ST Fall 2020 Exam 3 Study Guide

Surgical repair for recurrent anterior shoulder dislocation include all of the following EXCEPT: A. Bankart B. Bristow C. Colles' D. Putti-Platt

C. Colles'

What should the surgical technologist do while the surgeon is using the oscillating saw during open acromioplasty? A. Blot any bleeding bone surfaces carefully with sponge stick B. Collect bone chips in would carefully with cupped tissue forceps C. Drip small amounts of irrigation onto blade to prevent overheating D. Suction smoke from operative site created by heated tissues

C. Drip small amounts of irrigation onto blade to prevent overheating

Which orthopedic instrument has the appearance of a turkey foot or eagle's talon? A. beaver knife handle B. Bennett retractor C. Lowman bone holder D. Lambotte osteotome

C. Lowman bone holder

Which medium is frequently used in arthroscopies where the ESU may be used for hemostasis? A. carbon dioxide B. lactated Ringer's C. nitrous oxide D. normal saline

B. lactated Ringer's

Rush, Ender, Russell-Taylor, Trigen, and Kuntscher are examples of flexible, standard, or titanium femoral: A. rods B. nails C. plates D. screws

B. nails

In which anatomical structure is the patella contained? A. anterior cruciate ligament B. patellar tendon C. posterior cruciate ligament D. quadriceps tendon

B. patellar tendon

Which type of suture would be contraindicated for attaching tendon to bone? A. nylon (Nurolon) B. polyglactin 910 (Vicryl) C. polyester (Ethibond) D. stainless steel

B. polyglactin 910 (Vicryl)

All of the following are examples of devices used to anchor both ends of the ACL graft EXCEPT: A. bone screws with spiked washers B. bioabsorbable screws C. Steinman pins D. staples

C. Steinman pins

Aken, Chevron, McKeever, Keller, and McBride are techniques for which lower extremity procedure? A. above knee amputation (AKA) B. below knee amputation (BKA) C. bunionectomy D. triple arthrodesis

C. bunionectomy

In which stage of normal bone healing is there bridging of the fracture site, and cartilage and immature bone provide support? A. inflammation B. cellular proliferation C. callus formation D. remodeling

C. callus formation

The elbow is categorized as which type of joint? A. amphiarthrosis B. coxarthrosis C. diarthrosis D. synarthrosis

C. diarthrosis (hinge)

A common system of instrumentation for open reduction of hip fractures is DHS, which stands for: A. dislocated hip surgery B. definitive hip support C. dynamic hip screw D. derotational hip stabilizer

C. dynamic hip screw

What is a common surgical approach for Colles' fracture? A. arthroscopy B. carpal tunnel syndrome C. external fixation D. open reduction internal fixation

C. external fixation

Which of the following is NOT a bone of the pelvis? A. ilium B. pubis C. femur D. ischium

C. femur

How many stages are involved in normal osteogenesis? A. two B. three C. five D. eight

C. five

The term C-arm refers to a(n): A. casting technique B. extremity deformity C. fluoroscopic machine D. OR table positioning device

C. fluoroscopic machine

Which of the following joints has the greatest range of motion? A. acromioclavicular B. coracoclavicular C. glenohumeral D. sternoclavicular

C. glenohumeral

Which type of fracture is considered as partial and may result from activities such as jumping or jogging? A. avulsion B. comminuted C. greenstick D. oblique

C. greenstick

Which of the following factors related to bone growth and maintenance is responsible for mineral storage and utilization? A. exercise B. heredity C. hormonal D. nutrition

C. hormonal

Which instrument is used to remove marrow from the canal of long bones for placement of prostheses? A. Brun curette B. Gigli saw C. intramedullary reamer D. suction brush attachment

C. intramedullary reamer

Which bones is involved in a Colles' fracture? A. ulna B. radius C. scapula D. humerus

B. radius

The infraspinatus, teres minor, subscapularis, and supraspinatus muscles collectively comprise the: A. pelvic girdle B. rotator cuff C. sternal notch D. thoracic cage

B. rotator cuff

A (Weitlaner/Beckmann) has hinged arms.

Beckmann

What is the term for small, loose bodies in the knee that are constant irritants and may cause excess synovial production, pain, and locking up? A. ganglion cysts B. genuvarum C. joint mice D. bunions

C. joint mice

In what joint would a bucket handle tear be found? A. ankle B. hip C. knee D. wrist

C. knee

What should the surgical technologist have ready to clean bone or tissue from a rongeur? A. antibiotic irrigation B. Freer elevator C. lap sponges D. pulse lavage

C. lap sponges

Whose instructions for cleaning, lubricating, and sterilizing powered orthopedic instrumentation must be followed? A. AAMI B. facility policies C. manufacturer D. OSHA

C. manufacturer

What is the term for softening of bone in children that is commonly called rickets? A. osteoarthritis B. osteochondrosis C. osteomalacia D. osteomyelitis

C. osteomalacia

What is the outside covering of bones that provides some nourishment and protection from infection? A. articular cartilage B. enosteum C. periosteum D. synovial membrane

C. periosteum

The proximal end of the radius and C1 on C2 vertebrae are examples of which type of diarthrosis? A. gliding B. hinge C. pivot D. saddle

C. pivot

The action of pointing and putting a toe in the water to check the temperature would be an example of which movement? A. circumduction B. eversion C. plantar flexion D. supination

C. plantar flexion

The acromion process involved in the acromioclavicular joint is part of which of the following bones? A. clavicle B. humerus C. scapula D. sternum

C. scapula

Axillary nerve injury or detachment of the deltoid from the acromion are: A. indications for Bankart repair B. normal outcomes of total shoulder repair C. serious post-op complications of open acromioplasty D. treated conservatively with steroids and physical therapy

C. serious post-op complications of open acromioplasty

Which additional PPE is frequently worn by sterile team members during total joint procedures to prevent possible SSI? A. impervious apron under gown B. additional sterile sleeves C. space suit or body exhaust suits D. high-efficiency particulate air masks

C. space suit or body exhaust suits

Which device is sometimes used for achieving and maintaining the lateral position? A. Andrews table B. beach chair positioner C. vacuum beanbag D. Wilson frame

C. vacuum beanbag

Pre-op testing for thoracic procedures:

CBC Chem UA

Progressive, irreversible condition, results in diminished capacity of the lungs:

COPD (Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease)

Types of diagnostic imaging for thoracic conditions:

CT, Fluoroscopy, MRI, PET, pulmonary angiography, X-rays (posterior/anterior), lateral projections

May or may not be used to increase contractility of the heart following removal of the patient from cardiopulmonary bypass.

Calcium chloride

Where is the apex of the heart located within the mediastinum? a. superiorly on the right side b. inferiorly on the right side c. superiorly on the left side d. inferiorly on the left side

d. inferiorly on the left side

What is the name of a small protuberance of a bone that is an attachment point for muscles or tendons? A. condyle B. groove C. fossa D. tubercle

D. tubercle

Medications that induce cardiac arrest and modifies cardiac muscle contractility. Consists of calcium channel blockers; vasoconstrictors, increase heart rate

Dopamine, Dobutamine, Epinephrine

Identify the instruments used for dissecting: a. Townly b. Lowman c. Parkes d. Aufranc e. Penfield #4

e. Penfield #4

Non-invasive study used to diagnose mitral valve stenosis or other valvular disorders:

echocardiography

Percentage of blood volume pumped out of the heart into the systemic circulation; indicator of ventricular function:

ejection fraction

Match: Glover bulldog. Clamping Giertz-Shoemaker. Grasping Allison Cutting Mills/Dennis forceps Retracting Heparin needle Accessory

Glover bulldog=clamping Giertz-Shoemaker=cutting Allison=retracting Mills/Dennis forceps=grasping Heaprin needle=accessory

Anticoagulant used to prevent development of blood clot while on cardiopulmonary bypass:

Heparin

Name the three coronary arteries that were being bypassed and the vessels that were grafted to them in the CABG video.

