RMIN practice questions
1) All of the following are characteristics of insurance EXCEPT A) risk avoidance. B) pooling of losses. C) payment of fortuitous losses. D) indemnification.
A
1) The portion of a property and liability insurance contract that contains information about the property or activity to be insured is called the A) declarations. B) insuring agreement. C) exclusions. D) conditions.
A
10) Deductibles are used in all of the following types of insurance EXCEPT A) life insurance. B) health insurance. C) property insurance. D) automobile insurance
A
11) Methods by which insurers may minimize or avoid catastrophic losses include which of the following? I. The use of reinsurance II. Concentrating coverage written in one geographic region A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II
A
15) At what point in time must an insured meet the coinsurance requirement in a property insurance policy in order to avoid having to pay a portion of the loss? A) only at the time of loss B) only at the time when the policy is issued C) only at the time of policy application D) both at the time when the policy is issued and at the time of loss
A
16) All of the following are reasons for a primary insurer to use reinsurance EXCEPT A) to increase the unearned premium reserve. B) to increase underwriting capacity. C) to protect against catastrophic losses. D) to stabilize profits.
A
17) Which of the following statements regarding insurance and gambling is (are) true? I. Insurance is used to handle existing pure risks, while gambling creates a new speculative risk. II. Insurance usually involves risk avoidance, while gambling typically involves only risk reduction. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II
A
2) Which of the following is implied by the pooling of losses? A) sharing of losses by an entire group B) inability to predict losses with any degree of accuracy C) substitution of actual loss for average loss D) increase of objective risk
A
20) Purposes of the coinsurance clause in health insurance contracts include which of the following? I. To reduce premiums. II. To exclude coverage for certain medical procedures. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II
A
21) Sarah owns a property and liability insurance agency. She is authorized to represent several insurance companies and she is compensated by commissions. Sarahs agency owns the expiration rights to the business she sells. Sarah is a(n) A) independent agent. B) exclusive agent. C) direct writer. D) insurance broker.
A
26) A group of farmers agreed that if any farmer suffered a property loss, the loss would be spread over the entire group. In this way, each farmer is responsible for the average loss of the group rather than the actual loss that the farmer sustained. Which characteristic of insurance is embodied in this agreement? A) pooling of losses B) fortuitous losses C) risk avoidance D) indemnification
A
26) Jan is employed by an insurance company. She reviews applications to determine whether her company should insure the applicant. If insurable, Jan assigns the applicant to a rating category based on the applicants degree of risk. Jan is a(n) A) underwriter. B) actuary. C) loss control engineer. D) claims adjustor.
A
28) Mark reviewed his homeowners policy. He learned that his personal property was insured on an actual cash value basis. He would like replacement cost coverage on the property. He contacted his agent who said,Ill simply add an amendment to your contract that changes the basis of recovery to replacement cost.The written provision the agent was referring to is called a(n) A) endorsement. B) coinsurance clause. C) binder. D) deductible.
A
3) Which of the following statements about underwriting policy is (are) true? I. A company must establish an underwriting policy consistent with company objectives. II. Underwriting policy is usually subjective and allows the underwriter considerable flexibility with respect to lines written and forms used. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II
A
30) Some investors decided to start an insurance company. Each investor contributed $50,000 to raise the capital required to charter a new company. Each investor received an ownership interest in the company. The company will raise additional capital by selling ownership rights to other investors. Under this type of organization, the customer and owner functions are separate. This type of insurer is called a A) stock company. B) reciprocal exchange. C) fraternal company. D) mutual company.
