ST Fall 2020 Exam 3 Study Guide
Surgical repair for recurrent anterior shoulder dislocation include all of the following EXCEPT: A. Bankart B. Bristow C. Colles' D. Putti-Platt
C. Colles'
What should the surgical technologist do while the surgeon is using the oscillating saw during open acromioplasty? A. Blot any bleeding bone surfaces carefully with sponge stick B. Collect bone chips in would carefully with cupped tissue forceps C. Drip small amounts of irrigation onto blade to prevent overheating D. Suction smoke from operative site created by heated tissues
C. Drip small amounts of irrigation onto blade to prevent overheating
Which orthopedic instrument has the appearance of a turkey foot or eagle's talon? A. beaver knife handle B. Bennett retractor C. Lowman bone holder D. Lambotte osteotome
C. Lowman bone holder
Which medium is frequently used in arthroscopies where the ESU may be used for hemostasis? A. carbon dioxide B. lactated Ringer's C. nitrous oxide D. normal saline
B. lactated Ringer's
Rush, Ender, Russell-Taylor, Trigen, and Kuntscher are examples of flexible, standard, or titanium femoral: A. rods B. nails C. plates D. screws
B. nails
In which anatomical structure is the patella contained? A. anterior cruciate ligament B. patellar tendon C. posterior cruciate ligament D. quadriceps tendon
B. patellar tendon
Which type of suture would be contraindicated for attaching tendon to bone? A. nylon (Nurolon) B. polyglactin 910 (Vicryl) C. polyester (Ethibond) D. stainless steel
B. polyglactin 910 (Vicryl)
All of the following are examples of devices used to anchor both ends of the ACL graft EXCEPT: A. bone screws with spiked washers B. bioabsorbable screws C. Steinman pins D. staples
C. Steinman pins
Aken, Chevron, McKeever, Keller, and McBride are techniques for which lower extremity procedure? A. above knee amputation (AKA) B. below knee amputation (BKA) C. bunionectomy D. triple arthrodesis
C. bunionectomy
In which stage of normal bone healing is there bridging of the fracture site, and cartilage and immature bone provide support? A. inflammation B. cellular proliferation C. callus formation D. remodeling
C. callus formation
The elbow is categorized as which type of joint? A. amphiarthrosis B. coxarthrosis C. diarthrosis D. synarthrosis
C. diarthrosis (hinge)
A common system of instrumentation for open reduction of hip fractures is DHS, which stands for: A. dislocated hip surgery B. definitive hip support C. dynamic hip screw D. derotational hip stabilizer
C. dynamic hip screw
What is a common surgical approach for Colles' fracture? A. arthroscopy B. carpal tunnel syndrome C. external fixation D. open reduction internal fixation
C. external fixation
Which of the following is NOT a bone of the pelvis? A. ilium B. pubis C. femur D. ischium
C. femur
How many stages are involved in normal osteogenesis? A. two B. three C. five D. eight
C. five
The term C-arm refers to a(n): A. casting technique B. extremity deformity C. fluoroscopic machine D. OR table positioning device
C. fluoroscopic machine
Which of the following joints has the greatest range of motion? A. acromioclavicular B. coracoclavicular C. glenohumeral D. sternoclavicular
C. glenohumeral
Which type of fracture is considered as partial and may result from activities such as jumping or jogging? A. avulsion B. comminuted C. greenstick D. oblique
C. greenstick
Which of the following factors related to bone growth and maintenance is responsible for mineral storage and utilization? A. exercise B. heredity C. hormonal D. nutrition
C. hormonal
Which instrument is used to remove marrow from the canal of long bones for placement of prostheses? A. Brun curette B. Gigli saw C. intramedullary reamer D. suction brush attachment
C. intramedullary reamer
Which bones is involved in a Colles' fracture? A. ulna B. radius C. scapula D. humerus
B. radius
The infraspinatus, teres minor, subscapularis, and supraspinatus muscles collectively comprise the: A. pelvic girdle B. rotator cuff C. sternal notch D. thoracic cage
B. rotator cuff
A (Weitlaner/Beckmann) has hinged arms.
Beckmann
What is the term for small, loose bodies in the knee that are constant irritants and may cause excess synovial production, pain, and locking up? A. ganglion cysts B. genuvarum C. joint mice D. bunions
C. joint mice
In what joint would a bucket handle tear be found? A. ankle B. hip C. knee D. wrist
C. knee
What should the surgical technologist have ready to clean bone or tissue from a rongeur? A. antibiotic irrigation B. Freer elevator C. lap sponges D. pulse lavage
C. lap sponges
Whose instructions for cleaning, lubricating, and sterilizing powered orthopedic instrumentation must be followed? A. AAMI B. facility policies C. manufacturer D. OSHA
C. manufacturer
What is the term for softening of bone in children that is commonly called rickets? A. osteoarthritis B. osteochondrosis C. osteomalacia D. osteomyelitis
C. osteomalacia
What is the outside covering of bones that provides some nourishment and protection from infection? A. articular cartilage B. enosteum C. periosteum D. synovial membrane
C. periosteum
The proximal end of the radius and C1 on C2 vertebrae are examples of which type of diarthrosis? A. gliding B. hinge C. pivot D. saddle
C. pivot
The action of pointing and putting a toe in the water to check the temperature would be an example of which movement? A. circumduction B. eversion C. plantar flexion D. supination
C. plantar flexion
The acromion process involved in the acromioclavicular joint is part of which of the following bones? A. clavicle B. humerus C. scapula D. sternum
C. scapula
Axillary nerve injury or detachment of the deltoid from the acromion are: A. indications for Bankart repair B. normal outcomes of total shoulder repair C. serious post-op complications of open acromioplasty D. treated conservatively with steroids and physical therapy
C. serious post-op complications of open acromioplasty
Which additional PPE is frequently worn by sterile team members during total joint procedures to prevent possible SSI? A. impervious apron under gown B. additional sterile sleeves C. space suit or body exhaust suits D. high-efficiency particulate air masks
C. space suit or body exhaust suits
Which device is sometimes used for achieving and maintaining the lateral position? A. Andrews table B. beach chair positioner C. vacuum beanbag D. Wilson frame
C. vacuum beanbag
Pre-op testing for thoracic procedures:
CBC Chem UA
Progressive, irreversible condition, results in diminished capacity of the lungs:
COPD (Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease)
Types of diagnostic imaging for thoracic conditions:
CT, Fluoroscopy, MRI, PET, pulmonary angiography, X-rays (posterior/anterior), lateral projections
May or may not be used to increase contractility of the heart following removal of the patient from cardiopulmonary bypass.
Calcium chloride
Where is the apex of the heart located within the mediastinum? a. superiorly on the right side b. inferiorly on the right side c. superiorly on the left side d. inferiorly on the left side
d. inferiorly on the left side
What is the name of a small protuberance of a bone that is an attachment point for muscles or tendons? A. condyle B. groove C. fossa D. tubercle
D. tubercle
Medications that induce cardiac arrest and modifies cardiac muscle contractility. Consists of calcium channel blockers; vasoconstrictors, increase heart rate
Dopamine, Dobutamine, Epinephrine
Identify the instruments used for dissecting: a. Townly b. Lowman c. Parkes d. Aufranc e. Penfield #4
e. Penfield #4
Non-invasive study used to diagnose mitral valve stenosis or other valvular disorders:
echocardiography
Percentage of blood volume pumped out of the heart into the systemic circulation; indicator of ventricular function:
ejection fraction
Match: Glover bulldog. Clamping Giertz-Shoemaker. Grasping Allison Cutting Mills/Dennis forceps Retracting Heparin needle Accessory
Glover bulldog=clamping Giertz-Shoemaker=cutting Allison=retracting Mills/Dennis forceps=grasping Heaprin needle=accessory
Anticoagulant used to prevent development of blood clot while on cardiopulmonary bypass:
Heparin
Name the three coronary arteries that were being bypassed and the vessels that were grafted to them in the CABG video.
