Praxis ii
how many phonemes are in the word "ball"
1. The correct answer is (C). The word structure is /b/ /a/ /l/. "ll" is a blend so therefore makes only one sound
Leave me, O Love, which reachest but to dust; And thou, my mind, aspire to higher things; Grow rich in that which never taketh rust; Whatever fades but fading pleasure brings. 10. The lines comment on the speaker's desire to (A) seek out immediate pleasures (B) enrich himself (C) reject that which is transitory (D) revive the past
10. The correct answer is (C). The word "transitory" refers to change, and the speaker mentions a desire to reject things that turn to dust, acquire dust, and start to fade. These are all types of change.
11. Two hamsters sat in the cage side by side; a furtive, timid one and a glossy, bold one watched each other warily. The sentence above is an example of a (A) simple sentence (B) compound sentence (C) complex sentence (D) compound-complex sentence
11. The correct answer is (B). This sentence has two independent clauses joined by a semicolon, including one independent clause with a compound subject.
Which of the following is most typically included in the conclusion of an oral presentation? (A) An expansion of the thesis (B) A summarization of the (C) An attempt to build rapport with the audience (D) A move to gain the audience's attention
12. The correct answer is (B). The conclusion of an oral presentation usually contains a clear summary of the main points to reinforce the presentation's goal.
13. In a student discussion about whether the school cafeteria should stop selling junk food, which of the following statements best demonstrates active listening? (A) "In my opinion, it would be a mistake to remove junk food from the cafeteria because no one would eat there anymore." (B) "Raul thinks that our health should come before eating what we love, but Lacey argues that the schools should not take away our right to choose." (C) "How many of you would actually buy lunch if the cafeteria stopped selling junk food?" (D) "What if we write a formal complaint to the superintendent to voice our opinion on the food in the cafeteria?"
13. The correct answer is (B). The statement demonstrates paraphrasing of others' statements. An active listener spends more time listening than talking, which paraphrasing demonstrates.
14. Which of the following is an example of the commutative property of addition? (A) 5 x 3 =3 x 5 (B) (1 + 7) + 4 = 1 + (7 + 4) (C) 6 x (4 + 2) = (6 x 4) + (6 x 2) (D) 8 +9 =9 +8
14. The correct answer is (D). The question requires an understanding of the properties of operations. An operation is commutative on a set of numbers if the operation can be performed on any two numbers from the set and produce the same result regardless of the order in which the numbers are written. The operation of addition is commutative on the set of real numbers, since for any two real numbers a and b, a + b = b + a, i.e., the sum is the same regardless of the order in which the numbers are added. The commutative property of addition thus guarantees that 8 + 9 = 9 + 8.
16. A fourth-grade class started working on math worksheets at 1:30 p.m. and stopped working at 3:10 p.m. How long did the class work on the math worksheets? (A) 40 minutes (B) 80 minutes (C) 100 minutes (D) 120 minutes
16. The correct answer is (C). The question requires an understanding of how to solve problems involving the measurement of elapsed time. Between 1:30 p.m. and 3:10 p.m. there are 1 hour and 40 minutes, or 100 minutes.
17. A student plans to simultaneously toss a fair number cube, with faces numbered 1 through 6, and a fair coin. What is the probability that the cube will land with the face numbered 4 up and the coin will land heads up?(A) 1 /12 (B) 1/ 8 c)1 /6 d)2/ 3
17. The correct answer is (A). The question requires an understanding of how to interpret probabilities relative to likelihood of occurrence. The coin has 2 possible outcomes: heads or tails. The probability of the coin landing heads up is 1 out of 2, or 1 . The cube has 6 2 possible outcomes: 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, or 6. The probability of the face numbered 4 landing up is 1 out of 6, or 1 . To 6 find the combined probability, multiply the probabilities of the two independent events together, i.e., 1×1=1. 2 6 12
18. The only prime factors of a certain number are 2, 3, and 7. Which of the following could be the number? (A) 18 x 28 (B) 20 x 21 (C) 22 x 63 (D) 24 x 35
18. The correct answer is (A). The question requires an understanding of how to find factors and multiples of numbers. The prime factorization of 18 is 2 × 32 and the prime factorization of 28 is 22 × 7 . So the prime factorization of 18 × 28 is 23 × 32 × 7 ., which consists only of the prime factors 2, 3, and 7.
