Risk Management & Insurance Exam 2: Chapters 9, 10, 22, 23 Rejda

1) Under financial responsibility laws, proof of financial responsibility is generally required under all of the following circumstances EXCEPT A) the use of an auto by any driver with fewer than 3 years of driving experience. B) an auto accident involving property damage over a specified amount. C) failure to pay a final judgment resulting from an auto accident. D) conviction for certain serious traffic offenses, such as driving while intoxicated.

A

Duties of an insured after a collision loss covered under the PAP include which of the following? I. Take reasonable steps to protect the vehicle from further damage. II. Admit fault if the insured believes he or she caused the collision.

I only

Tony has a PAP which provides medical payments coverage. Under which of the following circumstances would the injured person be eligible for benefits under Tony's policy? I. A friend in the car is injured while Tony is driving a covered auto. II. A passenger on a motorcycle driven by Tony is injured when Tony hit another vehicle.

I only

Which of the following statements about the payment of defense costs by the PAP is (are) true? I. They are paid in addition to the policy limits. II. They are payable even after the limit of liability is exhausted

I only

John has an auto which is covered for collision losses subject to a $250 deductible. Kate's auto also has collision coverage but her deductible is $500. Which of the following statements describes how a $2,000 collision loss will be paid if it occurs when John borrows Kate's car because his car is in the shop for repairs?

Kate's policy will pay $1,500, and John's policy will pay $250

Larry has $25,000 of bodily injury liability coverage under his PAP. This limit is the minimum amount required by his state to be considered financially responsible. While on a vacation, Larry visited a neighboring state which has a minimum financial responsibility limit of $50,000 for bodily injury. Which of the following statements describes the situation for Larry while he was in the neighboring state?

Larry's policy automatically provided $50,000 of liability coverage.

John occasionally borrows the car of his friend, Sophie. Sophie has a PAP with liability limits of 100/300/50. John also has a PAP, and his liability limits 250/500/50. John had an accident while using Sophie's car and was found to be legally liable for $300,000 in bodily injury liability for injuries suffered by one person. How much will be paid by each policy?

Sophie's policy will pay $100,000, John's policy will pay $200,000

Which of the following statements about the uninsured motorists coverage of the PAP is true?

The coverage applies only if the uninsured motorist is legally liable

Which of the following is considered to be a collision loss under Part D (coverage for damage to your auto) of the PAP?

The covered auto is damaged when it slid off an icy road and hit a fence

Which of the following situations would be covered by the liability section of an unendorsed PAP if the insured is legally liable?

The insured backs into and damages the garage door of his rented house.

Which of the following is a covered person under the medical payments coverage of the PAP?

a family member of the named insured if struck by an auto while crossing the street

The appraisal provision in the Personal Auto Policy is used to determine the

amount paid for a physical damage loss to the insured's auto if the insured and insurer disagree.

A vehicle is considered a constructive total loss when

the repair cost exceeds the actual cash value.

Dennis was involved in an accident. He believes the damage to his auto is $6,000. His insurer believes the damage is only $3,500. Which PAP provision is designed to handle disputes between the insurer and the insured over the amount of the loss?

appraisal provision

If the value of a vehicle is increased after repairs, such as repainting an entire auto when only one fender or door is damaged, the insurer will not pay for the increase in value. Another name for the increase in value is

betterment

Ken purchased a PAP with liability limits of 100/300/50, medical payments coverage, and collision coverage. Ken fell asleep while driving late at night. He crossed the center line and hit a car approaching from the other direction. The following losses occurred. —The driver of the other car suffered $30,000 in bodily injuries. —Ken's car sustained $5,000 in damages. —Ken incurred $5,000 in medical expenses. —The car that Ken hit was a total loss. Which of Ken's Personal Auto Policy (PAP) coverages will cover the damage to Ken's car?

collision coverage

A car damaged in an auto accident may have reduced market or resale value after it is repaired. Some insureds have sought to recover this reduction in market or resale value. This loss in value is called

diminution

In addition to providing coverage in the United States, its territories and possessions, and Puerto Rico, where else does the PAP provide coverage?

in Canada

In which of the following situations would medical payments be paid under an unendorsed PAP?

injuries incurred in an auto while it is used in a share-the-expense car pool

The purpose of the Miscellaneous-Type Vehicle Endorsement to the PAP is to

insure motorcycles, mopeds, motor scooters, and similar vehicles

Kelly was hit by a car while she was walking to the park. She incurred $750 in medical costs at a hospital emergency room. Kelly has coverage for this charge under which of her Personal Auto Policy (PAP) coverages?

medical payments

Ken purchased a PAP with liability limits of 100/300/50, medical payments coverage, and collision coverage. Ken fell asleep while driving late at night. He crossed the center line and hit a car approaching from the other direction. The following losses occurred. —The driver of the other car suffered $30,000 in bodily injuries. —Ken's car sustained $5,000 in damages. —Ken incurred $5,000 in medical expenses. —The car that Ken hit was a total loss. Which of Ken's Personal Auto Policy (PAP) coverages will cover Ken's medical expenses?

medical payments coverage

Ken purchased a PAP with liability limits of 100/300/50, medical payments coverage, and collision coverage. Ken fell asleep while driving late at night. He crossed the center line and hit a car approaching from the other direction. The following losses occurred. —The driver of the other car suffered $30,000 in bodily injuries. —Ken's car sustained $5,000 in damages. —Ken incurred $5,000 in medical expenses. —The car that Ken hit was a total loss. Which of Ken's Personal Auto Policy (PAP) coverages will cover the damage to the car that Ken hit?

property damage liability

The purpose of the collision damage waiver when renting an auto is to

relieve the renter of financial responsibility if the rented car is damaged or stolen.

What is the purpose of the extended nonowned liability coverage endorsement to the PAP?

to provide liability coverage for an insured who operates a nonowned auto on a regular basis

Patricia purchased a Personal Auto Policy (PAP). Her car was rear-ended by a driver who fled the scene. Patricia suffered whiplash, migraine headaches, and she was unable to work. Which of the following coverages will cover her lost work earnings?

uninsured motorists

Sarah purchased a Personal Auto Policy with liability limits of 50/100/25. Sarah ran a stop sign and hit a van. The van sustained $15,000 in damages. The following bodily injuries were suffered by passengers in the van: Passenger #1, $15,000; Passenger #2, $60,000; and Passenger #3, $10,000. Sarah sustained $5,000 in medical expenses, and Sarah's car sustained $10,000 in damages. How much will Sarah's insurer pay under Part A: Liability Coverage?

