Project Management Exam Review

What do many experts agree is the greatest threat to the success of any project? Select one: a. a failure to communicate b. lack of proper funding c. poor listening skills d. inadequate staffing

a. a failure to communicate

According to McClelland's acquired-needs theory, people who desire harmonious relations with other people and need to feel accepted have a high ____ need. Select one: a. affiliation b. extrinsic c. social d. achievement

a. affiliation

Accountants usually define ____ as a resource sacrificed or foregone to achieve a specific objective. Select one: a. cost b. trade c. liability d. money

a. cost

A is a product or service, such as a technical report, a training session, or hardware, produced or provided as part of a project. Select one: a. deliverable b. product c. work package d. tangible goal

a. deliverable

As the project manager for a software development project, you are helping to develop the project schedule. You decide that writing code for a system should not start until users sign off on the analysis work. What type of dependency is this? Select one: a. discretionary b. technical c. mandatory d. external

a. discretionary

Initiating involves developing a project charter, which is part of the project ____ management knowledge area. Select one: a. integration b. communications c. risk d. scope

a. integration

Which of the following is not a potential advantage of using good project management? Select one: a. lower cost of capital b. shorter development times c. higher profit margins d. higher worker morale

a. lower cost of capital

Personnel in a ____ organizational structure often report to two or more bosses. Select one: a. matrix b. functional c. hybrid d. project

a. matrix

Which of the following is not part of the triple constraint of project management? Select one: a. meeting communications goals b. meeting cost goals c. meeting time goals d. meeting scope goals

a. meeting communications goals

In a weighted scoring model, the sum of the weights of all the criteria must total _____ percent. Select one: a. 150 b. 100 c. 50 d. 10

b. 100

_____ is the cost of evaluating processes and their outputs to ensure that a project is error-free or within an acceptable error range. Select one: a. External failure cost b. Appraisal cost c. Internal failure cost d. Prevention cost

b. Appraisal cost

_____ involves defining and documenting the features and functions of the products produced during the project as well as the processes used for creating them. Select one: a. Controlling scope b. Collecting requirements c. Validating scope d. Defining scope

b. Collecting requirements

Which of the following is an output of the process of controlling costs? Select one: a. Scope baselines b. Cost forecasts c. Basis of estimates d. Project funding requirements

b. Cost forecasts

In project time management, which of the following processes involve calculating the number of work periods that are needed to complete individual activities? Select one: a. Sequencing activities b. Estimating activity durations c. Defining activities d. Planning schedule management

b. Estimating activity durations

Which of the following questions is typically addressed by a project forecast? Select one: a. How comfortable are employees with the software and technology being used on the project? b. How much more money will be needed to complete the project? c. Does the quality of output match our goals? d. Are our clients satisfied with the speed and quality of work on this project?

b. How much more money will be needed to complete the project?

Which of the following is true of push communication? Select one: a. This method ensures that the information is understood by recipients. b. Information is sent to recipients without their request. c. This method ensures that the information is received by the recipients. d. Information is sent only to recipients who request the information.

b. Information is sent to recipients without their request

_____ are those costs that are difficult to measure in monetary terms. Select one: a. Tangible costs b. Intangible costs c. Direct costs d. Fixed costs

b. Intangible costs

A difference between the Program Evaluation and Review Technique (PERT) and critical path method (CPM) is that: Select one: a. CPM addresses the risk associated with duration estimates whereas PERT does not. b. PERT uses different duration estimates whereas CPM uses one specific duration estimate. c. CPM involves more work than PERT because it requires several duration estimates. d. unlike CPM, PERT estimates only when there is no risk of uncertainty.

b. PERT uses different duration estimates whereas CPM uses one specific duration estimate.

____ is an independent test performed by end users prior to accepting the delivered system. Select one: a. Integration testing b. User acceptance testing c. System testing d. Unit testing

b. User acceptance testing

Generating ideas by comparing specific project practices or product characteristics to those of other projects or products inside or outside the performing organization is known as _____. Select one: a. prototyping b. benchmarking c. decomposition d. variance

b. benchmarking

In an AOA network diagram, _____ occur when two or more activities follow a single node. Select one: a. buffers b. bursts c. combinations d. mergers

b. bursts

In project time management, the next step after defining project activities is: Select one: a. planning schedule management. b. determining their dependencies. c. controlling the schedule. d. estimating activity duration.

b. determining their dependencies.