5≤7−p 19. Which of the following is equivalent to the inequality above? (A) p≤2 (B) p≥2 (C) p≤−2 (D) p≥−2
19. The correct answer is (A). The question requires an understanding of how to solve multistep one-variable linear inequalities. The addition property of inequalities states that for any real numbers a, b, and c, if a ≤ b , then a + c ≤ b + c and if a ≥ b , then a + c ≥ b + c . Adding −5 to both sides of the inequality yields the equivalent inequality 0 ≤ 2 − p . Adding p to both sides of the new inequality yields the equivalent inequality p≤2.
Which TWO of the following syllable types are present in the word "remarkable"? (A) Open (B) Closed (C) Vowel team (D) R-controlled (E) Vowel-consonant-e
2. The correct answers are (A) and (D). (A) is correct because the syllable "re" is an open syllable. An open syllable ends in a long vowel sound produced by a single vowel. (D) is correct because the syllable "mar" is an r-controlled syllable. The "r" controls the vowel sound, causing the "a" to have a unique sound.
Jack had three babysitting jobs this week. He worked the same number of hours H on each job. He was paid $12 per hour at his first job, $4 per half hour at his second job, and $5 for each 20 minutes at his third job. Which of the following expressions could be used to find the total amount, in dollars, Jack earned? (A) 12×H+4×H+5×H (B) 12×H+8×H+15×H (C) 12×H+8×H+20×H (D) 12×H+4×1×H+5×1×H 23
22. The correct answer is (B). The question requires an understanding of how to translate between verbal statements and algebraic expressions or equations. Jack made 12 dollars per hour at his first job. He made 4 dollars per half hour, or 4 × 2 = 8 dollars per hour, at his second job. Finally, Jack made 5 dollars for each 20 minutes, or 5 × 3 = 15 dollars per hour, at his third job. If he worked H hours at each job, he made 12 × H + 8 × H + 15 × H .
To make fruit punch, Edie mixes two kinds of juices in the following ratio: 1 cup of blueberry to 3 cups of red raspberry. How many cups of red raspberry will Edie need to make 48 cups of fruit punch? (A) 12 (B) 16 (C) 24 (D) 36
23. The correct answer is (D). The question requires an understanding of how to use proportional relationships to solve ratio problems. With 1 cup of blueberry juice and 3 cups of red raspberry juice, Edie can make 4 cups of punch. In the juice mixture, 1 of the total number of 34 cups is blueberry and 4 of the total number of cups is red raspberry. Thus, in 48 cups of juice mixture, the number of cups of red raspberry juice needed is 3 of 4 48, which equals 36 cups.
Mount Rainier is located in which of the following mountain ranges? (A) The Cascades (B) The Rockies (C) The Appalachians (D) The Alleghenies
24. The correct answer is (A). Mount Rainier is located in the state of Washington. The greatest single-peak glacial system in the United States radiates from this dormant volcano in the Cascade Mountains.
25. Which of the following is believed to have occurred during the last Ice Age as a result of a land bridge created between what are now Siberia and Alaska? (A) The invention of new technologies for sheltering humans against sustained cold (B) The blockage of important trade routes (C) The establishment of human settlements in North America (D) Widespread famine
25. The correct answer is (C). During the Ice Age, the level of the water in the Pacific Ocean lowered, exposing a land bridge across the Bering Strait. The cold northern climate encouraged many people to migrate throughout the continent in search of better living conditions.
26. Since the end of the United States Civil War in 1865, all of the following have been major objectives of groups seeking civil rights for Black people except (A) passage of affirmative action legislation (B) desegregation of public educational facilities (C) creation of a third party in national politics (D) passage of anti-lynching laws
26. The correct answer is (C). The creation of a third party in national politics would be a political action, not one of civil rights.
What percent of the seats in the United States House of Representatives are up for election every two years? (A) 33% (B) 50% (C) 66% (D) 100%
27. The correct answer is (D). Article 1 Section 2 of the Constitution of the United States says, "The House of Representatives shall be composed of Members chosen every second Year by the People... ." All members of the House are elected at the same time every two years.