L anterior descending coronary artery=L inframammary artery R coronary artery=R inframammary artery Circumflex=Saphenous
Rongeur used for cutting off bites of bone:
Leksell rongeur
Medication most often used in surgery as a local anesthetic that prevents ventricular fibrillation:
Lidocaine
Allows direct visualization through a small incision in the chest wall of the organs of the chest; diagnoses carcinoma/pulmonary infections:
VAT - video assisted thoracoscopy
Monitoring procedure that records electrical activity of the heart:
electrocardiograph
Permanent enlargement of the alveoli and alveolar ducts, destruction of alveolar walls; may lead to formation of blebs or bullae:
emphysema
Pre-operative testing for orthopedic surgery:
erythrocyte sedimentation rate, human leukocyte antigen
Which suture is frequently used for anastomosis of the saphenous vein or internal mammary artery in CABG? a. 6-0 or 7-0 polypropylene b. 2-0 or 3-0 polyester c. 6-0 or 7-0 polyglactin d. 2-0 or 3-0 poliglecaprone
a. 6-0 or 7-0 polypropylene
The surgeon asks for a lung retractor. You would hand him a: a. Allison b. Davidson c. Duval d. DeBakey
a. Allison
Which instruments are retracting instruments? a. Allison b. Stevens tenotomy c. Heparin needle d. Carpentier e. DeBakey sidewinder
a. Allison d. Carpentier
Which of the following is NOT a raspatory? a. Bailey b. Doyen c. Semb d. Matson
a. Bailey
Dawson-Yuhl bone currettes are more commonly known as: a. Cobb b. Brun c. Hibbs d. Lambotte
a. Cobb
What is frequently used to repair atrial and ventricular septal defects in pediatric patients? a. Dacron patch b. porcine valve c. fascia lata d. fibrin glue
a. Dacron patch
Replaceable jaw inserts are used on which clamp? a. Fogarty b. DeBakey c. Satinsky d. Javid
a. Fogarty
During a thoracotomy, the surgeon needs to remove a rib. Which instrument would be used to cut the rib? a. Giertz-Shoemaker b. Doyen c. Alexander-Farabeuf d. Matson
a. Giertz-Shoemaker
Select the clamping instruments. a. Glover bulldog b. DeBakey sidewinder c. Spencer coronary needle holder d. Collins forceps e. Mills/Dennis forceps
a. Glover bulldog b. DeBakey sidewinder
A small, self-retaining skin retractor used in hand surgery is a: a. Heiss b. Beckmann c. Senn d. Ragnell
a. Heiss
Which instruments are used for retracting? a. Heiss b. Stille-Horsley c. Aufranc d. bone tamp e. Lowman (bone holding clamp)
a. Heiss c. Aufranc
You are scrubbed on a shoulder surgery. The surgeon asks for a rasp to smooth the bone. You would hand him a: a. Putti b. Penfield c. Molt d. Bennet
a. Putti
Select all instruments that are used for cutting: a. Putti (cutting) b. Stille-Horsley (cutting) c. Parkes (cutting) d. Heiss (retractor) e. Aufranc (retractor) f. Cushing pituitary (cutting) g. Cobb bone curettes (cutting) h. Penfield #4 (cutting)
a. Putti (cutting) b. Stille Horsley (cutting) c. Parkes (cutting) f. Cushing pituitary (cutting) g. Cobb bone curettes (cutting) h. Penfield #4 (cutting)
You are scrubbed on a lung lobectomy. You know this surgeon uses a bronchus clamp with teeth. You have a ___ clamp ready to hand to him. a. Sarot b. Allison c. Glover d. Collin
a. Sarot
What are the prep borders for a unliateral vein stripping procedure? a. Toes to groin circumferentially b. Ankle to knee circumferentially c. Knee to groin circumferentially d. Ankle to mid-thigh circumferentially
a. Toes to groin circumferentially
Prior to closure of a lobectomy procedure, the anesthesia provider performs a Valsava maneuver to check for: a. air leakage from bronchial closure b. bleeding from the dissection bed c. functionality of the diaphragm d. perfusion of the unaffected lobes
a. air leakage from bronchial closure
In which part of the respiratory system does the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide take place? a. alveoli b. bronchi c. bronchioles d. pulmonary vein
a. alveoli
Which of the following are the final branchings of the respiratory tree? a. alveoli b. bronchi c. bronchioles d. lobes of the lung
a. alveoli
Which diagnostic study is considered the gold standard for evaluation of vascular disease? a. angiography b. CT scan c. radiography d. PET scan
a. angiography
Which is the largest artery in the body? a. aorta b. carotid c. renal d. subclavian
a. aorta
Which instrument is used to make a small opening into the ascending aorta after the stinky partial occlusion clamp is placed? a. aortic punch b. Potts-Smith scissors c. #11 blade d. 5mm trocar
a. aortic punch
The coronary arteries originate from the: a. ascending aorta b. descending aorta c. pulmonary artery d. subclavian artery
a. ascending aorta
What is the term for a collapsed lung? a. atelectasis b. decortication c. emphysema d. pneumonitis
a. atelectasis
Balloon angioplasty performed in the cardiac catheterization lab is used to treat: a. atherosclerotic thickening b. stenotic dissection c. venous insufficiency d. valvular regurgitation
a. atherosclerotic thickening
Whar are the serrations of DeBakey and Cooley vascular instruments considered to be? a. atraumatic b. traumatic c. smooth d. toothed
a. atraumatic
Arteries that become the femoral arteries as they exit the pelvis:
external iliac
Stevens scissors are used to dissect (fine/large) blood vessels or tissue.
fine
How far should the skin prep go for orthopedic surgery?
from one joint above to one joint below the operative site
Deformity of the legs in which the knees are positioned close together
genu valgum
Deformity of the legs in which the knees are bowed
genu varum
A Rosano is a (grasping/clamping) instrument.
grasping
Fracture line through the bone, partial fracture
greenstick
Turning of the great toe outward away from the midline
hallux valgus
Turning of the great toe inward away from the midline
hallux varus
Condition of the toes that is congenital or induced by trauma
hammer toe, claw toe, mallet toe
Hollow, muscular organ:
heart
Electrical conduction disorder requiring a permanent pacemaker:
heart block
What are the two purposes of cardioplegia?
heart stops beating slows bloodflow/stops bloodflow reduces metabolic needs of the heart
Blood accumulation within the pleura cavity:
hemothorax
What are the 4 reasons patients develop cardiac disease?
high fat, high cholesterol diet lack of exercise smoking congenital
Javid carotid graft clamp
holding temporary bypass graft in place
Which of the following is the longest bone in the upper extremity? A. femur B. humerus C. radius D. ulna
humerus
What type of cartilage is the trachea made of?
hyaline cartilage
Unpaired artery arising anteriorly from aorta just above the bifurcation; supplies lower abdominal organs:
inferior mesenteric
Vein that carries blood form the lower part of the body:
inferior vena cava
A left ventricular assist device the surgeon inserts into the descending thoracic aorta, just below the subclavian artery, via the femoral artery:
insertion of an intra-aortic balloon pump (IABP)
Insertion of endocardial lead into the subclavian, cephalic, or internal or external jugular vein advancing into the superior vena cava, into the right atrium, through the tricuspid valve, and then into the right ventricle:
insertion of transvenous pacemaker
What is the difference between ischemia and infarction?
ischemia is reversible, infarction is permanent
A Blount retractor is used mainly in (hip/knee) surgery.