In the _____ phase, the project team creates a definitive or very accurate cost estimate, delivers the required work, and provides performance reports to stakeholders. Select one: a. development b. implementation c. concept d. close-out

b. implementation

The _____ model of a systems development life cycle provides for progressive development of operational software, with each release providing added capabilities. Select one: a. RAD life cycle b. incremental build life cycle c. waterfall life cycle d. spiral life cycle

b. incremental build life cycle

The _____ process is often associated with the technical tools and techniques of quality management, such as Pareto charts, quality control charts, and statistical sampling. Select one: a. quality planning b. quality control c. quality certification d. quality assurance

b. quality control

The _____ is the minimum acceptable rate of return on an investment. Select one: a. internal rate of return b. required rate of return c. discount rate d. capitalization rate

b. required rate of return

The ______ documents how project needs will be analyzed, documented, and managed. Select one: a. requirements traceability matrix b. requirements management plan c. WBS d. project scope statement

b. requirements management plan

A _____ person achieves a balance between risk and payoff. Select one: a. risk-fearing b. risk-neutral c. risk-averse d. risk-seeking

b. risk-neutral

In organizational culture, means-end orientation refers to _____. Select one: a. the degree to which rules, policies, and direct supervision are used to oversee and control employee behavior b. the degree to which management focuses on outcomes rather than on techniques and processes used to achieve results c. the degree to which employees are encouraged to be aggressive, innovative, and risk seeking d. the degree to which the organization monitors and responds to changes in the external environment

b. the degree to which management focuses on outcomes rather than on techniques and processes used to achieve results

____ ensures that the descriptions of the project's products are correct and complete. Select one: a. Integrated change control b. Configuration management c. Integration management d. A change control board

b. Configuration management

Which risk identification tool involves deriving a consensus among a panel of experts by using anonymous input regarding future events? Select one: a. brainstorming b. Delphi technique c. risk breakdown structure d. interviewing

b. Delphi technique

Which of the following statements is false? Select one: a. A resource breakdown structure is a hierarchical structure that identifies the project's resources by category and type. b. Duration and effort are synonymous terms. c. A three-point estimate includes an optimistic, most likely, and pessimistic estimate. d. A Gantt chart is a common tool for displaying project schedule information.

b. Duration and effort are synonymous terms.

Which of the following statements is false? Select one: a. The critical path is the series of activities that determine the earliest time by which a project can be completed. b. Growing grass was on the critical path for a large theme park project. c. A forward pass through a project network diagram determines the early start and early finish dates for each activity. d. Fast tracking is a technique for making cost and schedule trade-offs to obtain the greatest amount of schedule compression for the least incremental cost.

b. Growing grass was on the critical path for a large theme park project.

Which of the following is not an attribute of a project? Select one: a. Projects are unique b. Projects involve little uncertainty. c. Projects have a primary customer or sponsor. d. Projects are developed using progressive elaboration.

b. Projects involve little uncertainty.

Which of the following is not a tool or technique for managing project teams? Select one: a. conflict management b. Social Styles Profile c. project performance appraisals d. observation and conversation

b. Social Styles Profile

Which of the following is not a typical reason that project teams would use a predictive approach versus an agile approach to managing a project? Select one: a. The completion date is fairly rigid. b. The project has unclear up-front requirements. c. The project team is inexperienced and dispersed. d. Large risks are involved.

b. The project has unclear up-front requirements.

____ are indicators or symptoms of actual risk events, such as a cost overrun on early activities being a symptom of poor cost estimates. Select one: a. Watch list items b. Triggers c. Probabilities d. Impacts

b. Triggers

Which of the following outputs is often completed before initiating a project? Select one: a. kick-off meeting b. business case c. project charter d. stakeholder register

b. business case

What does the term kaizen mean? Select one: a. maximize value b. improvement c. do it right the first time d. minimize waste

b. improvement

Which of the following is not part of the three-sphere model for systems management? Select one: a. organization b. information c. business d. technology

b. information

Which of the following is not a process in project communications management? Select one: a. planning communications management b. managing stakeholders c. managing communications d. controlling communications

b. managing stakeholders

What term describes an organization's acquisition of goods and services from an outside source in another country? Select one: a. global sourcing b. offshoring c. globalization d. exporting

b. offshoring

Which of the following processes involves determining the policies, procedures, and documentation that will be used for planning, executing, and controlling the project schedule? Select one: a. defining activities b. planning schedule management c. estimating activity resources d. activity sequencing

b. planning schedule management

The field includes the top skills employers look for in new college graduates. Select one: a. communications b. project management c. customer service d. financial management

b. project management

Using the formula for calculating the number of communication channels, how many channels would two people require? Select one: a. 3 b. 2 c. 1 d. 4