L anterior descending coronary artery=L inframammary artery R coronary artery=R inframammary artery Circumflex=Saphenous

Rongeur used for cutting off bites of bone:

Leksell rongeur

Medication most often used in surgery as a local anesthetic that prevents ventricular fibrillation:

Lidocaine

Allows direct visualization through a small incision in the chest wall of the organs of the chest; diagnoses carcinoma/pulmonary infections:

VAT - video assisted thoracoscopy

Monitoring procedure that records electrical activity of the heart:

electrocardiograph

Permanent enlargement of the alveoli and alveolar ducts, destruction of alveolar walls; may lead to formation of blebs or bullae:

emphysema

Pre-operative testing for orthopedic surgery:

erythrocyte sedimentation rate, human leukocyte antigen

Which suture is frequently used for anastomosis of the saphenous vein or internal mammary artery in CABG? a. 6-0 or 7-0 polypropylene b. 2-0 or 3-0 polyester c. 6-0 or 7-0 polyglactin d. 2-0 or 3-0 poliglecaprone

a. 6-0 or 7-0 polypropylene

The surgeon asks for a lung retractor. You would hand him a: a. Allison b. Davidson c. Duval d. DeBakey

a. Allison

Which instruments are retracting instruments? a. Allison b. Stevens tenotomy c. Heparin needle d. Carpentier e. DeBakey sidewinder

a. Allison d. Carpentier

Which of the following is NOT a raspatory? a. Bailey b. Doyen c. Semb d. Matson

a. Bailey

Dawson-Yuhl bone currettes are more commonly known as: a. Cobb b. Brun c. Hibbs d. Lambotte

a. Cobb

What is frequently used to repair atrial and ventricular septal defects in pediatric patients? a. Dacron patch b. porcine valve c. fascia lata d. fibrin glue

a. Dacron patch

Replaceable jaw inserts are used on which clamp? a. Fogarty b. DeBakey c. Satinsky d. Javid

a. Fogarty

During a thoracotomy, the surgeon needs to remove a rib. Which instrument would be used to cut the rib? a. Giertz-Shoemaker b. Doyen c. Alexander-Farabeuf d. Matson

a. Giertz-Shoemaker

Select the clamping instruments. a. Glover bulldog b. DeBakey sidewinder c. Spencer coronary needle holder d. Collins forceps e. Mills/Dennis forceps

a. Glover bulldog b. DeBakey sidewinder

A small, self-retaining skin retractor used in hand surgery is a: a. Heiss b. Beckmann c. Senn d. Ragnell

a. Heiss

Which instruments are used for retracting? a. Heiss b. Stille-Horsley c. Aufranc d. bone tamp e. Lowman (bone holding clamp)

a. Heiss c. Aufranc

You are scrubbed on a shoulder surgery. The surgeon asks for a rasp to smooth the bone. You would hand him a: a. Putti b. Penfield c. Molt d. Bennet

a. Putti

Select all instruments that are used for cutting: a. Putti (cutting) b. Stille-Horsley (cutting) c. Parkes (cutting) d. Heiss (retractor) e. Aufranc (retractor) f. Cushing pituitary (cutting) g. Cobb bone curettes (cutting) h. Penfield #4 (cutting)

a. Putti (cutting) b. Stille Horsley (cutting) c. Parkes (cutting) f. Cushing pituitary (cutting) g. Cobb bone curettes (cutting) h. Penfield #4 (cutting)

You are scrubbed on a lung lobectomy. You know this surgeon uses a bronchus clamp with teeth. You have a ___ clamp ready to hand to him. a. Sarot b. Allison c. Glover d. Collin

a. Sarot

What are the prep borders for a unliateral vein stripping procedure? a. Toes to groin circumferentially b. Ankle to knee circumferentially c. Knee to groin circumferentially d. Ankle to mid-thigh circumferentially

a. Toes to groin circumferentially

Prior to closure of a lobectomy procedure, the anesthesia provider performs a Valsava maneuver to check for: a. air leakage from bronchial closure b. bleeding from the dissection bed c. functionality of the diaphragm d. perfusion of the unaffected lobes

a. air leakage from bronchial closure

In which part of the respiratory system does the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide take place? a. alveoli b. bronchi c. bronchioles d. pulmonary vein

a. alveoli

Which of the following are the final branchings of the respiratory tree? a. alveoli b. bronchi c. bronchioles d. lobes of the lung

a. alveoli

Which diagnostic study is considered the gold standard for evaluation of vascular disease? a. angiography b. CT scan c. radiography d. PET scan

a. angiography

Which is the largest artery in the body? a. aorta b. carotid c. renal d. subclavian

a. aorta

Which instrument is used to make a small opening into the ascending aorta after the stinky partial occlusion clamp is placed? a. aortic punch b. Potts-Smith scissors c. #11 blade d. 5mm trocar

a. aortic punch

The coronary arteries originate from the: a. ascending aorta b. descending aorta c. pulmonary artery d. subclavian artery

a. ascending aorta

What is the term for a collapsed lung? a. atelectasis b. decortication c. emphysema d. pneumonitis

a. atelectasis

Balloon angioplasty performed in the cardiac catheterization lab is used to treat: a. atherosclerotic thickening b. stenotic dissection c. venous insufficiency d. valvular regurgitation

a. atherosclerotic thickening

Whar are the serrations of DeBakey and Cooley vascular instruments considered to be? a. atraumatic b. traumatic c. smooth d. toothed

a. atraumatic

Arteries that become the femoral arteries as they exit the pelvis:

external iliac

Stevens scissors are used to dissect (fine/large) blood vessels or tissue.

fine

How far should the skin prep go for orthopedic surgery?

from one joint above to one joint below the operative site

Deformity of the legs in which the knees are positioned close together

genu valgum

Deformity of the legs in which the knees are bowed

genu varum

A Rosano is a (grasping/clamping) instrument.

grasping

Fracture line through the bone, partial fracture

greenstick

Turning of the great toe outward away from the midline

hallux valgus

Turning of the great toe inward away from the midline

hallux varus

Condition of the toes that is congenital or induced by trauma

hammer toe, claw toe, mallet toe

Hollow, muscular organ:

heart

Electrical conduction disorder requiring a permanent pacemaker:

heart block

What are the two purposes of cardioplegia?

heart stops beating slows bloodflow/stops bloodflow reduces metabolic needs of the heart

Blood accumulation within the pleura cavity:

hemothorax

What are the 4 reasons patients develop cardiac disease?

high fat, high cholesterol diet lack of exercise smoking congenital

Javid carotid graft clamp

holding temporary bypass graft in place

Which of the following is the longest bone in the upper extremity? A. femur B. humerus C. radius D. ulna

humerus

What type of cartilage is the trachea made of?

hyaline cartilage

Unpaired artery arising anteriorly from aorta just above the bifurcation; supplies lower abdominal organs:

inferior mesenteric

Vein that carries blood form the lower part of the body:

inferior vena cava

A left ventricular assist device the surgeon inserts into the descending thoracic aorta, just below the subclavian artery, via the femoral artery:

insertion of an intra-aortic balloon pump (IABP)

Insertion of endocardial lead into the subclavian, cephalic, or internal or external jugular vein advancing into the superior vena cava, into the right atrium, through the tricuspid valve, and then into the right ventricle:

insertion of transvenous pacemaker

What is the difference between ischemia and infarction?

ischemia is reversible, infarction is permanent

A Blount retractor is used mainly in (hip/knee) surgery.