$90,000

10) Arguments often used against no-fault automobile insurance laws include all of the following EXCEPT A) It is often difficult to determine which driver was negligent when a multiple-vehicle accident occurs. B) Many injured persons will not be compensated for their full losses because payments for pain and suffering will be eliminated. C) The defects of the negligence system are exaggerated, and the system needs only to be reformed. D) Claims of efficiency and premium saving are exaggerated, and automobile insurance premiums might actually increase.

A

13) Under which type of automobile insurance arrangement are all automobile insurers in a state assigned their proportionate share of high-risk drivers based on the total volume of automobile business written in the state? A) automobile insurance plan B) unsatisfied judgment fund C) reinsurance facility D) specialty automobile plan

A

14) Disadvantages of automobile insurance plans include which of the following? I. High premiums may cause many high-risk drivers to go uninsured. II. Large underwriting profits have resulted in high-risk drivers subsidizing the cost of insurance for good drivers in the voluntary markets. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

A

15) Which of the following statements about joint underwriting associations for insuring high-risk drivers is (are) true? I. Underwriting losses are proportionately shared by all auto insurers based on premiums written in the state. II. Each company participating in a joint underwriting association sets it own rates. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

A

2) Defects of financial responsibility laws include which of the following? I. Accident victims may not be fully compensated for their injuries. II. They apply only to property damage losses, not to bodily injury claims. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

A

21) A state law that requires individuals who have been involved in an auto accident or who have been convicted for certain vehicle-related offenses to demonstrate the ability to pay liability claims up to a specified dollar amount is called a(n) A) financial responsibility law. B) compulsory insurance law. C) unsatisfied judgment fund law. D) "no pay, no play" law.

A

27) Janet was unable to obtain auto insurance in the voluntary insurance market. She was contacted by the state insurance department and notified that XYZ Insurance would be her insurer. Eric was also unable to obtain auto insurance, and he received a similar notice. ABC Insurance would be his insurer. The mechanism used in Janet's and Eric's state to provide auto insurance to high-risk drivers is a(n) A) automobile insurance plan. B) joint underwriting association. C) specialty automobile insurer. D) reinsurance facility.

A

36) In Maryland, drivers who are unable to obtain auto insurance in the voluntary market are insured through a(n) A) state fund. B) reinsurance facility. C) joint underwriting association D) automobile insurance plan.

A

37) The multi-car discount is based on the assumption that A) two cars owned by the same person will not be driven as frequently as one car. B) multiple vehicle owners are safer drivers. C) owners of more than one vehicle are more likely to be financially responsible. D) lower liability limits are needed if there are multiple autos insured.

A

4) Which of the following statements about unsatisfied judgment funds is (are) true? I. An accident victim must obtain a judgment against the motorist who caused an accident and must show the judgment cannot be collected. II. The major disadvantage is that the negligent uninsured motorist is relieved of legal liability. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

A

5) Which of the following statements about uninsured motorists coverage is true? A) An innocent motorist must establish that the uninsured motorist is legally liable. B) The amount of coverage in most states must be at least $300,000. C) Property damage is covered in all states but bodily injury is not covered in all states. D) The coverage is very expensive and beyond the means of all but wealthy insureds.

A

Rob purchased a Personal Auto Policy (PAP) with collision and other-than-collision coverage. Which of the following losses would be covered under his policy?

A flash flood washed Rob's car off the road and damaged it

35) Janice purchased a living room set for $1,000 and insured this furniture on an actual cash value basis. Two years later the living room set was destroyed by a covered peril. At the time of loss, the property had depreciated in value by 25 percent. The replacement cost of the furniture at the time of loss was $1,200. Assuming no deductible, how much will Janice receive from her insurer? A) $900 B) $950 C) $1,000 D) $1,200

A) $900

20) Purposes of the coinsurance clause in health insurance contracts include which of the following? I. To reduce premiums. II. To exclude coverage for certain medical procedures. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

A) I only

20) Which of the following statements about a warranty in an insurance contract is (are) true? I. It is part of the insurance contract. II. Statements made by an insurance applicant are considered warranties rather than representations. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

A) I only

29) Which of the following types of insurance policies can usually be assigned without the insurer's consent? I. Life insurance II. Property insurance A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

A) I only

3) Which of the following statements about "open-perils" coverage is (are) true? I. All losses are covered except those losses specifically excluded. II. The burden of proof is on the insured to prove that a loss is covered. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

A) I only

8) Which of the following statements about the definition of the insured is (are) true? I. In some cases, a person who is not specifically named may be classified as an insured. II. Under no circumstances can more than one person be named as an insured. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

A) I only

35) Jane purchased a $50,000 liability insurance policy from Insurer A. Fearing that she did not have enough liability insurance, she purchased an additional $100,000 of liability coverage from Insurer B. As a result of a negligent act, Jane was ordered to pay $75,000 in damages. Assuming the coverage from Insurer A is primary and the coverage from Insurer B is excess, how will this claim be settled? A) Insurer A will pay $50,000 and Insurer B will pay $25,000. B) Insurer A will pay $37,500 and Insurer B will pay $37,500. C) Insurer A will pay $25,000 and Insurer B will pay $50,000. D) Insurer A will pay nothing and Insurer B will pay $75,000.

A) Insurer A will pay $50,000 and Insurer B will pay $25,000.

25) Kate is covered under her employer's group health plan. She is also covered as a dependent under her husband's group health plan. Under the usual coordination-of-benefits provision, how will each company respond to a claim filed by Kate? A) Kate's plan is primary, and her husband's plan is excess. B) Her husband's plan is primary, and Kate's plan is excess. C) The plan of the person with the birthday earliest in the year pays first, and the other plan is excess. D) Each plan will pay 50 percent of the claim.

A) Kate's plan is primary, and her husband's plan is excess.

30) What is the practical effect of an insurance policy being a conditional contract? A) The insurer can refuse to a pay claim unless the insured has complied with all policy provisions. B) The insured can assign the policy only with the insurer's consent. C) The insurer can sue the insured for failure to pay any premiums. D) The insured gets the benefit of the doubt if a policy contains any ambiguities or uncertainties.

A) The insurer can refuse to a pay claim unless the insured has complied with all policy provisions.

42) Roger owns some farmland that he rents to a tenant. The tenant lives in an old farmhouse on the property and raises crops on the land. Roger is concerned about possible legal liability if the tenant injures someone. Roger requires the tenant to have liability insurance and to add himself to the liability coverage through an endorsement. Under the tenant's liability insurance, Roger is a(n) A) additional insured. B) first-named insured. C) second-named insured. D) other insured.

A) additional insured.

9) All of the following will support an insurable interest for purposes of purchasing property and liability insurance EXCEPT A) close family relationship. B) potential legal liability. C) secured creditors. D) a contract right.