c. 1

Six Sigma's target for perfection is the achievement of no more than _____ defects, errors, or mistakes per million opportunities. Select one: a. 1.34 b. 34 c. 3.4 d. 13.4

c. 3.4

Which of the following is a planning process associated with project scope management? Select one: a. Estimating costs b. Performing qualitative risk analysis c. Collecting requirements D.Planning schedule management

c. Collecting requirements

Which of the following dependencies involve relationships between project and non-project activities? Select one: a. Mandatory b. Discretionary c. External d. Inherent

c. External

_____ involves determining which risks are likely to affect a project and documenting the characteristics of each. Select one: a. Planning risk management b. Performing qualitative risk analysis c. Identifying risks d. Performing quantitative risk analysis

c. Identifying risks

_____ involves tracking team member performance, motivating team members, providing timely feedback, resolving issues and conflicts, and coordinating changes to help enhance project performance. Select one: a. Developing the project team b. Developing the human resource plan c. Managing the project team d. Acquiring the project team

c. Managing the project team

_____ involves numerically estimating the effects of risks on project objectives. Select one: a. Planning risk responses b. Identifying risks c. Performing quantitative risk analysis d. Performing qualitative risk analysis

c. Performing quantitative risk analysis

Which of the following is a proactive process undertaken to reduce the probability of negative consequences associated with project risks? Select one: a. Performance reports b. Defect repairs c. Preventive actions d. Corrective actions

c. Preventive actions

According to Herzberg, which of the following is a motivational factor? Select one: a. Health benefits b. Training c. Recognition d. Salary

c. Recognition

An important tool used in the _____ phase of the DMAIC process is the fishbone or Ishikawa diagram. Select one: a. define b. measure c. analyze d. improve

c. analyze

The term ______ describes a product produced as part of a project. Select one: a. work package b. variance c. deliverable d. scope

c. deliverable

The majority of time on a project is usually spent on _____, as is most of the project's budget. Select one: a. monitoring and controlling b. closing c. execution d. planning

c. execution

According to research by Albert Mehrabian, which of the following is NOT a way that information is communicated in a face-to-face interaction? Select one: a. tone of voice b. body language c. facial expression d. spoken content

c. facial expression

Performing qualitative and quantitative risk analyses are subprocesses of the _____ process of project risk management. Select one: a. monitoring and controlling b. executing c. planning d. closing

c. planning

Those who are _____ have a higher tolerance for risk, and their satisfaction increases when more payoff is at stake. Select one: a. risk-averse b. risk-indifferent c. risk-seeking d. risk-neutral

c. risk-seeking

Good Earth, a company manufacturing packaged food products, sets up its stores in Baltonia. However, a year later, the company closes the store down due to high operating costs. In such a scenario, the money spent in paying for the rent of the store in Baltonia would be an example of _____ costs. Select one: a. direct b. intangible c. sunk d. recurring

c. sunk

Which of the following is not a best practice that can help in avoiding scope problems on IT projects? Select one: a. Use off-the-shelf hardware and software whenever possible. b. Follow good project management processes. c. Don't involve too many users in scope management. d. Keep the scope realistic.

c. Don't involve too many users in scope management.

PMI's OPM3 is an example of a ____ model or framework for helping organizations improve their processes and systems. Select one: a. Six Sigma b. quality c. maturity d. benchmarking

c. maturity

What is the first step in a Monte Carlo analysis? Select one: a. Determine the probability distribution of each variable. b. For each variable, such as the time estimate for a task, select a random value based on the probability distribution for the occurrence of the variable. c. Run a deterministic analysis or one pass through the model using the combination of values selected for each one of the variables. d. Assess the range for the variables being considered.

d. Assess the range for the variables being considered.

_____ is a method for determining the estimated annual costs and benefits for a project. Select one: a. Requirements analysis b. Present value analysis c. Critical path analysis d. Cash flow analysis

d. Cash flow analysis

_____ are an example of external stakeholders for an organization. Select one: a. Top managers b. Employees c. Functional managers d. Competitors

d. Competitors

_____ involves working with stakeholders to create the document that formally authorizes a project. Select one: a. Developing the preliminary project scope statement b. Performing integrated change control c. Developing the project management plan d. Developing the project charter

d. Developing the project charter

_____ dependencies are sometimes referred to as soft logic and should be used with care because they may limit later scheduling options. Select one: a. Inherent b. Mandatory c. External d. Discretionary

d. Discretionary

The _____ presents subjects with a series of ambiguous pictures and asks them to develop a spontaneous story for each picture, assuming they will project their own needs into the story. Select one: a. MBTI b. RACI c. RAM d. TAT