knee

Fluid accumulation around vocal chords from infection, injury, or inhalation of toxic gas:

laryngeal edema

Patient positioning for thoracic procedures:

lateral

Following lung transplantation, the surgeon will perform which procedure to aspirate secretions and check for leaks? a. bronchoscopy b. laryngoscopy c. mediastinoscopy d. video-assisted thoracoscopy

a. bronchoscopy

In which procedure would an incision NOT be required for insertion of the endoscope? a. bronchoscopy b. mediastinoscopy c. pectus excavatum via VATS d. video-assisted thoracic surgery

a. bronchoscopy

What is the name of a nonpathological small sac that contains synovial fluid? a. bursa b. canaliculi c. ganglion d. osteocytes

a. bursa

Which mineral is stored in the bones and constantly being removed to maintain necessary blood levels? a. calcium b. iron c. magnesium d. zinc

a. calcium

Which diagnostic method provides the MOST extensive details regarding valvular disorders? a. cardiac catheterization b. CT scanning c. electomyography d. MRI scanning

a. cardiac catheterization

What is the term for a localized stricture of the aorta found in a pediatric patient? a. coarctation b. stenosis c. prolapsed d. arteriosis

a. coarctation

What is the name of the condition that involves plaque or clots escaping from the femoral or iliac veins? a. deep vein thrombosis b. carotid stenosis c. atherosclerosis d. claudication

a. deep vein thrombosis

Lung tissue has what kind of consistency? a. friable b. slimy c. calcified d. elastic

a. friable

The main bronchi, pulmonary arteries, veins, and lymphatic vessels enter the lung on the medial surface through the: a. hilum b. trachea c. diaphragm d. mediastinum

a. hilum

Which of the following is commonly used method of preserving the heart by reducing its metabolic needs? a. hypothermia b. lung deflation c. left ventricular venting d. warming with heat exchanger

a. hypothermia

Arteries that supply blood to the lungs for oxygenation (carry deoxygenated blood)

left and right pulmonary arteries

Veins that carries oxygenated blood back to the heart from the lungs into the L atrium:

left and right pulmonary veins

The 2 lower chambers of the heart:

left and right ventricles

Which bronchus is longer, more horizontal?

left bronchus

Artery that seves the head and neck and arises directly fro the aortic arch:

left common carotid

Which lung has 2 lobes with a cardiac notch on the upper lobe?

left lung

The left lung lobes are:

left upper, left lower

Connective tissue that connects bone to bone.

ligament

Bone death and destruction caused by trauma or disease that obstructs the blood supply

osteonecrosis

A Lambotte is a type of:

osteotome

What is fibrillation and how is it corrected?

out of sync heartbeat; corrected by shock

A Ragnell is used for (superficial/deep) wound exposure.

superficial

Unpaired artery arising anteriorly from aorta just below celiac trunk; supplies upper abdominal organs:

superior mesenteric

Vein that carries blood from upper part of the body:

superior vena cava

Veins of the heart:

superior vena cava inferior vena cava left and right pulmonary veins

Positioning for median sternotomy; provides access to anterior lung surface and mediastinal structures; arms on armboards:

supine

Which position would be required for a CABG procedure?

supine and slightly frog legged

Blood flow to the rest of the body through aorta along vessels to extremities:

systemic circulation

A heart rate that exceeds 100 beats per minute:

tachycardia

Feet turning away from the midline

talipes valgus

Feet turning into the midline

talipes varus

Connective tissue that connects muscle to bone.

tendon

Portion of the aorta that descends but is above the diaphragm:

thoracic

Incision from the axilla to abdominal midline; of the lower esophagus, upper abdomen, retroperitoneal, lower thoracic cavity:

thoracoabdominal

Incision into the chest and abdomen:

thoracoabdominal

Incision into the thorax:

thoracotomy

Valve that separates the R atrium and the R ventricle:

tricuspid valve

Test that detects the presence of active/dormant tuberculin bacteria:

tuberculin skin tests

4.5-15% of all cancers:

undifferentiated carcinoma

Doyen rib raspatory

used for cutting costal tissue

Membranous folds that function to allow blood to flow in only one direction preventing backflow within the heart:

valves

Membranous folds that function to allow blood to flow in only one direction preventing backflow within the veins:

valves

Narrowing of valve orifice:

valvular stenosis

Tiny vessels that nourish the cells of arterial walls:

vasa vasorum

Atraumatic instrument designed to gently occulde blood flow without causing permanent damage:

vascular clamp

The largest vein in the body; runs alongside the aorta:

vena cava

Removal of aneurysm and replacement with prosthetic graft:

ventricular aneurysm

Chaotic and disorganized stimulation of the ventricle, making it unable to effectively pump blood:

ventricular fibrillation

Condition in which deoxygenated blood mixes with oxygenated blood:

ventricular septal defect VSD

Autogenous excision of vessel for use in cardiac procedure; vessels commonly used are the saphenous vein and internal mammary artery:

vessel harvesting

Covers the lung exterior, fills the fissures between the lobes:

visceral pleura

A Barry is used to hold ___ sternal sutures.

wire

What is the name of the device used for patients who are unable to be weaned off of cardiopulmonary bypass? a. intra-aortic balloon pump b. left ventricular vent c. cardiac pacemaker d. vena cava filter

a. intra-aortic balloon pump

What are urokinase and streptokinase used for in vascular pathology? a. lysis of embolus b. vasoconstriction c. vasodilation d. hemostasis

a. lysis of embolus

Commissurotomy is a surgical separation of the flaps of the: a. mitral valve b. left ventricle c. pulmonary valve d. right atrium

a. mitral valve

Aortic valve stenosis and aortic regurgitation are often a result of: a. rheumatic fever b. tuberculosis c. heart block d. angina

a. rheumatic fever

Where is the insertion point for the mediastinoscope? a. suprasternal notch b. oropharynx c. subxiphoid d. umbilicus

a. suprasternal notch

Which of the following are used on tips of hemostats to prevent breaking of fine gauge monofilament suture when tagged? a. suture boots b. hemoclips c. peel-away sheaths d. vessel loops

a. suture boots

Thymomas, neurogenic tumors, and pleuropericardial cysts can be biopsied during which procedure? a. bronchoscopy b. laryngoscopy c. mediastinoscopy d. thoracoscopy

c. mediastinoscopy

What is the thickest part of the heart? a. epicardium b. endocardium c. myocardium d. pericardium

c. myocardium

What is a serious bone infection that may result fro a compound fracture and become chronic later? a. osteoarthritis b. osteoclasts c. osteomyelitis d. osteophytes

c. osteomyelitis

Which singular congenital defect involves failure of closure of the connection between the pulmonary artery and aorta? a. atrial septal defect b. ventriculo septal defect c. patent ductus arteriosus d. tetralogy of Fallot

c. patent ductus arteriosus

Which nerve could be damaged during lung decortication resulting in paralysis or partial paralysis of the diaphragm? a. accessory b. hypoglossal c. phrenic d. vagus

c. phrenic

The atheromatous core removed from the carotid artery during endarterectomy is more commonly known as: a. adventitia b. marrow c. plaque d. thrombus

c. plaque

What is the name of the area between the visceral and parietal pleura that contains serous fluid to prevent friction? a. hilum b. mediastinum c. pleural space d. pericardial window

c. pleural space

Where is the Swanz-Ganz catheter placed? a. ascending aorta b. coronary artery c. pulmonary artery d. vena cava

c. pulmonary artery

If a DVT from deep veins of the legs enters the cardiopulmonary system, what life-threatening condition will likely occur? a. aortic dissection b. cardiac tamponade c. pulmonary embolus d. myocardial infarction

c. pulmonary embolus

What are vessel loops and umbilical tapes commonly used for in vascular cases? a. anastomosis b. ligation c. retraction d. suturing

c. retraction

Which one of the following is NOT one of the cardiac valves? a. aortic b. mitral c. septal d. tricuspid

c. septal

The manubrium, body, and xiphoid process are portions of the: a. ribs b. lungs c. sternum d. bronchial tree

c. sternum

In the event that a VATS procedure has been converted to an open procedure, which open case can be performed? a. coronary artery bypass b. laparoscopy c. thoracotomy d. tracheotomy

c. thoracotomy

What is the specimen in an AAA procedure? a. blood clot b. vessel wall c. thrombus d. aneurysm sac

c. thrombus

Which part of the artery is respsonsible for vasoconstriction and vasodilation? a. tunica adventitia b. tunica intima c. tunica media d. vaso vasorum

c. tunica media

50% of all thoracic procedures:

carcinoma

Which procedure would include the use of fluoroscopy and a sterile catheter introduced through the femoral or brachial artery?