A) close family relationship.

1) The portion of a property and liability insurance contract that contains information about the property or activity to be insured is called the A) declarations. B) insuring agreement. C) exclusions. D) conditions.

A) declarations.

36) The purpose of a coordination-of-benefits provision in group health insurance plans is to A) determine which plan pays first if more than one plan covers a loss. B) determine which health care provider an insured may use for his or her care. C) determine if the calendar-year deductible has been satisfied by the insured. D) determine if the employee is eligible for coverage under the group health plan.

A) determine which plan pays first if more than one plan covers a loss.

11) One of the purposes that deductible are used in insurance policies is to A) eliminate coverage for small claims. B) place restrictions or limits on the insurer's promise to perform. C) provide broader coverage by increasing the number of perils covered. D) exclude perils that are not insurable.

A) eliminate coverage for small claims.

28) Mark reviewed his homeowners policy. He learned that his personal property was insured on an actual cash value basis. He would like replacement cost coverage on his personal property. He contacted his agent who said, "I'll simply add an amendment to your contract that changes the basis of recovery to replacement cost." The written provision the agent was referring to is called a(n) A) endorsement. B) coinsurance clause. C) binder. D) deductible.

A) endorsement.

37) As an alternative to coinsurance, rate discounts can be given as the amount of insurance to value increases. This alternative is called A) graded rates. B) agreed value coverage. C) retrospective rating. D) manual rating.

A) graded rates.

51) The authority of an agent to perform all incidental acts necessary to fulfill the purposes of the agency agreement is called A) implied authority. B) declared authority. C) apparent authority. D) express authority.

A) implied authority.

10) Deductibles are not used in which of the following type of insurance? A) life insurance B) health insurance C) property insurance D) disability income insurance

A) life insurance

15) At what point in time must an insured meet the coinsurance requirement in a property insurance policy in order to avoid having to pay a portion of the loss? A) only at the time of loss B) only at the time when the policy is issued C) only at the time of policy application D) both at the time when the policy is issued and at the time of loss

A) only at the time of loss

12) When must an insurable interest legally exist in property insurance for an insured to receive payment for a loss from the insurer? A) only at the time of the loss B) only at the inception of the policy C) only at the time the loss settlement process takes place D) both at the time of the loss and at the inception of the policy

A) only at the time of the loss

2) Which of the following is a fundamental purpose of the principle of indemnity? A) to reduce moral hazard B) to minimize physical hazards C) to settle property insurance losses on a replacement cost basis D) to require deductibles in all property insurance policies

A) to reduce moral hazard

17) Which of the following statements about automobile insurers that specialize in insuring high-risk motorists with poor driving records is (are) true? I. The actual premium paid by an applicant is set by the federal government and is independent of an applicant's driving record. II. The coverages available may be more limited than those written by insurers in the standard market. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

B

22) Bill was severely injured by an uninsured driver. Bill did not purchase uninsured motorists coverage, and the other driver, although held liable, could not pay the damages awarded. After exhausting all sources of recovery, Bill obtained some relief from a state fund designed to compensate individuals like Bill. These state funds are called A) guaranty funds. B) unsatisfied judgment funds. C) rainy-day funds. D) second injury funds.

B

23) Sharon lives in a state that has a no-fault automobile insurance law. Under the law, an injured person has the right to sue the negligent driver only if the bodily injury claim exceeds a dollar or verbal threshold. The no-fault law in Sharon's state is a(n) A) pure no-fault plan. B) modified no-fault plan. C) add-on plan. D) choice no-fault plan

B

26) Alan has been involved in three accidents and has been ticketed for a number of driving violations. He tried to purchase auto insurance, but three insurers refused to sell him coverage. The generic name for state plans designed to insure drivers like Alan is the A) exchange market. B) residual market. C) voluntary market. D) excess market.

B

28) In the state where Susan lives, drivers whom private insurance companies do not want to insure are placed in a common pool, and each insurer pays its pro rata share of pool losses and expenses. A common policy is used for all high-risk drivers. Susan's state handles high-risk drivers through a(n) A) automobile insurance plan. B) joint underwriting association. C) pure no-fault plan. D) specialty auto insurer.

B

32) Some states have enacted laws which prohibit uninsured drivers from suing a negligent driver for noneconomic damages, such as pain and suffering. These laws are called A) pure no-fault laws. B) "no pay, no play" laws. C) financial responsibility laws. D) unsatisfied judgment laws.

B

35) New Jersey's dollar-a-day auto insurance coverage is limited to A) elderly individuals. B) Medicaid recipients. C) drivers under age 25. D) high-risk drivers.

B

8) A no-fault law under which benefits are paid to an accident victim without regard to fault and the accident victim can still sue the negligent driver who caused the accident is referred to as a(n) A) pure no-fault law. B) add-on no-fault law. C) modified no-fault law. D) comparative no-fault law.

B

31) ABC Company insured its building on a replacement cost basis for $700,000 under a property insurance policy that included an 80 percent coinsurance clause. The building had a replacement cost of $1 million when it sustained a $40,000 loss. How much will ABC Company receive from its insurer, assuming no deductible applies? A) $33,333 B) $35,000 C) $36,000 D) $40,000

B) $35,000

16) David owns a commercial building with a replacement cost of $4 million. The building is insured on a replacement cost basis for $2.4 million under a fire insurance policy that has an 80 percent coinsurance clause. How much will David collect if the building sustains a covered fire loss with a replacement cost of $80,000? A) $50,000 B) $60,000 C) $66,667 D) $80,000

B) $60,000

19) Connie has a major medical policy with a $200 deductible. She is required to pay 25 percent of covered expenses in excess of the deductible. The insurer will pay 75 percent of expenses in excess of the deductible. If Connie has eligible medical expenses of $10,000, how much will be paid by her insurer? A) $7,300 B) $7,350 C) $7,500 D) $9,800

B) $7,350

38) Mark owns a building that he insured for $90,000. The replacement cost of the building is $100,000. Mark's property insurance policy has an 80 percent coinsurance clause and no deductible. If Mark's building is destroyed by a covered peril, how much will Mark receive from his insurer? A) $80,000 B) $90,000 C) $101,250 D) $112,500

B) $90,000

3) Sam's furniture was destroyed by a fire. The furniture cost $1200 when it was purchased, but similar new furniture now costs $1800. Assuming the furniture was 50 percent depreciated, what is the actual cash value of Sam's loss? A) $600 B) $900 C) $1200 D) $1800

B) $900

1) Fundamental purposes of the principle of indemnity include which of the following? I. To reduce physical hazards II. To prevent the insured from profiting from insurance A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

B) II only

10) Which of the following statements about an insurable interest in life insurance is (are) true? I. It is required of any person named as beneficiary. II. It may result from a pecuniary (financial) interest. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

B) II only

24) Which of the following statements about consideration in an insurance contract is (are) true? I. The insured's total consideration is submission of a completed application. II. The insurer's consideration is the promise to do those things specified in the policy. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

B) II only

8) Which of the following statements about the principle of insurable interest is (are) true? I. It makes it difficult to measure the amount of an insured's loss. II. It reduces moral hazard. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

B) II only

7) Which of the following statements describes how losses will be settled if a property insurance policy is written on a replacement cost basis? A) Losses are settled without the applicable deductible. B) Losses are settled without a deduction for depreciation. C) The insurer must replace the damaged or destroyed property in lieu of a cash settlement. D) The policy is converted to a valued policy.

