Saunders Nclex Questions - Cardiac

A nurse is reinforcing instructions to a hospitalized client with heart block about the fundamental concepts regarding the cardiac rhythm. The nurse explains to the client that the normal site in the heart responsible for initiating electrical impulses is which site?

Sinoatrial (SA) node

The nurse is evaluating a client's response to cardioversion. Which observation would be of highest priority to the nurse?

Status of airway Nursing responsibilities after cardioversion include maintenance first of a patent airway, and then oxygen administration, assessment of vital signs and level of consciousness, and dysrhythmia detection.

A chaotic small, irregular, disorganized cardiac pattern suddenly appears on a client's cardiac monitor. Which is the nurse's first action?

Check the client and the chest leads. This type of pattern on the cardiac monitor indicates either ventricular fibrillation or lead displacement. The first action of the nurse is always to check the client and the chest leads. If the client is nonresponsive and the leads are not the problem, then option 4 would be the next choice, along with contacting the health care provider.

A nurse is caring for a client with unstable ventricular tachycardia. The nurse should instruct the client to take which action, if prescribed, during an episode of ventricular tachycardia?

Inhale deeply and cough forcefully every 1 to 3 seconds. Restorative coughing techniques are sometimes used in the client with unstable ventricular tachycardia. The nurse tells the client to use cough cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR), if prescribed, by inhaling deeply and coughing forcefully every 1 to 3 seconds. Cough CPR may terminate the dysrhythmia or sustain the cerebral and coronary circulation for a short time until other measures can be implemented. The other options will not assist in terminating the dysrhythmia.

The nurse is performing an assessment on a client with a diagnosis of left-sided heart failure. Which assessment component would elicit specific information regarding the client's left-sided heart function?

Listening to lung sounds The client with heart failure may present with different symptoms, depending on whether the right or the left side of the heart is failing. Peripheral and sacral edema, jugular vein distention, and organomegaly all are manifestations of problems with right-sided heart function. Lung sounds constitute an accurate indicator of left-sided heart function.

A hospitalized client's serum calcium level is 7.9 mg/dL. The nurse is immediately concerned and takes action, knowing that this level could ultimately lead to which complication?

Cardiac arrest The normal calcium level is 8.6 to 10 mg/dL. A low calcium level could lead to severe ventricular dysrhythmias, prolonged QT interval, and ultimately cardiac arrest. Calcium is needed by the heart for contraction. Calcium ions move across cell membranes into cardiac cells during depolarization and move back during repolarization. Depolarization is responsible for cardiac contraction. Options 1 and 3 are unrelated to calcium levels. Elevated calcium levels can lead to urinary stone formation. The nurse would take action and contact the health care provider when a calcium level is abnormal.

A client recovering from an exacerbation of left-sided heart failure is experiencing activity intolerance. Which change in vital signs during activity would be the best indicator that the client is tolerating mild exercise?

Respiratory rate increased from 16 to 19 breaths per minute. Vital signs that remain near baseline indicate good cardiac reserve with exercise. Only the respiratory rate remains within the normal range. Additionally, it reflects a minimal increase. A pulse rate increase to a rate over 100 beats per minute during mild exercise does not show tolerance, nor does a 5% decrease in oxygen saturation levels. In addition, blood pressure decreasing by more than 10 mm Hg is not a sign indicating tolerance of activity.

The nurse is caring for a client with cardiac disease who has been placed on a cardiac monitor. The nurse notes that the client has developed atrial fibrillation and has a ventricular rate of 150 beats/min. The nurse should next assess the client for which finding?

hypotension The client with uncontrolled atrial fibrillation with a ventricular rate greater than 100 beats/min is at risk for low cardiac output owing to loss of atrial kick. The nurse assesses the client for palpitations, chest pain or discomfort, hypotension, pulse deficit, fatigue, weakness, dizziness, syncope, shortness of breath, and distended neck veins.

A client with rapid-rate atrial fibrillation asks a nurse why the health care provider is going to perform carotid sinus massage. Which is a correct explanation?

The vagus nerve slows the heart rate. Carotid sinus massage is one maneuver used for vagal stimulation to decrease a rapid heart rate and possibly terminate a tachydysrhythmia. Others include inducing the gag reflex and asking the client to strain or bear down. Medication therapy is often needed as an adjunct to keep the rate down or maintain the normal rhythm. The remaining options 2, 3, and 4 are incorrect descriptions of this procedure.

The home care nurse has taught a client with a problem of inadequate cardiac output about helpful lifestyle adaptations to promote health. Which statement by the client best demonstrates an understanding of the information provided?

"I will eat enough daily fiber to prevent straining at stool." Standard home care instructions for a client with this problem include, among others, lifestyle changes such as decreased alcohol intake, avoiding activities that increase the demands on the heart, instituting a bowel regimen to prevent straining and constipation, and maintaining fluid and electrolyte balance. Consuming 3000 to 3500 mL of fluid and exercising vigorously will increase the cardiac workload.