cardiac catheterization

Types of dressing material:

cast, fiberglass, plaster

Instrument used for applying cement in orthopedic surgery:

cement gun

Nondisposable, disposable systems:

chest drainage system types; Emerson >20cm 2-3 cannisters Thoraseal, Antrium - usually 3 cannister system

Piece of equipment that is used to connect thoracic cavity to chest drainage systems:

chest tubes

Tumor of the cartilage

chondroma

Chronic inflammation of the bronchial tree:

chronic bronchitis

Provides oxygenated blood to the heart muscle; heart muscle does NOT receive its oxygen from the blood coursing through it:

coronary arteries

Artery that supplies blood to the myocardium:

coronary artery

Condition of atherosclerotic plaque:

coronary artery disease

Blood flow through the myocardium:

coronary circulation

Part of the bone that is really hard:

cortical bone

Several symptoms associated with lung cancer:

cough, hemoptysis, wheezing, stridor, chest pain, dyspnea

Acquired deformity of the hip in which the hip joint turns outward

coxa valga

Acquired deformity of the hip in which the hip joint turns inward

coxa vara

Cobb and Brun are types of:

curettes

What are the operative mortality rates of patients with ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm and shock? a. 10%-20% b. 20%-40% c. 50%-60% d. >80%

d. >80%

All of the following can be types of DeBakey clamps EXCEPT: a. Sidewinder b. Coarctation c. Aorta d. Carotid artery bypass shunt

d. Carotid artery bypass shunt

During coronary valve surgery, the surgeon requests a handheld atrial retractor. You would hand her a: a. Tuffier b. Buford-Finochietto c. Carpentier d. Cooley

d. Cooley

A ___ is a type of raspatory. a. Barry b. Satinsky c. DeBakey d. Doyen

d. Doyen

the surgeon asks for a bulldog clamp, you could hand him any of the following except? a. Glover b. DeBakey c. Diethrich d. Lawrie

d. Lawrie

What is the name of the device that is attached to suction for collection of mucous or bronchial washing specimens? a. aerobic culture tube b. insufflation tubing c. myringotomy tube d. Lukens tube

d. Lukens tube

All of the following are periosteal elevators EXCEPT a: a. Molt b. Key c. Cushing "little joker" d. Putti

d. Putti

All of the following are types of scissors EXCEPT: a. Lawrie b. Tenotomy c. Jameson d. Rummel

d. Rummel

Which of the following is a crushing clamp with sharp spikes in the jaw used on the bronchus? a. Bailey b. Doyen c. Mixter d. Sarot

d. Sarot

Identify the instruments used for surturing. a. Stevens tenotomy b. Giertz-Shoemaker c. Aortic punch d. Spencer coronary needle holder e. Heparin needle

d. Spencer coronary needle holder

What is done with the aneurysm sac in AAA repair? a. excised and discarded b. excised and sent as specimen c. inverted and tacked to back of graft d. anterior wall sutured over proximal graft

d. anterior wall sutured over proximal graft

What is the general term for incurable diseases of the heart for which the only treatment would be heart transplantation? a. atherosclerosis b. arrhythias c. cardioplegia d. cardiomyopathies

d. cardiomyopathies

What is the main obstacle of performing angioscopy? a. light b. valves c. strictures d. clear visibility

d. clear visibility

All of the following structures are found within the mediastinum EXCEPT: a. heart b. thymus c. esophagus d. diaphragm

d. diaphragm

How many pulmonary veins are there? a. one b. two c. three d. four

d. four

Condition in which the lungs are collapsed; caused by rib fracture, bronchial phlegm plug, or very little air getting into the lungs:

atelectasis

Disorganized stimulation of the atria that prevents atrial contraction and does not allow for ventricular filling:

atrial fibrillation

Condition in which the right side of the heart is overworked because of an excess of blood flow going into the lungs:

atrial septal defect ASD

Which joint is an example of a condyloid joint? A. acromioclavicular B. femoroacetabluar C. patellofemeral D. temporomandibular

D. temporomandibular

Which bone of the lower extremity is commonly known as the shin bone? A. femur B. fibula C. patella D. tibia

D. tibia

What is the most common cause of bone fractures? A. poor position B. osteoporosis C. osteosarcoma D. trauma

D. trauma

Type of retractor used in spinal surgery:

Taylor spinal retractor

Absence of a heartbeat; cardiac standstill:

asystole

Types of amputations:

1. BK: below knee amputation 2. AK: above knee amputation 3. BE: below the elbow 4. AE: above the elbow

Correct the following: 1)The name of the valve between the right atrium and ventricle is called the mitral valve. 2)The aortic valve is located in the left atrium.

1. Tricuspid valve 2. L ventricle

Of the 12 pairs of ribs, how many are floating?

11, 12

How many pairs of ribs are there?

12

How many C-shaped rings of cartilage make up the trachea?

16-20

What is the order of cannulation for the heart lung machine and why was it important that no air be in those tubes?

1st R atrium 2nd cannula to the aorta to prevent stroke

Bone tamps come in sizes of ___ to ___.

2mm-10mm

How long did the surgeon say patients can be cross-clamped on the heart lung machine?

3 or more hours

Of the 12 pairs of ribs, how many are false?

3 pairs (8, 9, 10)

Of the 12 pairs of ribs, how many are true?

7 pairs

Which tendon is the thickest and strongest in the body? A. Achilles B. tibialis anterior C. extensor hallucis longus D. extensor digitorum longus

A. Achilles

Which of the following would be increased on a serum analysis and indicative of a malignant neoplasm of bone marrow? A. Bence Jones protein B. human leukocyte antigen C. serum phosphorus D. serum urate

A. Bence Jones protein

Patients diagnosed with shoulder impingement syndrome would likely undergo: A. acromioplasty B. external fixation C. open reduction, internal fixation D. total shoulder arthroplasty

A. acromioplasty

Which ligament of the knee keeps the femur from sliding posteriorly on the tibia and prevents hyperextension of the knee? A. anterior cruciate B. posterior cruciate C. medial collateral D. lateral collateral

A. anterior cruciate

Which of the following describes the appearance of a stellate bone fracture? A. asterisk (*) B. back slash (/) C. spiral (S) D. transverse (~)

A. asterisk (*)

Patellar tendon, iliotibial band, and semitendinosus tendon are examples of: A. autografts for ACL repair B. connections for hip movement C. insertion sites for arthroscopic instrumentation D. radiographic landmarks for knee x-ray studies

A. autografts for ACL repair

Chondroma, giant cell, and osteoma are: A. benign neoplasms B. congenital deformities C. malignant neoplasms D. structural osteocyte components

A. benign neoplasms

Which instrument is used frequently in arthroscopies to examine and manipulate internal structures? A. blunt probe B. powered shaver C. spinal needle D. trocar cannula

A. blunt probe

All of the following are examples of equipment used postoperatively on the patient for pain reduction or stimulation of healing factors EXCEPT: A. body exhaust suit B. CPM machine C. electric stimulator D. TNS unit

A. body exhaust suit

What is the medical term for spongy bone? A. cancellous B. cortical C. cranial D. cuboid

A. cancellous

What tissue does the acetabular reamer remove? A. cartilage B. fascia C. marrow D. periosteum

A. cartilage

Which bone is commonly referred to as the collarbone? A. clavicle B. humerus C. scapula D. sternum

A. clavicle

What is the purpose of the medial and lateral menisci of the knee? A. cushioning B. lubrication C. nutrition D. stability