B) Losses are settled without a deduction for depreciation.

26) Why are insurance contracts said to be contracts of adhesion? A) The values exchanged by the parties to the contract are not equal. B) One party writes the contract, and the other party must accept the entire contract as written. C) Only one party makes a legally enforceable promise. D) Conditions are placed on the insurer's promise to perform.

B) One party writes the contract, and the other party must accept the entire contract as written.

14) Which of the following statements about subrogation is true? A) Subrogation eliminates adverse selection. B) Subrogation helps to hold down the cost of insurance. C) Subrogation results in violation of the principle of indemnity. D) Subrogation permits a party who caused a loss to avoid responsibility for the loss.

B) Subrogation helps to hold down the cost of insurance.

17) What is the legal significance of a material concealment by an insurance applicant? A) The contract is automatically voided from its inception. B) The contract is voidable at the insurer's option. C) Loss payments are reduced by the degree of the concealment. D) The insurer is immediately entitled to a higher premium.

B) The contract is voidable at the insurer's option.

18) What is the legal significance of a material misrepresentation in an insurance application? A) The contract is automatically voided from its inception. B) The contract is voidable at the insurer's option. C) Loss payments are reduced by the degree of the misrepresentation. D) The insurer is immediately entitled to a higher premium.

B) The contract is voidable at the insurer's option.

2) What information is contained in the insuring agreement of an insurance policy? A) a description of the property or life to be insured B) a summary of the major promises of the insurer C) a summary of the obligations of the insured D) a list of the property, losses, and perils that are not covered

B) a summary of the major promises of the insurer

17) The primary purpose of coinsurance in property insurance is to A) reduce moral hazard. B) achieve equity in rating. C) minimize problems in settling claims. D) eliminate small losses.

B) achieve equity in rating.

50) If a third party is led to reasonably believe that an agent is acting with the scope of his/her authority, even though the agent is exceeding his/her authority, the principal may still be bound by the agent's actions. In this case, the agent has bound the principal by A) implied authority. B) apparent authority. C) incidental authority. D) express authority.

B) apparent authority.

47) Dave and Meagan Philips borrowed $150,000 from Fifth National Bank to help fund the purchase of a new home. The home serves as collateral for the loan. Fifth National has an insurable interest in the home based on A) potential responsibility for legal liability. B) being a secured creditor. C) expectation of ownership. D) having a contractual right.

B) being a secured creditor.

55) Hank bought a farm. There was an old barn on the land. One day Hank decided to take a look at the barn. It was windy, and Hank could see the roof swaying in the wind. Hank ran out of the barn fearing the roof might collapse. While driving home, Hank stopped to see his insurance agent. He insured the barn for $20,000. The agent didn't ask if the roof might collapse, and Hank didn't say anything about it. One week later there was a strong wind and the roof collapsed. Assuming the insurer can prove it, under what legal grounds could the insurer deny payment of the claim? A) estoppel B) concealment C) warranty D) misrepresentation

B) concealment

7) The policy provision requiring the filing of proof of loss with the insurer is an example of a(n) A) declaration. B) condition. C) insuring agreement. D) miscellaneous provision.

B) condition.

41) An elimination (waiting) period is an example of a(n) A) exclusion. B) deductible. C) other-insurance provision. D) coinsurance provision.

B) deductible.

43) Maria's property was damaged by an earthquake. Maria is unsure whether earthquake is covered by her property insurance. Which two sections of the property insurance policy should Maria review to determine whether earthquake damage to her property is covered? A) exclusions and declarations B) insuring agreement and exclusions C) definitions and insuring agreement D) conditions and declarations

B) insuring agreement and exclusions

38) When Ben applied for life insurance, he was asked on the application if he smoked or used tobacco products. Ben answered "No." In reality, Ben smokes two packs of cigarettes a day. The policy was issued at the "preferred, nonsmoker rate." If Ben dies 6 months after the policy is issued, upon what grounds will the insurer be able to legally deny the claim? A) warranty B) misrepresentation C) waiver D) concealment

B) misrepresentation

11) When must an insurable interest legally exist in life insurance? A) only at the time of the insured's death B) only at the inception of the policy C) only at the time the beneficiary is paid D) both at the time of the insured's death and at the inception of the policy

B) only at the inception of the policy

39) A special coverage policy is a policy that A) has no exclusions. B) provides open-perils coverage. C) provides replacement cost coverage. D) has coverage for multiple lines of insurance.

B) provides open-perils coverage.

5) Under which of the following rules is actual cash value determined by taking into consideration all relevant factors an expert would use to determine the value of the property? A) the circumstantial evidence rule B) the broad evidence rule C) the property indemnity rule D) the objective value rule

B) the broad evidence rule

46) The general rule that ambiguity in insurance contracts is construed against the insurer is reinforced by an important legal principle. This principle states the insured is entitled to coverage under a policy that he or she would assume the policy would provide, and exclusions must be conspicuous, plain, and clear. This principle is known as A) the principle of utmost good faith. B) the principle of reasonable expectations . C) the principle of subrogation. D) the principle of indemnity.

B) the principle of reasonable expectations .

5) Exclusions are used in insurance policies for all of the following reasons EXCEPT A) to reduce moral hazard. B) to waive policy conditions. C) to eliminate coverage for uninsurable perils. D) to eliminate coverage not needed by typical insureds.

B) to waive policy conditions.

43) Which distinct legal characteristic of insurance contracts states that only the insurer's promise to perform is legally enforceable? A) contracts of adhesion B) unilateral contracts C) aleatory contracts D) personal contracts

B) unilateral contracts

39) Robin plans to open a bar in a high-crime area. She had difficulty obtaining insurance for the business. She found an insurer willing to write the coverage, but only if Robin agreed to have a security alarm system in operation at all times when the business is closed. Robin's promise to have a security alarm system operational as a condition of having the insurance coverage in force is a A) binder. B) warranty. C) waiver. D) deductible.