knee
Fluid accumulation around vocal chords from infection, injury, or inhalation of toxic gas:
laryngeal edema
Patient positioning for thoracic procedures:
lateral
Following lung transplantation, the surgeon will perform which procedure to aspirate secretions and check for leaks? a. bronchoscopy b. laryngoscopy c. mediastinoscopy d. video-assisted thoracoscopy
a. bronchoscopy
In which procedure would an incision NOT be required for insertion of the endoscope? a. bronchoscopy b. mediastinoscopy c. pectus excavatum via VATS d. video-assisted thoracic surgery
a. bronchoscopy
What is the name of a nonpathological small sac that contains synovial fluid? a. bursa b. canaliculi c. ganglion d. osteocytes
a. bursa
Which mineral is stored in the bones and constantly being removed to maintain necessary blood levels? a. calcium b. iron c. magnesium d. zinc
a. calcium
Which diagnostic method provides the MOST extensive details regarding valvular disorders? a. cardiac catheterization b. CT scanning c. electomyography d. MRI scanning
a. cardiac catheterization
What is the term for a localized stricture of the aorta found in a pediatric patient? a. coarctation b. stenosis c. prolapsed d. arteriosis
a. coarctation
What is the name of the condition that involves plaque or clots escaping from the femoral or iliac veins? a. deep vein thrombosis b. carotid stenosis c. atherosclerosis d. claudication
a. deep vein thrombosis
Lung tissue has what kind of consistency? a. friable b. slimy c. calcified d. elastic
a. friable
The main bronchi, pulmonary arteries, veins, and lymphatic vessels enter the lung on the medial surface through the: a. hilum b. trachea c. diaphragm d. mediastinum
a. hilum
Which of the following is commonly used method of preserving the heart by reducing its metabolic needs? a. hypothermia b. lung deflation c. left ventricular venting d. warming with heat exchanger
a. hypothermia
Arteries that supply blood to the lungs for oxygenation (carry deoxygenated blood)
left and right pulmonary arteries
Veins that carries oxygenated blood back to the heart from the lungs into the L atrium:
left and right pulmonary veins
The 2 lower chambers of the heart:
left and right ventricles
Which bronchus is longer, more horizontal?
left bronchus
Artery that seves the head and neck and arises directly fro the aortic arch:
left common carotid
Which lung has 2 lobes with a cardiac notch on the upper lobe?
left lung
The left lung lobes are:
left upper, left lower
Connective tissue that connects bone to bone.
ligament
Bone death and destruction caused by trauma or disease that obstructs the blood supply
osteonecrosis
A Lambotte is a type of:
osteotome
What is fibrillation and how is it corrected?
out of sync heartbeat; corrected by shock
A Ragnell is used for (superficial/deep) wound exposure.
superficial
Unpaired artery arising anteriorly from aorta just below celiac trunk; supplies upper abdominal organs:
superior mesenteric
Vein that carries blood from upper part of the body:
superior vena cava
Veins of the heart:
superior vena cava inferior vena cava left and right pulmonary veins
Positioning for median sternotomy; provides access to anterior lung surface and mediastinal structures; arms on armboards:
supine
Which position would be required for a CABG procedure?
supine and slightly frog legged
Blood flow to the rest of the body through aorta along vessels to extremities:
systemic circulation
A heart rate that exceeds 100 beats per minute:
tachycardia
Feet turning away from the midline
talipes valgus
Feet turning into the midline
talipes varus
Connective tissue that connects muscle to bone.
tendon
Portion of the aorta that descends but is above the diaphragm:
thoracic
Incision from the axilla to abdominal midline; of the lower esophagus, upper abdomen, retroperitoneal, lower thoracic cavity:
thoracoabdominal
Incision into the chest and abdomen:
thoracoabdominal
Incision into the thorax:
thoracotomy
Valve that separates the R atrium and the R ventricle:
tricuspid valve
Test that detects the presence of active/dormant tuberculin bacteria:
tuberculin skin tests
4.5-15% of all cancers:
undifferentiated carcinoma
Doyen rib raspatory
used for cutting costal tissue
Membranous folds that function to allow blood to flow in only one direction preventing backflow within the heart:
valves
Membranous folds that function to allow blood to flow in only one direction preventing backflow within the veins:
valves
Narrowing of valve orifice:
valvular stenosis
Tiny vessels that nourish the cells of arterial walls:
vasa vasorum
Atraumatic instrument designed to gently occulde blood flow without causing permanent damage:
vascular clamp
The largest vein in the body; runs alongside the aorta:
vena cava
Removal of aneurysm and replacement with prosthetic graft:
ventricular aneurysm
Chaotic and disorganized stimulation of the ventricle, making it unable to effectively pump blood:
ventricular fibrillation
Condition in which deoxygenated blood mixes with oxygenated blood:
ventricular septal defect VSD
Autogenous excision of vessel for use in cardiac procedure; vessels commonly used are the saphenous vein and internal mammary artery:
vessel harvesting
Covers the lung exterior, fills the fissures between the lobes:
visceral pleura
A Barry is used to hold ___ sternal sutures.
wire
What is the name of the device used for patients who are unable to be weaned off of cardiopulmonary bypass? a. intra-aortic balloon pump b. left ventricular vent c. cardiac pacemaker d. vena cava filter
a. intra-aortic balloon pump
What are urokinase and streptokinase used for in vascular pathology? a. lysis of embolus b. vasoconstriction c. vasodilation d. hemostasis
a. lysis of embolus
Commissurotomy is a surgical separation of the flaps of the: a. mitral valve b. left ventricle c. pulmonary valve d. right atrium
a. mitral valve
Aortic valve stenosis and aortic regurgitation are often a result of: a. rheumatic fever b. tuberculosis c. heart block d. angina
a. rheumatic fever
Where is the insertion point for the mediastinoscope? a. suprasternal notch b. oropharynx c. subxiphoid d. umbilicus
a. suprasternal notch
Which of the following are used on tips of hemostats to prevent breaking of fine gauge monofilament suture when tagged? a. suture boots b. hemoclips c. peel-away sheaths d. vessel loops
a. suture boots
Thymomas, neurogenic tumors, and pleuropericardial cysts can be biopsied during which procedure? a. bronchoscopy b. laryngoscopy c. mediastinoscopy d. thoracoscopy
c. mediastinoscopy
What is the thickest part of the heart? a. epicardium b. endocardium c. myocardium d. pericardium
c. myocardium
What is a serious bone infection that may result fro a compound fracture and become chronic later? a. osteoarthritis b. osteoclasts c. osteomyelitis d. osteophytes
c. osteomyelitis
Which singular congenital defect involves failure of closure of the connection between the pulmonary artery and aorta? a. atrial septal defect b. ventriculo septal defect c. patent ductus arteriosus d. tetralogy of Fallot
c. patent ductus arteriosus
Which nerve could be damaged during lung decortication resulting in paralysis or partial paralysis of the diaphragm? a. accessory b. hypoglossal c. phrenic d. vagus
c. phrenic
The atheromatous core removed from the carotid artery during endarterectomy is more commonly known as: a. adventitia b. marrow c. plaque d. thrombus
c. plaque
What is the name of the area between the visceral and parietal pleura that contains serous fluid to prevent friction? a. hilum b. mediastinum c. pleural space d. pericardial window
c. pleural space
Where is the Swanz-Ganz catheter placed? a. ascending aorta b. coronary artery c. pulmonary artery d. vena cava
c. pulmonary artery
If a DVT from deep veins of the legs enters the cardiopulmonary system, what life-threatening condition will likely occur? a. aortic dissection b. cardiac tamponade c. pulmonary embolus d. myocardial infarction
c. pulmonary embolus
What are vessel loops and umbilical tapes commonly used for in vascular cases? a. anastomosis b. ligation c. retraction d. suturing
c. retraction
Which one of the following is NOT one of the cardiac valves? a. aortic b. mitral c. septal d. tricuspid
c. septal
The manubrium, body, and xiphoid process are portions of the: a. ribs b. lungs c. sternum d. bronchial tree
c. sternum
In the event that a VATS procedure has been converted to an open procedure, which open case can be performed? a. coronary artery bypass b. laparoscopy c. thoracotomy d. tracheotomy
c. thoracotomy
What is the specimen in an AAA procedure? a. blood clot b. vessel wall c. thrombus d. aneurysm sac
c. thrombus
Which part of the artery is respsonsible for vasoconstriction and vasodilation? a. tunica adventitia b. tunica intima c. tunica media d. vaso vasorum
c. tunica media
50% of all thoracic procedures:
carcinoma
Which procedure would include the use of fluoroscopy and a sterile catheter introduced through the femoral or brachial artery?
