the following cellular locations does EPO most likely initially bind EPOR in erythrocyte precursor cells? A. Cytosol B. Endoplasmic reticulum C. Nucleus D. Plasma membrane
D. Plasma membrane
In a study designed to determine whether specific traits could predict drug use, high school seniors completed a questionnaire regarding their past use of tobacco, alcohol, and illicit drugs. To assess personality, the researchers developed a brief inventory (the HP5) based on the Five-Factor Model of personality. Participants responded to 20 self-statements on a four-point response scale, where higher scores indicate that the individual has the trait being assessed. The researchers found that scores on the HP5 "antagonism" and "impulsivity" scales were the most closely associated with initial drug experimentation. Participants' responses to the self-statements on the inventory described in the passage could be affected by each of the following confounds EXCEPT: A. Hawthorne effect. B. demand characteristics. C. self-serving bias. D. confirmation bias.
D. confirmation bias.
A study was done on the tissues of rats treated with microbubbles burst by 2.3 MHz ultrasound. It was observed that the burst microbubbles made openings of ~2.5 × 104 μm2 through the capillary walls. Given that the speed of sound in the rat tissues was 1500 m/s, the wavelength of the ultrasound wave used in the study was closest to: A: 34.5 mm. B: 6.5 mm. C: 1.5 mm. D: 0.65 mm.
D: 0.65 mm.
Plasma, which is a mixture of ions, electrons, and neutral atoms and molecules, is of increasing importance in modern medicine. "Cold plasmas" (plasmas with temperatures around 35°C) can be used to sterilize tissue and aid in wound treatment. Depending on the parameters of the plasma used, sterilization occurs by contact with specific ions generated in the plasma (such as OH−, O−, and O3−) that disrupt the pathogen's biological functions. Electric charge buildup on some pathogens causes the cell wall to rupture. Sterilization is also caused by the UV radiation (200-300 nm) generated by the electron transitions within the plasma plume. Question What is the maximum energy of the UV photons generated by this plasma pencil? (Note: Speed of light is c = 3.0 × 108 m/s; Planck's constant is h = 6.63 × 10-34 J•s.) A: 7 × 10-16 J B: 5 × 10-17 J C: 3 × 10-17 J D: 1 × 10-18 J
D: 1 × 10-18 J
An object with a mass of 0.1 kg absorbs 250 J of heat while changing temperature from 20°C to 25°C. What is the specific heat of the object? A: 125 J/(kg·°C) B: 250 J/(kg·°C) C: 375 J/(kg·°C) D: 500 J/(kg·°C)
D: 500 J/(kg·°C)
During glycolysis, pyruvate CH3C(=O)CO2- is reduced to lactate CH3CH(OH)CO2- by nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NADH). What is the balanced reaction for this conversion? A: CH3C(=O)CO2- + 2NADH → CH3CH(OH)CO2- + 2NAD+ B: CH3C(=O)CO2- + 2NADH + 2H+ → CH3CH(OH)CO2- + 2NAD+ C: CH3C(=O)CO2- + NADH + 2H+ → CH3CH(OH)CO2- + NAD+ D: CH3C(=O)CO2- + NADH + H+ → CH3CH(OH)CO2- + NAD+
D: CH3C(=O)CO2- + NADH + H+ → CH3CH(OH)CO2- + NAD+
Which halogen has the highest first ionization energy? A: Iodine B: Bromine C: Chlorine D: Fluorine
D: Fluorine
The relative thermodynamic stability of isomeric organic compounds can be inferred from which of the following types of experimental data? A: Boiling points B: UV-visible absorption spectra C: Mass spectroscopic fragmentation patterns D: Heats of combustion
D: Heats of combustion
Which statement about technology is most consistent with social constructionism? A: Technology is the predictable application of knowledge. B: Technology is built from the collective effort of innovators. C: Technology is the human response to environmental pressures. D: Technology is embedded with the values of groups who create it.
D: Technology is embedded with the values of groups who create it.
A reaction catalyzed by an enzyme forms a single stereoisomer of the product. What factor explains this? A: One of the reactants is chiral. B: Both reactants are chiral. C: The solvent medium is chiral. D: The enzyme is chiral.
D: The enzyme is chiral.
Recently, scientists examined the role of DOM as a source of nutrients for the larvae of two different species of starfish. The larvae of one species, Linckia, were collected in the warm waters of the tropical Pacific, whereas the larvae of the other species, Odontaster, were collected in the extreme cold environment of the Southern Ocean. In the laboratory, intracellular rates of amino acid transport and the biochemical composition of whole-animal tissues were measured. Time course experiments were performed across a range of different L-alanine concentrations to determine the kinetics of amino acid transport in larval Linckia and Odontaster at the appropriate temperature for each species (Figure 1). A separate group of scientists repeated the amino acid transport experiments described in the passage. All protocols were performed as outlined in the initial study with one major exception: D-alanine was used as the primary amino acid substrate. What effect will this change have on the synthesis of new proteins in the animals studied? Protein synthesis will: A: increase two-fold. B: not change. C: decrease by one-half. D: be inhibited.
D: be inhibited.
Anxiety has often been considered an explanation for stereotype threat. Study 2 was conducted to explore the role of anxiety on cognitive performance. A group of participants was required to memorize lists of target words. During the training phase, before each target word was presented to them, the participants were asked to read a sentence aloud. Half of the participants read sentences containing words that triggered self-doubt, and the other half read sentences containing words that triggered self-confidence. In the retrieval phase, the participants were asked to report as many of the target words as they could remember. The participants remembered more words under the self-confidence condition than the self-doubt condition. As part of the design of Study 2, the researchers also measured electrical skin conductance and salivary cortisol levels. They found that the participants in the self-doubt condition had higher levels of skin conductance and cortisol than those in the self-confidence condition. The training procedure used in Study 2 primarily engages: A: implicit memory. B: procedural memory. C: sensory memory. D: working memory.
D: working memory.