Historically, India's society has been organized into hierarchical groups known as (A) tribes (B) castes (C) clans (D) denominations
28. The correct answer is (B). In the 15th century AD, explorers from Portugal encountered the social system of India and called these groups castes. As time went on, the four basic castes gradually grew more complex, with hundreds of subdivisions.
Which of the following is the most appropriate strategy for using easy books to increase fluency in a nonfluent student? (A) Providing opportunities for the nonfluent student to read self-selected easy books to a younger student (B) Asking a younger, more fluent reader to read an easy book aloud to the nonfluent student (C) Assigning an easy-to-read nonfiction book to the nonfluent student for independent reading (D) Encouraging other students to interrupt and correct when the nonfluent student is reading easy books aloud
3. The correct answer is (A). Fluency refers to reading smoothly, quickly, and with expression. (A) offers the nonfluent student opportunities to engage in meaningful literary experiences while gaining courage and self esteem, while also experiencing ownership.
Which of the following geological processes adds new rock to the surface of Earth? (A) Volcanic activity (B) Glacial activity (C) Soil erosion (D) Weathering
30. The correct answer is (A). Volcanic activity is the only process by which material from inside Earth is brought to the surface. The other processes are means of wearing down Earth's surface.
Which of the diagrams above best depicts the Moon as viewed from Earth at the first quarter of the lunar cycle? (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
31. The correct answer is (B). At the first lunar quarter the Sun, Earth, and Moon form a right triangle, with Earth at the right angle, so that the half of the Moon facing Earth appears half lighted and half dark.
Which of the following is NOT a way in which mammals keep themselves warm in winter? (A) Shivering (B) Perspiring (C) Fluffing out coat hair (D) Contracting certain blood vessels
32. The correct answer is (B). Perspiring is an adaptation that allows mammals to lose heat. When the body temperature rises, sweat is produced. As the water in the sweat evaporates, the skin is cooled, not warmed.
Which of the following would be observed in a vacuum if a feather and two stones of different weights were dropped simultaneously from a height of ten feet? (A) Both stones would hit the ground at the same time, but before the feather. (B) The heavier stone would hit the ground first. (C) The lighter stone would hit the ground first. (D) All three objects would hit the ground at the same time.
33. The correct answer is (D). In a vacuum, the only external force acting on each of the objects would be the gravitational force of Earth. This gravitational force is equal to M × g, where M is the object's mass and g is the constant acceleration of gravity (9.8 meters per second squared). According to Newton's second law, the acceleration, a, of an object times its mass is equal to the external force acting on it. For this situation, Newton's second law gives M × a = M × g , or a = g. Thus, in a vacuum all objects fall freely with the same constant acceleration g, regardless of their mass.
Which of the following laboratory instruments would be most appropriate to use in determining the volume of a large block of wood of unknown density? (A) A metric ruler (B) A triple-beam balance (C) A 200 mL volumetric flask (D) A micrometer
34. The correct answer is (A). To find the volume of a large rectangular block of wood, first use the metric ruler to find the length, width, and height of the block. Then use the formula for the volume of a rectangular solid—length × width × height— to determine the volume.
Which of the following best describes a scientific hypothesis? (A) It ensures that successful results will be obtained from an experiment. (B) It must be accepted as true by the scientific community. (C) It is a testable proposal that may lead to experimentation. (D) It must be formulated by a renowned scientist.
35. The correct answer is (C). A hypothesis is a best guess or a possible explanation of a scientific problem. Scientific experimentation can either support or fail to support the hypothesis.
36. Which of the following is the broadest category in the biological taxonomy? (A) Kingdom (B) Order (C) Genus (D) Species
36. The correct answer is (A). When putting living things into a biological classification scheme, the broadest category is kingdom, followed by phylum, class, order, family, genus, and species.
Which of the following is most commonly used in digital text to give a reader access to additional information about a topic? (A) A citation (B) A hyperlink (C) An index (D) A glossary
4. The correct answer is (B). The reader can follow the link provided to easily seek more information
Which of the following statements best describes how graphic novels promote inferencing? (A) Readers rely on characters' dialogue to tell the story. (B) Readers are given graphic organizers to facilitate understanding. (C) Readers can summarize the stories' beginning, middle, and end. (D) Readers use the pictures to interpret the text.
