Project Management - Cengage Mindtap Assignment Chapters 1 - 15 100% Tested for Correction

_________ marks the transition between the planning and executing project phases. a. Baselined project management plan b. Quality management plan c. Quality baseline d. Process Improvement plan

A. Baselined project management plan

In addition to predecessor-successor relationships, what does critical chain project management (CCPM) factor into its scheduling? a. Calculations on resource availability b. Final project deliverables c. Planning the current phase in detail and later phases at a high level d. Multitasking wherever possible

A. Calculations on resource availability

The collaborative style for handling conflict has a(n)____ concern for self and a(n) ______ concern for others. a. High, high b. High, low c. Low, high d. Medium, medium

A. High, high

________ is best known for creating the Quality Trilogy. a. Joseph Juran b. Ishikawa c. Harrington d. Senge

A. Joseph Juran

Which of these is NOT one of the actions that should be completed during the Two-Pass Method of determining the critical path? a. List all of the paths through the network b. Complete the backward pass through the network c. Complete the forward pass through the network d. Calculate float and the critical path

A. List all of the paths through the network

Potential problems can occur with activity duration estimating when omissions are made. All of these are potential remedies for this problem EXCEPT: a. Rolling wave planning b. Checklists, templates, devil's advocate c. Refining scope and WBS d. Lessons learned

A. Rolling wave planning

With whom may the project manager and team need to negotiate when creating the charter? a. Sponsor b. Leadership Team c. Core Team d. Functional Manager

A. Sponsor

Which of these is NOT one of the four core project quality concepts? a. Vendor satisfaction b. Process management c. Fact-based management d. Empowered performance

A. Vendor satisfaction

All of these are items typically found in a Request for Proposal (RFP) EXCEPT: a. Technical requirements b. A set unit rate for each hour of labor or pound of material c. Purchasing overview d. Basic supplier requirements

B. A set unit rate for each hour of labor or pound of material

According to PMI, after planning schedule management, the next process in project time management is to ___________. a. Sequence activities b. Define activities c. Estimate activity durations d. Develop schedule

B. Define activities

Which of these is NOT an example of an external stakeholder? a. The public b. Functional areas within the organization c. Customers d. Suppliers

B. Functional areas within the organization

After developing a list of potential suppliers, which of these is NOT one of the ways the organization might evaluate each supplier individually?" a. Facility visits b. Hire a private investigator c. Quality ability analysis d. Supplier surveys

B. Hire a private investigator

_______________ is defined as the work required to move and position inventory throughout a supply chain. a. Supply chain management b. Logistics c. Sourcing d. Lean Purchasing

B. Logistics

__________ estimates are often used to seek initial project charter approval. a. Budget b. Order of Magnitude c. Definitive d. Parametric

B. Order of magnitude

Which of these is NOT a technique for reducing the critical path and compressing a project's schedule? a. Overlap sequential activities using finish-to-finish (FF), start-to-start (SS), or start-to-finish (SF) relationships. b. Perform a forward pass and a backward pass through the network. c. Shorten activities by assigning more resources (crashing). d. Schedule activities that are normally in sequence at the same time (fast tracking).

B. Perform a forward pass and a backward pass through the network.

____________ is accomplished by reviewing all change proposals, estimating their impact on project goals wherever appropriate, approving or declining changes, and managing changes to deliverables, schedules, budgets, and the project management plan. a. Steering control b. Perform integrated change control c. Go/no-go control d. Monitoring and controlling project work

B. Perform integrated change control

The outputs of this Procurement Management process include documents and criteria for selecting a supplier. a. Initiate Procurements b. Plan Procurement Management c. Conduct Procurements d. Control Procurements

B. Plan Procurement Management

RAM stands for: a. Resource Accountability Matrix b. Responsibility Assignment Matrix c. Responsible, Accountable, Consult and Inform d. Resource Assignment Matrix

B. Responsibility Assignment Matrix

In supply chain management, all of these are alternate names for the seller EXCEPT: a. Supplier b. Service requestor c. Supplier's supplier d. Contractor

B. Service requestor

All of these are advantages to letting workers self-control their work, EXCEPT: a. Adds to workers' enthusiasm for the project b. Transfers accountability from the project manager to the workers c. Makes them responsible for their work d. Empowers workers

B. Transfers accountability from the project manager to the workers

All of these are ways of categorizing project risks EXCEPT: a. When they occur in the project life cycle. b. Who identified the risk. c. What project objective may be impacted (scope, time, cost, etc.) d. Whether the risk is internal or external to the organization.

B. Who identified the risk.

A fixed cost is described as __________. a. A cost that is necessary to keep the organization running, but is not associated with one specific project. b. A cost that only occurs because of the project and is often classified as either labor or other costs. c. A cost that remains the same regardless of the size or volume of work. d. A cost that varies with volume of use.

C. A cost that remains the same regardless of the size or volume of work.

A lead is a change in the logical relationship that results in the _____ of the successor activity. a. Delay b. Overlap c. Acceleration d. Elimination

C. Acceleration

Hector and his team were preparing a RACI chart for the major project work packages and activities. In each row they only assigned an "A" for Accountable to a single resource. Why did they feel it was necessary for only one person to be assigned the accountability for each activity? a. Because only one person should do the work on each activity or work package. b. Because the project manager is always the person who is accountable for each activity or work package. c. Because if more than one person has accountability, it is too easy for them to blame each other when something goes wrong. d. Because there are rarely enough people on a project team to have more than one person be accountable.

C. Because if more than one person has accountability, it is too easy for them to blame each other when something goes wrong.

Which of these methods of estimating can produce the most accurate estimate? a. Parametric b. Analogous c. Bottom-up d. Rolling wave

C. Bottom-up

Which of these quality management and control tools is customized for each application after deciding exactly what data will be useful in understanding, controlling, and improving a process? a. Pareto chart b. Control chart c. Check sheet d. Cause and effect diagram

C. Check sheet

Which of these is NOT one of the roles of key project stakeholders represented in a RACI Chart? a. R = Responsible b. A = Accountable c. C = Control d. I = Inform

C. Control

In what type of contract does the buyer assume the greatest level of risk? a. Cost-Plus-Award-Fee (CPAF) Contract b. Cost-Plus-Incentive-Fee (CPIF) Contract c. Cost-Plus-Fixed-Fee (CPFF) Contract d. Time and Material (T&M) Contract

C. Cost-Plus-Fixed-Fee (CPFF) Contract

Six Sigma uses a 15-step, disciplined process called the ________ process to plan and manage improvement projects. a. SIPOC b. TQM c. DMAIC d. ISO 9001:2008

C. DMAIC

An example of a nonrecurring cost is _________. a. Cost of writing code b. Cost of laying bricks c. Developing a design that guides the team, once approved d. Cost of running an assembly line in a factory

C. Developing a design that guides the team, once approved

A project can be terminated early under all of the following conditions EXCEPT: a. Mutual agreements b. Termination for default c. Early termination for convenience of seller d. Termination for convenience of buyer

C. Early termination for convenience of seller

If an activity on the critical path falls behind schedule, what effect will this have on the entire project? a. It will not have an effect on the project if the critical path activity has free float b. It will only have an effect on its successor activity, not the entire project c. It will increase the length of the entire project by the amount of schedule slippage for the activity d. It will not have an effect on the project if the critical path activity has total float

C. It will increase the length of the entire project by the amount of schedule slippage for the activity

The risk factor of each risk, determined during Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis, is derived by ______ the probability and the consequence (impact). a. Adding b. Subtracting c. Multiplying d. Dividing

C. Multiplying

______ is a method for transforming contractual arrangements into a cohesive, collaborative project team with a single set of goals and established procedures for resolving disputes. a. Joint assessment b. Continuous improvement c. Partnering d. Persistent leadership

C. Partnering

During which risk planning process is each risk assigned a probability and impact score? a. Plan Risk Management b. Identify Risks c. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis d. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

C. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

Which of these is an example of an expedited cost? a. The team completes a major deliverable within the normal 40 hour work week. b. New computers are delivered per the agreed dates in the executed purchasing agreement. c. Production work is halted in the factory due to lack of inventory, and management pays for overnight delivery of additional material. d. Summer months are slow for the company so management establishes summer hours, where everyone gets Friday afternoons off.