A. cushioning

In adults, red bone marrow that produces red blood cells is mainly found in which type(s) of bone? A. flat and irregular B. long and short C. sesamoid only D. irregular only

A. flat and irregular

Hallus valgus is a condition in which there is a turning outward from the midline found in the: A. great toe B. wrist C. foot D. hip

A. great toe

Which portion of the femur articulates with the acetabulum? A. head B. neck C. greater trochanter D. lesser trochanter

A. head

A Bankart avulsion lesion involves which anatomical structure(s)? A. labrum (cartilage) B. rotator cuff (muscles) C. bicipital groove (tendon) D. acromioclavicular (bone spur)

A. labrum (cartilage)

Which of the following demonstrates the correct order of steps for femoral canal preparation during total hip arthroplasty? A. reamer, rasp, pulse lavage, implant trial B. rasp, implant trial, pulse lavage, reamer C. pulse lavage, reamer, implant trial, rasp D. implant trial, rasp, reamer, pulse lavage

A. reamer, rasp, pulse lavage, implant trial

Which type of cast is applied often to children and immobilizes unilateral or bilateral hips and femurs? A. spica B. cylinder C. long leg D. short leg

A. spica

Another name for a cerebellar retractor is:

Adson retractor

Condition in which a bulging sac appears on the aorta

Ascending Aortic Aneurysm

Which of the following is a commonly used self-retaining retractor used in total hip arthroplasty procedures? A. Adson-Beckman B. Charnley C. Gelpi D. Weitlaner

B. Charnley

Which medical term means moving a body part away from the midline? A. flexion B. abduction C. adduction D. supination

B. abduction

What is the name of the deep round fossa of the hip joint? A. acromium B. acetabulum C. tuberosity D. trochanter

B. acetabulum

Liston knife, Gigli saw, and Satterlee saw are examples of instruments used for which type of procedure? A. ACL repair B. amputation C. arthroplasty D. arthroscopy

B. amputation

What is polymethyl methycrylate used for in orthopedic procedures? A. antibiotic irrigation B. bone cement C. cast immobilization D. external fixation

B. bone cement

Surgeons may call both Bennett and Hohmann retractors by which other name because of their shapes? A. alligator B. cobra C. duck bill D. rat tooth

B. cobra

Which of the following is an acute, emergent condition of compression of neural and vascular structures, usually occurring in the upper and lower extremities following traumatic fractures? A. avascular necrosis B. compartmental syndrome C. delayed union D. malunion

B. compartmental syndrome

What is the medical term for a bony prominence projecting from a bone, as in a bunion? A. arthrosis B. exostosis C. osteoclast D. varum

B. exostosis

Which joint is an example of a ball-and-socket joint? A. atlantoaxial B. femoroscetabular C. patellofemoral D. temporomandibular

B. femoroscetabular

Which positioning device is frequently used for femoral nailing with leg traction and allows for placement of the C-arm? A. Andrews table B. fracture table C. vacuum beanbag D. Wilson frame

B. fracture table

Which positioning device will be used for ORIF of intertrochanteric femoral fracture? A. Andrews table B. fracture table C. vacuum beanbag D. Wilson frame

B. fracture table

Which condition is commonly known as "bowlegged"? A. coxa valga B. genu varum C. hallus valgus D. tallipes valgus

B. genu varum

Cannulated screws and nails are designed to follow the path created by a: A. depth gauge B. guide pin C. pilot drill D. reamer

B. guide pin

Which agency requires the documentation and tracking of implantable orthopedic devices? A. AAMI B. CDC C. EPA D. FDA

D. FDA

Which of the following diagnostic procedures does NOT use ionizing radiation? A. arthrography B. bone scan C. CT scan D. MRI scan

D. MRI scan

Amputated limbs may be placed in which of the following for transport to pathology? A. C-arm cover B. cassette cover C. impervious stockinette D. Mayo stand cover

D. Mayo stand cover

What is achieved by wrapping an extremity with an Esmarch bandage prior to inflation of pneumatic tourniquet? A. anesthesia B. antisepsis C. extension D. exsanguinations

D. exsanguinations

Which of the following statements regarding generally safe continuous tourniquet inflation time is CORRECT? A. both upper and lower extremity=1 hour B. both upper and lower extremity=1 1/2 hours C. lower extremity=1 hour; upper extremity=1 1/2 hours D. lower extremity=1 1/2 hours; upper extremity=1 hour

D. lower extremity=1 1/2 hours; upper extremity=1 hour

All of the following are indications for total shoulder arthroplasty EXCEPT: A. chronic arthritis pain B. humeral shaft fracture C. osteonecrosis of humeral head D. moderate impingement syndrome

D. moderate impingement syndrome

Which method of reducing a fracture carries the highest potential for surgical site infection? A. percutaneous pinning of simple fracture B. external fixator application for Colles' fracture C. closed with cast application for greenstick fracture D. open reduction, internal fixation for compound comminuted fracture

D. open reduction, internal fixation for compound comminuted fracture

Patients in which age group are MOST commonly candidates for total hip arthroplasty? A. neonates B. school-aged C. ages 30 to 50 D. over 65 years

D. over 65 years

Which hormone stimulates osteoclasts to break down bine and increase reabsorption of calcium when serum levels are low? A. extrogen B. follicle stimulating C. human growth D. parathyroid

D. parathyroid

Which piece of equipment is NOT attached to the arthroscope? A. camera head B. inflow and outflow tubing C. light cord D. powered shaver

D. powered shaver

Which component of an arthroscopy system is specific to orthopedics and differs from most laparoscopy/MIS systems? A. camera unit B. video monitor/screen C. fiber-optic D. powered shaving system

D. powered shaving system

Total knee arthroplasty implant are categorized in all of the following EXCEPT: A. unicompartmental B. bicompartmental C. tricompartmental D. quadcompartmental

D. quadcompartmental

Which of the following pathologies is related to a specific autoimmune process that attacks the joints in the body? A. arthralgia B. derangement C. osteoarthritis D. rheumatoid arthritis

D. rheumatoid arthritis

Carpal and tarsal bones are classified as which type of bone? A. flat B. irregular C. long D. short

D. short

Which of the following means a partial separation or dislocation of a joint without any breaks in the skin? A. complex B. greenstick C. luxation D. subluxation

D. subluxation

The connections between the large bones of the skull are categorized as which type of joint? A. amphiarthrosis B. coxarthrosis C. diarthrosis D. syntharthrosis

D. syntharthrosis

T/F: A Penfield is a grasping instrument.

F

T/F: Arthroscopic procedures require only one small incision through which all the instruments are passed.

F

T/F: Knowledge of the peripheral vascular system is required of the first assistant, but not of the surgical technologist.

F

T/F: Stevens scissors are used to dissect heavy tissue.

F

T/F: There are limited choices of total joint systems available, making standardization routine and uncomplicated.

F

T/F: Video-assisted thoracic surgery procedures use carbon dioxide for distension.

F

T/F: A Martin diamond wire cutter can make a cut 3mm thick.

F (1.25mm)

T/F: Malis mirror-finish forceps are a type of monopolar cautery:

F (bipolar)

T/F: A Dandy hook is used to retract large arteries.

F (nerves)

T/F: Cooley tips have rows of 3x4 teeth.

F (patterned jaws)

Vasodilators, decreases heart rate

Nitroprusside (Nipride) and nitroglycerin

Types of orthopedic reductions:

ORIF, OREF, CREF

Bone tumor

Osteoma

Suppresses arterial vasospasm

Papaverine

Coagulant after patient is off by-pass

Protamine sulfate

Order the Steps of Circulation L ventricle R atrium pulmonary artery pulmonar vein L atrium R ventricle

R atrium R ventricle pulmonary artery pulmonary vein L atrium L ventricle

Allison lung retractor

Retracting/Exposing

T/F: A Cosgrove flex clamp is used during minimally invasive heart surgery.