B) warranty.

11) Which of the following statements about the characteristics of current no-fault laws is true? A) Most laws in force today are pure no-fault laws. B) Most laws apply to both bodily injury and property damage. C) Most laws permit payment of survivor benefits to a surviving spouse and children. D) States with add-on plans restrict the right of accident victims to sue negligent drivers.

C

12) The term used to describe plans in which automobile insurers participate to make insurance available to drivers unable to obtain coverage in the standard market is the A) foreign market. B) fair market. C) residual (shared) market. D) high-premium market.

C

16) Which of the following statements about reinsurance facilities for insuring high-risk drivers is (are) true? I. Underwriting losses in the reinsurance facility are shared by all auto insurers in the state. II. An insurer must accept all applicants for insurance, but the insurer has the option of placing high-risk drivers in the reinsurance pool. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

C

19) All of the following are major rating factors for determining private passenger automobile insurance premiums EXCEPT A) gender. B) age. C) race. D) marital status.

C

29) Scott had trouble obtaining auto insurance. After three companies refused to insure him, he called the state insurance department. A representative suggested he obtain coverage through Last Chance Insurance Company because "that's all they insure-high-risk drivers." Scott contacted Last Chance. He was not refused coverage; however, the premium Scott was required to pay was three times greater than the average premium in the market. Last Chance Insurance Company is a(n) A) reinsurance facility. B) automobile insurance plan. C) specialty auto insurer. D) joint underwriting association.

C

3) Criticisms of compulsory insurance laws include which of the following? I. They provide less than complete protection since they require only a minimum amount of liability insurance. II. Even with compulsory insurance laws, a substantial number of motorists continue to operate vehicles without insurance. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

C

30) Amber believes that her auto insurance premium is too high. All of the following will reduce Amber's auto insurance premium EXCEPT A) Amber could increase her physical damage deductible. B) Amber could move from the city where she lives to a rural area outside the city. C) Amber could increase the amount of liability insurance that she carries. D) Amber could improve her driving record.

C

31) Which of the following statements is (are) true with respect to the use of credit-based insurance scores as an auto insurance rating factor? I. Insurers claim that drivers who have poor insurance scores are expected to have relatively more accidents. II. The use of insurance scores in personal lines underwriting is controversial. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

C

33) A credit-based score that insurers claim is highly predictive of future claims costs is an individual's A) combined ratio. B) loss ratio. C) insurance score. D) underwriting score.

C

32) XYZ Company insured its building on a replacement cost basis for $450,000 under a property insurance policy that included an 80 percent coinsurance clause. The building had a replacement cost of $500,000 when it sustained a $50,000 loss. How much will XYZ Company receive from its insurer, assuming no deductible applies? A) $42,500 B) $45,000 C) $50,000 D) $56,250

C) $50,000

33) Laura's major medical insurance policy includes a $500 deductible. Laura is required to pay 20 percent of covered expenses in excess of the deductible, and her insurer will pay 80 percent of covered expenses in excess of the deductible. Laura was hospitalized and her covered medical expenses were $10,500. How much of the $10,500 will be paid by the insurer? A) $7,500 B) $7,900 C) $8,000 D) $10,000

C) $8,000

40) Dave is an agent for Easy Pay Insurance. Easy Pay insures only the highest-quality applicants. Dave wanted to earn more commissions, so he sold some policies to applicants he knew were below-average risks. When these policyowners started filing claims, Easy Pay tried to deny the claims stating that Dave had not acted appropriately. Which general rule of agency makes Easy Pay responsible for the claims of the higher-than-average risk policyowners? A) There is no presumption of an agency relationship. B) Agents should be compensated based on the quality of the business they generate. C) A principal is responsible for the acts of its agents who are acting within the scope of their authority. D) An agent must have authority to represent the principal.

C) A principal is responsible for the acts of its agents who are acting within the scope of their authority.

24) Helen and John both own automobiles on which they carry liability insurance. If Helen is negligent and has an accident while driving John's car with his permission, how will each insurer respond to any liability judgment against Helen? A) The insurers will pay the judgment on a pro rata basis. B) John's insurer will pay on an excess basis if Helen's insurance is insufficient to cover the judgment. C) Helen's insurance will pay on an excess basis if John's insurance is insufficient to cover the judgment. D) The policies will pay the judgment on the basis of contribution by equal shares.

C) Helen's insurance will pay on an excess basis if John's insurance is insufficient to cover the judgment.

22) Which of the following statements about offer and acceptance for insurance contracts is true? A) In property and liability insurance, agents typically do not have the authority to bind coverage. B) In life insurance, the agent can usually accept an offer by immediately binding coverage. C) In property insurance, the offer and acceptance are usually in writing but may be oral. D) In life insurance, the offer is merely the promise to pay the first premium.

C) In property insurance, the offer and acceptance are usually in writing but may be oral.

34) James purchased liability insurance with a $100,000 limit from Insurer A. When Insurer A denied a claim that James thought should be covered, he bought a second liability insurance policy with a $150,000 limit from Insurer B. Before he cancelled the policy with Insurer A, a $60,000 loss occurred. If this loss is settled on a pro rata basis, how much must each insurer pay? A) Insurer A will pay $10,000 and Insurer B will pay $50,000. B) Insurer A will pay $20,000 and Insurer B will pay $40,000. C) Insurer A will pay $24,000 and Insurer B will pay $36,000. D) Insurer A will pay $40,000 and Insurer B will pay $20,000.

C) Insurer A will pay $24,000 and Insurer B will pay $36,000.

15) Which of the following statements about subrogation is true? A) It is used primarily for losses paid under life insurance policies. B) It allows the insurer to sue its own insured who is negligent. C) The insured's right to collect benefits may be forfeited if the insured interferes with the insurer's subrogation rights after a loss occurs. D) The insurer is required to exercise its subrogation rights.

C) The insured's right to collect benefits may be forfeited if the insured interferes with the insurer's subrogation rights after a loss occurs.

32) All of the following statements about the rules governing agency relationships are true EXCEPT A) An agent must be authorized to act on behalf of a principal. B) An agency agreement may grant certain powers to the agent as well as denying the agent other powers. C) The principal is responsible for the acts of agents only if the acts are criminal. D) Knowledge of the agent is presumed to be knowledge of the principal with respect to matters within the scope of the agency relationship.

C) The principal is responsible for the acts of agents only if the acts are criminal.