cardiac catheterization
Types of dressing material:
cast, fiberglass, plaster
Instrument used for applying cement in orthopedic surgery:
cement gun
Nondisposable, disposable systems:
chest drainage system types; Emerson >20cm 2-3 cannisters Thoraseal, Antrium - usually 3 cannister system
Piece of equipment that is used to connect thoracic cavity to chest drainage systems:
chest tubes
Tumor of the cartilage
chondroma
Chronic inflammation of the bronchial tree:
chronic bronchitis
Provides oxygenated blood to the heart muscle; heart muscle does NOT receive its oxygen from the blood coursing through it:
coronary arteries
Artery that supplies blood to the myocardium:
coronary artery
Condition of atherosclerotic plaque:
coronary artery disease
Blood flow through the myocardium:
coronary circulation
Part of the bone that is really hard:
cortical bone
Several symptoms associated with lung cancer:
cough, hemoptysis, wheezing, stridor, chest pain, dyspnea
Acquired deformity of the hip in which the hip joint turns outward
coxa valga
Acquired deformity of the hip in which the hip joint turns inward
coxa vara
Cobb and Brun are types of:
curettes
What are the operative mortality rates of patients with ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm and shock? a. 10%-20% b. 20%-40% c. 50%-60% d. >80%
d. >80%
All of the following can be types of DeBakey clamps EXCEPT: a. Sidewinder b. Coarctation c. Aorta d. Carotid artery bypass shunt
d. Carotid artery bypass shunt
During coronary valve surgery, the surgeon requests a handheld atrial retractor. You would hand her a: a. Tuffier b. Buford-Finochietto c. Carpentier d. Cooley
d. Cooley
A ___ is a type of raspatory. a. Barry b. Satinsky c. DeBakey d. Doyen
d. Doyen
the surgeon asks for a bulldog clamp, you could hand him any of the following except? a. Glover b. DeBakey c. Diethrich d. Lawrie
d. Lawrie
What is the name of the device that is attached to suction for collection of mucous or bronchial washing specimens? a. aerobic culture tube b. insufflation tubing c. myringotomy tube d. Lukens tube
d. Lukens tube
All of the following are periosteal elevators EXCEPT a: a. Molt b. Key c. Cushing "little joker" d. Putti
d. Putti
All of the following are types of scissors EXCEPT: a. Lawrie b. Tenotomy c. Jameson d. Rummel
d. Rummel
Which of the following is a crushing clamp with sharp spikes in the jaw used on the bronchus? a. Bailey b. Doyen c. Mixter d. Sarot
d. Sarot
Identify the instruments used for surturing. a. Stevens tenotomy b. Giertz-Shoemaker c. Aortic punch d. Spencer coronary needle holder e. Heparin needle
d. Spencer coronary needle holder
What is done with the aneurysm sac in AAA repair? a. excised and discarded b. excised and sent as specimen c. inverted and tacked to back of graft d. anterior wall sutured over proximal graft
d. anterior wall sutured over proximal graft
What is the general term for incurable diseases of the heart for which the only treatment would be heart transplantation? a. atherosclerosis b. arrhythias c. cardioplegia d. cardiomyopathies
d. cardiomyopathies
What is the main obstacle of performing angioscopy? a. light b. valves c. strictures d. clear visibility
d. clear visibility
All of the following structures are found within the mediastinum EXCEPT: a. heart b. thymus c. esophagus d. diaphragm
d. diaphragm
How many pulmonary veins are there? a. one b. two c. three d. four
d. four
Condition in which the lungs are collapsed; caused by rib fracture, bronchial phlegm plug, or very little air getting into the lungs:
atelectasis
Disorganized stimulation of the atria that prevents atrial contraction and does not allow for ventricular filling:
atrial fibrillation
Condition in which the right side of the heart is overworked because of an excess of blood flow going into the lungs:
atrial septal defect ASD
Which joint is an example of a condyloid joint? A. acromioclavicular B. femoroacetabluar C. patellofemeral D. temporomandibular
D. temporomandibular
Which bone of the lower extremity is commonly known as the shin bone? A. femur B. fibula C. patella D. tibia
D. tibia
What is the most common cause of bone fractures? A. poor position B. osteoporosis C. osteosarcoma D. trauma
D. trauma
Type of retractor used in spinal surgery:
Taylor spinal retractor
Absence of a heartbeat; cardiac standstill:
asystole
Types of amputations:
1. BK: below knee amputation 2. AK: above knee amputation 3. BE: below the elbow 4. AE: above the elbow
Correct the following: 1)The name of the valve between the right atrium and ventricle is called the mitral valve. 2)The aortic valve is located in the left atrium.
1. Tricuspid valve 2. L ventricle
Of the 12 pairs of ribs, how many are floating?
11, 12
How many pairs of ribs are there?
12
How many C-shaped rings of cartilage make up the trachea?
16-20
What is the order of cannulation for the heart lung machine and why was it important that no air be in those tubes?
1st R atrium 2nd cannula to the aorta to prevent stroke
Bone tamps come in sizes of ___ to ___.
2mm-10mm
How long did the surgeon say patients can be cross-clamped on the heart lung machine?
3 or more hours
Of the 12 pairs of ribs, how many are false?
3 pairs (8, 9, 10)
Of the 12 pairs of ribs, how many are true?