d. TAT

The _____ stage of information technology planning outlines business processes that are central to achieving strategic goals and helps determine which ones could most benefit from information technology. Select one: a. project planning b. resource allocation c. information technology strategy planning d. business area analysis

d. business area analysis

A _____ is a graphic display of data that illustrates the results of a process over time. Select one: a. statistical sampling chart b. Six Sigma chart c. Pareto chart d. control chart

d. control chart

One of the main outputs of the _____ process is a cost baseline. Select one: a. cost controlling b. cost estimating c. cost planning d. cost budgeting

d. cost budgeting

The first step in the framework for defining and assigning work is _____. Select one: a. defining how the work will be accomplished b. breaking down the work into manageable elements c. assigning work responsibilities d. finalizing the project requirements

d. finalizing the project requirements

The process of controlling costs primarily involves: Select one: a. determining the policies for project costs. b. determining a basis for estimates. c. finalising the procedures for project costs. d. managing changes to the project budget.

d. managing changes to the project budget.

Scope creep refers to: Select one: a. subdividing project deliverables into smaller pieces. b. a task at the lowest level of the WBS. c. the approved project scope statement and its associated WBS. d. the tendency for project scope to keep getting bigger and bigger.

d. the tendency for project scope to keep getting bigger and bigger

The _____ approach for constructing a WBS involves refining the work into greater and greater levels of detail. Select one: a. mind mapping b. analogy c. bottom-up d. top-down

d. top-down

A project's internal rate of return can be determined by finding what discount rate results in an NPV of _____ for the project. Select one: a. one b. fifty percent c. a hundred percent d. zero

d. zero

Which process group normally requires the most resources and time? Select one: a. Monitoring and controlling b. Planning c. Initiating d. Executing e. Closing

d. Executing

Which of the following is not a guideline to help improve time spent at meetings? Select one: a. Build relationships. b. Define the purpose and intended outcome of the meeting. c. Determine if a meeting can be avoided. d. Invite extra people who support your project to make the meeting run more smoothly.

d. Invite extra people who support your project to make the meeting run more smoothly.

____ is an uncertainty that can have a negative or positive effect on meeting project objectives. Select one: a. Risk utility b. Risk management c. Risk tolerance d. Risk

d. Risk

____ is a quantitative risk analysis tool that uses a model of a system to analyze its expected behavior or performance. Select one: a. Sensitivity analysis b. Monte Carlo analysis c. EMV d. Simulation

d. Simulation

Project management software helps you develop a ____, which serves as a basis for creating Gantt charts, assigning resources, and allocating costs. Select one: a. deliverable b. schedule c. project plan d. WBS

d. WBS

What type of diagram shows planned and actual project schedule information? Select one: a. a Gantt chart b. a milestone chart c. a network diagram d. a Tracking Gantt chart

d. a Tracking Gantt chart

Which tool or technique for collecting requirements is often the most expensive and time consuming? Select one: a. focus groups b. observation c. surveys d. interviews

d. interviews

What approach to developing a WBS involves writing down or drawing ideas in a nonlinear format? Select one: a. analogy b. top-down c. bottom-up d. mind mapping

d. mind mapping

Which risk management process involves prioritizing risks based on their probability and impact of occurrence? Select one: a. planning risk management b. identifying risks c. performing quantitative risk analysis d. performing qualitative risk analysis

d. performing qualitative risk analysis

Several application development projects done for the same functional group might best be managed as part of a ____. Select one: a. portfolio b. investment c. collaborative d. program

d. program

A is a temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, service, or result. Select one: a. process b. program c. portfolio d. project

d. project

A ____ is a document that formally recognizes the existence of a project and provides direction on the project's objectives and management. Select one: a. business case b. project management plan c. contract d. project charter

d. project charter

A ____ maps the work of a project, as described in the WBS, to the people responsible for performing the work. Select one: a. project organizational chart b. resource histogram c. work definition and assignment process d. responsibility assignment matrix

d. responsibility assignment matrix

Which of the following terms describes a framework of the phases involved in developing information systems? Select one: a. rapid application development b. extreme programming c. predictive life cycle d. systems development life cycle

d. systems development life cycle

What is the preferred order for performing testing on IT projects? Select one: a. unit testing, integration testing, user acceptance testing, system testing b. unit testing, system testing, user acceptance testing, integration testing c. unit testing, system testing, integration testing, user acceptance testing d. unit testing, integration testing, system testing, user acceptance testing

d. unit testing, integration testing, system testing, user acceptance testing

Scope ____ is often achieved by a customer inspection and then sign-off on key deliverables. Select one: a. close-out b. completion c. acceptance d. validation

d. validation

Enterprise environmental factors are an output of the executing process of _____. Select one: a. project human resource management b. project integration management c. project quality management d. project procurement management

project human resource management

A common _____ process is reporting performance, where project stakeholders can identify any necessary changes that may be required to keep the project on track. Select one: a. planning b. monitoring and controlling c. closing d. executing