5. The correct answer is (D). The images in a graphic novel provide information not included within the text, such as character attributes. In a graphic novel, the combination of text and images is required to produce the complete story.
Which of the following is true of qualitative measures of text complexity? (A) They describe statistical measurements of a text. (B) They rely on computer algorithms to describe text. (C) They involve attributes that can be measured only by human readers. (D) They account for the different motivational levels readers bring to texts.
6. The correct answer is (C). The qualitative attributes are subjective and can only be evaluated by a human reader (i.e., "predictability of text").
Which TWO of the following can be classified as expository writing? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) A short story A technical speech A personal diary A scientific report An editorial commentary
7. The correct answers are (B) and (D). A technical speech and a research report both require that information be collected and synthesized.
Which of the following technology-based tools best facilitates both personal writing and written discussion about the writing? (A) Blogging programs (B) Interactive gaming (C) Slide-share programs (D) Interactive whiteboards
8. The correct answer is (A). Blogging programs facilitate personal writing and typically have open forums that encourage readers to respond to the writing with written discussion.
Leave me, O Love, which reachest but to dust; And thou, my mind, aspire to higher things; Grow rich in that which never taketh rust; Whatever fades but fading pleasure brings. 9. In line 1, "dust" serves as a metaphor for (A) ignorance (B) death (C) loneliness (D) confusion
9. The correct answer is (B). A metaphor is a type of figurative language in which one image or idea is connected with another. In literature, the word "dust" is often associated with death because life forms decay into soil after death.
1. The idea that, in English, words are made up of letters that approximate the sounds heard when we speak these words is called _____________. A. the alphabetic principle B. phonics C. pragmatics D. fast mapping
A
15. Using the periodic table, how would you find elements with chemical properties similar to Helium? A. Look in the column below it. B. Look in the row next to it. C. Find elements whose atomic number is close to Helium. D. By looking in the alkaline earth metals.
A
5. Which of the following is considered the best predictor of a child's success in learning to read? A. phonemic awareness and understanding of letters B. oral vocabulary C. analytical skills and overall intelligence D. creativity
A
Anaphora, the repetition of a certain phrase in rhetorical speech, is most effective for: A. creating a feeling of building excitement or importance. B. creating a mood of objective, academic analysis C. simplifying and streamlining the material presented D. highlighting the underlying logic of an argument
A
Which of the following would be classified as an imperative sentence? A. Keep your flashlight with you at all times. B. I like long walks on the beach. C. Gentlemen, start your engines! D. Where do you want to go today?
A
17. Most languages are similar in which respect? A. The vocabulary of each language is based on Latin roots. B. The basic principles of phrase structure (i.e. subject/predicate) C. The role of volume and tempo in conveying meaning. D. The use of similar symbols to represent phonemes. incorrect
B
4. An individual who speaks a language historically related to English may have an advantage in learning English as a second language because _______. A. the affixes of the individual's first language will be similar to English B. many words and roots are likely to have similar spellings and meanings C. the individual may rely on his knowledge of etymology D. the cultures using the two languages will be very similar
B
8. An opera singer holds a note for 10 seconds. The sound she is making employs a ________. A. consonant B. vowel C. rime D. phoneme
B
19. A student writes a paper for their science class attempting to explain the life cycle of a bluebird. The paper would best be classified as what genre of writing? A. Interpretive B. Analytical C. Expository D. Persuasive
C
The above sentence would be classified as which of the following? A. A simple sentence B. A compound sentence C. A complex sentence D. An interrogative sentence
C
What is the main idea of the following passage? "Sunday mornings my grandfather presided at his church. And every Sunday afternoon, the family ate chicken. The preacher had to have his Sunday chicken. He was served chicken, but I got chicken feet. Once I left my grandparents' home to play professional baseball, I never ate chicken again. I also didn't attend church until my career was over." A. A weekly dinner brought the family together. B. Chicken feet do not taste good. C. A young man rebels against his upbringing. D. A harsh childhood builds character.
C
Which of the following would best be described as the topic sentence of the passage above? A. Sentence 1 B. Sentence 2 C. Sentence 3 D. Sentence 4
C
12. Which of the following is not typically found in Native American folk tales? A. a character who is a trickster B. themes relating to the origins of life and the universe C. anthropomorphic animals D. extended metaphors and complex plot structures
D
13. It can be inferred from the author's description of Pete, that the speaker regards Pete as A. A scrapper and thief who should be avoided. B. A confidante, whom he can trust completely, despite Pete's inclinations. C. A dupe who can be taken advantage of for monetary gain. D. An accomplice who can be useful.