7 pairs
Which tendon is the thickest and strongest in the body? A. Achilles B. tibialis anterior C. extensor hallucis longus D. extensor digitorum longus
A. Achilles
Which of the following would be increased on a serum analysis and indicative of a malignant neoplasm of bone marrow? A. Bence Jones protein B. human leukocyte antigen C. serum phosphorus D. serum urate
A. Bence Jones protein
Patients diagnosed with shoulder impingement syndrome would likely undergo: A. acromioplasty B. external fixation C. open reduction, internal fixation D. total shoulder arthroplasty
A. acromioplasty
Which ligament of the knee keeps the femur from sliding posteriorly on the tibia and prevents hyperextension of the knee? A. anterior cruciate B. posterior cruciate C. medial collateral D. lateral collateral
A. anterior cruciate
Which of the following describes the appearance of a stellate bone fracture? A. asterisk (*) B. back slash (/) C. spiral (S) D. transverse (~)
A. asterisk (*)
Patellar tendon, iliotibial band, and semitendinosus tendon are examples of: A. autografts for ACL repair B. connections for hip movement C. insertion sites for arthroscopic instrumentation D. radiographic landmarks for knee x-ray studies
A. autografts for ACL repair
Chondroma, giant cell, and osteoma are: A. benign neoplasms B. congenital deformities C. malignant neoplasms D. structural osteocyte components
A. benign neoplasms
Which instrument is used frequently in arthroscopies to examine and manipulate internal structures? A. blunt probe B. powered shaver C. spinal needle D. trocar cannula
A. blunt probe
All of the following are examples of equipment used postoperatively on the patient for pain reduction or stimulation of healing factors EXCEPT: A. body exhaust suit B. CPM machine C. electric stimulator D. TNS unit
A. body exhaust suit
What is the medical term for spongy bone? A. cancellous B. cortical C. cranial D. cuboid
A. cancellous
What tissue does the acetabular reamer remove? A. cartilage B. fascia C. marrow D. periosteum
A. cartilage
Which bone is commonly referred to as the collarbone? A. clavicle B. humerus C. scapula D. sternum
A. clavicle
What is the purpose of the medial and lateral menisci of the knee? A. cushioning B. lubrication C. nutrition D. stability
A. cushioning
In adults, red bone marrow that produces red blood cells is mainly found in which type(s) of bone? A. flat and irregular B. long and short C. sesamoid only D. irregular only
A. flat and irregular
Hallus valgus is a condition in which there is a turning outward from the midline found in the: A. great toe B. wrist C. foot D. hip
A. great toe
Which portion of the femur articulates with the acetabulum? A. head B. neck C. greater trochanter D. lesser trochanter
A. head
A Bankart avulsion lesion involves which anatomical structure(s)? A. labrum (cartilage) B. rotator cuff (muscles) C. bicipital groove (tendon) D. acromioclavicular (bone spur)
A. labrum (cartilage)
Which of the following demonstrates the correct order of steps for femoral canal preparation during total hip arthroplasty? A. reamer, rasp, pulse lavage, implant trial B. rasp, implant trial, pulse lavage, reamer C. pulse lavage, reamer, implant trial, rasp D. implant trial, rasp, reamer, pulse lavage
A. reamer, rasp, pulse lavage, implant trial
Which type of cast is applied often to children and immobilizes unilateral or bilateral hips and femurs? A. spica B. cylinder C. long leg D. short leg
A. spica
Another name for a cerebellar retractor is:
Adson retractor
Condition in which a bulging sac appears on the aorta
Ascending Aortic Aneurysm
Which of the following is a commonly used self-retaining retractor used in total hip arthroplasty procedures? A. Adson-Beckman B. Charnley C. Gelpi D. Weitlaner
B. Charnley
Which medical term means moving a body part away from the midline? A. flexion B. abduction C. adduction D. supination
B. abduction
What is the name of the deep round fossa of the hip joint? A. acromium B. acetabulum C. tuberosity D. trochanter
B. acetabulum
Liston knife, Gigli saw, and Satterlee saw are examples of instruments used for which type of procedure? A. ACL repair B. amputation C. arthroplasty D. arthroscopy
B. amputation
What is polymethyl methycrylate used for in orthopedic procedures? A. antibiotic irrigation B. bone cement C. cast immobilization D. external fixation
B. bone cement
Surgeons may call both Bennett and Hohmann retractors by which other name because of their shapes? A. alligator B. cobra C. duck bill D. rat tooth
B. cobra
Which of the following is an acute, emergent condition of compression of neural and vascular structures, usually occurring in the upper and lower extremities following traumatic fractures? A. avascular necrosis B. compartmental syndrome C. delayed union D. malunion
B. compartmental syndrome
What is the medical term for a bony prominence projecting from a bone, as in a bunion? A. arthrosis B. exostosis C. osteoclast D. varum
B. exostosis
Which joint is an example of a ball-and-socket joint? A. atlantoaxial B. femoroscetabular C. patellofemoral D. temporomandibular
B. femoroscetabular
Which positioning device is frequently used for femoral nailing with leg traction and allows for placement of the C-arm? A. Andrews table B. fracture table C. vacuum beanbag D. Wilson frame
B. fracture table
Which positioning device will be used for ORIF of intertrochanteric femoral fracture? A. Andrews table B. fracture table C. vacuum beanbag D. Wilson frame
B. fracture table
Which condition is commonly known as "bowlegged"? A. coxa valga B. genu varum C. hallus valgus D. tallipes valgus
B. genu varum
Cannulated screws and nails are designed to follow the path created by a: A. depth gauge B. guide pin C. pilot drill D. reamer
B. guide pin
Which agency requires the documentation and tracking of implantable orthopedic devices? A. AAMI B. CDC C. EPA D. FDA
D. FDA
Which of the following diagnostic procedures does NOT use ionizing radiation? A. arthrography B. bone scan C. CT scan D. MRI scan
D. MRI scan
Amputated limbs may be placed in which of the following for transport to pathology? A. C-arm cover B. cassette cover C. impervious stockinette D. Mayo stand cover
D. Mayo stand cover
What is achieved by wrapping an extremity with an Esmarch bandage prior to inflation of pneumatic tourniquet? A. anesthesia B. antisepsis C. extension D. exsanguinations
D. exsanguinations
Which of the following statements regarding generally safe continuous tourniquet inflation time is CORRECT? A. both upper and lower extremity=1 hour B. both upper and lower extremity=1 1/2 hours C. lower extremity=1 hour; upper extremity=1 1/2 hours D. lower extremity=1 1/2 hours; upper extremity=1 hour
D. lower extremity=1 1/2 hours; upper extremity=1 hour
All of the following are indications for total shoulder arthroplasty EXCEPT: A. chronic arthritis pain B. humeral shaft fracture C. osteonecrosis of humeral head D. moderate impingement syndrome
D. moderate impingement syndrome
Which method of reducing a fracture carries the highest potential for surgical site infection? A. percutaneous pinning of simple fracture B. external fixator application for Colles' fracture C. closed with cast application for greenstick fracture D. open reduction, internal fixation for compound comminuted fracture
D. open reduction, internal fixation for compound comminuted fracture
Patients in which age group are MOST commonly candidates for total hip arthroplasty? A. neonates B. school-aged C. ages 30 to 50 D. over 65 years
D. over 65 years
Which hormone stimulates osteoclasts to break down bine and increase reabsorption of calcium when serum levels are low? A. extrogen B. follicle stimulating C. human growth D. parathyroid
D. parathyroid
Which piece of equipment is NOT attached to the arthroscope? A. camera head B. inflow and outflow tubing C. light cord D. powered shaver
D. powered shaver
Which component of an arthroscopy system is specific to orthopedics and differs from most laparoscopy/MIS systems? A. camera unit B. video monitor/screen C. fiber-optic D. powered shaving system
D. powered shaving system
Total knee arthroplasty implant are categorized in all of the following EXCEPT: A. unicompartmental B. bicompartmental C. tricompartmental D. quadcompartmental
D. quadcompartmental
Which of the following pathologies is related to a specific autoimmune process that attacks the joints in the body? A. arthralgia B. derangement C. osteoarthritis D. rheumatoid arthritis
D. rheumatoid arthritis
Carpal and tarsal bones are classified as which type of bone? A. flat B. irregular C. long D. short
D. short
Which of the following means a partial separation or dislocation of a joint without any breaks in the skin? A. complex B. greenstick C. luxation D. subluxation
D. subluxation
The connections between the large bones of the skull are categorized as which type of joint? A. amphiarthrosis B. coxarthrosis C. diarthrosis D. syntharthrosis
D. syntharthrosis
T/F: A Penfield is a grasping instrument.
F
T/F: Arthroscopic procedures require only one small incision through which all the instruments are passed.
F
T/F: Knowledge of the peripheral vascular system is required of the first assistant, but not of the surgical technologist.
F
T/F: Stevens scissors are used to dissect heavy tissue.
F
T/F: There are limited choices of total joint systems available, making standardization routine and uncomplicated.
F
T/F: Video-assisted thoracic surgery procedures use carbon dioxide for distension.