C. Production work is halted in the factory due to lack of inventory, and management pays for overnight delivery of additional material.

The word "determine" has multiple meanings that can help a project manager understand if their project is progressing adequately. Which of the answers below is NOT one of the five aspects of project determination? a. To decide the course of b. To limit in scope c. To delegate responsibility d. To come to a conclusion or resolution

C. To delegate responsibility

__________ is defined as a formal, structured process that is aimed at increasing the value or productivity of a work element while minimizing the cost. a. Vendor bid analysis b. Life cycle costing c. Value engineering d. Time value of money

C. Value engineering

When crashing a project schedule, the two questions to be asked when deciding which activities to speed up are ________ and _________. a. Which activities have float, and which activity costs the least on a per-day basis to speed up? b. Are my most skilled resources available, and which activities are on the critical path? c. Which activities are on the critical path, and which critical path activity costs the least on a per-day basis to speed up? d. Which activities can I overlap by using time leads, and which work packages can I remove to reduce project scope?

C. Which activities are on the critical path, and which critical path activity costs the least on a per-day basis to speed up?

What can a project manager do to determine if workers are overloaded? a. Ask them if they are too busy. b. Check to see if they have been working overtime. c. Check the network diagram for resource overloads. d. Add the demands for each resource at each time period.

D. Add the demands for each resource at each time period.

A ________ is the approved project plan for scope, schedule, and cost that is not altered unless a formal change request is approved. a. Schedule b. Budget c. Work Breakdown Structure d. Baseline

D. Baseline

A ____________ variation is the result of the product design and the method of making it and is exhibited by a random pattern within predictable limits. a. Six sigma variation b. Special cause variation c. Root cause variation d. Common cause variation

D. Common cause variation

The __________ is calculated using the formula EV / AC a. Estimate at Completion b. Budget at Completion c. Schedule Performance Index d. Cost Performance Index

D. Cost Performance Index

A project transition plan helps to ensure all of the following EXCEPT: a. Quality problems are avoided during the transition. b. The needed maintenance, upgrades, and training take place. c. Project deliverables transition into their service or operational role. d. Every risk in the risk register is updated with a new owner.

D. Every risk in the risk register is updated with a new owner.

Who should be involved in identifying potential risks for a project? a. Sponsor b. Project Manager c. Team d. Everyone

D. Everyone

During which phase of a project life cycle do recurring costs typically occur? a. Planning b. Selecting and Initiating c. Closing and Realizing d. Executing

D. Executing

Which of these is NOT one of the information sources that organizations can use to identify potential suppliers? a. Professional organizations and conferences b. Trade journals c. Supplier websites d. Financial conditions analysis

D. Financial conditions analysis

A Staffing Management Plan addresses all of the areas below EXCEPT: a. How to identify potential internal and/or external human resources for the project. b. How to determine the availability of the internal and/or external human resources for the project c. How to handle timing issues with regard to building up, developing, rewarding, and releasing the project team. d. How to record resource assignments in a project scheduling tool such as MS Project.

D. How to record resource assignments in a project scheduling tool such as MS Project.

A basic Gantt Chart can be helpful in project planning in all of these ways EXCEPT: a. It provides a visual representation of the project schedule b. It is easy to understand when each activity should be performed c. It shows the critical path activities in red or boldface d. It shows predecessor-successor relationships, late start dates, etc.

D. It shows predecessor-successor relationships, late start dates, etc.

What is the name of a single insurance policy that is used to provide coverage for all project participants? a. Product Liability Insurance b. Business Interruption Insurance c. Workers' Compensation Insurance d. Owner-Controlled Insurance

D. Owner-Controlled Insurance

Which of these is NOT one of the key areas covered by Total Quality Management (TQM), developed in the 1980's on the premise that the old way of trying to catch quality problems by inspection was not adequate? a. Strategic Planning b. Customer Focus c. Process Management d. Project Management

D. Project Management

The term ______________ is defined as "the characteristics of a product or service that bear on its ability to satisfy stated or implied needs." a. Value b. Six Sigma c. Customer satisfaction d. Project quality

D. Project quality

The Earned Value formula for Schedule Variance (SV) is: a. SV = EV - AC b. SV = EV / PV c. SV = BAC - EV d. SV = EV - PV

D. SV = EV - PV

When using Reverse Phase Scheduling, the __________ develops the schedule. a. Sponsor b. Customer c. Project Manager d. Team

D. Team

Personal values of individual team members can contribute to team performance. Which of these is NOT one of the personal values that can contribute to a high performing team? a. Understanding and acceptance of personal responsibility. b. Ability to put their own needs above those for the project. c. Willingness to consider alternative views and to change. d. High need for achievement.

B. Ability to put their own needs above those for the project.

In the Scheduling Options section under the Schedule file tab, changing the "new tasks created" option to _____________ will cause the program to calculate the projects' running schedule based on task start and finish dates. a. Manually scheduled b. Auto Scheduled c. Timeline View d. View Shortcuts

B. Auto Scheduled

Who is responsible for ensuring that the steering team completes its tasks? a. Chief Executive Officer (CEO) b. Chief Projects Officer (CPO) c. Project Sponsor d. Customer

B. Chief Projects Officer (CPO)

Which of the answers below is NOT one of the four ways to classify projects? a. Classifying by timing of project scope clarity b. Classifying by funding source c. Classifying by application d. Classifying by size

B. Classifying by funding source

The most widely accepted financial model for selecting projects is _________: a. Internal Rate of Return (IRR) b. Net Present Value (NPV) c. Payback Period (PP) d. Benefit-Cost Ratio (BCR)

B. Net Present Value (NPV)

All but one of these is a type of resource that might be included in the Resources Needed section of the charter. Which type of resource would typically NOT be included? a. Money b. Office Supplies c. People d. Space

B. Office Supplies

Source selection criteria for selecting a contractor might include: production capacity, business size and type, past performance, and references. These are all examples of typical criteria within which category? a. Financial b. Operational c. Technical d. Management

B. Operational

The rough draft of the project charter is typically written by _______. a. The team. b. The project manager. c. The project sponsor. d. The key stakeholders.

B. The project manager.

All of these are advantages of using a WBS EXCEPT: a. To encourage a systematic planning process. b. To ensure all dates assigned to schedule activities are within the overall project timeline. c. To reduce the possibility of omission of key elements. d. To simplify the project by dividing it into manageable units.