D
18. In the phrase "the massive green dinosaur" what would be considered the head word? A. the B. massive C. green D. dinosaur
D
2. A teacher shows a class cards with various words and reads them aloud, pronouncing certain written units distinctly. For example: nobody = "no/bo/dy" saxophone = "sax/o/phone" elementary = "el/em/en/ta/ry" This exercise is an example of ________. A. morpheme division B. phonic construction C. phonemic segmentation D. syllabication
D
7. When reading a passage, a student recognizes an error in the text. This would best be described as an example of what? A. Semantics B. Literal comprehension C. Critical comprehension D. Metacognition
D
A student has begun to recognize text in larger units, develop broader word recognition, and utilize decoding skills with fluency. These are all indicators that the student has entered which phase of literacy development? A. Pre-alphabetic phase B. Early alphabetic phase C. Late alphabetic phase D. Orthographic pha
D
In which of the following sentences is the underlined word used correctly? A. The men were accused of trying to insight a riot. B. Hearing about Dave's childhood gave me some incite into his personality. C. The new law produced a positive affect by reducing air pollution. D. The lobbyists were able to affect radical changes in the economic policy.
D
1. Which of the following would not be considered a distinct region within one of the world's continents? A. Northern Africa B. The Caribbean C. Eastern Europe correctD. North America
D. North America
After a lesson on rounding and estimation, a teacher tells students that a cook has made 157 sandwiches for 4 lunch periods. The teacher asks the students to estimate the average number of sandwiches that will be served in each lunch period. Which of the following students correctly estimated the answer? (A) Student A: about 35 (B) Student B: 39.25 (C) Student C: about 40 (D) Student D: about 45
The correct answer is (C). The question requires an understanding of how to use rounding strategies to solve problems and determine the reasonableness of results. The average number of sandwiches served in each lunch period is found by calculating 157 ÷ 4 . To estimate this value, 157 can be rounded to 160, the number closest to 157 that is a multiple of 4. The estimate can be produced by mentally finding the value of 160 ÷ 4 , i.e., 40.
12. A behavioral response from an organism is determined by which of the following factors? A. Heredity and experience B. Solely heredity C. Regulation D. Internal conditions
a
17. Who is considered the presiding officer of the House of Representatives? A. The Speaker of the House B. The House Majority Leader C. The Vice President D. The Majority Whip
a
23. Which of the following is not considered a major class of nutrient? A. Fibers B. Fats C. Vitamins D. Water
a
4. Approximately how long ago did the first anatomically modern humans appear on the Earth? A. 200,000 years ago B. 2 million years ago C. 6 million years ago D. 130 million years ago
a
6. The shape of the Milky Way can best be described as ________. A. A spiral disk B. A spherical cluster C. A long, thin strip D. Irregular
a
8. At what level of sociological integration would the Australian Aborigines be classified? A. Band B. Tribe C. Chiefdom D. State
a
1. If two brown-eyed parents each carry a recessive gene for blue eyes, what is the probability of them having a blue-eyed child? A. 1/8 B. 1/4 C. 1/2 D. It is not possible
b
10. Which structure is responsible for regulating basic functions such as respiration and heartbeat? A. Cerebral cortex B. Brainstem C. Cerebellum D. Hippocampus
b
12. The edict that "no European power should seek colonies in the Western Hemisphere" comes from ___________. A. Manifest Destiny B. The Monroe Doctrine C. The War of 1812 D. The Second Great Awakening
b
13. Which of the following was an advantage the South had over the North during the Civil War? A. Greater manpower B. More experienced military leadership C. Superior economic resources D. Superior firepower
b
14. Within a forest ecosystem, which of the following would be considered a primary consumer? A. Grass B. Rabbit C. Snake D. Hawk
b
18. Which of the following is generally considered most important in limiting the power of kings and influencing the development of democracy? A. The Norman Conquest B. The Magna Carta C. The Treaty of Versailles D. writing of The Trew Law of Free Monarchies
b
22. Social Security is an example of what type of government economic activity? A. Stabilization and growth B. Direct assistance C. Direct services D. Regulation and control
b
3. Mountains are most likely to form along which type of plate boundary? A. Transform B. Convergent C. Divergent D. Mid-continental
b
5. Which of the following best describes the process by which most waves on the ocean's surface are created? A. Deep sea earthquakes produce shockwaves which are propagated through the water until they reach the ocean's surface. B. Wind stirs the ocean's surface over great distances. C. Gravitational pull from the moon and sun cause water levels to rise on the side of the Earth closest to those bodies. D. Warmer water near the ocean's surface is forced upward by cooler water below.