T

T/F: A Gillies (Dingman) is a bone hook.

T

T/F: A Glover is a type of bulldog clamp.

T

T/F: A Heiss is a skin retractor.

T

T/F: A Satinsky is a clamping instrument.

T

T/F: A Volkmann and Israel are rake retractors:

T

T/F: A Vorse-Webster is used to clamp tubes.

T

T/F: Care must be taken during skin prepping for gangrenous lower extremities prior to amputation to prevent inadvertent dislodging of toes.

T

T/F: Double gloving should be done as a routine in orthopedic cases due to exposure to various sharp instruments and potentially jagged bones.

T

T/F: Glass syringes are preferred in drawing up contrast media for angiography because of less accumulation of bubbles.

T

T/F: Implantable devices made of different alloys can cause breakdown of the device and may cause wound infection.

T

T/F: Lung reduction surgery is performed for patients with emphysema.

T

T/F: Names frequently associated with vascular instrumentation include DeBakey and Cooley, both of whom were cardiothoracic surgeons and pioneers of cardiothoracic and peripheral vascular surgery.

T

T/F: Suture pledgets are used to bolster anastomosis sites when tissue is friable.

T

T/F: The drainage and collection device attached to chest tubes relies on a water seal to reestablish negative pressure in the pleural cavity.

T

T/F: The jaws on a Cushing pituitary rongeur can be straight, angled up, or angled down.

T

T/F: The lumens of veins are larger than the lumens of arteries.

T

T/F: The saphenous vein used for coronary artery grafting must be reversed before anastomosis due to the presence of valves in the vein.

T

T/F: The ventricles of the heart have thicker myocardium than the atria.

T

T/F: A Burford-Finochietto is a retracting instrument.

T (rib retracting)

Which device is used for patients awaiting heart transplant that allows them to be ambulatory and has both internal and external components to the system? a. ventricular assist device b. left ventricular vent c. cardiac pacemaker d. vena cava filter

a. ventricular assist device

Portion of the aorta that runs between level of diaphragm and bifurcation of iliac arteries:

abdominal

30-50% of all cancers:

adenocarcinoma

Inframammary incision over 2nd/3rd intercostal space from anterior midline or sternal border to mid-axillary line:

anterolateral

Specialized receptors in certain epithelial arterial tissue that function to control blood pressure, oxygen, and carbon dioxide concentrations:

aortic bodies

Valve that separates the L ventricle from the aorta:

aortic valve

Fogarty spring clip applier

applying single-use spring clips

A #11 blade and forward angle or reverse angle Potts-Smith scissors are frequently used for: a. arteriotomy b. embolectomy c. skin incisions d. suture cutting

arteriotomy

Joint pain

arthralgia

Joint inflammation

arthritis

Procedure that allows direct visualization of a joint

arthroscopy

Constriction of bronchioles, production of excessive mucous, difficulty breathing:

asthma

Which bone is the largest found in the foot and is commonly called the heel? a. acetabulum b calcaneus c. patella d. talus

b calcaneus

Whart are the operative mortality rates of patients with unruptured AAA scheduled for elective repair? a. 1%-2% b. 2%-3% c. 3%-5% d. 5%-10%

b. 2%-3%

The surgeon asks for a "cobra" retractor. Another name for this is a(n): a. Bennett b. Aufranc c. Hibbs d. Israel

b. Aufranc

The surgeon needs to contract the ribs back together prior to closing the chest. You anticipate this and have a ___ ready. a. Giertz-Stille b. Bailey-Gibbon c. Garrett d. Gerald

b. Bailey-Gibbon

Which instrument is a rib shear? a. Alexander b. Bethune c. Davidson d. Statinsky

b. Bethune

Which diagnostic study is MOST useful for verification of thoracic aortic dissection? a. AP chest x-ray b. CT scan c. MRI scan d. stress test

b. CT scan

During a carotid endarterectomy, the surgeon requests a carotid artery bypass shunt clamp. You hand her a: a. Fogarty b. Javid c. Cooley d. Glover

b. Javid

You hand the surgeon a Hibbs osteotome. the next instrument you need to have ready to hand is: a. Pin Cutter b. Mallet c. Curette d. Pliers

b. Mallet

Which structure is considered the "pacemaker" of the heart? a. AV node b. SA node c. bundle of His d. Purkinje fibers

b. SA node

The surgeon wishes to measure the femoral head. You hand him/her a: a. Hibbs b. Townley c. Molt d. Key

b. Townley

Select all the accessory instruments: a. Putti b. Townley c. Bone tamp d. Heiss e. Cobb bone curettes

b. Townley c. Bone tamp

Which instruments are used for cutting? Select all that apply. a. Glover bulldog b. aortic punch c. Giertz-Shoemaker d. Allison e. Stevens tenotomy

b. aortic punch c. Giertz-Shoemaker e. Stevens tenotomy

Which diagnostic study provides the most detailed information for surgical planning in AAA repair? a. angiogram b. aortogram c. CT scan d. ultrasound

b. aortogram

What is the name of an air filled sac that has the appearance of a blister on the surface of lung tissue? a. alveolar sac b. bleb c. bronchiole d. germ cell

b. bleb

What is another name of the innominate artery? a. aorta b. brachiocephalic c. left subclavian d. left common carotid

b. brachiocephalic

Which vessels are responsible for the exchange of oxygen and metabolic waste? a. arteries b. capillaries c. venules d. veins

b. capillaries

Which of the following will be required upon completion of any procedure in which the pleural cavity has been opened? a. passive wound drain such as a Penrose b. chest tube attached to a Pleur-evac system c. active wound drain such as a Jackson-Pratt d. compression dressing with Ace or tensor bandages

b. chest tube attached to a Pleur-evac system

Which of the following is the hard, dense bone that surrounds the marrow cavity? a. cancellous b. cortical c. cranial d. cuboid

b. cortical

Use of an angioscope larger than the diameter of the vessel being scoped will most likely result in which of the following: a. aneurysm b. dissection c. vasodilation d. vasospasm

b. dissection

Which additional pain control measure is taken for patients undergoing pectus excavatum repair by VATS? a. Bier block b. epidural c. local with epinephrine d. topical lidocaine jelly

b. epidural

Peripheral vessel angioplasty stents may be made of all of the following EXCEPT: a. titanium b. fascia lata c. polypropylene d. stainless steel mesh

b. fascia lata

Which of the following is a long bone that is the largest in the human body? a. cranium b. femur c. ilium d. scapula

b. femur

Which arterial aneurysm is more likely to rupture due to lack of detection over time? a. femoral b. iliac c. popliteal d. radial

b. iliac

Which artery accounts for approximately 50% of occlusive coronary lesions? a. circumflex branch b. left anterior descending c. mammary d. right coronary

b. left anterior descending

A heart murmur is often heart with auscultation and indicative of involvement of which structure? a. aortic valve b. mitral valve c. right ventricle d. left ventricle

b. mitral valve

Which suturing technique maintains the aortic and velour cannulae? a. figure of eight b. purse-string c. horizontal mattress d. vertical mattress

b. purse-string

For which of the following procedures would the rigid bronchoscope be preferred? a. visualization of the upper lobe bronchi b. removal of foreign body in children c. transbronchial lung biopsy d. bronchial washings

b. removal of foreign body in children

A Gemini is what type of a clamp? a. aortic cross clamp b. right angle c. peripheral occlusion d. bulldog

b. right angle

Where are the cannula MOST commonly placed for cardiopulmonary bypass procedures? a. carotid artery and subclavian vein b. right atrium and ascending aorta c. right ventricle and descending aorta d. femoral artery and brachiocephalic vein

b. right atrium and ascending aorta

How many ribs are considered "true" ribs with direct connection to the sternum with costal cartilage? a. three b. seven c. nine d. twelve

b. seven

Javid and argyle are examples of which type of device used in select vascular procedures? a. catheters b. shunts c. guidewires d. peel-away sheaths

b. shunts

Medatronic OCTOPUS and Guidant Ultima OPCAB are what type of devices for coronary artery bypass done off pump? a. retractors b. stabilizers c. cannulae d. grafts

b. stabilizers

How many lobes are there in the right lung? a. two b. three c. four d. five

b. three

Test that provides direct visualization transthoracic needle biopsy of the lung; infection/carcinoma

biopsy and endoscopy

Conical protective portion of the axial skeleton that houses the organs of the chest, thoracic vertebrae:

bony thorax

Abnormally slow electrical impulses and heartbeat below 40 to 60 beats per minute:

bradycardia

Interior of the tracheobronchial tree for sites of ulceration, obstruction, laceration, or bleeding; entails biopsy, culture, removal of foreign bodies:

bronchoscopy

A Sarot would be used to clamp the (aorta/bronchus).