A
34) Sue double-majored in mathematics and statistics in college. She also enrolled in a number of finance courses. After graduation, she was hired by Econodeath Insurance Company. Her job is to calculate premium rates for life insurance coverages. Sue is a(n) A) actuary. B) underwriter. C) claims adjustor. D) producer
A
35) Jane purchased a $50,000 liability insurance policy from Insurer A. Fearing that she did not have enough liability insurance, she purchased an additional $100,000 of liability coverage from Insurer B. As a result of her negligence, Jane was ordered to pay $75,000 in damages. Assuming the coverage from Insurer A is primary and the coverage from Insurer B is excess, how will this claim be settled? A) Insurer A will pay $50,000 and Insurer B will pay $25,000. B) Insurer A will pay $37,500 and Insurer B will pay $37,500 . C) Insurer A will pay $25,000 and Insurer B will pay $50,000. D) Insurer A will pay nothing and Insurer B will pay $75,000
A
7) Which of the following statements about Lloyds of London is true? A) Coverage is actually written by syndicates who belong to Lloyds of London. B) Its underwriters specialize in writing life and health insurance. C) It operates as an admitted insurer throughout the United States. D) It allows underwriters to write coverage without meeting stringent financial requirements.
A
8) Which of the following statements about the definition of the insured is (are) true? I. In some cases, a person who is not specifically named may be classified as an insured. II. Under no circumstances can more than one person be named as an insured. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II
A
9) Which of the following statements about brokers is (are) true? I. They legally represent the insured rather than the insurance company. II. They are prohibited from being licensed as agents. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II
A
1) The function of an actuary is to A) adjust claims. B) determine premium rates. C) negotiate reinsurance treaties. D) invest insurance company assets.
B
15) Which of the following is a result of adverse selection? A) The insurers financial results will be substantially improved. B) Persons most likely to have losses are also most likely to seek insurance at standard rates. C) It is unnecessary for the insurance company to use underwriting. D) Insurance can be written only by the federal government.
B
17) The primary purpose of coinsurance in property insurance is to A) reduce moral hazard. B) achieve equity in rating. C) minimize problems in settling claims. D) eliminate small losses.
B
19) Connie has a major medical policy with a $200 deductible and a 75 -25 coinsurance clause. If she has eligible medical expenses of $10,000, how much will be paid by her insurer? A) $7,300 B) $7,350 C) $7,500 D) $9,800
B
19) Which of the following statements about treaty reinsurance is true? A) The reinsurer is required to underwrite each individual applicant that is reinsured. B) The reinsurer must accept all business that falls within the scope of the treaty. C) The ceding insurer can choose which business falling within the scope of the treaty it wishes to reinsure. D) It protects the reinsurer by requiring the ceding insurer to charge adequate premiums.
B
2) What information is contained in the insuring agreement of an insurance policy? A) a description of the property or life to be insured B) a summary of the major promises of the insurer C) a summary of the obligations of the insured D) a list of the property, losses, and perils that are not covered
B
21) Delta Insurance Company has a surplus-share treaty with Eversafe Reinsurance. Delta has a retention limit of $200,000, and nine lines of insurance are ceded to Eversafe. How much will Eversafe pay if a $1,600,000 building insured with Delta suffers an $800,000 loss? A) $600,000 B) $700,000 C) $720,000 D) $800,000
B
23) All of the following are benefits to society that result from insurance EXCEPT A) less worry and fear. B) elimination of moral hazard. C) indemnification for loss. D) loss prevention.
B
27) XYZ Insurance Company writes coverage for most perils which can damage property. XYZ, however, does not write flood insurance on property located in flood plains. Which requirement of an ideally insurable risk might be violated if XYZ wrote flood insurance on property located in flood plains? A) There must be a large number of similar exposure units. B) The loss should not be catastrophic. C) The chance of loss must be calculable. D) The losses must be determinable and measurable.
B
3) According to the law of large numbers, what happens as the number of exposure units increases? A) Actual results will increasingly differ from probable results. B) Actual results will more closely approach probable results. C) Nondiversifiable risk will decrease. D) Objective risk will increase.