28) Why can an insurer refuse to pay a claim if an insured fails to abide by the policy provisions? A) because insurance contracts are aleatory B) because insurance contracts are unilateral C) because insurance contracts are conditional D) because insurance contracts are contracts of adhesion

C) because insurance contracts are conditional

18) Which of the following statements about problems arising from the use of a coinsurance clause is (are) true? I. The amount of insurance should be periodically evaluated to avoid a coinsurance penalty because of inflation. II. An agreed value coverage option is one method used to solve the problem of values that fluctuate throughout the policy term. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

C) both I and II

6) Reasons why a peril may be considered uninsurable and therefore excluded from insurance contracts include which of the following? I. The losses from the occurrence of the peril may be due to a predictable decline in value. II. The losses from the occurrence of the peril may be incalculable and catastrophic. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

C) both I and II

14) A provision in a disability income insurance policy that requires a person to be disabled for 60 days before receiving benefits is an example of a(n) A) calendar year deductible. B) grace period. C) elimination period. D) probationary period.

C) elimination period.

34) Frank asked his company's employee benefits director if his group health coverage could be converted to individual coverage. The benefits director said, "Yes, you can convert to an individual policy, and the coverage is identical to your group coverage." Frank quit his job and converted to an individual policy. Six months later he filed a claim. He was dismayed to learn the conversion policy was limited compared to the group coverage, and his claim was denied. What legal doctrine will allow Frank to bring a successful legal action against his former employer because he was financially harmed due to his reasonable reliance upon a representation of fact? A) adhesion B) waiver C) estoppel D) subrogation

C) estoppel

44) Some courts have ruled that an alternative to "replacement cost less depreciation" should be used to determine the actual cash value of a property loss. Under this alternative, the value of property lost is determined by the price a willing buyer would pay a willing seller for the property in a free market. This method of determining actual cash value is called the A) intrinsic value method. B) valued policy method. C) fair market value method. D) reconstruction cost method.

C) fair market value method.

44) In determining insurance limits and deductibles, an important concept is that insurance should be used to pay big losses rather than small losses. The objective is to insure big losses that could cause financial ruin and to exclude small losses that can be budgeted out of current income. This concept is called the A) law of large numbers. B) efficient loss-cost concept. C) large-loss principle. D) retention-transfer tradeoff.

C) large-loss principle.

42) Mark owns a bar. The bar has a back room where Mark has some slot machines. Mark lets some of his patrons play the machines, and Mark keeps any profits. This type of gambling is illegal where Mark lives. Mark wanted to purchase insurance in case his slot machines were confiscated by the police. Such an insurance contract would not be enforceable. Which requirement needed to form a valid insurance contract is missing? A) consideration B) offer and acceptance C) legal purpose D) competent parties

C) legal purpose

23) Chris applied for life insurance and paid the first premium on Monday. She was given an insurability premium receipt which specified that coverage was effective on the date of the application or the date of the medical exam, whichever is later. She took the medical exam the following Thursday. She was found to be in perfect health. On which day was her coverage effective? A) on Monday, when she completed the application and paid the first premium B) on Wednesday, two days after completing the application and paying the first premium C) on Thursday when she passed the medical exam D) on Saturday, two days after passing the medical exam

C) on Thursday when she passed the medical exam

45) An insurance policy provision that specifies how a property loss will be settled if more than one property insurance policy covers the loss is the A) insuring agreement provision. B) loss settlement provision. C) other insurance provision. D) coinsurance provision.

C) other insurance provision.

54) A pharmaceutical company employs a young chemist who is responsible for three new patents last year and for the development of the company's two best-selling drugs. The company purchased a large life insurance policy on the chemist. In this case, the insurable interest requirement was met because of a(n) A) ownership interest. B) close family relationship. C) pecuniary interest. D) economic family relationship.

C) pecuniary interest.

22) Lisa has three fire insurance policies on her office building. The policy from company A is for $400,000, and the policies from companies B and C are for $100,000 each. If Lisa has a $360,000 loss, how much of the loss will be covered by each policy if the loss is settled on a pro rata basis by the insurers? A) each policy: $120,000 B) policy A: $160,000; policies B and C: $100,000 each C) policy A: $240,000; policies B and C: $60,000 each D) policy A: $360,000; policies B and C: nothing

C) policy A: $240,000; policies B and C: $60,000 each

29) Under the terms of Jenny's auto insurance policy, she must pay the first $500 of any physical damage loss to her vehicle before her insurer will pay anything. What type of deductible is included in Jenny's auto insurance policy? A) calendar-year deductible B) waiting period C) straight deductible D) aggregate deductible

C) straight deductible

12) The deductible used for automobile collision losses is an example of a(n) A) calendar year deductible. B) elimination period. C) straight deductible. D) aggregate deductible.

C) straight deductible.

16) The principle of utmost good faith is supported by all of the following legal doctrines EXCEPT A) representations. B) warranty. C) subrogation. D) concealment.

C) subrogation.

52) ABC Life Insurance Company insures both smokers and nonsmokers. Beth lied on her life insurance application, checking the box for "no" in response to the question of whether she smokes cigarettes or uses other tobacco products. Even though Beth smokes 10 to 15 cigarettes each day, the policy was issued at the "preferred nonsmoker rate." Beth's lie is materiel in this case because A) it was in writing on the application. B) it was given with the intent to deceive. C) the policy would have been issued on different terms if the insurer knew the true facts. D) the policy would have been issued for a lower face value if the insurer knew the true facts.

C) the policy would have been issued on different terms if the insurer knew the true facts.

37) Melody's car was damaged when another driver ran a stop sign and hit her car. Melody decided to collect from her own insurer and to let her insurer recoup the loss payment from the negligent driver who hit her. What fundamental legal principle is illustrated in this scenario? A) the principle of utmost good faith B) the principle of insurable interest C) the principle of subrogation D) the principle of reasonable expectations

C) the principle of subrogation

Which of the following statements about the medical payments coverage of the PAP is true?

Covered expenses include the cost of funeral services.

18) Which of the following statements about the factors affecting automobile insurance rates is true? A) The cost of collision coverage increases as a car gets older. B) Because of high speeds in rural areas, rural drivers tend to pay more for auto insurance than city drivers pay for auto insurance. C) Young unmarried male drivers tend to have fewer accidents than young married male drivers in the same age category. D) People who drive a car to and from work tend to be charged higher rates than those who use a car for pleasure purposes.

D

20) All of the following statements about shopping for auto insurance are true EXCEPT A) Adequate liability insurance is the most important consideration. B) Consideration should be given to dropping physical damage insurance on an older car with a low market value. C) To obtain the lowest premium, an applicant should review his or her eligibility for all discounts offered. D) Price comparisons are of little value since auto insurers tend to charge the same premiums.