The nurse is reviewing the electrocardiogram (ECG) rhythm strip obtained on a client with a diagnosis of myocardial infarction. The nurse notes that the PR interval is 0.20 second. The nurse should make which interpretation about this finding?

A normal finding The PR interval represents the time it takes for the cardiac impulse to spread from the atria to the ventricles. The normal range for the PR interval is 0.12 to 0.20 second. Options 2, 3, and 4 are incorrect.

The nurse notes that a client's cardiac rhythm shows absent P waves and no PR interval. How should the nurse interpret this rhythm?

Atrial fibrillation In atrial fibrillation, the P waves may be absent. There is no PR interval, and the QRS duration usually is normal and constant. Bradycardia is a slowed heart rate, and tachycardia is a fast heart rate. In NSR a P wave precedes each QRS complex, the rhythm is essentially regular, the PR interval is 0.12 to 0.20 seconds in duration, and the QRS interval is 0.06 to 0.10 seconds in duration.

A client is having frequent premature ventricular contractions. The nurse should place priority on assessment of which item?

Blood pressure and oxygen saturation Premature ventricular contractions can cause hemodynamic compromise. Therefore, the priority is to monitor the blood pressure and oxygen saturation. The shortened ventricular filling time can lead to decreased cardiac output. The client may be asymptomatic or may feel palpitations. Premature ventricular contractions can be caused by cardiac disorders, states of hypoxemia, or by any number of physiological stressors, such as infection, illness, surgery, or trauma, and by intake of caffeine, nicotine, or alcohol.

A client has developed uncontrolled atrial fibrillation with a ventricular rate of 150 beats/min. What manifestation should the nurse observe for when performing the client's focused assessment?

Hypotension and dizziness The client with uncontrolled atrial fibrillation with a ventricular rate greater than 100 beats/min is at risk for low cardiac output due to loss of atrial kick. The nurse assesses the client for palpitations, chest pain or discomfort, hypotension, pulse deficit, fatigue, weakness, dizziness, syncope, shortness of breath, and distended neck veins.

The nurse is assessing an electrocardiogram (ECG) rhythm strip for a client. The P waves and QRS complexes are regular. The PR interval is 0.14 second, and the QRS complexes measure 0.08 second. The overall heart rate is 82 beats/min. The nurse interprets the cardiac rhythm to be which rhythm?

Normal sinus rhythm Normal sinus rhythm is defined as a regular rhythm with an overall rate of 60 to 100 beats/min. The PR and QRS measurements are normal, measuring 0.12 to 0.20 second and 0.04 to 0.10 second, respectively.

Which laboratory test results may be associated with peaked or tall, tented T waves on a client's electrocardiogram (ECG)?

Potassium level of 6.8 mEq/L Hyperkalemia can cause tall, peaked or tented T waves on the ECG. Levels of potassium 5.0 mEq/L or greater indicate hyperkalemia. Options 1, 2, and 4 are normal levels.

A client's electrocardiogram (ECG) strip shows atrial and ventricular rates of 70 complexes/min. The PR interval is 0.16 second, the QRS complex measures 0.06 second, and the PP interval is slightly irregular. How should the nurse interpret this rhythm?

Sinus dysrhythmia Sinus dysrhythmia has all of the characteristics of normal sinus rhythm except for the presence of an irregular PP interval. This irregular rhythm occurs because of phasic changes in the rate of firing of the sinoatrial node, which may occur with vagal tone and with respiration. Cardiac output is not affected.

A client has received antidysrhythmic therapy for the treatment of premature ventricular contractions (PVCs). The nurse evaluates this therapy as most effective if the client's PVCs continued to exhibit which finding?

Decrease to a frequency of less than 6 per minute PVCs are considered dangerous when they are frequent (more than 6 per minute), occur in pairs or couplets, are multifocal (multiform), or fall on the T wave. In each of these instances, the client's cardiac rhythm is likely to degenerate into ventricular tachycardia or ventricular fibrillation, both of which are potentially deadly dysrhythmias.

A hospitalized client is experiencing a decrease in blood pressure. The nurse plans care for the client, knowing that this change will have which primary effect on his or her heart?

Decreased myocardial blood flow The primary effect of a decrease in blood pressure is reduced blood flow to the myocardium. This in turn decreases oxygenation of the cardiac tissue. Cardiac tissue is likely to become more excitable or irritable in the presence of hypoxia. Correspondingly, the heart rate is likely to increase, not decrease, in response to this change. The effects of tissue ischemia lead to decreased contractility over time.

A client with angina has a 12-lead electrocardiogram taken during an episode of chest pain. The nurse should examine the tracing for which electrocardiographic (ECG) change caused by myocardial ischemia?

ST segment elevation or depression An electrocardiogram taken during a chest pain episode captures ischemic changes, which include ST segment elevation or depression. Tall, peaked T waves may indicate hyperkalemia. A prolonged PR interval indicates first-degree heart block. A widened QRS complex indicates delay in intraventricular conduction, such as a bundle branch block.

Cardiac monitoring leads are placed on a client who is at risk for premature ventricular contractions (PVCs). Which heart rhythm will the nurse most anticipate in this client if PVCs are occurring?