B. Monitoring and Controlling

Project _____ management involves defining and managing all the work required to complete the project successfully. Select one: a. human resource b. time c. scope d. cost

C. Scope

Grey's Infotech sells customized hardware and software solutions for businesses. The salespeople for Grey's have a strict dress code when meeting clients. They are required to wear dark business suits, in order to convey the company's dedication to quality. The meaning conveyed to the clients' through the salespeople's clothing is part of the _____ frame of the organization. Select one: a. human resources b. structural c. symbolic d. political

C. Symbolic

_____ a highly respected psychologist, rejected the dehumanizing negativism of psychology and proposed the hierarchy of needs theory. Select one: a. Abraham Maslow b. Sigmund Freud c. Carl Jung d. Philip Zimbardo

a. Abraham Maslow

Which of the following is a difference between low-end and midrange tools of the project management software? Select one: a. Midrange tools are designed to handle larger projects than low-end tools. b. Low-end tools are designed to handle primarily multiple users whereas midrange tools are created to handle single users. c. Low-end tools provide robust capabilities to handle dispersed workgroups whereas midrange tools do not. d. Midrange tools provide basic project management features whereas low-end tools offer enterprise and portfolio management functions.

a. Midrange tools are designed to handle larger projects than low-end tools.

_____ analysis simulates a model's outcome many times to provide a statistical distribution of the calculated results. Select one: a. Monte Carlo b. Sensitivity c. NPV d. Systems

a. Monte Carlo

_____ analysis is a method of calculating the expected net monetary gain or loss from a project by discounting all expected future cash inflows and outflows to the present point in time. Select one: a. Net present value b. Payback c. Cash flow d. Cost of capital

a. Net present value

_____ involves taking steps to enhance opportunities and reduce threats to meeting project objectives. Select one: a. Planning risk responses b. Performing quantitative risk analysis c. Controlling risk d. Performing qualitative risk analysis

a. Planning risk responses

____ describe what the project team has accomplished during a certain period. Select one: a. Progress reports b. Lessons-learned reports c. Forecasts d. Status reports

a. Progress reports

The project schedule information section of the project management plan includes ____. Select one: a. an elaborate timetable b. a list of key deliverables c. a detailed budget d. a directory of staff involved in the project

a. an elaborate timetable

An example of pull communication is _____. Select one: a. blogs b. video conferencing c. voice mails d. meetings

a. blogs

The items discussed in a(n) _____ include reflections on whether project goals were met, whether the project was successful or not, the causes of variances on the project, the reasoning behind corrective actions chosen, the use of different project management tools and techniques, and personal words of wisdom based on team members' experiences. Select one: a. lessons-learned report b. design document c. final project report d. audit report

a. lessons-learned report

The budget is one of the three values of earned value management and is also known as _____. Select one: a. planned value b. indirect cost c. earned value d. actual cost

a. planned value

The _____ lists the relative probability of a risk occurring and the relative impact of the risk occurring. Select one: a. probability/impact matrix b. requirements traceability matrix c. Top Ten Risk Item Tracking chart d. expectations management matrix

a. probability/impact matrix

If you add three more people to a project team of five, how many more communication channels will you add? Select one: a. 18 b. 2 c. 12 d. 15

a. 18

Six Sigma's target for perfection is the achievement of no more than ____ defects, errors, or mistakes per million opportunities. Select one: a. 3.4 b. 1 c. 9 d. 6

a. 3.4

____ involves allocating the project cost estimate to individual material resources or work items over time. Select one: a. Project cost budgeting b. Reserve analysis c. Earned value analysis d. Life cycle costing

a. Project cost budgeting

___ is the application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet project requirements. Select one: a. Project management b. Requirements management c. Project portfolio management d. Program management

a. Project management

Which of the following is not true? Select one: a. Project management certification does not affect pay. b. Most American companies have a project management office. c. You can earn an advanced degree in project management from hundreds of colleges and universities. d. Employers are looking for project management skills in new graduates.

a. Project management certification does not affect pay.