D

24) A few states have dual automobile insurance systems. A motorist can pay a higher premium and retain the right to sue under the tort system, or pay a lower premium and be covered under the state's no-fault law. This dual system is called a(n) A) pure no-fault plan. B) modified no-fault plan. C) "no pay, no play" law. D) choice no-fault plan.

D

25) A number of benefits are payable under no-fault plans. Under one provision, benefits are paid for tasks normally performed by the insured, including such things as lawn care, housework, and home repairs. These tasks are called A) home health care services. B) hospice services. C) activities of daily living. D) essential services expenses.

D

34) A few states have enacted laws to make minimum amounts of liability insurance available at reduced rates to individuals who cannot afford regular insurance or who have limited financial assets to protect. The coverage made available through such a plan is called A) probationary insurance. B) uninsured motorists insurance. C) no-fault auto insurance. D) low-cost auto insurance.

D

6) Which of the following statements is true with respect to a pure no-fault auto insurance plan? A) Under such a plan, you would collect from your own insurer and retain the right to sue the other party if your injuries surpass a dollar or verbal threshold. B) Most no-fault plans that have been adopted by states are pure no-fault plans. C) Under such a plan, you would collect from your own insurer and retain the right to sue the other party without having to satisfy a threshold. D) Under such a plan, an accident victim cannot sue the other party, and no payments are made for pain and suffering.

D

7) Which of the following statements about modified no-fault laws is (are) true? I. Claims less than a certain dollar threshold must be assumed by the injured accident victim, but the injured person has the right to sue a negligent driver. II. Claims above a certain dollar threshold are paid in full by an injured accident victim's insurer, and the right to sue a negligent driver is eliminated. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

D

9) All of the following are arguments for no-fault automobile insurance laws EXCEPT A) No-fault is unnecessary as it's easy to determine which driver was negligent when a multiple-vehicle accident occurs. B) A large portion of each premium dollar is used for purposes other than compensating accident victims for their losses. C) There are delays in compensating accident victims under the tort system. D) Seriously injured accident victims tend to be overcompensated, while those with small economic losses are inadequately indemnified.

D

26) Eric's property was damaged in an accident. He phoned his agent to see if the loss was covered under his property insurance policy. The agent said, "As long as the cause of loss is not specifically excluded in the policy, the loss is covered." Based on the agent's answer, what type of insuring agreement appears in the policy? A) unconditional coverage B) named-perils coverage C) extended-perils coverage D) "open-perils" coverage

D) "open-perils" coverage

36) Jacob sold his house to Shelia for $140,000 in cash. Jacob "threw in" insurance on the house as part of the deal and did not bother telling the insurer that there was a new owner. Four months after Shelia purchased the home, a windstorm damaged the roof. Which of the following legal characteristics of insurance contracts could the insurer use to legally deny payment for the damage to the roof? A) Insurance contracts are unilateral contracts. B) Insurance contacts are contracts of adhesion. C) Insurance contracts are aleatory contracts. D) Insurance contracts are personal contracts.

D) Insurance contracts are personal contracts.

23) Kevin has three liability policies which provide for contribution by equal shares if other insurance applies to a loss. How much will each policy pay for a $3,000,000 liability judgment if policy A provides $500,000 of coverage, policy B provides $1,000,000 of coverage, and policy C provides $3,000,000 of coverage? A) Each policy will pay $500,000, and Kevin must pay the remaining $1,500,000. B) Policy A will pay $500,000, policies B and C will each pay $1,000,000, and Kevin must pay the remaining $500,000. C) Policy A will pay nothing, policy B will pay $1,000,000, and policy C will pay $2,000,000. D) Policy A will pay $500,000, policy B will pay $1,000,000, and policy C will pay $1,500,000.

D) Policy A will pay $500,000, policy B will pay $1,000,000, and policy C will pay $1,500,000.

48) All of the following statements about subrogation are true EXCEPT A) The general rule allows the insurer to recover up to the amount paid to its insured under the policy. B) Subrogation does not apply in life insurance. C) Interfering with the insurer's subrogation rights can jeopardize indemnification of the insured. D) The insurer reserves the right to subrogate against its own insureds.

D) The insurer reserves the right to subrogate against its own insureds.

31) What is the practical effect of an insurance contract being a contract of adhesion? A) The insurer can refuse to pay claims unless the insured has complied with all policy provisions. B) The insured can assign the policy only with the insurer's consent. C) The insurer can sue the insured for failure to pay any premiums. D) The policy is interpreted in the insured's favor if the policy contains any ambiguities or uncertainties.

D) The policy is interpreted in the insured's favor if the policy contains any ambiguities or uncertainties.

9) All of the following statements about endorsements and riders are true EXCEPT A) They are usually written. B) They can be used to add or delete policy provisions. C) They normally take precedence over other conflicting policy provisions. D) They are primarily used to circumvent legislation requiring specific policy provisions.

D) They are primarily used to circumvent legislation requiring specific policy provisions.

4) The loss settlement under which of the following supports the principle of indemnity? A) life insurance B) valued policies C) replacement cost property insurance D) actual cash value property insurance

D) actual cash value property insurance

25) A contract in which the values exchanged are not equal because chance is involved is called a(n) A) contract of adhesion. B) unilateral contract. C) conditional contract. D) aleatory contract.

D) aleatory contract.

6) A total loss under a valued policy is settled on the basis of the A) market value of the loss. B) actual cash value of the loss. C) replacement value of the loss. D) amount of insurance covering the loss.

D) amount of insurance covering the loss.

27) Why does the insured get the benefit of the doubt if an insurance policy contains any ambiguities or uncertainties? A) because insurance contracts are aleatory B) because insurance contracts are unilateral C) because insurance contracts are conditional D) because insurance contracts are contracts of adhesion

D) because insurance contracts are contracts of adhesion

53) Bob purchased insurance on his home with an insurer that was not licensed to do business in the state. In this case, which requirement to form a binding insurance contract is lacking? A) exchange of consideration B) offer and acceptance C) legal purpose D) competent parties

D) competent parties

27) Janet hit a wall causing a large dent in the fender of her car. She was busy at work and delayed reporting the damage to her insurer for 9 months. The insurer denied the claim, stating, "Although such a loss is usually covered, you are required under the terms of the contract to provide prompt notification in case of loss." The prompt notification requirement is an example of a(n) A) declaration. B) definition. C) insuring agreement. D) condition.

D) condition.

40) The section of the insurance policy that includes provisions that qualify or limit the insurer's promise to perform is the A) definitions. B) insuring agreement. C) exclusions. D) conditions.

D) conditions.