B. To ensure all dates assigned to schedule activities are within the overall project timeline.

The first part of setting strategic direction for an organization is to analyze the external and internal environments by preparing a SWOT (Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities and Threats) analysis. Once the SWOT is complete, the next step is to create a clear and compelling statement describing the inspirational long-term desired change resulting from an organization's work, called a __________. a. Mission Statement b. Vision Statement c. Triple Bottom Line Statement d. Business Case

B. Vision Statement

A document that provides more information about each work package by documenting details about the associated deliverable, activity, scheduling information, person responsible, resources required, etc. is called a ________: a. WBS b. WBS Dictionary c. Project Scope Statement d. Requirements Traceability Matrix

B. WBS Dictionary

Which of the answers below is NOT information to be contained in the communications matrix? a. Who does the project team need to share with? b. Where will project meetings take place? c. What does the stakeholder need to know? d. When does the stakeholder need to know the information?

B. Where will project meetings take place?

One of these is NOT a criterion to consider when prioritizing stakeholders: a. Power b. Legitimacy c. Attitude d. Urgency

C. Attitude

All of these are advantages of using a scoring model for selecting projects EXCEPT: a. Scoring models are useful whenever there are multiple projects and several criteria to be considered. b. Scoring models help ensure alignment with the organization's strategic goals. c. By comparing expected project costs to expected benefits, scoring models can be used to make project investment decisions. d. Scoring models can define mandatory decision criteria for project selection.

C. By comparing expected project costs to expected benefits, scoring models can be used to make project investment decisions.

Which of these is NOT an advantage of a projectized organization? a. Shorter response time. b. Enhanced project team identity. c. Clear career path for professionals. d. Customer focus.

C. Clear career path for professionals.

Stakeholders are defined as ____________. a. Members of the project team who are responsible for creating project deliverables. b. "Senior managers who serve in a formal role given authority and responsibility for successful completion of a project deemed strategic to an organization's success." c. People and groups who can impact the project or might be impacted by the work of or results of the project. d. Project customers who define the characteristics of the product scope and provide the requirements for the project deliverables.

C. People and groups who can impact the project or might be impacted by the work of or results of the project.

Which of the characteristics below does NOT describe a project? a. Time-bound b. Progressively elaborated c. Permanent d. Creates a unique product or service

C. Permanent

All of these are types of project communications timing schedules EXCEPT: a. Project Life Cycle b. Organizational Structure c. Plan-Do-Check-Act (PDCA) d. As-Needed Basis

C. Plan-Do-Check-Act (PDCA)

During the selection and initiating stage of a major office construction project, Sarah was named the project manager. She and her team took the rough high-level information from the project charter and used it as a guideline for preparing detailed project plans. They documented all required deliverables, prepared a detailed schedule and budget, and created other detailed plans that encompassed processes for all of the 10 PMBOK® Knowledge Areas. Before starting the work, they obtained final sign-off on their plan documents. What life cycle was being used by Sarah and the team? a. Iterative b. Agile c. Predictive d. Scrum

C. Predictive

When teams reach a high performing level, all of the following personal rewards for team members can result, EXCEPT: a. High spirit and team morale. b. Satisfaction in project accomplishments. c. Pride in performing as an individual. d. Enjoyment of their work.

C. Pride in performing as an individual.

For a construction project, the house is the _______ deliverable, and the how-to instructions are the _____ deliverable. a. Project, product b. Product, interim c. Product, project d. Functional, non-functional

C. Product, project

All of these could be common causes of scope creep EXCEPT: a. The project scope is not clearly defined and agreed upon. b. The team adds more work to the project without realizing that more time and resources will be required. c. The team defines project and product scope as well as exclusions, constraints and assumptions in a project scope statement. d. A customer is so excited about project progress that they ask for a new not previously requested project deliverable.

C. The team defines project and product scope as well as exclusions, constraints and assumptions in a project scope statement.

Which of these is a characteristic of all project life cycles? a. They all have four phases: Selecting & Initiating, Planning, Executing, and Closing & Realizing b. They are all predictive and plan-driven. c. They involve a series of phases that need to be completed and approved before proceeding to the next phase. d. They are all based on the Project Management Institute's 5 process groups.

C. They involve a series of phases that need to be completed and approved before proceeding to the next phase.

Tracy is working with the project sponsor to create the project charter for a small to medium sized project. In the Milestone Schedule with Acceptance Criteria section of the project charter, how many intermediate milestones should she and the team include? a. One or two b. Three or four c. Three to Eight d. Ten to Twenty

C. Three to Eight

Which of these is NOT one of the five stages of team development? a. Storming b. Performing c. Transforming d. Norming

C. Transforming

Contractor companies might perform a quick SWOT analysis prior to bidding on a potential project, including all of the considerations below EXCEPT: a. How well the potential project meets contractor objectives b. Risks of pursuing vs. not pursuing the project c. Weighted score for the project d. The contractor's capability to perform the work if awarded

C. Weighted score for the project

The lowest level of a WBS is known as a _________: a. Schedule activity. b. Requirement c. Work package. d. Deliverable.

C. Work package.

The benefit of performing a sensitivity analysis while using a scoring model to choose projects is: a. It examines at all project risk factors / variables at once. b. It identifies the opportunity costs associated with the project. c. It shows the urgency of different project priorities. d. It allows management to examine what would happen to a decision if factors were to change

D. It allows management to examine what would happen to a decision if factors were to change

Jeffrey is the project manager for a new project to design a self-driving automobile for a customer in the automotive industry. He and his team have worked with the customer to identify all of the characteristics the automobile should have to satisfy the customer's stated needs. They have identified the deliverables that will need to be created to meet the requirements and have developed a project schedule that the client has approved. Which of the answers below does NOT describe one of the project constraints that Jeffrey and his team have addressed? a. Quality b. Scope c. Time d. Resources

D. Resources

This is defined as an incremental increase in the work of a project without corresponding adjustments to resources, budget or schedule. a. Project scope b. Product scope c. Risk trigger d. Scope creep

D. Scope creep

When people are arguing over a decision, it would be helpful to bring out the team charter. Which of these is NOT a reason for referring to the team charter when disagreements arise? EXCEPT: a. The team charter defines the desirable norms for how members are expected to work together on project activities. b. The team charter specifies personal behavior expectations for team members. c. The team charter defines attitudinal expectations for resolving conflict and teamwork. d. The team charter contains the project scope overview, which is used to distinguish between what the project will and will not do.

D. The team charter contains the project scope overview, which is used to distinguish between what the project will and will not do.

When should the relationship building between the project manage / other core team members and important stakeholders occur? a. Initiating / Creation of the project charter b. Planning / Creation of the detailed project plan c. Executing and Monitoring & Controlling d. Throughout the project

D. Throughout the project

________ power should be used by a project manager only in circumstances in which it is necessary to maintain discipline or enforce the rules. a. Coercive power b. Legitimate power c. Reward power d. Expert power

A. Coercive power

Department or division heads, those ongoing managers of the organization who determine how the work of the project is to be accomplished and often negotiate with the project manager regarding which workers are assigned to the project, are referred to as ___. a. Functional managers b. Scrum masters c. Facilitators d. Project Management Office (PMO)

A. Functional managers

What organization structure is often used for small projects that require most of their work from a single department? a. Functional organization b. Projectized organization c. Balanced matrix organization d. Strong matrix organization

A. Functional organization

Acceptable behaviors adopted by a project team to improve working relationships, effectiveness and communication are referred to as ____________: a. Ground rules b. Acceptance criteria c. Negotiations d. Strengths

A. Ground rules

One of these is NOT an important and necessary function of communications from stakeholders: a. Reporting project progress. b. Authorizing work. c. Determining requirements. d. Uncovering issues and assumptions.