A ____ is a series of actions directed toward a particular result. Select one: a. process b. goal c. plan d. project

a. process

What is the last step in the four-stage planning process for selecting IT projects? Select one: a. resource allocation b. business area analysis c. mind mapping d. IT strategy planning

a. resource allocation

What technique can you use to resolve resource conflicts by delaying tasks? Select one: a. resource leveling b. resource loading c. overallocation d. critical path analysis

a. resource leveling

Project portfolio management addresses ____ goals of an organization, while project management addresses ____ goals. Select one: a. strategic, tactical b. tactical, strategic c. external, internal d. internal, external

a. strategic, tactical

A(n) _____ on a project is a significant event that normally has no duration. Select one: a. schedule baseline b. milestone c. activity sequence d. activity attribute

b. milestone

A(n) ____ is a task at the lowest level of the WBS. Select one: a. objective b. work package c. deliverable d. variance

b. work package

Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Not flaggedFlag question Question text What term describes information that is sent to recipients at their request via websites, bulletin boards, elearning, knowledge repositories like blogs, and other means? Select one: a. interactive communications b. pull communications c. customer communications d. push communications

b. pull communications

What is the purpose of project quality management? Select one: a. to produce the highest-quality products and services possible b. to ensure that appropriate quality standards are met c. to ensure that the project will satisfy the needs for which it was undertaken d. all of the above

b. to ensure that appropriate quality standards are met

___ refers to action taken to bring rejected items into compliance with product requirements or specifications or other stakeholder expectations. Select one: a. A process adjustment b. Validation c. Rework d. An acceptance decision

c. Rework

_____ is at the top of Maslow's hierarchy of needs. Select one: a. Physiological b. Esteem c. Self-actualization d. Social

c. Self-actualization

_____ is a process for identifying and modeling business events, who initiated them, and how the system should respond to them. Select one: a. JAD b. Prototyping c. Use case modeling d. RAD

c. Use case modeling

People with a high need for _____ seek to excel and tend to avoid both low-risk and high-risk situations to improve their chances for achieving something worthwhile. Select one: a. affiliation b. power c. achievement d.security

c. achievement

In the _____approach for constructing a WBS, you use a similar project's WBS as a starting point. Select one: a. mind-mapping b. bottom-up c. analogy d. top-down

c. analogy

The first step in determining the NPV is to _____. Select one: a. calculate the net present value b. determine the discount rate c. determine the estimated costs and benefits for the life of the project and the products it produces d. determine the cash flow

c. determine the estimated costs and benefits for the life of the project and the products it produces

In the Tuckman model, _____ occurs as team members have different opinions as to how the team should operate. Select one: a. performing b. norming c. storming d. forming

c. storming

____ causes people to participate in an activity for their own enjoyment. Select one: a. Extrinsic motivation b. Self motivation c. Intrinsic motivation d. Social motivation

c. Intrinsic motivation

____ reserves allow for future situations that are unpredictable. Select one: a. Financial b. Contingency c. Management d. Baseline

c. Management

What is the name of one of the popular certifications provided by the Project Management Institute? Select one: a. Certified Project Manager (CPM) b. Project Management Expert (PME) c. Project Management Professional (PMP) d. Project Management Mentor (PMM)

c. Project Management Professional (PMP)

If the actual cost for a WBS item is $1,500 and its earned value is $2,000, what is its cost variance, and is it under or over budget? Select one: a. The cost variance is −$500, which is under budget. b. The cost variance is $500, which is over budget. c. The cost variance is $500, which is under budget. d. The cost variance is −$500, which is over budget.

c. The cost variance is $500, which is under budget.

A new government law requires an organization to report data in a new way. Which of the following categories would include a new information system project to provide this data? Select one: a. problem b. opportunity c. directive d. regulation

c. directive

What tool and technique is used for all processes of project integration management? Select one: a. project management software b. templates c. expert judgment d. all of the above

c. expert judgment

Which of the following is true of the schedule performance index (SPI)? Select one: a. It means that a project is behind schedule if an SPI is greater than one. b. It means that a project is ahead of schedule if SPI is lesser than one or hundred percent. c. It is the ratio of planned value to actual costs. d. It can be used to estimate the projected time to complete the project.

d. It can be used to estimate the projected time to complete the project

Which of the following is true of virtual teams? Select one: a. It is easier for a virtual team to build relationships and trust. b. As they never meet, virtual teams do not have conflicts. c. Negative incentives do not impact virtual team members. d. It is important to select team members carefully.

d. It is important to select team members carefully.