41) Ted's insurance claim was denied by XYZ Insurance Company. When Ted inquired why the claim was denied, he was told to, "Read the exclusion on page 5 of the policy." Ted read the exclusion. In his opinion, the exclusion was poorly worded and vague. If a court of law agrees with Ted's assessment of the exclusion, Ted may still be able to have his claim paid by the insurer because insurance contracts are A) personal contracts. B) unilateral contracts. C) aleatory contracts. D) contracts of adhesion.

D) contracts of adhesion.

30) Shauna hurt her back and was unable to work. She filed a claim under her disability income insurance policy. Under terms of the policy, 60 days must pass between the date of the injury and when the insurer begins to replace lost earnings. This 60-day period is called a(n) A) grace period. B) enrollment period. C) probationary period. D) elimination (waiting) period.

D) elimination (waiting) period.

4) The exclusion of flood in a homeowners policy is an example of an A) excluded activity. B) excluded condition. C) excluded property. D) excluded peril.

D) excluded peril.

49) Powers specifically conferred on an agent to act on behalf of a principal are A) incidental authority. B) apparent authority. C) implied authority. D) express authority.

D) express authority.

19) A false material statement made by an applicant for insurance is an example of A) concealment. B) breach of warranty. C) lack of offer and acceptance. D) misrepresentation.

D) misrepresentation.

13) Which of the following statements about a calendar-year deductible is (are) true? I. It requires the insured to pay a specified amount of each claim regardless of when the claim occurs during the year and regardless of any previous claims during the year. II. It is used only in policies which cover direct property losses. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

D) neither I nor II

21) The purpose of other-insurance provisions is to A) eliminate the need for deductibles. B) penalize those insureds who carry inadequate amounts of insurance. C) specify who will pay losses if the insurer is bankrupt. D) preserve the principle of indemnity.

D) preserve the principle of indemnity.

13) Sue's office building was damaged by a fire caused by a careless tenant. After paying Sue for the loss, the insurance company sued the tenant to recover its loss. This suit is based on the principle of A) warranty. B) insurable interest. C) utmost good faith. D) subrogation.

D) subrogation.

45) Some states have a law that requires payment of the face amount of insurance to the insured if a total loss to real property occurs from a peril specified in the law. These laws are called A) agreed amount laws. B) replacement cost laws. C) homestead laws. D) valued policy laws.

D) valued policy laws.

33) The voluntary relinquishment of a legal right is called A) subrogation. B) adhesion. C) estoppel. D) waiver.

D) waiver.

21) David owns a liquor store in a high-crime area. In order to obtain a reduced insurance premium, David promised to have a burglar alarm operating at the store when the store was closed. This agreement, which was incorporated into the insurance contract, is an example of a A) representation. B) binder. C) rider. D) warranty.

D) warranty.

Dan picked up his friend Rodney to drive to their softball game. Both Dan and Rodney have a Personal Auto Policy (PAP) with $5,000 of medical payments coverage. Dan hit a parked car, and Rodney was injured, incurring $9,000 of medical expenses. How will this claim be settled under the other insurance provision of the PAP?

Dan's insurer will pay $5,000 and Rodney's insurer will pay $4,000.

Which of the following persons is (are) insured under the uninsured motorists coverage of the PAP? I. A pedestrian struck by a covered auto if he or she has no insurance to pay medical expenses II. The spouse of a named insured who is killed by an uninsured motorist

II only

Which of the following situations would be covered under the liability section of the PAP? I. A mechanic is sued by a pedestrian who is injured when the mechanic has an accident while road testing the insured's auto. II. The daughter of the named insured is sued after she has an accident when a new friend she just met at a campus hangout lets her drive his car.

II only

Which of the following statements about the Miscellaneous-Type Vehicle Endorsement to the PAP is (are) true? I. It provides bodily injury liability coverage for any vehicle rented by the insured. II. To lower premiums when a motorcycle is insured, bodily injury to passengers can be excluded.

II only

Joyce was injured by an uninsured drunk driver while she was riding in a friend's car. Joyce and her friend each have a PAP with an uninsured motorists limit of $50,000. How much will be paid by each policy if it is determined that Joyce has $70,000 of bodily injuries?

The friend's policy will pay $50,000, and Joyce's policy will pay $20,000.

Which of the following statements is true about uninsured motorists coverage under the Personal Auto Policy?

The insured collects from his or her own insurer, and the insurer can recoup the loss payment from the other driver.

Ken purchased a PAP with liability limits of 100/300/50, medical payments coverage, and collision coverage. Ken fell asleep while driving late at night. He crossed the center line and hit a car approaching from the other direction. The following losses occurred: —The driver of the other car suffered $30,000 in bodily injuries. —Ken's car sustained $5,000 in damages. —Ken incurred $5,000 in medical expenses. —The car that Ken hit was a total loss. Which of Ken's Personal Auto Policy (PAP) coverages will cover the other driver's medical expenses?

bodily injury liability

The insurance company's options for settling a collision loss to a covered auto under the PAP include which of the following? I. Pay the loss in money. II. Repair or replace the damaged auto

both I and II

Which of the following persons is (are) covered for liability insurance under the PAP? I. a family member who drives a covered auto II. a family member who occasionally drives a friend's auto

both I and II

Which of the following statements about the liability limits of the PAP is (are) true? I. The policy can be written with split limits of liability. II. Prejudgment interest is considered part of the damage award and is subject to the policy limit

both I and II

The 2005 PAP states that the insurer has no duty to provide coverage if the insured fails to comply with certain listed duties. In practice, however, the insurer is only relieved of its duty to provide coverage if

failure to comply

Which of the following statements is (are) true with respect to the collision damage waiver on rented cars? I. It is inexpensive and is provided at no charge by most rental car companies. II. It waives the renter's liability for bodily injury liability arising out of use of the rented auto.

neither I nor II

Which statement concerning towing and labor coverage under the PAP is (are) true? I. There's no coverage for towing if the auto breaks down—towing is only covered if the auto needs to be towed after a collision has occurred. II. Towing and labor coverage pays for repairs at a service station or garage.

neither I or II

Owen rents an apartment and parks his car in the lot behind the apartment building. A hailstorm occurred one evening, and his car was severely damaged. Which PAP coverage, if Owen purchased it, would cover this damage to his auto?

other-than-collision

The purpose of gap insurance is to

pay the difference between the amount the insurer pays if a car is a total loss and the amount owed on a lease or car loan

Angie was injured when her car was struck by a driver who ran a red light. The other driver carried the minimum liability coverage necessary to be considered financially responsible. Angie's injuries were $15,000 above the minimum bodily injury limit. There is a coverage that can be added to the PAP that applies when a negligent driver carries the minimum liability insurance required by the state, but is less than the insured's actual damages for bodily injury.

underinsured motorists coverage.