A. Reporting project progress.

Which of these is NOT one of the three ways to organize a WBS? a. The WBS is organized by PMBOK Knowledge Area. b. The WBS is organized by project phase. c. The WBS is organized by design components / deliverables. d. The WBS is organized by work function / subproject.

A. The WBS is organized by PMBOK Knowledge Area.

Nikhil is the project manager for a consulting company that is performing a project for a client. Which reason below best explains why it is important for him to understand the cultures of both organizations? a. To facilitate effective project communications and decision making. b. To understand the standards, policies, and procedures of the client site where he will be working. c. To understand how well the client's organization supports project management. d. To understand if the client organization is viewed by others as being true to its values.

A. To facilitate effective project communications and decision making.

Which of these is NOT one of the three reasons that project managers and teams should look at risk when creating the project charter? a. A positive risk is an opportunity to complete the project better faster, and/or at a lower cost or to capitalize upon the project in additional ways. b. Sometimes there is more risk to the organization if the project is not undertaken. c. It is important for the project manager and team to identify all risks to the project during the creation of the charter. d. Any negative risk that is a threat that may inhibit successful project completion needs to be identified.

C. It is important for the project manager and team to identify all risks to the project during the creation of the charter.

What are the four columns in a milestone schedule? a. Milestone, Money, People, Space b. Milestone, Stakeholder, Priority, Interest in Project c. Milestone, Completion Date, Stakeholder Judge, Acceptance Criteria d. Milestone, Risk Event, Risk Owner, Risk Response Plan

C. Milestone, Completion Date, Stakeholder Judge, Acceptance Criteria

What does the "Talent Triangle" refer to? a. The project teams' talent in managing the three constraints of scope, time and cost. b. The interaction of the three executive-level roles on the project: Sponsor, Steering Team, and Project Management Office. c. PMI's research findings that project managers need skills and knowledge in three areas: Technical, Behavioral, and Strategic. d. The hierarchy of project management life cycles, knowledge areas and process groups.

C. PMI's research findings that project managers need skills and knowledge in three areas: Technical, Behavioral, and Strategic.

________ is defined as an executing process that is primarily concerned with overall process improvements to ensure that each time a deliverable is produced it is error free. a. Manage Quality b. Control Quality c. Perform Quality Assurance d. Plan Quality Management

C. Perform Quality Assurance

In a fixed-price contract, who assumes the greatest level of risk? a. Buyer b. Project manager c. Seller d. External customer

C. Seller

Adding a background section to a project charter would be helpful in what way? a. The background statement is the project purpose or justification, and answers the question "why"? b. The background statement represents the knowledge acquired by the project team throughout the project planning and execution. c. The background statement provides more detail to understand the rationale and purpose behind the Scope Overview and the Business Case statements. d. The background statement establishes what project team operating principles they will use.

C. The background statement provides more detail to understand the rationale and purpose behind the Scope Overview and the Business Case statements.

All of these are reasons why understanding project stakeholders is important to successful project management EXCEPT: a. There may be multiple users, and each may have different wants and needs. b. End users may not fully understand what they want because they don't know what alternatives might be available. c. The customer who pays for the project is always the actual person who uses the project deliverables, and as the end user they fully understand their needs. d. When someone else is paying for the project some users will ask for many project outcomes that are expensive or time consuming to deliver.

C. The customer who pays for the project is always the actual person who uses the project deliverables, and as the end user they fully understand their needs.

The right length for a typical project charter is generally _________. a. 1 to 2 pages b. 1 to 4 pages c. 5 to 8 pages d. 8 to 10 pages

B. 1 to 4 pages

Which of these is NOT a resolution strategy for risks within project control? a. Isolate problems and reschedule other activities b. Increase overtime to stay on schedule c. Carefully escalate problems d. Understand and control WBS

C. Carefully escalate problems

In regard to resource leveling, why are noncritical path activities generally the first to be delayed? a. Because they are longer in duration. b. Because they have available slack / float. c. Because they require fewer resources. d. Because they are not important.

B. Because they have available slack / float.

In addition to technical skills, a project manager must have _________ skills in order to successfully resource a project. a. Microsoft Project b. Behavioral c. Estimating d. Cultural

B. Behavioral

The processes to receive and review change proposals and accept or reject them after evaluating their impact on project scope, cost and schedule is managed through _________: a. Progressive elaboration. b. Change control system. c. Rolling wave planning. d. Meetings with key stakeholders.

B. Change control system.

The time value of money is relevant to project management because: a. The project manager must balance the timing of project cash inflows and outflows. b. Discounting the value of future revenue and cost streams enables better project decisions. c. Schedule and cost are interrelated, and use the same estimating tools. d. As time passes on a project, money is spent.

B. Discounting the value of future revenue and cost streams enables better project decisions.

A strong project matrix is different from a weak matrix in that _____: a. In a strong project matrix the functional manager is strong; they have more decision-making authority than the project manager. b. In a strong matrix the project manager is strong; they have more power than the functional manager. c. In a strong matrix the project manager has complete, or very close to complete, power over the project team d. In a strong matrix "staff is grouped by areas of specialization and the project manager has limited authority to assign work and apply resources."

B. In a strong matrix the project manager is strong; they have more power than the functional manager.

Project management is best described as including administrative tasks for planning, documenting and controlling work, as well as __________. a. Operational tasks to ensure that the operations of the organization continue to function effectively. b. Leadership tasks for visioning, motivating, and promoting work associates. c. Political tasks for managing customers and business partners. d. Strategy development tasks that will be used in project selection.

B. Leadership tasks for visioning, motivating, and promoting work associates.

Near the end of the project, timing issues regarding team members must be addressed. Which of the answers below is NOT one of the three "r" end-of-project activities related to project team members? a. Recognizing team members b. Retrospective meetings with team members c. Releasing team members d. Rewarding team members

B. Retrospective meetings with team members

The project work to be performed can come from the WBS and other sources. Which of these is NOT a source that could trigger authorized work? a. Corrective actions b. Scope creep c. Defect repairs d. Preventive actions

B. Scope creep

A project manager can interpret several things from data displayed in a histogram. If something unusual is happening, the histogram might be ___________. a. Flat b. Skewed c. Bell-shaped d. S-shaped

B. Skewed

If it is agreed that both parties want to share the risk, what type of contract is good to use? a. Fixed-Price Contract b. Strategic Partnering Contract c. Cost Reimbursable Contract d. Time and Material Contract

B. Strategic Partnering Contract

In which of these types of organizational cultures is it more important to get the job done than to worry about who does the work or who gets credit? a. Role culture. b. Task culture. c. Personal culture. d. Power culture.

B. Task culture.

What is the first step in capturing lessons learned at the end of a project? a. The project manager holds a meeting where each participant writes his or her top issues in a workspace where everyone can see them, then the entire group votes on the top five or ten. b. The project manager sends an e-mail asking all project participants to identify major project issues before holding a meeting. c. The project manager holds a meeting where they ask project participants leading questions about the top issues one at a time to determine what went wrong and how it might be avoided in future projects. d. The project manager makes a list of the major project issues from their perspective and e-mails them to participants for feedback.

B. The project manager sends an e-mail asking all project participants to identify major project issues before holding a meeting.