Which of the following communication methods would be most appropriate for assessing the commitment of project stakeholders? Select one: a. Web sites b. E-mail c. Wikis d. Meetings

d. Meetings

_____ refers to matching certain behaviors of the other person. Select one: a. Synergy b. Empathic listening c. Rapport d. Mirroring

d. Mirroring

____ correct(s) or prevent(s) further quality problems based on quality control measurements. Select one: a. Rework b. Acceptance decisions c. Decomposition d. Process adjustments

d. Process adjustments

Projects must operate in a broad organizational environment, and project managers need to consider projects within the greater organizational context. _____ describes this holistic view of carrying out projects within the context of the organization. Select one: a. The silo approach b. Linear analysis c. Reductionism d. Systems thinking

d. Systems thinking

A cost estimation tool which is used to allocate money into an organization's budget is known as a _____ estimate. Select one: a. ballpark b. rough order of magnitude c. definitive d. budgetary

d. budgetary

The project scope management knowledge area maps to the _____ process group through the activities of scope validation and scope control. Select one: a. initiating b. planning c. executing d. monitoring and controlling

d. monitoring and controlling

Process improvement plan, quality metrics, and quality checklists are the outputs of the _____ process of project quality management. Select one: a. performing quality assurance b. quality certification c. controlling quality d. planning quality management

d. planning quality management

According to Thamhain and Wilemon, _____ is the ability to improve a worker's position. Select one: a. penalty b. assignment c. expertise d. promotion

d. promotion

The _____ should list and describe all of the deliverables required for the project. Select one: a. project charter b. Gantt chart c. WBS d. scope statement

d. scope statement

A difference between strategic and tactical goals is that: Select one: a. strategic goals are more specific than tactical goals. b. tactical goals are more important for a project than strategic goals. c. tactical goals encompass broader dimensions than strategic goals. d. strategic goals are long-term in nature whereas tactical goals are short-term.

d. strategic goals are long-term in nature whereas tactical goals are short-term.

Which of the following tools are most likely to be used in project time management? Select one: a. Gantt charts b. Impact matrices c. Fishbone diagrams d. Payback analysis

A. Gantt Charts

_____ refers to the degree to which the organization monitors and responds to changes in the external environment. Select one: a. Open-systems focus b. Risk tolerance c. Conflict tolerance d. Means-ends orientation

A. Open Systems Focus

Which of the following is true of bottom-up estimates? Select one: a. They are time-intensive and expensive to develop. b. They are most accurate when they involve large, extensive work items. c. They are also known as parametric estimating. d. They are based on the actual cost of a previous, similar project.

A. They are time-intensive and expensive to develop

A _____ is a tool used in quality management. Select one: a. probability matrice b. checklist critical path analysis d. request for proposal

B. Checklist

Which of the following refers to a set of principles that guides decision making based on personal values of what is considered right and wrong? Select one: a. Laws b. Ethics c. Civics d. Politics

B. Ethics

Which of the following statements is true of project management? Select one: a. It has specific tools which work universally across all kinds of projects. b. It does not guarantee successes for all projects. c. Its framework consists solely of project management knowledge areas. d. It is a simple discipline with a limited scope.

B. It does not guarantee successes for all projects.

Which of the following types of tools is usually recommended for small projects and single users? Select one: a. High-end b. Low-end c. Upper range d. Midrange

B. Low End

Martha works as a project manager at a bank. Due to certain changes in external factors, Martha needs to make a few alterations in the tactical goals of her project. In such a scenario, which of the following will best help Martha cope with the change? Select one: a. Soft skills b. Project environment knowledge Negotiation d. Motivation

B. Project Environment Knowledge

A _____ is an organizational group responsible for coordinating the project management function throughout an organization. Select one: a. Portfolio Group b. Project Management Office c. Project Management Center d. Project Management Professional

B. Project Management Office

The _____ process involves gaining stakeholder and customer acceptance of the final products and services and bringing the project, or project phase, to an orderly end. Select one: a. executing b. planning c. closing d. monitoring

C. Closing

In which of the following areas of management is payback analysis most likely to be used? Select one: a. Quality b. Human resource c. Cost d. Communication

C. Cost

_____ are an output of the executing process of project integration management. Select one: a. Enterprise environmental factor updates b. Resource calendars c. Deliverables d. Issue logs

C. Deliverables

_____ processes include defining and authorizing a project or project phase. Select one: a. Planning b. Executing c. Initiating d. Monitoring and controlling

C. Initiating

Which of the following is true of a finsih-to-finish dependency? Select one: a. It is a dependency in which in which the "from" activity must finish before the "to" activity or successor can start. b. It is a dependency in which the "from" activity must be finished before the "to" activity can be finished. c. It is a dependency in which the "from" activity cannot start until the "to" activity or successor is started. d. It is a dependency in which the "from" activity must start before the "to" activity can be finished.