F
T/F: A Martin diamond wire cutter can make a cut 3mm thick.
F (1.25mm)
T/F: Malis mirror-finish forceps are a type of monopolar cautery:
F (bipolar)
T/F: A Dandy hook is used to retract large arteries.
F (nerves)
T/F: Cooley tips have rows of 3x4 teeth.
F (patterned jaws)
Vasodilators, decreases heart rate
Nitroprusside (Nipride) and nitroglycerin
Types of orthopedic reductions:
ORIF, OREF, CREF
Bone tumor
Osteoma
Suppresses arterial vasospasm
Papaverine
Coagulant after patient is off by-pass
Protamine sulfate
Order the Steps of Circulation L ventricle R atrium pulmonary artery pulmonar vein L atrium R ventricle
R atrium R ventricle pulmonary artery pulmonary vein L atrium L ventricle
Allison lung retractor
Retracting/Exposing
T/F: A Cosgrove flex clamp is used during minimally invasive heart surgery.
T
T/F: A Gillies (Dingman) is a bone hook.
T
T/F: A Glover is a type of bulldog clamp.
T
T/F: A Heiss is a skin retractor.
T
T/F: A Satinsky is a clamping instrument.
T
T/F: A Volkmann and Israel are rake retractors:
T
T/F: A Vorse-Webster is used to clamp tubes.
T
T/F: Care must be taken during skin prepping for gangrenous lower extremities prior to amputation to prevent inadvertent dislodging of toes.
T
T/F: Double gloving should be done as a routine in orthopedic cases due to exposure to various sharp instruments and potentially jagged bones.
T
T/F: Glass syringes are preferred in drawing up contrast media for angiography because of less accumulation of bubbles.
T
T/F: Implantable devices made of different alloys can cause breakdown of the device and may cause wound infection.
T
T/F: Lung reduction surgery is performed for patients with emphysema.
T
T/F: Names frequently associated with vascular instrumentation include DeBakey and Cooley, both of whom were cardiothoracic surgeons and pioneers of cardiothoracic and peripheral vascular surgery.
T
T/F: Suture pledgets are used to bolster anastomosis sites when tissue is friable.
T
T/F: The drainage and collection device attached to chest tubes relies on a water seal to reestablish negative pressure in the pleural cavity.
T
T/F: The jaws on a Cushing pituitary rongeur can be straight, angled up, or angled down.
T
T/F: The lumens of veins are larger than the lumens of arteries.
T
T/F: The saphenous vein used for coronary artery grafting must be reversed before anastomosis due to the presence of valves in the vein.
T
T/F: The ventricles of the heart have thicker myocardium than the atria.
T
T/F: A Burford-Finochietto is a retracting instrument.
T (rib retracting)
Which device is used for patients awaiting heart transplant that allows them to be ambulatory and has both internal and external components to the system? a. ventricular assist device b. left ventricular vent c. cardiac pacemaker d. vena cava filter
a. ventricular assist device
Portion of the aorta that runs between level of diaphragm and bifurcation of iliac arteries:
abdominal
30-50% of all cancers:
adenocarcinoma
Inframammary incision over 2nd/3rd intercostal space from anterior midline or sternal border to mid-axillary line:
anterolateral
Specialized receptors in certain epithelial arterial tissue that function to control blood pressure, oxygen, and carbon dioxide concentrations:
aortic bodies
Valve that separates the L ventricle from the aorta:
aortic valve
Fogarty spring clip applier
applying single-use spring clips
A #11 blade and forward angle or reverse angle Potts-Smith scissors are frequently used for: a. arteriotomy b. embolectomy c. skin incisions d. suture cutting
arteriotomy
Joint pain
arthralgia
Joint inflammation
arthritis
Procedure that allows direct visualization of a joint
arthroscopy
Constriction of bronchioles, production of excessive mucous, difficulty breathing:
asthma
Which bone is the largest found in the foot and is commonly called the heel? a. acetabulum b calcaneus c. patella d. talus
b calcaneus
Whart are the operative mortality rates of patients with unruptured AAA scheduled for elective repair? a. 1%-2% b. 2%-3% c. 3%-5% d. 5%-10%
b. 2%-3%
The surgeon asks for a "cobra" retractor. Another name for this is a(n): a. Bennett b. Aufranc c. Hibbs d. Israel
b. Aufranc
The surgeon needs to contract the ribs back together prior to closing the chest. You anticipate this and have a ___ ready. a. Giertz-Stille b. Bailey-Gibbon c. Garrett d. Gerald
b. Bailey-Gibbon
Which instrument is a rib shear? a. Alexander b. Bethune c. Davidson d. Statinsky
b. Bethune
Which diagnostic study is MOST useful for verification of thoracic aortic dissection? a. AP chest x-ray b. CT scan c. MRI scan d. stress test
b. CT scan
During a carotid endarterectomy, the surgeon requests a carotid artery bypass shunt clamp. You hand her a: a. Fogarty b. Javid c. Cooley d. Glover
b. Javid
You hand the surgeon a Hibbs osteotome. the next instrument you need to have ready to hand is: a. Pin Cutter b. Mallet c. Curette d. Pliers
b. Mallet
Which structure is considered the "pacemaker" of the heart? a. AV node b. SA node c. bundle of His d. Purkinje fibers
b. SA node
The surgeon wishes to measure the femoral head. You hand him/her a: a. Hibbs b. Townley c. Molt d. Key
b. Townley
Select all the accessory instruments: a. Putti b. Townley c. Bone tamp d. Heiss e. Cobb bone curettes
b. Townley c. Bone tamp
Which instruments are used for cutting? Select all that apply. a. Glover bulldog b. aortic punch c. Giertz-Shoemaker d. Allison e. Stevens tenotomy
b. aortic punch c. Giertz-Shoemaker e. Stevens tenotomy
Which diagnostic study provides the most detailed information for surgical planning in AAA repair? a. angiogram b. aortogram c. CT scan d. ultrasound
b. aortogram
What is the name of an air filled sac that has the appearance of a blister on the surface of lung tissue? a. alveolar sac b. bleb c. bronchiole d. germ cell
b. bleb
What is another name of the innominate artery? a. aorta b. brachiocephalic c. left subclavian d. left common carotid
b. brachiocephalic
Which vessels are responsible for the exchange of oxygen and metabolic waste? a. arteries b. capillaries c. venules d. veins
b. capillaries
Which of the following will be required upon completion of any procedure in which the pleural cavity has been opened? a. passive wound drain such as a Penrose b. chest tube attached to a Pleur-evac system c. active wound drain such as a Jackson-Pratt d. compression dressing with Ace or tensor bandages
b. chest tube attached to a Pleur-evac system
Which of the following is the hard, dense bone that surrounds the marrow cavity? a. cancellous b. cortical c. cranial d. cuboid
b. cortical
Use of an angioscope larger than the diameter of the vessel being scoped will most likely result in which of the following: a. aneurysm b. dissection c. vasodilation d. vasospasm
b. dissection
Which additional pain control measure is taken for patients undergoing pectus excavatum repair by VATS? a. Bier block b. epidural c. local with epinephrine d. topical lidocaine jelly
b. epidural
Peripheral vessel angioplasty stents may be made of all of the following EXCEPT: a. titanium b. fascia lata c. polypropylene d. stainless steel mesh
b. fascia lata
Which of the following is a long bone that is the largest in the human body? a. cranium b. femur c. ilium d. scapula
b. femur
Which arterial aneurysm is more likely to rupture due to lack of detection over time? a. femoral b. iliac c. popliteal d. radial
b. iliac
Which artery accounts for approximately 50% of occlusive coronary lesions? a. circumflex branch b. left anterior descending c. mammary d. right coronary
b. left anterior descending
A heart murmur is often heart with auscultation and indicative of involvement of which structure? a. aortic valve b. mitral valve c. right ventricle d. left ventricle
b. mitral valve
Which suturing technique maintains the aortic and velour cannulae? a. figure of eight b. purse-string c. horizontal mattress d. vertical mattress
b. purse-string
For which of the following procedures would the rigid bronchoscope be preferred? a. visualization of the upper lobe bronchi b. removal of foreign body in children c. transbronchial lung biopsy d. bronchial washings
b. removal of foreign body in children
A Gemini is what type of a clamp? a. aortic cross clamp b. right angle c. peripheral occlusion d. bulldog
b. right angle
Where are the cannula MOST commonly placed for cardiopulmonary bypass procedures? a. carotid artery and subclavian vein b. right atrium and ascending aorta c. right ventricle and descending aorta d. femoral artery and brachiocephalic vein
b. right atrium and ascending aorta
How many ribs are considered "true" ribs with direct connection to the sternum with costal cartilage? a. three b. seven c. nine d. twelve
b. seven
Javid and argyle are examples of which type of device used in select vascular procedures? a. catheters b. shunts c. guidewires d. peel-away sheaths
b. shunts
Medatronic OCTOPUS and Guidant Ultima OPCAB are what type of devices for coronary artery bypass done off pump? a. retractors b. stabilizers c. cannulae d. grafts
b. stabilizers
How many lobes are there in the right lung? a. two b. three c. four d. five
b. three
Test that provides direct visualization transthoracic needle biopsy of the lung; infection/carcinoma
biopsy and endoscopy
Conical protective portion of the axial skeleton that houses the organs of the chest, thoracic vertebrae:
bony thorax
Abnormally slow electrical impulses and heartbeat below 40 to 60 beats per minute:
bradycardia
Interior of the tracheobronchial tree for sites of ulceration, obstruction, laceration, or bleeding; entails biopsy, culture, removal of foreign bodies:
bronchoscopy
A Sarot would be used to clamp the (aorta/bronchus).