B
31) ABC Company insured its building on a replacement cost basis for $700,000 under a property insurance policy that included an 80 percent coinsurance clause. The building had a replacement cost of $1 million when it sustained a $40,000 loss. How much will ABC Company receive from its insurer, assuming no deductible applies? A) $33,333 B) $35,000 C) $36,000 D) $40,000
B
38) Ashley opened an all-you-can-eat buffet restaurant. The cost per-person was based upon what Ashley believed an average restaurant patron would consume. The restaurant began to lose money. Ashley concluded that her patrons hadabove averageappetites, and were attracted to her restaurant because they could eat as much as they wanted while being charged an average price. A similar phenomenon exists in insurance markets. This problem is called A) moral hazard. B) adverse selection. C) attitudinal hazard. D) fundamental risk.
B
5) Characteristics of a fortuitous loss include which of the following? I. The loss is certain to occur. II. The loss occurs as a result of chance. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II
B
5) Exclusions are used in insurance policies for all of the following reasons EXCEPT A) to reduce moral hazard. B) to waive policy conditions. C) to eliminate coverage for uninsurable perils. D) to eliminate coverage not needed by typical insureds.
B
6) From the viewpoint of the insurer, all of the following are characteristics of an ideally insurable risk EXCEPT A) The loss must be accidental. B) The loss should be catastrophic. C) The premium must be economically feasible. D) There must be a large number of exposure units.
B
6) Which of the following statements about a reciprocal exchange is (are) true? I. It usually specializes in health insurance. II. It is an unincorporated mutual insurance company. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II
B
7) The policy provision requiring the filing of proof of loss with the insurer is an example of a(n) A) declaration. B) condition. C) insuring agreement. D) miscellaneous provision
B
1) Which of the following statements about stock insurers is true? A) They issue assessable policies. B) They are not permitted to write property and liability insurance. C) Stockholders bear any losses and share in any profits. D) They are owned by their policyowners.
C
10) Which of the following is implied by the requirement that a loss should be determinable and measurable to be insurable? I. The loss must be definite as to place. II. The loss must be definite as to amount. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II
C
12) The deductible used for automobile collision losses is an example of a(n) A) corridor deductible. B) elimination period. C) straight deductible. D) aggregate deductible.
C
13) Reasons why market, financial, and production risks are often uninsurable include which of the following? I. The potential to produce a catastrophic loss is great. II. The chance of loss cannot be accurately estimated. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II
C
14) A provision in a disability income insurance policy that requires a person to be disabled for 60 days before receiving benefits is an example of a(n) A) corridor deductible. B) grace period. C) elimination period/waiting period. D) probationary period.
C
14) All of the following statements about the settlement of a claim are true EXCEPT A) The insurance policy usually has a provision specifying how a notice of loss is to be made to the insurance company. B) One step in the investigation of a claim is to determine whether the policy was in force when the loss occurred. C) The adjustor must file the proof of loss, which is a sworn statement supporting his or her decision regarding a claim. D) A policy provision may determine how disputes over claim settlements are resolved.
C
15) All of the following statements about the independent agency system are true EXCEPT A) Agents are often authorized to adjust small claims. B) Agents are compensated on the basis of commissions. C) The insurer rather than the agent owns the renewal rights to the business. D) The agent is an independent business person who represents several insurers.
C
16) David owns a commercial building with a replacement cost of $4 million. The building is insured on a replacement cost basis for $3 million under a fire insurance policy that has an 80 percent coinsurance clause. How much will David collect if the building sustains a covered fire loss with a replacement cost of $320,000? A) $266,667 B) $275,000 C) $300,000 D) $320,000
C
18) In addition to marketing life insurance, life insurers typically sell which of the following products? I. Retirement annuities II. Disability income insurance A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II
C
22) Huge Insurance Company is a property insurer that is interested in protecting itself against cumulative losses that exceed $200 million during the year. This protection can best be obtained using A) a quota-share reinsurance treaty. B) a surplus-share reinsurance treaty. C) an excess-of-loss reinsurance treaty. D) a reinsuance pool.