The old saying "What's in it for me?" describes what each stakeholder wants, and there are a number of things that can be done to build a relationship between stakeholders and the core team. Which of these is NOT one of the ways to build these relationships? a. Extend a sincere invitation to early and continued involvement. b. Be responsive to stakeholder needs and requests. c. Carefully review every communication prior to sharing it with stakeholders to make sure that it is politically correct. d. Act in a reliable manner.

C. Carefully review every communication prior to sharing it with stakeholders to make sure that it is politically correct.

An organizational structure in which project team members are moved to alternate locations to allow them to better work with one another, and on the project in general, is called ____: a. Functional organization b. Unity of command c. Co-location d. Projectized organization

C. Co-location

All but one of the projects described below would be best approached using an adaptive or change-driven life cycle. For which of these examples would an agile life cycle approach NOT be appropriate? a. Development of a flying car b. Drug trials to discover a cure for the common cold c. Construction of a new parking garage d. Creation of a new fashion line for the Spring season

C. Construction of a new parking garage

Scope definition is a critical part of project planning. Which of these PMBOK Knowledge Areas does NOT use the defined scope as the foundation for their planning processes? a. Plan Cost Management. b. Plan Schedule Management. c. Identify Stakeholders. d. Plan Risk Management.

C. Identify Stakeholders.

All of these are signs that a project has moved into the closing stage EXCEPT: a. Customers validate the scope is complete b. Project is terminated early c. Integrated change control activities take place d. Project deliverables are transitioned to ongoing operations

C. Integrated change control activities take place

Whom should the project manager consult if there is a severe resource overload and they are considering alternative actions such as reducing the project scope, assigning activities to other workers, splitting activities, reordering activities or resource leveling? a. The resources who are involved. b. The project sponsor. c. The scrum master. d. The customer.

B. The project sponsor.

Which of these is NOT a typical situation for creating a project schedule milestone? a. Time just before a large amount of money needs to be committed to the project b. Time for weekly project meetings c. Merging point in the schedule where multiple project activities need to be completed d. Completion of a critical activity

B. Time for weekly project meetings

The project manager and sponsor need to act in the best interest of all of these constituencies EXCEPT: a. The project itself b. The project team c. The project management office (PMO) d. Other project stakeholders

C. The project management office (PMO)

Jim, a project manager for a manufacturing company, is responsible for getting bids for two sophisticated pieces of equipment that will be installed on the factory floor. He has distributed the detailed specifications to a number of vendors, and is waiting for the bid responses. When analyzing the vendor's bids, Jim can do all of the following to determine if the vendor's bid prices appear to be reasonable EXCEPT: a. Compare the bids and assume that the lowest responsible offer is fair. b. Review industry publications to determine if the prices are in line with industry standards. c. Select one of the lower-priced vendors with a good reputation and negotiate with them for the best price. d. Implement activity-based costing.

D. Implement activity-based costing.

Which of these is NOT one of the functional areas that is frequently outsourced by business organizations? a. Information technology b. Accounting work c. Legal functions d. Marketing

D. Marketing

Which of the scenarios below is NOT an example of an assumption that may arise when estimating the cost of direct labor? a. Workers will be paid for 40 hours per week whether or not there is enough work for them to do. b. Workers are already familiar with the technology being used on the project. c. Workers will be paid at the prevailing wage rate of $14 per hour. d. Only in-house workers will be used.

D. Only in-house workers will be used.

Which of these is NOT a disadvantage of using a financial model for project evaluation and selection? a. Payback period (PP) models do not consider the amount of profit that may be generated after the costs are paid. b. BCR (Benefit Cost Ratio) does not account for intangible benefits and costs that cannot be determined in financial terms. c. Internal Rate of Return (IRR) can favor smaller projects that create less total value for the firm but have high percentage returns. d. Use of financial models ensures that selected projects make sense from a cost and return on investment perspective.

D. Use of financial models ensures that selected projects make sense from a cost and return on investment perspective.

Which one of these is NOT one of the increased challenges to working with a global or virtual team? a. Time boundaries b. Cultural diversity c. Physical dispersion d. Varied skills

D. Varied skills

Which of these time periods is NOT discussed by each core team member in the daily agile 15 minute standup meeting? a. What was accomplished yesterday. b. What will be accomplished today. c. What obstacle(s) might prevent me from accomplishing work in the near future. d. What I plan to accomplish in the next release.

D. What I plan to accomplish in the next release.

What does the acronym WBS stand for? a. Workplace Backup System b. Work Breakdown Schematic c. Workplace Business Structure d. Work Breakdown Structure

D. Work Breakdown Structure

What is the definition of a project charter? a. A short document that grants the project team the right to continue into the more detailed planning stages of the project. b. The project purpose or justification statement, that answers the question "why" and helps all parties understand the purpose of the project. c. A high-level description of what needs to be accomplished and how it will be done. d. A document that sets forth the "attributes that need to be present in order to satisfy a contract, client or other stakeholder."

A. A short document that grants the project team the right to continue into the more detailed planning stages of the project.

Why is it important for project managers to have one-on-one discussions with their core team members? a. Ensures that the team member understands the project manager's power. b. Helps the project manager understand priorities and motivations of each core team member. c. Helps them establish ground rules and the team charter. d. Helps them move through the forming stage of team development.

B. Helps the project manager understand priorities and motivations of each core team member.

The signing of the project charter marks the transition between which two phases of the project life cycle? a. Selecting and Initiating b. Initiating and Planning c. Planning and Executing d. Executing and Closing

B. Initiating and Planning

Which of these is NOT one of the types of control systems that a customer and contractor should work together to set up and utilize? a. Communications plan b. Risk management system c. Payment system d. Change control system

C. Payment system

Why is it often necessary for project managers to persuade experienced workers to be part of the project team? a. Because the project manager has a reputation of being a good boss by caring for team members. b. Because functional managers always offer their least experienced people as resources. c. Because strong technical skills are very important for SMEs. d. Because highly skilled workers tend to be excellent generalists that need to be "sold" on the project.

D. Because highly skilled workers tend to be excellent generalists that need to be "sold" on the project.

Which of these is an example of an internal stakeholder who would be impacted by the project process? a. Government Agencies b. Special Interest Groups c. Suppliers d. Competing Projects

D. Competing Projects

Which of these is NOT one of the ways to build relationships with the core team? a. Encourage open communication. b. Use shared learning. c. Share enjoyment of the project. d. Defer to the project manager for problem solving and decision making.

D. Defer to the project manager for problem solving and decision making.

Who should be involved in identifying potential projects? a. Executives b. Program Managers c. Functional Managers d. Employees at all Levels

D. Employees at all levels

Which of the four values in the PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct is modelled by the behavior described as "Make decisions and act impartially?" a. Responsibility b. Honesty c. Respect d. Fairness

D. Fairness

Which of these would NOT be one of the things that may be negotiated between a client company and a contractor company? a. Schedule b. Quality standards c. Personnel to be assigned to the project d. Source selection criteria

D. Source selection criteria

Clarence and his team are working on a high profile project, and want to be sure that they are proactive about managing stakeholder expectations. What document can they refer to in order to understand their stakeholders' assumptions? a. Stakeholder Identification and Prioritization Matrix b. Business Case c. Communications Plan d. Stakeholder Engagement Assessment Matrix

D. Stakeholder Engagement Assessment Matrix

The second-to-last item on a standard project team meeting agenda is _________: a. Purpose b. Meeting summary c. Logistics d. Topics

B. Meeting summary

All of the statements below accurately describe what an effective project charter should accomplish, EXCEPT: a. Helps the project manager, sponsor, and team members develop a common understanding. b. Authorizes the project manager to proceed. c. Provides the detailed project scope, schedule and budget to be completed by the team. d. Quickly screens out obviously poor projects.