bronchus
Bony protuberance on the medial aspect of the first metatarsal (big toe)
bunion
The correct sequence of steps for an arteriotomy for embolectomy or thrombectomy is: a. #15 blade, Metzenbaum scissors, Yankauer suction, insertion of Fogarty catheter b. #10 blade, Metzenbaum scissors, insertion of Fogarty catheter c. #11 blade, Potts-Smith scissors, small bore suction, insertion of Fogarty catheter d. #12 blade, 14g angiocath insertion, removal of stylet, insertion of Fogarty catheter
c. #11 blade, Potts-Smith scissors, small bore suction, insertion of Fogarty catheter
How far beyond the atherosclerotic lesion should a balloon in angioplasty reach? a. 1-2mm b. 3-5mm c. 1-2cm d. 3-5cm
c. 1-2cm
What is the average lifespan of biologic and mechanical heart valve replacements? a. 1-5 years b. 5-10 years c. 10-15 years d. indefinite
c. 10-15 years
Potts scissors tips can be angled at all of the following degrees EXCEPT: a. 25 b. 45 c. 50 d. 60
c. 50
The CABG surgery is almost complete. The surgeon is ready to place the stainless-steel sutures in the sternum. You would use a ___ needle holder to pass wire sutures. a. DeBakey b. coronary c. Barry d. Castroviejo
c. Barry
A type of self-retaining retractor with hinged arms is a: a. Weitlaner b. Cerebellar c. Beckmann d. Farabeuf
c. Beckmann
All of the following are handheld (manual) retractors EXCEPT: a. Hohmann b. Blount c. Beckmann d. Israel
c. Beckmann
The instrument used to create a pilot hole for femoral reaming is a: a. Senn b. Lambotte c. Box osteotome d. Brun
c. Box osteotome
Which instrument has the appearance of a misshapen pancake spatula? a. Allison lung retractor b. Bailey rib contractor c. Davidson scapula retractor d. Lovelace lung grasping forceps
c. Davidson scapula retractor
What is a commonly used rib self retain retractor available in adult and pediatric sizes? a. Balfour b. Bookwalter c. Finochietto d. Greenburg
c. Finochietto
What is the name of the frequently used balloon embolectomy catheter? a. Robinson b. Groshong c. Fogarty d. Foley
c. Fogarty
During vascular surgery, the surgeon needs to dilate a blood vessel. You would have the ___ dilators ready. a. Crane b. Cogswell c. Garrett d. Javid
c. Garrett
Which vascular device is double-lumened for for administration of chemotherapy, antibiotic therapy, and IV fluids? a. Argyle b. Fogarty c. Groshong d. Javid
c. Groshong
Which instrument is a lung-grasping forceps that resembles a very large Pennington? a. Doyen b. Duckbill c. Lovelace d. Langenbeck
c. Lovelace
Which instruments are used for clamping? a. Cushing pituitary b. Aufranc c. Lowman d. Parkes e. Heiss
c. Lowman (bone clamp)
All of the following are rongeurs EXCEPT: a. Ruskin b. Stille-Horsley c. Molt d. Leksell
c. Molt
A Stevens scissors is also known as a: a. Mayo b. Metzenbaum c. Tenotomy d. Strully
c. Tenotomy
A newly diagnosed patient in need of vascular access long-term hemodialysis would undergo which procedure? a. embolectomy b. endarterectomy c. arteriovenous fistula and shunt d. inferior vena cava filter placement
c. arteriovenous fistula and shunt
Transient cerebral ischemic episodes are treated surgically by: a. angioplasty b. atriovenous fistula and shunt c. carotid endarterectomy d. coronary artery bypass
c. carotid endarterectomy
What is the name of the condition that manifests by deep aching pain in the lower extremity during rest periods? a. capitation b. coarctation c. claudication d. contraction
c. claudication
All of the following are components of the "heart lung" machine except: a. pump b. oxygenator c. defibrillator d. heat exchanger
c. defibrillator
The name of the condition created when pus is not cleared from the pleural cavity and makes a fibrous constrictive layer is: a. COPD b. pleurisy c. empyema d. pneumonia
c. empyema
Where is the area of active bone growth? a. cortex b. diaphysis c. epiphyseal plate d. medullary canal
c. epiphyseal plate
Where is the balloon dilator inserted percutaneously in coronary artery angioplasty? a. radial artery b. carotid artery c. femoral artery d. subclavian artery
c. femoral artery
With what is the median sternotomy closed? a. fine gauge polypropylene b. fine gauge surgical silk c. heavy gauge stainless steel wire d. heavy gauge chromic gut
c. heavy gauge stainless steel wire
What is the medical term for coughing up blood? a. asthma b. bronchitis c. hemoptysis d. pneumonitis
c. hemoptysis
What is the medical term for visible changes in density on chest x-ray that indicates pulmonary pathology? a. hemoptysis b. hilum c. infiltrate d. inspiration
c. infiltrate
Which of the following is the main underlying pathological cause of coronary atherosclerosis? a. age b. diet c. ischemia d. hypertension
c. ischemia
Which statement regarding the anatomical placement of the heart is correct? a. it is positioned exactly midline in the thoracic cavity b. it is positioned in the thoracic cavity with nearly its entirety on the left side c. it is positioned in the mediastinum with approximately 2/3 of the heart on the left side d. it is positioned in the mediastinum with approximately 2/3 of the heart on the right side
c. it is positioned in the mediastinum with approximately 2/3 of the heart on the left side
Which structure within the respiratory tract is the proximal and superior? a. bronchus b. diaphragm c. larynx d. trachea
c. larynx
Which portion of the heart is responsible for pumping blood into the ascending aorta? a. left atrium b. right atrium c. left ventricle d. right ventricle
c. left ventricle
What is the first step in the formation of an atheroma? a. accumulation of cholesterol and lipids b. collagen deposition and scar tissue formation c. growth of new smooth muscle tissue d. injury to endothelial lining
d. injury to endothelial lining
What is the name of the procedure performed to release constriction of the lungs by fibrin layers? a. pectus excavatum b. upper lobectomy c. pneumonectomy d. lung decortication
d. lung decortication
The force and rate of contraction of the heart is controlled by which part of the central nervous system? a. phrenic nerve b. vagus nerve c. Purkinje fibers d. medulla oblongata
d. medulla oblongata
What is the name of the acute condition in which heart muscle dies from ischemia and may lead to sudden cardiac death? a. heart block b. atherosclerosis c. cardiac tamponade d. myocardial infarction
d. myocardial infarction
Which surgical approach is used for repair of coarctation of the aorta and patent ductus arteriosus? a. supine b. prone c. frog-legged d. posterolateral
d. posterolateral
Which type of incision is made for a pneumonectomy? a. Chevron b. McBurney c. epigastric d. posterolateral
d. posterolateral