bronchus

Bony protuberance on the medial aspect of the first metatarsal (big toe)

bunion

The correct sequence of steps for an arteriotomy for embolectomy or thrombectomy is: a. #15 blade, Metzenbaum scissors, Yankauer suction, insertion of Fogarty catheter b. #10 blade, Metzenbaum scissors, insertion of Fogarty catheter c. #11 blade, Potts-Smith scissors, small bore suction, insertion of Fogarty catheter d. #12 blade, 14g angiocath insertion, removal of stylet, insertion of Fogarty catheter

c. #11 blade, Potts-Smith scissors, small bore suction, insertion of Fogarty catheter

How far beyond the atherosclerotic lesion should a balloon in angioplasty reach? a. 1-2mm b. 3-5mm c. 1-2cm d. 3-5cm

c. 1-2cm

What is the average lifespan of biologic and mechanical heart valve replacements? a. 1-5 years b. 5-10 years c. 10-15 years d. indefinite

c. 10-15 years

Potts scissors tips can be angled at all of the following degrees EXCEPT: a. 25 b. 45 c. 50 d. 60

c. 50

The CABG surgery is almost complete. The surgeon is ready to place the stainless-steel sutures in the sternum. You would use a ___ needle holder to pass wire sutures. a. DeBakey b. coronary c. Barry d. Castroviejo

c. Barry

A type of self-retaining retractor with hinged arms is a: a. Weitlaner b. Cerebellar c. Beckmann d. Farabeuf

c. Beckmann

All of the following are handheld (manual) retractors EXCEPT: a. Hohmann b. Blount c. Beckmann d. Israel

c. Beckmann

The instrument used to create a pilot hole for femoral reaming is a: a. Senn b. Lambotte c. Box osteotome d. Brun

c. Box osteotome

Which instrument has the appearance of a misshapen pancake spatula? a. Allison lung retractor b. Bailey rib contractor c. Davidson scapula retractor d. Lovelace lung grasping forceps

c. Davidson scapula retractor

What is a commonly used rib self retain retractor available in adult and pediatric sizes? a. Balfour b. Bookwalter c. Finochietto d. Greenburg

c. Finochietto

What is the name of the frequently used balloon embolectomy catheter? a. Robinson b. Groshong c. Fogarty d. Foley

c. Fogarty

During vascular surgery, the surgeon needs to dilate a blood vessel. You would have the ___ dilators ready. a. Crane b. Cogswell c. Garrett d. Javid

c. Garrett

Which vascular device is double-lumened for for administration of chemotherapy, antibiotic therapy, and IV fluids? a. Argyle b. Fogarty c. Groshong d. Javid

c. Groshong

Which instrument is a lung-grasping forceps that resembles a very large Pennington? a. Doyen b. Duckbill c. Lovelace d. Langenbeck

c. Lovelace

Which instruments are used for clamping? a. Cushing pituitary b. Aufranc c. Lowman d. Parkes e. Heiss

c. Lowman (bone clamp)

All of the following are rongeurs EXCEPT: a. Ruskin b. Stille-Horsley c. Molt d. Leksell

c. Molt

A Stevens scissors is also known as a: a. Mayo b. Metzenbaum c. Tenotomy d. Strully

c. Tenotomy

A newly diagnosed patient in need of vascular access long-term hemodialysis would undergo which procedure? a. embolectomy b. endarterectomy c. arteriovenous fistula and shunt d. inferior vena cava filter placement

c. arteriovenous fistula and shunt

Transient cerebral ischemic episodes are treated surgically by: a. angioplasty b. atriovenous fistula and shunt c. carotid endarterectomy d. coronary artery bypass

c. carotid endarterectomy

What is the name of the condition that manifests by deep aching pain in the lower extremity during rest periods? a. capitation b. coarctation c. claudication d. contraction

c. claudication

All of the following are components of the "heart lung" machine except: a. pump b. oxygenator c. defibrillator d. heat exchanger

c. defibrillator

The name of the condition created when pus is not cleared from the pleural cavity and makes a fibrous constrictive layer is: a. COPD b. pleurisy c. empyema d. pneumonia

c. empyema

Where is the area of active bone growth? a. cortex b. diaphysis c. epiphyseal plate d. medullary canal

c. epiphyseal plate

Where is the balloon dilator inserted percutaneously in coronary artery angioplasty? a. radial artery b. carotid artery c. femoral artery d. subclavian artery

c. femoral artery

With what is the median sternotomy closed? a. fine gauge polypropylene b. fine gauge surgical silk c. heavy gauge stainless steel wire d. heavy gauge chromic gut

c. heavy gauge stainless steel wire

What is the medical term for coughing up blood? a. asthma b. bronchitis c. hemoptysis d. pneumonitis

c. hemoptysis

What is the medical term for visible changes in density on chest x-ray that indicates pulmonary pathology? a. hemoptysis b. hilum c. infiltrate d. inspiration

c. infiltrate

Which of the following is the main underlying pathological cause of coronary atherosclerosis? a. age b. diet c. ischemia d. hypertension

c. ischemia

Which statement regarding the anatomical placement of the heart is correct? a. it is positioned exactly midline in the thoracic cavity b. it is positioned in the thoracic cavity with nearly its entirety on the left side c. it is positioned in the mediastinum with approximately 2/3 of the heart on the left side d. it is positioned in the mediastinum with approximately 2/3 of the heart on the right side

c. it is positioned in the mediastinum with approximately 2/3 of the heart on the left side

Which structure within the respiratory tract is the proximal and superior? a. bronchus b. diaphragm c. larynx d. trachea

c. larynx

Which portion of the heart is responsible for pumping blood into the ascending aorta? a. left atrium b. right atrium c. left ventricle d. right ventricle

c. left ventricle

What is the first step in the formation of an atheroma? a. accumulation of cholesterol and lipids b. collagen deposition and scar tissue formation c. growth of new smooth muscle tissue d. injury to endothelial lining

d. injury to endothelial lining

What is the name of the procedure performed to release constriction of the lungs by fibrin layers? a. pectus excavatum b. upper lobectomy c. pneumonectomy d. lung decortication

d. lung decortication

The force and rate of contraction of the heart is controlled by which part of the central nervous system? a. phrenic nerve b. vagus nerve c. Purkinje fibers d. medulla oblongata

d. medulla oblongata

What is the name of the acute condition in which heart muscle dies from ischemia and may lead to sudden cardiac death? a. heart block b. atherosclerosis c. cardiac tamponade d. myocardial infarction

d. myocardial infarction

Which surgical approach is used for repair of coarctation of the aorta and patent ductus arteriosus? a. supine b. prone c. frog-legged d. posterolateral

d. posterolateral

Which type of incision is made for a pneumonectomy? a. Chevron b. McBurney c. epigastric d. posterolateral

d. posterolateral

Which of the following thoracic procedures would require the patient to be put on cardiopulmonary bypass? a. pneumonectomy b. upper lobectomy c. decortication of the lung d. pulmonary thromboendarterectomy