C. Provides the detailed project scope, schedule and budget to be completed by the team.

This element of the project charter can be considered to define the project boundaries - it states what is included and what is not included, at a fairly high level. a. Business case b. Background c. Scope Overview d. Milestone Schedule with Acceptance Criteria

C. Scope Overview

Of the ten project management knowledge areas, which of them includes the "processes to identify the people, groups, or organizations that could impact or be impacted by the project, analyze their expectations and impact, and develop strategies for engaging them in project decisions and execution?" a. Communications Management b. Integration Management c. Stakeholder Management d. Risk Management

C. Stakeholder Management

Which of these activities is NOT the responsibility of the steering team? a. Project selection and prioritization b. Sponsor selection c. Overall priority setting d. Mentor project manager, charter project

D. Mentor project manager, charter project

If several projects have close scores as the result of a scoring model, what can be done to break the virtual tie? a. Perform a sensitivity analysis to examine what would happen to the decision if factors changed b. Use a cost-benefit model to select projects c. Use a SWOT analysis to select projects d. Prepare a business case

A. Perform a sensitivity analysis to examine what would happen to the decision if factors changed

Which of these is NOT a typical section in a change request form? a. Impact on project scope. b. Impact on budget. c. Impact on other projects. d. Impact on deadline dates.

C. Impact on other projects.

What should be done with any activities that remain incomplete at the time of project closure? a. The project cannot be closed out until every activity is complete. b. Final closure means that incomplete activities do not have to be addressed by this project. c. Incomplete activities should be itemized, and responsibility clearly identified. d. The incomplete activities should be rolled into a new project or a new phase of the current project.

C. Incomplete activities should be itemized, and responsibility clearly identified.

All of these are characteristics of Agile life cycle model that distinguish it from other life cycle methodologies EXCEPT: a. Documentation is minimal early in the project but becomes progressively more complete. b. Project teams plan in short bursts (generally of 1 to 4 weeks) often called sprints or iterations. c. It is a plan-driven model with phases including: selecting and initiating, planning, executing, and closing and realizing benefits. d. Products are defined and delivered one iteration at a time with an output that has business value successfully finished in each iteration.

C. It is a plan-driven model with phases including: selecting and initiating, planning, executing, and closing and realizing benefits.

Examples of these types of project selection criteria include government regulations and clear safety or security situations. a. Probability of success b. Expected return on investment c. Mandatory criteria d. Project fit with organizational objectives

C. Mandatory criteria

All of these would typically be included in a mission statement EXCEPT: a. Organization's core values b. Organization's beliefs c. Organization's financial goals d. Organization's customers

C. Organization's financial goals

_____ was the influential thought leader in the area of quality who created the Profound Knowledge System. a. Joseph Juran b. W. Edwards Deming c. Taguchi d. Crosby

B. W. Edwards Deming

During which stage of team development do team members often feel close to one another and have a good understanding of how to work together? a. Storming b. Norming c. Forming d. Performing

D. Performing

When assessing project team capability, the project manager should remember that his or her responsibilities are to simultaneously support all of these three entities that are intertwined in many ways, EXCEPT: a. Chief Projects Officer (CPO) b. Parent organization c. Project d. Project team

A. Chief Projects Officer (CPO)

How can Microsoft Project be useful during the closing stage of a project? a. Complete and archive the schedule and capture lessons learned from the scheduling process b. Determine if the project accomplished what it was originally approved to do c. Display summary status of the project from progress reports d. Document the punch list of all work items that need to be completed

A. Complete and archive the schedule and capture lessons learned from the scheduling process

A project charter is similar to a contract in many ways, but there are some differences between the two documents. How are project charters different from contracts? a. One party cannot arbitrarily change a contract, whereas the project sponsor does have the authority to change the charter. b. Contracts and project charters are entered into freely. c. In both a project charter and a contract there is something of value for both parties. d. Both the charter and contract are living documents that can evolve with changing conditions.

A. One party cannot arbitrarily change a contract, whereas the project sponsor does have the authority to change the charter.

In a project scoring model, each decision criterion is given a __________. a. Relative weight b. Relative cost c. Relative benefit d. Statement of work

A. Relative weight

In which phase of the DMAIC model in Six Sigma (Define-Measure-Analyze-Improve-Control) are root causes identified and statistically proven? a. Define b. Measure c. Analyze d. Improve

C. Analyze

Which of these is NOT a reason why effective communications to stakeholders are necessary? a. Help them make good decisions. b. Prepare them to accept project deliverables. c. Authorizing work. d. Assure them of project progress.

C. Authorizing work.

What is the potential downside to bringing project workers into a project too early? a. People don't like being told what to do, but are usually enthusiastic if they can participate in creating the project plan. b. When the people who perform the work help to plan it, many more details may be considered. c. Bringing SMEs on board before they are needed to complete the project could be expensive. d. For external projects, it is common to list the specific workers who will be assigned to a project team in the proposal.

C. Bringing SMEs on board before they are needed to complete the project could be expensive.

At what stage of the project life cycle are the majority of the "hands-on" tasks completed? a. Selecting and initiating b. Planning c. Executing d. Closing and realizing

C. Executing

Projects differ from operations, in that: a. Project managers can use checklists to manage their work. b. Only projects are associated with processes. c. Projects are temporary, and no two are identical. d. Projects are associated with the ongoing work needed to ensure that an organization functions effectively.

C. Projects are temporary, and no two are identical.

Which of these is NOT an example of types of projects that the organization might include in their portfolio of projects? a. High-and low-risk projects b. Short and long-term projects c. Projects with positive and negative net present value (NPV) d. Projects to create new products and projects to incrementally improve existing products

C. Projects with positive and negative net present value (NPV)

Relative to the project life cycle, when is the cost per risk discovered typically highest? a. Initiating b. Planning c. Executing d. Closing

D. Closing

All of the following information is typically contained in the risk register EXCEPT: a. Risk response strategy b. Risk owner c. Probability of occurrence d. Date risk identified

D. Date risk identified

A request for quotation (RFQ) would be used in all of the following circumstances EXCEPT: a. Price is the main or only factor b. Discussions with bidders are not required c. Specifications of the good or service are already known d. Determine what products and services are potentially available

D. Determine what products and services are potentially available

A professor who always grades on a curve cannot finish scoring the midterm exams until all of the students have completed taking the test. What kind of relationship is this? a. Start-to-start (SS) b. Start-to-finish (SF) c. Finish-to-start (FS) d. Finish-to-finish (FF)

D. Finish-to-finish (FF)

All of these are tasks that comprise the "define scope" process EXCEPT: a. List deliverables and acceptance criteria. b. Establish project boundaries. c. Create a scope description. d. Identify work packages.

D. Identify work packages.

Which of these is NOT an example of supporting detail pertaining to cost estimates? a. Description of the project scope b. Method used to create the estimate c. Assumptions and constraints d. Schedule milestones

D. Schedule milestones

Should a virtual team also meet in person? a. No; the additional expense of arranging for all team members to meet in a central location is prohibitive. b. No; with the availability and diversity of technology methods available, it should not be necessary to physically bring team members together one time. c. Yes; the team should meet in person at every major project milestone. d. Yes; the team should meet in person once, at the beginning of the project.