C. It is a dependency in which the "from" activity must be finished before the "to" activity can be finished.

The most difficult and unappreciated process in project management is often Select one: a. initiating b. monitoring and controlling c. planning d. executing

C. Planning

The first two traditional project phases (concept and development) focus on planning, and are often referred to as _____. Select one: a. project close-out b. project acquisition c. project feasibility d. project implementation

C. Project Feasibility

Which of the following project management knowledge areas is an overarching function that affects and is affected by the different knowledge areas? Select one: a. Project communications management b. Project cost management c. Project integration management

C. Project Integration Management

Steve, an engineer in a construction company, is at present working on a home construction project. The home is being built for the Robinson family, the owners of the home. Steve is working with his project team and support staff to ensure the project is completed on time. In such a scenario, the project sponsor is _____. Select one: a. the support staff b. the project team c. the Robinson family d. Steve

C. The Robinson Family

Which of the following provides certification as a Project Management Professional? Select one: a. PMI b. PMC c. PMP d. PMS

CorrectRationale: Feedback: PMI or the Project Management Institute provides certification as a Project Management Professional (PMP). A Project Management Professional (PMP) is someone who has documented sufficient project experience and education, agreed to follow the PMI code of professional conduct, and demonstrated knowledge of project management by passing a comprehensive examination.

Which of the following is true about the agile method? Select one: a. It is used when project teams want to use the predicative approach to a project. b. It is used when a project team wants to provide a potentially shippable product earlier rather than later. c. It is often used when a project team can express the scope early in the product life cycle. d. It uses several iterations or deliveries of software instead of waiting until the end of the project to provide a product.

D. It uses several iterations or deliveries of software instead of waiting until the end of the project to provide a product.

Which of the following tools can best help in efficient communication management? Select one: a. Requests for quotes b. Fast tracking c. Impact matrices d. Kick-off meetings

D. Kick Off Meetings

The project time management knowledge area maps to the _____ process group through the activity of schedule control. Select one: a. initiating b. executing c. planning d. monitoring and controlling

D. Monitoring and Controlling

The role of a _____ is to provide direction and funding for a project. Select one: a. project manager b. support staff member c. project team d. project sponsor .

D. Project Sponsor

Fast tracking is an example of a tool used in _____ management. Select one: a. communication b. quality c. risk d. time

D. Time

An important tool for project scope management is _____. Select one: a. a Gantt chart b. crashing c. fast tracking d. a work breakdown structure

D. Work Breakdown Structure

Which of the following is true of program managers? Select one: a. They recognize that managing a program is simpler than managing a project. b. They report to project managers who represent the next level in the hierarchy. c. They are responsible solely for the delivery of project results. d. They provide leadership and direction for project managers heading the projects within a program.

D.They provide leadership and direction for project managers heading the projects within a program.

Which of the following is a difference between projects and operations? Select one: a. Projects are temporary endeavors whereas an organization's operations are ongoing in nature. b. Operations have well-defined objectives whereas projects do not need to have a unique purpose. c. Projects are undertaken to sustain an organization's business whereas operations are not. d. Operations are undertaken to create unique products, services, or results whereas projects are not.

Projects are temporary endeavors whereas an organization's operations are ongoing in nature.

Which of the following is a disadvantage of virtual teams as compared to traditional teams? Select one: a. Limited flexibility in team working hours b. Increased costs for office space and support c. Reduced opportunities for informal transfer of information d. Reduced dependence on technology and processes for accomplishing work

Reduced opportunities for informal transfer of information

_____ are a complete set of organized project records that provide an accurate history of the project. Select one: a. Project archives b. Project plans c. Forecasts d. Project notes

a. Project archives

Which of the following is a relationship in which the "from" activity cannot start until the "to" activity is started? Select one: a. Start-to-start b. Finish-to-start c. Start-to-finish d. Finish-to-finish

a. Start-to-start

_____ involves choosing part of a population of interest for inspection. Select one: a. Statistical sampling b. Conformance c. Fitness for use d. System testing

a. Statistical sampling

_____ are/is a qualitative risk analysis tool that maintains an awareness of risks throughout the life of a project in addition to identifying risks. Select one: a. Top Ten Risk Item Tracking b. Expectations management matrix c. Probability/impact matrices or charts d. SharePoint portal

a. Top Ten Risk Item Tracking

E-mail communication is most suited for: Select one: a. communicating . b. assessing commitment to a project. c. mediating a conflict between multiple parties. d. building consensus among disputing parties.

a. communicating .

The amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the early start date of any immediately following activities is known as a _____. Select one: a. free slack b. forward pass c. backward pass d. fast tracking

a. free slack