C
22) Lisa has three fire insurance policies on her office building. The policy from company A is for $400,000, and the policies from companies B and C are for $100,000 each. If Lisa has a $360,000 loss, how much of the loss will be covered by each policy if the loss is settled on a pro rata basis by the insurers? A) each policy: $120,000 B) policy A: $160,000; policies B and C: $100,000 each C) policy A: $240,000; policies B and C: $60,000 each D) policy A: $360,000; policies B and C: nothing
C
24) Helen and John both own automobiles on which they carry liability insurance. If Helen is negligent and has an accident while driving Johns car, how will each insurer respond to any liability judgment against Helen? A) The insurers will pay the judgment on a pro rata basis. B) Johns insurer will pay on an excess basis if Helens insurance is insufficient to cover the judgment. C) Helens insurance will pay on an excess basis if Johns insurance is insufficient to cover the judgment. D) The policies will pay the judgment on the basis of contribution by equal shares.
C
29) Under the terms of Jennys auto insurance policy, she must pay the first $500 of any physical damage loss to her vehicle before her insurer will pay anything. What type of deductible is included in Jennys auto insurance policy? A) calendar-year deductible B) corridor deductible C) straight deductible D) aggregate deductible
C
31) Liability Insurance Company (LIC) was approached by a regional airline to see if LIC would write the airlines liability coverage. LIC agreed to write the coverage and entered into an agreement with a reinsurer. Under the agreement, LIC retains 25 percent of the premium and pays 25 percent of the losses, and the reinsurer receives 75 percent of the premium and pays 75 percent of the losses. This reinsurance arrangement is best described as A) excess-of-loss reinsurance. B) surplus-share reinsurance. C) quota-share reinsurance. D) pool reinsurance.
C
32) XYZ Company insured its building on a replacement cost basis for $450,000 under a property insurance policy that included an 80 percent coinsurance clause. The building had a replacement cost of $500,000 when it sustained a $50,000 loss. How much will XYZ Company receive from its insurer, assuming no deductible applies? A) $42,500 B) $45,000 C) $50,000 D) $56,250
C
33) ABC Insurance Company calculated the amount that it expected to pay in claims under each policy sold. Rather than selling the insurance for the amount it expected to pay in claims, ABC added an allowance to cover the cost of doing business, including commissions, taxes, and acquisition expenses. This allowance is called a(n) A) policyowner dividend. B) premium. C) expense loading. D) rate credit.
C
33) Lauras major medical insurance policy includes a $500 deductible and an 80 -20 coinsurance clause. Laura was hospitalized and her covered medical expenses were $10,500. How much of the $10,500 will be paid by the insurer under Lauras major medical policy? A) $7,500 B) $7,900 C) $8,000 D) $10,000
C
34) James purchased liability insurance with a $100,000 limit from Insurer A. When Insurer A denied a claim that James thought should be covered, he bought a second liability insurance policy with a $150,000 limit from Insurer B. Before he cancelled the policy with Insurer A, a $60,000 loss occurred. If this loss is settled on a pro rata basis, how much must each insurer pay? A) Insurer A will pay $10,000 and Insurer B will pay $50,000. B) Insurer A will pay $20,000 and Insurer B will pay $40,000. C) Insurer A will pay $24,000 and Insurer B will pay $36,000. D) Insurer A will pay $40,000 and Insurer B will pay $20,000.
C
35) Apex Insurance Company wrote a large number of property insurance policies in an area where earthquake losses could occur. When the president of Apex was asked if she feared that a severe earthquake might put the company out of business, she responded,Not a chance. We transferred most of that risk to other insurance companies.An arrangement by which an insurer that initially writes insurance transfers to another insurer part or all of the potential losses associated with such insurance is called A) hedging. B) speculating. C) reinsurance. D) loss avoidance.
C
4) According to the law of large numbers, what should happen as an insurer increases the number of units insured? A) The amount the insurer expects to pay in claims should decrease. B) Underwriting expenses should decrease. C) Actual results will more closely approach expected results. D) The insurers profitability should become more variable.