D. Yes; the team should meet in person once, at the beginning of the project.

What are the characteristics of "pull" communications? a. Communications are posted either on paper or in electronic form and stakeholders need to take the initiative to receive the communication. b. Communications are sent out either on paper or in electronic form. c. Communications flow in multiple directions. d. Information is maintained in an information retrieval and distribution system.

A. Communications are posted either on paper or in electric form and stakeholders need to take the initiative to receive the communication.

Organizational values guide project managers and provide them with a frame of reference. Which of the answers below is NOT an example of how values can impact project managers? a. Determine how people are treated, controlled and rewarded. b. Determine how the organization likes to communicate internally and externally. c. Motivate the ethical actions and communications for managers and subordinates . d. Encourage personal commitment to the organization and justification for its behavior.

B. Determine how the organization likes to communicate internally and externally.

Which of the five project management process groups (Initiating, Planning, Executing, Monitoring & Controlling, and Closing) defines a new project or phase by obtaining authorization? a. Planning b. Initiating c. Executing d. Monitoring & Controlling

B. Initiating

In order to be useful as schedule building blocks, activities should have certain characteristics. Which of these is NOT one of the characteristics that an activity should have? a. Tangible output that can be verified b. It is the element at the lowest level of the WBS and has a deliverable associated with it c. Resources, other costs, and schedule that can be estimated and controlled d. Clear starting and ending points

B. It is the element at the lowest level of the WBS and has a deliverable associated with it

If a painted room must dry for four hours before work can continue, the result is a delay in the successor activity. The wait for paint to dry is an example of a __________. a. Lead b. Lag c. Mandatory dependency d. Discretionary dependency

B. Lag

What two project dimensions are components of project performance? a. Goals and objectives b. Scope and quality c. Time and cost d. Resources and risk

B. Scope and Quality

All of these are types of variation to look for in a Run Chart EXCEPT: a. Trend up or down b. Trend sideways c. Repeating pattern d. Abrupt changes

B. Trend sideways

Under terminations for convenience, a contract clause might be invoked by the buyer for any of the following reasons EXCEPT: a. Buyer is facing unexpected difficulties. b. Buyer's management has changed the organization's priorities. c. Buyer has lost confidence in the contractor. d. Buyer decides resources could be more profitably applied to a different project.

C. Buyer has lost confidence in the contractor.

Which of these is NOT an advantage of using Monte Carlo analysis for predicting a project schedule? a. It allows for more realistic estimates. b. It is flexible, and allows for an entire range of possible time estimates to be used for any activity. c. It uses three time estimates - Optimistic, Pessimistic, and Most Likely. d. It can provide extensive information about individual activities and different paths through the project.

C. It uses three time estimates - Optimistic, Pessimistic, and Most Likely.

If both parties agree to stop the project before its planned completion but cannot reach an agreement, which of these is NOT an appropriate action to take? a. Continue direct negotiations in an attempt to part amicably. b. Reach a settlement through the courts. c. Make sure everyone knows who is to blame for the failure to complete the project. d. Reach a settlement through alternative dispute resolution.

C. Make sure everyone knows who is to blame for the failure to complete the project.

Why is it important to involve workers in the planning phase of a project when possible? a. The project manager needs to know what vacation days they plan to take. b. Project plans are only accurate when the team does all of the planning. c. People are more likely to be enthusiastic about performing work they helped to plan. d. During the planning phase the project manager needs to determine if the team members will work well together.

C. People are more likely to be enthusiastic about performing work they helped to plan.

During project closing, customers are asked both to accept the project deliverables and to ______. a. Pay their final invoice. b. Write a performance appraisal for the project manager's file. c. Provide feedback. d. Write a transition plan.

C. Provide feedback.

In a construction project, the _________ shows those work items that are identified during a final inspection and need to be completed. a. To Do List b. Burn-down Chart c. Punch List d. Check Sheet

C. Punch List

All of these are primary quality control activities EXCEPT: a. Inspection b. Deliverable peer reviews c. Quality audits d. Testing process

C. Quality audits

What type of risk analysis is NOT required on all projects? a. Risk Identification b. Qualitative Risk Analysis c. Quantitative Risk Analysis d. Risk Response Planning

C. Quantitative Risk Analysis

Knowledge management is very important on agile projects. At the end of every two-week to four-week iteration, a ceremony (meeting) called a ______ is held to determine what worked well and what can be improved. a. Stand-up meeting b. Show and tell c. Retrospective d. Backlog review

C. Retrospective

Which of these is a potential negative issue regarding outsourcing? a. Acquiring external expertise not available internally b. Supplementing in-house resources c. Sharing of proprietary knowledge that impacts competitive advantage d. Leveraging insufficient working capital by outsourcing

C. Sharing of proprietary knowledge that impacts competitive advantage

In the risk register, why should one person be designated as the "owner" of the risk? a. So they can be congratulated when the risk is mitigated. b. So they can be blamed if the risk is triggered and causes major project problems. c. So that they can be responsible for determining if it's about to be triggered, and implementing the strategy. d. So that they will be responsible for administering the contingency and management reserves.

C. So that they can be responsible for determining if it's about to be triggered, and implementing the strategy.

Which of the answers below is NOT part of a typical closeout report? a. Lessons learned b. Review of the project's original justification c. Stakeholder analysis d. Summary status of the project

C. Stakeholder analysis

All of the following project team members should serve on a project change control board EXCEPT: a. Sponsor b. Project Manager c. Supplier d. Core Team

C. Supplier

It is important to capture lessons learned in a knowledge database because _____________: a. The team needs an audit trail of project decisions in order to avoid stakeholder liability. b. The team may forget what decisions they made earlier in the project and need a reference point. c. The organization will benefit from the capture and re-use of knowledge developed during the project. d. In an Agile environment lessons learned are the only way to share information about what went right and wrong with the project.

C. The organization will benefit from the capture and re-use of knowledge developed during the project.

What will happen to a project's schedule if there are resource overloads and the critical path is delayed? a. Nothing will happen to the project's schedule if the critical path is delayed. b. The project's schedule will slip only if the float / slack period for the critical path activities is not enough to resolve the resource overload issue. c. The project's schedule will slip only if the float / slack period for the noncritical activities is not enough to resolve the resource overload issue. d. There is never a delay in the critical path, because it is the longest path through the network.

C. The project's schedule will slip only if the float / slack period for the noncritical activities is not enough to resolve the resource overload issue.

Which of these is NOT one of the documents that a project manager can refer back to in order to make sure that all planned work has, in fact, been completed? a. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) b. Project Charter c. Project Scope Statement d. Resource Breakdown Structure (RBS)

D. Resource Breakdown Structure (RBS)

What does a SWOT Analysis examine? a. Strengths, Weaknesses, Options, and Threats b. Strengths, Warnings, Opportunities and Threats c. Scenarios, Weaknesses, Opportunities and Threats d. Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities and Threats

D. Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities and Threats

The schedule activity that follows a predecessor activity, as determined by their logical relationship, is called a ________. a. Lag b. Predecessor activity c. Lead d. Successor activity

D. Successor activity

Which of these is NOT an indication that the project has been a success? a. The project was completed on schedule and on budget b. The project created deliverables that included all of the agreed-upon features c. The organization realized business-level benefits d. The project team overcame the lack of user involvement and met most of the success criteria

D. The project team overcame the lack of user involvement and met most of the success criteria.

In the Build Green Home example of a SWOT analysis, factors including existing thinking on green building and its niche focus, building schedule, and community (location) rumors are all examples of __________. a. Strengths b. Weaknesses c. Opportunities d. Threats

D. Threats

What is the first step in developing a project scope management plan? a. Identify stakeholders. b. Create a Work Breakdown Structure. c. Create a project Scope Statement. d. Collect requirements.