b
5. Which of the following would not be considered an example of an environmental factor affecting human migration? A. Lack of fresh water sources B. War C. A devastating hurricane D. Severe climate
b
7. What is the moon's position relative to Earth during a lunar eclipse? A. The moon is behind the Sun. B. The moon and sun are on opposite sides of the Earth. C. The moon is between the Earth and the Sun. D. The moon is at the zenith point.
b
9. During which phase of mitosis do the duplicated chromosomes line up along the equatorial plate of the spindle? A. Prophase B. Metaphase C. Anaphase D. Telophase
b
Use the quote below to answer the question that follows: "In matters of religion, I have considered that its free exercise is placed by the constitution independent of the powers of the general government. I have therefore undertaken, on no occasion, to prescribe the religious exercises suited to it; but have left them, as the constitution found them, under the direction and discipline of state or church authorities acknowledged by the several religious societies." -- Thomas Jefferson, Second Inaugural Address, March 4, 1805 This quote illustrates the use of: A. Problem/Solution correctB. Cause/Effect C. Compare/Contrast D. Sequencing
b
Which of the following would not necessarily contribute to the reduction of uncertainty when investigating a scientific phenomenon? A. The development of knowledge about related factors B. A new hypothesis C. Better and more observations D. Better explanatory models
b
Which scientists is famous for the belief that disease is caused by microorganisms too small to see with the naked eye? A. Charles Darwin B. Louis Pasteur C. Marie Curie D. Jonas Salk
b
1. What is the term for the thick layer surrounding Earth's outer core? A. Geosphere B. Crust C. Mantle D. Hydrosphere
c
11. The US Constitution differed from the Articles of Confederation in which of the following ways? A. It allowed the government to print and borrow money. B. It provided for the common defense of the states. C. It provided a strong central government and federal taxation. D. It allowed the states to resolve issues regarding the western territories.
c
14. Which of the following was not associated with the Industrial Revolution? A. Development of new weaving and ironworking techniques B. Vast expansion and improvement in roads and waterways C. Decreased dependence on trade with other territories D. Greatly increased prosperity and political power for the middle class
c
17. The force of gravitational attraction between two bodies is least dependent on which of the following? A. Mass of the larger body B. Distance between the bodies C. Temperature of the bodies D. Mass of the smaller body
c
18. What is the term for the process of releasing atomic energy by bombarding a dense element with neutrons and splitting its nucleus? A. Fusion B. Gamma radiation C. Fission D. Quantum mechanics
c
19. As a part of a science class, a clear pot of water with heat censors is placed above a burner. The water begins to boil, and a student observes that the hottest water at the bottom of the container seems to move upward and the cooler water continuously moves in to take its place as illustrated below. Which of the following best explains this cyclical movement of the water? In the pot of water, we see a series of colored arrows that comprise a cycle. Two red arrows near the bottom of the pot are pointed upward, while two sets of blue arrows near the top and in the middle are directed downward. A. The heat from the burner causes air bubbles to form at the bottom of the pot, and the air bubbles carry the water upward. Water then flows in to fill in the space once occupied by the bubbles. B. Heat moves through the water by the process of conduction, causing heat to spread progressively upward from the hotter region near the burner, cooler water moving to take its place. C. Heat is convected through the water, causing the hotter, less dense water to rise. Cooler, denser water then moves in to take its place. D. Radiation of heat near the center of the pot causes cyclonic swirling in the water, which moves in a path around the axis of heat emission.