C
4) Which of the following statements about underwriting standards is (are) true? I. One purpose of underwriting standards is to reduce adverse selection against the insurer. II. Equitable rates should be charged so that each group of policyowners pays its own way in terms of losses and expenses. A) I only B) II only C) bothI and II D) neither I nor II
C
6) Reasons why a peril may be considered uninsurable and therefore excluded from insurance contracts include which of the following? I. The losses from the occurrence of the peril may be due to a predictable decline in value. II. The losses from the occurrence of the peril may be incalculable and catastrophic. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II
C
7) From the standpoint of the insurer, all of the following are characteristics of an ideally insurable risk EXCEPT A) The loss must be unintentional. B) The chance of loss must be calculable. C) The loss must be indeterminable. D) The loss must be measurable.
C
9) The requirement that losses should be accidental and unintentional in order to be insurable results in which of the following? I. Decrease in moral hazard II. More accurate prediction of future losses A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II
C
11) All of the following are purposes of deductibles EXCEPT A) to eliminate small claims. B) to reduce premiums. C) to reduce attitudinal hazard. D) to exclude uninsurable perils.
D
12) All of the following statements about claims settlement are true EXCEPT A) Agents may have the authority to settle claims. B) Independent adjustors may be used in a geographic area where the volume of business is too low for an insurer to have its own adjustors. C) Company adjustors are salaried employees who work for one insurer. D) A public adjustor is usually paid a flat fee regardless of the size of a claim.
D
14) Which of the following statements about the exclusive agency system for marketing property and liability insurance is true? A) Exclusive agents typically have complete ownership of policy expirations. B) A higher commission rate is usually paid on exclusive agentsrenewal business than on new business. C) Exclusive agents represent several different insurance companies. D) New exclusive agents usually start as employees and after a training period become independent contractors.
D
14) Which of the following types of risks is normally uninsurable by private insurers? A) personal risks B) property risks C) liability risks D) market risks
D
15) All of the following statements about reinsurance are true EXCEPT A) A reinsurer may also purchase reinsurance. B) Reinsurance is an arrangement by which the primary insurer that initially writes the insurance transfers to another insurer part or all of the potential losses associated with such insurance. C) The insurer transferring business to a reinsurer is called the ceding insurer. D) The amount of insurance transferred to a reinsurer is called the net retention.
D
16) The tendency for unhealthy people to seek life or health insurance at standard rates is an example of A) moral hazard. B) fundamental risk. C) attitudinal hazard. D) adverse selection.
D
18) A reinsurance contract that is entered into on a case-by-case basis after an application for insurance is received by a primary insurer is called A) a reinsurance pool. B) automatic treaty reinsurance. C) retrocession. D) facultative reinsurance.
D
2) Which of the following statements about mutual insurers is true? A) They are legally organized as partnerships. B) They have a board of directors which is selected by state insurance departments. C) They are owned by their stockholders. D) They may pay dividends to their policyowners.
D
20) Which of the following statements about treaty reinsurance is true? A) Under a surplus-share treaty, 100 percent of the ceding insurers liability must be transferred to the reinsurer. B) Using a quota-share treaty increases the ceding insurers unearned premium reserve. C) Under an excess-of-loss treaty, the reinsurer pays losses in full only if they are less than the ceding insurers retention limit. D) Using a reinsurance pool provides financial capacity to write large amounts of insurance.
D
23) Kevin has three liability policies which provide for contribution by equal shares if other insurance applies to a loss. How much will each policy pay for a $3,000,000 liability judgment if policy A provides $500,000 of coverage, policy B provides $1,000,000 of coverage, and policy C provides $3,000,000 of coverage? A) Each policy will pay $500,000, and Kevin must pay the remaining $1,500,000. B) Policy A will pay $500,000, policies B and C will each pay $1,000,000, and Kevin must pay the remaining $500,000. C) Policy A will pay nothing, policy B will pay $1,000,000, and policy C will pay $2,000,000. D) Policy A will pay $500,000, policy B will pay $1,000,000, and policy C will pay $1,500,000.