A. Identify stakeholders.

Risks are typically discovered during which stage(s) of a project? a. Initiating b. Initiating & Planning c. Initiating, Planning & Executing d. Initiating, Planning, Executing and Closing

D. Initiating, Planning, Executing and Closing

The highest bar on a Pareto chart often becomes the "head of the fish" in the ____________. a. Control chart b. Run chart c. Histogram d. Ishikawa diagram

D. Ishikawa diagram

Which of the answers below is NOT one of the categories of internal project issues? a. Project work b. Risks c. Adequate communication d. Quality

D. Quality

Which of these is NOT one of the three questions that each team member answers in an Agile standup meeting? a. What they achieved the previous day. b. What issues they've encountered during this iteration and how they've resolved them. c. What they plan to accomplish today. d. What obstacles are preventing them from accomplishing their work.

B. What issues they've encountered during this iteration and how they've resolved them.

Under which circumstances might a project manager or sponsor retain the right to make a project decision? a. When they want all team members involved in making the decision. b. When the decision requires a higher authority. c. When not enough information is available and they are pressed for time. d. When they plan to use voting to test for agreement.

B. When the decision requires a higher authority.

Which of these is NOT one of the steps of the PDCA model? a. Plan b. Deliver c. Check d. Act

B. Deliver

What is used to compare actual project spending with planned expenditures to determine if corrective action is needed? a. Cost Baseline b. Critical Path c. Cost Estimate d. Cost Management Plan

A. Cost Baseline

Termination for default often results from a problem with the project's _____, ______ or _______. a. Cost, schedule, or performance b. Cost, schedule, or resources c. Communications, schedule, or risk d. Change control, schedule, or performance

A. Cost, schedule, or performance

Uncontrolled change is known as: a. Scope creep. b. Over budget condition. c. Missed schedule milestones. d. Quality issues.

A. Scope creep.

During risk analysis for a routine project, ____ percent of money should be put into management reserves, while for an unusual project, ____ percent should be reserved. a. 5 percent, 20 percent b. 5 percent, 30 percent c. 10 percent, 20 percent d. 10 percent, 30 percent

B. 5 percent, 30 percent

Aisha, an experienced project manager, has successfully managed many new build-outs of office space for her east coast company. Her manager announced today that they will be expanding operations to the Midwest. The company had already signed a lease for 5,000 square feet of office space in Cincinnati, and the offices had to be up and running in 3 months. He asked Aisha for a cost estimate for this construction by the end of the day. How can she come up with a credible estimate so quickly? a. Tell the manager that you can't come up with an estimate in a few hours. b. Ask the manager questions about the new office space to understand the impacted departments that will be located there, the level of finishes desired, etc. then use the budgets of previous similar projects as a guideline. c. Create a work breakdown structure by using another previous project and create a bottom-up estimate for each work package. d. Go through all office buildouts for the past five years. Calculate an average construction cost per square foot and multiply the 5,000 square feet by this cost per square feet to calculate the budget.

B. Ask the manager questions about the new office space to understand the impacted departments that will be located there, the level of finishes desired, etc. then use the budgets of previous similar projects as a guideline.

______ is the name of the process that identifies which quality standards are relevant to the project and how to comply with them. a. Fact-Based Management b. Plan Quality Management c. ISO 9001:2008 d. Manage Quality

B. Plan Quality Management

What is another name for the Activity-on-Node (AON) network diagramming technique? a. Activity on Arrow (AOA) b. Precedence Diagramming Method (PDM) c. Program Evaluation and Review Technique (PERT) d. Critical Path Method (CPM)

B. Precedence Diagramming Method (PDM)

Which of these is NOT one of the typical project success measures? a. Meeting Agreements b. Quality Improvements c. Performing Organization's Success d. Project Team's Success

B. Quality Improvements

The planning technique of identifying and defining the work to be accomplished in the near term completely, and planning the future work at a higher level, is called ___________: a. Decomposition b. Rolling Wave Planning c. Baselining d. Joint Application Design (JAD) Session

B. Rolling Wave Planning

A _________ is an analytical technique to ascertain the fundamental reason or reasons that affect one or more variances, defects or risks. a. SWOT Analysis b. Root Cause Analysis c. Delphi Technique d. Brainstorming Technique

B. Root Cause Analysis

A key supplier of materials for your project has not been returning your calls or responding to your e-mails. This is an example of a ________, which indicates that a risk is likely to occur. a. Bad business relationship b. Trigger condition c. Risk avoidance d. Risk transfer

B. Trigger condition

What should your first reaction be if a customer asks for a change to your project scope baseline? a. Call the team together and replan the project to accommodate the new scope. b. Try to get the customer to accept the original project objectives without changing the scope. c. Document the scope changes and process them through the integrated change control system for approval. d. Emphatically tell the customer "no".

B. Try to get the customer to accept the original project objectives without changing the scope.

Validate ____________ is the process where the stakeholders formally accept the final project deliverables. a. Validate WBS b. Validate Scope c. Validate Project d. Validate Product

B. Validate scope

Which of these is NOT one of the reasons that it is better to design quality into a process than to find problems upon inspection? a. It costs more to make junk and then remake it to obtain good outputs. b. Having to do rework aggravates time pressure on projects. c. Because of the saying that the team should meet expectations but exceed requirements. d. Even the best inspectors do not find every mistake, and some mistakes are likely to reach customers.

C. Because of the saying that the team should meet expectations but exceed requirements.

Which of these four most common types of logical dependencies would be represented by the situation "the carton must be sealed and labelled before the package can be shipped?" a. Start-to-start (SS) b. Start-to-finish (SF) c. Finish-to-start (FS) d. Finish-to-finish (FF)

C. Finish-to-start (FS)

What type of costs do NOT depend on the size of the project? a. Variable costs b. Direct costs c. Fixed costs d. Indirect costs

C. Fixed costs

______ is defined as "the amount of time a schedule activity can be delayed without delaying the early start of immediately following schedule activities." a. Total float b. Lag time c. Free float d. Lead time

C. Free float

A negative impact is known as a (n) ______, while a positive impact is known as a (n) __________. a. Issue, Benefit b. Issue, Opportunity c. Threat, Opportunity d. Threat, Benefit

C. Threat, Opportunity

Which of the answers below is NOT one of the reasons that small businesses often outsource project work? a. Insufficient resources b. Working capital issues c. To avoid responsibility for coordinating project activities d. Lack of special capabilities for in-house execution

C. To avoid responsibility for coordinating project activities

Project kickoff meetings are conducted for many reasons. All of these are reasons for conducting a project kickoff meeting EXCEPT: a. To allow all project stakeholders to express their needs and desires. b. To enable the project manager to use their influence to get everyone excited about the project. c. To document the lessons learned for the project. d. To allow all key stakeholders to see how all the pieces of the project fit together.

C. To document the lessons learned for the project.

A Fortune 100 company is about to undertake a $30 million construction project to build a new office building. As a condition of hiring a general contractor to build the property, they require the contractor to secure a performance bond to guarantee their work and performance under this construction contract. This is an example of _______ project risk. a. Avoiding b. Mitigating c. Transferring d. Accepting

C. Transferring