Premature beats followed by a compensatory pause PVCs are abnormal ectopic beats originating in the ventricles. They are characterized by an absence of P waves, presence of wide and bizarre QRS complexes, and a compensatory pause that follows the ectopy.

A client with myocardial infarction is experiencing new, multiform premature ventricular contractions (PVCs). Knowing that the client is allergic to lidocaine hydrochloride, the nurse plans to have which medication available for immediate use?

ProcainamideProcainamide is an antidysrhythmic that may be used to treat ventricular dysrhythmias in clients who are allergic to lidocaine. Digoxin is a cardiac glycoside; verapamil is a calcium-channel blocking agent; metoprolol is a β-adrenergic blocking agent.

A nurse identifies that a client is having occasional premature ventricular contractions (PVCs) on the cardiac monitor. The nurse reviews the client's laboratory results and determines that which result would be consistent with the observation?

Serum potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L The nurse should check the client's serum laboratory study results for hypokalemia. The client may experience PVCs in the presence of hypokalemia, because this electrolyte imbalance increases the electrical instability of the heart. The values noted in the remaining options are normal.

A client's electrocardiogram strip shows atrial and ventricular rates of 110 beats/minute. The PR interval is 0.14 second, the QRS complex measures 0.08 second, and the PP and RR intervals are regular. How should the nurse correctly interpret this rhythm?

Sinus tachycardia Sinus tachycardia has the characteristics of normal sinus rhythm, including a regular PP interval and normal-width PR and QRS intervals; however, the rate is the differentiating factor. In sinus tachycardia, the atrial and ventricular rates are greater than 100 beats/minute.

The nurse is watching the cardiac monitor and notices that the rhythm suddenly changes. No P waves or QRS complexes are seen; instead, the monitor screen shows an irregular wavy line. The nurse interprets that the client is experiencing which rhythm?

Ventricular fibrillation Ventricular fibrillation is characterized by the absence of P waves and QRS complexes. The rhythm is instantly recognizable by the presence of coarse or fine fibrillatory waves on the cardiac monitoring screen. Sinus tachycardia has a recognizable P wave and QRS. Ventricular tachycardia is a regular pattern of wide QRS complexes. PVCs appear as irregular beats within a rhythm. Each of the incorrect options has a recognizable complex that appears on the monitoring screen.

A nurse is conducting a health history of a client with a primary diagnosis of heart failure. Which conditions reported by the client could play a role in exacerbating the heart failure?

Emotional stress Atrial fibrillation Nutritional anemia Recent upper respiratory infection Heart failure is precipitated or exacerbated by physical or emotional stress, dysrhythmias, infections, anemia, thyroid disorders, pregnancy, Paget's disease, nutritional deficiencies (thiamine, alcoholism), pulmonary disease, and hypervolemia.

A client has been admitted with left-sided heart failure. When planning care for the client, interventions should be focused on reduction of which specific problem associated with this type of heart failure?

Bilateral lung crackles The client with heart failure may present with different symptoms, depending on whether the right or the left side of the heart is failing. Adventitious breath sounds, such as crackles, are an indicator of decreased left-sided heart function. Peripheral edema, jugular vein distention, and ascites all can be present because of insufficiency of the pumping action of the right side of the heart.

The nurse is reviewing an electrocardiogram rhythm strip. The P waves and QRS complexes are regular. The PR interval is 0.16 second, and QRS complexes measure 0.06 second. The overall heart rate is 64 beats/minute. Which would be a correct interpretation based on these characteristics?

Normal sinus rhythm Normal sinus rhythm is defined as a regular rhythm, with an overall rate of 60 to 100 beats/minute. The PR and QRS measurements are normal, measuring 0.12 to 0.20 second and 0.04 to 0.10 second, respectively.

A client with a first-degree heart block has an electrocardiogram (ECG) taken during an episode of chest pain. The nurse knows that which ECG finding would be an indication of first-degree heart block?

Prolonged PR interval A prolonged PR interval indicates first-degree heart block. The development of Q waves indicates myocardial necrosis. Tall, peaked T waves may indicate hyperkalemia. A widened QRS complex indicates a delay in intraventricular conduction, such as bundle branch block. An ECG taken during a pain episode is intended to capture ischemic changes, which also include ST-segment elevation or depression.

A client's electrocardiogram shows that the atrial and ventricular rhythms are irregular and there are no discernible P waves. The nurse recognizes that this pattern is associated with which condition?

Atrial flutter With atrial fibrillation, the atrial and ventricular rhythms are irregular and there are usually no discernible P waves. In atrial flutter, the QRS complexes may be either regular or irregular, and the P waves occur as flutter waves. A client in third-degree AV block (also known as complete heart block) has regular atrial and ventricular rhythms, but there is no connection between the P waves and the QRS complexes. In other words, the PR interval is variable and the QRS complexes are normal or widened, with no relationship with the P waves. With first-degree AV block the PR interval is longer than normal, and there is a connection between the occurrence of P waves and that of QRS complexes.