D
23) Scott works in property and liability insurance marketing. He legally represents insurance purchasers, rather than insurance companies. Scott is paid a commission on the insurance placed with insurers. Scott is a(n) A) exclusive agent. B) direct writer. C) branch manager. D) insurance broker.
D
25) All of the following are social costs associated with insurance EXCEPT A) insurance company operating expenses. B) fraudulent claims. C) inflated claims. D) increased cost of capital.
D
27) Janet hit a wall causing a large dent in the fender of her car. She was busy at work and delayed reporting the damage to her insurer for 9 months. The insurer denied the claim, stating, Although such a loss is usually covered, you are required under the terms of the contract to provide prompt notification in case of loss.The prompt notification requirement is an example of a(n) A) declaration. B) definition. C) insuring agreement. D) condition.
D
28) ABC Appliance offers a warranty requiring an annual fee. The warranty may be purchased at the time of sale or at any time within the first year after the appliance was purchased. The warranty fee after the date of purchase is twice the time-of-purchase fee. When asked why the fee was higher after the date of purchase, ABCs president said,Buying a warranty is voluntary. Weve noted that those who buy the warranty after the purchase date have a greater need for service.Charging the same rate or a lower rate after the date of purchase would expose ABC to what problem that also impacts private insurers? A) excessive premiums B) reduced claims C) bad investments D) adverse selection
D
3) Why are some mutual insurers referred to asassessment mutuals? A) They charge low premiums because the loss exposures of their insureds are thoroughly assessed before a policy is written. B) They are noted for being very thorough in their assessment of investment opportunities. C) They are assessed for state premium taxes only if they make a profit. D) They can assess policyowners if premiums are insufficient to pay losses and expenses
D
30) Shauna hurt her back and was unable to work. She filed a claim under her disability income insurance policy. Under terms of the policy, 60 days must pass between the date of the injury and when the insurer begins to replace lost earnings. This 60-day period is called a(n) A) grace period. B) enrollment period. C) probationary period. D) elimination (waiting) period.
D
34) JKL Insurance Company estimates that 14 out of every 100 homeowners it insures will file a claim each year. Last year, JKL insured 200 homeowners. According to the law of large numbers, what should happen if JKL insures 2,000 homeowners this year? A) The total number of claims filed by JKL policyowners should decrease. B) The total dollar value of claims will decrease. C) The average size of loss will decline in value. D) The actual results will more closely approach the expected results.
D
4) The exclusion of flood in a homeowners policy is an example of an A) excluded activity. B) excluded condition. C) excluded property. D) excluded peril.
D
40) Adverse selection occurs A) when an insurance company loses money on its investments. B) when individuals intentionally bring about a loss in order to collect from an insurer. C) when catastrophic losses occur as a result of a natural disaster. D) when applicants with a higher-than-average chance of loss seek insurance at standard rates.
D
41) One method through which reinsurance is provided is through an organization of insurers that underwrites insurance on a joint basis. Through the organization, financial capacity is available for large commercial risks. This reinsurance arrangement is a(n) A) quota-share treaty. B) surplus-share treaty. C) excess-of-loss treaty. D) reinsurance pool.
D
6) Common sources of underwriting information for life and health insurance include all of the following EXCEPT A) the application. B) a physical examination. C) the Medical Information Bureau. D) the applicants income tax return.
D
8) Why is a large number of exposure units generally required before a pure risk is insurable? A) It prevents the insurer from losing money. B) It eliminates intentional losses. C) It minimizes moral hazard. D) It enables the insurer to predict losses more accurately.
D
9) All of the following statements about endorsements and riders are true EXCEPT A) They are usually written. B) They can be used to add or delete policy provisions. C) They normally take precedence over other conflicting policy provisions. D) They are primarily used to circumvent legislation requiring specific policy provisions.
D