c
19. What was the voting age according to the original U.S. Constitution? A. 16 B. 18 C. 21 D. 25
c
2. Which of the below is an example of metamorphic rock? A. Sand B. Sediment C. Schist D. Granite
c
20. The filament in a light bulb is made of a material which provides more _______ than the copper wires through which electricity usually flows? A. Stability B. Vibration C. Resistance D. Conduction
c
21. Which of the following has the shortest wavelength? A. Red light B. Violet light C. UV radiation D. Infrared radiation
c
21. Which of the following would not be considered one of the natural resources that might greatly affect a country's economy? A. Oil B. Cultivable land C. Technology D. Water
c
22. What is a renewable type of energy? A. coal B. oil C. hydroelectric D. gas
c
24. Which of the following would be considered an example of a primary source? A. An excerpt from the Encyclopedia Britannica on the Holocaust. B. An excerpt from a World History textbook on the Holocaust. C. The Diary of a Young Girl by Anne Frank D. A Time Magazine article on the Holocaust
c
3. A child says the phrase "I hungry." This can be considered an example of which of the following? A. habituation B. underextension C. telegraphic speech D. a dipthong
c
3. The maximum, sustained level of use of an environment that is possible without incurring significant environmental deterioration is called ____________. A. its saturation point B. resource critical mass C. its carrying capacity D. its natural breaking point
c
10. Which of the following was not a major factor leading to the American Revolution? A. The forced quartering of British soldiers in colonial households B. Excessive tariffs C. The "Intolerable Acts" D. Failure of the British government to offer protection against the French
d
13. Which of the following best explains why a person cannot drink sea water? A. Sea water contains a naturally occurring set of toxins which can be processed by fish and other aquatic organisms, but which cannot be processed by the human kidneys. B. The high salinity of sea water causes a harmful imbalance between the naturally occurring salt in the human body and other minerals such as sodium, potassium, and calcium. C. Highly developed taste receptors using ion channels become over-stimulated by salt in the seawater and can cause neurological problems if excess consumption occurs. D. The high salinity of sea water causes tissues to become dehydrated due to the osmotic diffusion of water from within the cells
d
15. Which of the following was not a contributing factor to The Great Depression? A. Income disparity between classes B. Large debt increases C. The decline of agriculture D. Slowed production levels
d
16. Which of the following factors least affects a compound's tendency to change state? A. Pressure B. Temperature C. Type of compound D. Mass
d
16. Who is credited with mastering the assembly line? A. John D. Rockefeller B. Andrew Carnegie C. Andrew Mellon D. Henry Ford
d
20. Which of the following would not be considered an example of commodity money? A. Gold B. Shells C. Cigarettes D. A U.S. 50-cent piece
d
23. Maria is conducting a survey to determine what percentage of her county's population is made up of tax preparers. She goes to the local mall on a typical Tuesday morning in early April and surveys the first ten people she encounters, none of whom are tax preparers. From the data, she determines that 0% of her county's population works as tax preparers. She realizes this must be incorrect, but isn't sure why. How might you best describe the problem with Maria's survey? A. Her sample was too limited. B. Her sample was skewed. C. Her sample was too limited and her data range was skewed by statistical outliers. D. Her sample was too limited and was not a random and representative population.
d
4. Which of the following geographic factors did not play a role in both Napoleon and Hitler's failure to invade Russia? A. A very poor road network B. Inclement weather C. A very poor agricultural base D. Lack of natural drinking water
d
7. Which of the following is not considered one of the main causes of World War I? A. Tension over the competition for colonies B. Ethnic groups such as Poles and Czechs hoping for nations of their own C. The assassination of Archduke Franz Ferdinand of Austria D. Widespread poverty in parts of Europe
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8. Which of the following best describes a difference in how two types of organisms maintain homeostasis? A. An owl typically feeds nocturnally, while a blue jay typically feeds diurnally. B. Algae reproduces asexually, while gymnosperms, such as pine trees, reproduce sexually. C. Some single cellular organisms move using whip-like structures called flagella, while other single cellular organisms use a series of hair-like structures called cilia. D. A snake depends predominantly on external factors like sunlight to regulate its body temperature, while a rabbit utilizes mainly internal processes.
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9. According to most historians, the first non-native people to explore the North American mainland were ____________. A. the English, led by John Cabot B. the Spanish, led by Christopher Columbus C. the Portuguese, led by Pedro Alvares Cabral D. the Vikings, led by Leif Ericson
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