d. pulmonary thromboendarterectomy

Into which vessel is a double-lumen Groshong catheter routinely inserted? a. right carotid artery b. right femoral artery c. right jugular vein d. right subclavian vein

d. right subclavian vein

Which chamber of the heart is responsible for pumping blood into the pulmonary artery? a. left atrium b. right atrium c. left ventricle d. right ventricle

d. right ventricle

Which of the following regarding blood flow is correct? a. right atrium, pulmonary vein, lungs, pulmonary artery, left ventricle b. right ventricle, pulmonary vein, lungs, pulmonary artery, left atrium c. right atrium, pulmonary artery, lungs, pulmonary vein, left ventricle d. right ventricle, pulmonary artery, lungs, pulmonary vein, left atrium

d. right ventricle, pulmonary artery, lungs, pulmonary vein, left atrium

Which of the following would be the suture technique and type used to anastomose a bifurcated graft limb to an artery? a. interrupted 5-0 or 6-0 nonabsorbable suture b. running 5-0 or 6-0 absorbable suture c. interrupted 5-0 or 6-0 absorbable suture d. running 5-0 or 6-0 nonabsorbable suture

d. running 5-0 or 6-0 nonabsorbable suture

Which of the following is the BEST choice for distal bypass graft in the lower extremity? a. Dacron b. Gore-Tex c. PTFE d. saphenous vein

d. saphenous vein

What type of bone is the patella? a. flat b. irregular c. long d. sesamoid

d. sesamoid

The apex of the lung is located: a. inferiorly and laterally b. medially where the bronchus enters c. medially just above the diaphragm d. superiorly and just above the clavicle

d. superiorly and just above the clavicle

Which congenital defect has four components and is characterized by cyanosis causing appearance of "blue babies"? a. coarctation of the aorta b. patent ductus arteriosus c. ventricular septal defect d. tetralogy of Fallot

d. tetralogy of Fallot

Which of the following tunica is NOT part of the structure of an artery? a. adventitia b. media c. intima d. vaginalis

d. vaginalis (testes)

Which of the following is found only in veins? a. tunica adventitia b. tunica intima c. tunica media d. valves

d. valves

Dermal atrophy, hemorrhage, ulceration, and cellulitis are complications of: a. abdominal aorta aneurysm b. carotid stenosis c. pulmonary embolus d. varicose veins

d. varicose veins

What is the configuration of the saphenous vein when stripped from the leg? a. cut into small sections and left in situ b. only the intimal layer removed c. valves only dissected and vein left in situ d. vein avulsed and turned completely inside out

d. vein avulsed and turned completely inside out

Which membrane covers the surface of the lungs? a. ciliated mucosa b. pericardium c. parietal pleura d. visceral pleura

d. visceral pleura

Accessory orthopedic instrument used for measuring the depth of drill holes:

depth gauge

Dome-shaped organ that separates the thoracic area from the abdominal area (where hiatal hernias can develop):

diaphragm

Garretts are used to ___ the blood vessel.

dilate

Types of injuries to joints of bones

dislocation, trauma

Test that is useful in identifying embolism, pulmonary edema, and COPD:

lung scans

Injury sustained with no break in the skin

luxation

Incision that goes the length of sternum from gladiolas to xiphoid process (thymectomy):

median sternotomy

Carcinoma of lung by insertion of scope through incision above the breastbone to view organs of the mediastinum:

mediastinoscopy

The space between the lungs directly inferior to the bronchi that houses the esophagus, the thymus gland, heart, and pericardium:

mediastinum

Valve that separates the L atrium from the L ventricle:

mitral valve

Which heart valve is also known as the bicuspid valve? a. aortic b. mitral c. pulmonary d. tricuspid

mitral valve

Positioning for anterolateral thoracotomy, tracheostomy, most endoscopies; provides access to oropharynx, trachea, bronchus, anterior mediastinum

modified supine

Which one is reversible: myocardial ischemia myocardial infarction

myocardial ischemia

Test that aids in the diagnosis of pleural effusion:

needle biopsy of parietal pleura

Fogarty hydragrip clamp

occlusion of arteries

A normal effect of aging, treated with NSAIDs and aspirin; detected using skeletal x-ray:

osteoarthritis

Bone and cartilage inflammation

osteochondritis

Congenital condition of the bones

osteogenesis imperfecta

Bone softening, loss of bone matrix calcification

osteomalacia

Lines the chest wall:

parietal pleura

Condition in which a portion of oxygenated blood from the left heart to flow back to the lungs by flowing from the aorta due to a failure of closure of the ductus arteriosus

patent ductus arteriosus

The function accomplished by the cardiopulmonary bypass machine:

perfusion

Types of lung scans:

perfusion ventilation

Sac that surrounds the heart and is part of the bronchial tree; contains the heart, pulmonary and bronchial vessels, lymphatics, and nerves:

pericardial cavity

Key and Cobb are types of ___ elevators:

periosteal

Substance that covers the outside of the bone:

periosteum

Special patient factors to consider for thoracic procedures:

persistent cough shortness of breath hemoptysis pleural effusion pain difficulty breathing -> anxiety, panic lung cancer -> fear, mistrust hypoxia -> fluid volume excesses or significant impaired functioning either respiratory or pulmonary

Patient consideration undergoing amputation:

phantom limb syndrome: may experience pain, discomfort in missing limb

What additional instruments would be required for a patient undergoing ORIF?

plates, screws, pins, drill, antibiotic irrigation

What is the name and purpose of the white bolsters used on the sutures?

pledgets - reinforce suture line

The large space within the bony thorax that is subdivided into 2 cavities with the mediastinal space between:

pleural cavities

Abnormal accumulation of fluid within the intrapleural space of the lungs (trauma, or lesions)

pleural effusion

Between pleura and ribs

pleural space

Collection of air or gas in the pleural space that forces the lung to collapse *chest wound, rupture on lung's surface, or severe bout of coughing

pneumothorax

Incision over the rib/intercostal space; *most common thoracic incision; lung esophagus, posterior mediastinum, lobectomy, pneumonectomy:

posterolateral

Positioning for thoracotomy:

posterolateral (gives access to AP lung surfaces)

What was the purpose of Papavarine being used?

prevents vasospasms

What was the purpose of the heart lung machine?

provides oxygen to the blood to be circulated

Blood flow between lungs and heart:

pulmonary circulation

Fluid accumulation in the alveoli and lung tissues, most often caused by congestive heart failure:

pulmonary edema

Measures lung ventilation volume:

pulmonary function tests

Valve that separates the R ventricle from the pulmonary artery:

pulmonary valve

A Semb is a type of ___.

raspatory

Parkes and Putti are types of (rasps/rongeurs).

rasps

A Tuffier is a (cutting/retracting) instrument.

retracting

Autoimmune disease involving the joints

rheumatoid arthritis

A Bailey-Gibbon is used to contract the ___.

ribs

The 2 upper chambers of the heart:

right and left atrium

Arteries of the heart:

right and left pulmonary artery coronary artery

The right lung lobes are:

right apex, right middle, right lower

Which bronchus is shorter and more vertical?

right bronchus

Which lung has 3 lobes, is larger, heavier, with shorter apex at the anterior and posterior aspects:

right lung

Nodes just above the clavicle; diagnosis bronchial carcinomas or other neoplasms such as esophageal and interabdominal malignancies

scalene/supraclavicular lymph node biopsy

A Lawrie is a type of ___.

scissors

Strully is a type of (scissors/pliers).

scissors

15-35% of all cancers:

small cell lung cancer

Diagnostic procedure that assists with diagnosing infections and pathogens:

spectrum culture analysis

Types of anesthesia regional blocks used in orthopedic surgery:

spinal, epidural, peripheral

20-35% of all cancers:

squamous cell carcinoma

Incision into the middle of the sternum:

sternotomy

Consists of a manubrium, gladiolus, and xiphoid process:

sternum

Injury that is commonly seen in the knee with no break in the skin

subluxation