Which of the following thoracic procedures would require the patient to be put on cardiopulmonary bypass? a. pneumonectomy b. upper lobectomy c. decortication of the lung d. pulmonary thromboendarterectomy
d. pulmonary thromboendarterectomy
Into which vessel is a double-lumen Groshong catheter routinely inserted? a. right carotid artery b. right femoral artery c. right jugular vein d. right subclavian vein
d. right subclavian vein
Which chamber of the heart is responsible for pumping blood into the pulmonary artery? a. left atrium b. right atrium c. left ventricle d. right ventricle
d. right ventricle
Which of the following regarding blood flow is correct? a. right atrium, pulmonary vein, lungs, pulmonary artery, left ventricle b. right ventricle, pulmonary vein, lungs, pulmonary artery, left atrium c. right atrium, pulmonary artery, lungs, pulmonary vein, left ventricle d. right ventricle, pulmonary artery, lungs, pulmonary vein, left atrium
d. right ventricle, pulmonary artery, lungs, pulmonary vein, left atrium
Which of the following would be the suture technique and type used to anastomose a bifurcated graft limb to an artery? a. interrupted 5-0 or 6-0 nonabsorbable suture b. running 5-0 or 6-0 absorbable suture c. interrupted 5-0 or 6-0 absorbable suture d. running 5-0 or 6-0 nonabsorbable suture
d. running 5-0 or 6-0 nonabsorbable suture
Which of the following is the BEST choice for distal bypass graft in the lower extremity? a. Dacron b. Gore-Tex c. PTFE d. saphenous vein
d. saphenous vein
What type of bone is the patella? a. flat b. irregular c. long d. sesamoid
d. sesamoid
The apex of the lung is located: a. inferiorly and laterally b. medially where the bronchus enters c. medially just above the diaphragm d. superiorly and just above the clavicle
d. superiorly and just above the clavicle
Which congenital defect has four components and is characterized by cyanosis causing appearance of "blue babies"? a. coarctation of the aorta b. patent ductus arteriosus c. ventricular septal defect d. tetralogy of Fallot
d. tetralogy of Fallot
Which of the following tunica is NOT part of the structure of an artery? a. adventitia b. media c. intima d. vaginalis
d. vaginalis (testes)
Which of the following is found only in veins? a. tunica adventitia b. tunica intima c. tunica media d. valves
d. valves
Dermal atrophy, hemorrhage, ulceration, and cellulitis are complications of: a. abdominal aorta aneurysm b. carotid stenosis c. pulmonary embolus d. varicose veins
d. varicose veins
What is the configuration of the saphenous vein when stripped from the leg? a. cut into small sections and left in situ b. only the intimal layer removed c. valves only dissected and vein left in situ d. vein avulsed and turned completely inside out
d. vein avulsed and turned completely inside out
Which membrane covers the surface of the lungs? a. ciliated mucosa b. pericardium c. parietal pleura d. visceral pleura
d. visceral pleura
Accessory orthopedic instrument used for measuring the depth of drill holes:
depth gauge
Dome-shaped organ that separates the thoracic area from the abdominal area (where hiatal hernias can develop):
diaphragm
Garretts are used to ___ the blood vessel.
dilate
Types of injuries to joints of bones
dislocation, trauma
Test that is useful in identifying embolism, pulmonary edema, and COPD:
lung scans
Injury sustained with no break in the skin
luxation
Incision that goes the length of sternum from gladiolas to xiphoid process (thymectomy):
median sternotomy
Carcinoma of lung by insertion of scope through incision above the breastbone to view organs of the mediastinum:
mediastinoscopy
The space between the lungs directly inferior to the bronchi that houses the esophagus, the thymus gland, heart, and pericardium:
mediastinum
Valve that separates the L atrium from the L ventricle:
mitral valve
Which heart valve is also known as the bicuspid valve? a. aortic b. mitral c. pulmonary d. tricuspid
mitral valve
Positioning for anterolateral thoracotomy, tracheostomy, most endoscopies; provides access to oropharynx, trachea, bronchus, anterior mediastinum
modified supine
Which one is reversible: myocardial ischemia myocardial infarction
myocardial ischemia
Test that aids in the diagnosis of pleural effusion:
needle biopsy of parietal pleura
Fogarty hydragrip clamp
occlusion of arteries
A normal effect of aging, treated with NSAIDs and aspirin; detected using skeletal x-ray:
osteoarthritis
Bone and cartilage inflammation
osteochondritis
Congenital condition of the bones
osteogenesis imperfecta
Bone softening, loss of bone matrix calcification
osteomalacia
Lines the chest wall:
parietal pleura
Condition in which a portion of oxygenated blood from the left heart to flow back to the lungs by flowing from the aorta due to a failure of closure of the ductus arteriosus
patent ductus arteriosus
The function accomplished by the cardiopulmonary bypass machine:
perfusion
Types of lung scans:
perfusion ventilation
Sac that surrounds the heart and is part of the bronchial tree; contains the heart, pulmonary and bronchial vessels, lymphatics, and nerves:
pericardial cavity
Key and Cobb are types of ___ elevators:
periosteal
Substance that covers the outside of the bone:
periosteum
Special patient factors to consider for thoracic procedures:
persistent cough shortness of breath hemoptysis pleural effusion pain difficulty breathing -> anxiety, panic lung cancer -> fear, mistrust hypoxia -> fluid volume excesses or significant impaired functioning either respiratory or pulmonary
Patient consideration undergoing amputation:
phantom limb syndrome: may experience pain, discomfort in missing limb
What additional instruments would be required for a patient undergoing ORIF?
plates, screws, pins, drill, antibiotic irrigation
What is the name and purpose of the white bolsters used on the sutures?
pledgets - reinforce suture line
The large space within the bony thorax that is subdivided into 2 cavities with the mediastinal space between:
pleural cavities
Abnormal accumulation of fluid within the intrapleural space of the lungs (trauma, or lesions)
pleural effusion
Between pleura and ribs
pleural space
Collection of air or gas in the pleural space that forces the lung to collapse *chest wound, rupture on lung's surface, or severe bout of coughing
pneumothorax
Incision over the rib/intercostal space; *most common thoracic incision; lung esophagus, posterior mediastinum, lobectomy, pneumonectomy:
posterolateral
Positioning for thoracotomy:
posterolateral (gives access to AP lung surfaces)
What was the purpose of Papavarine being used?
prevents vasospasms
What was the purpose of the heart lung machine?
provides oxygen to the blood to be circulated
Blood flow between lungs and heart:
pulmonary circulation
Fluid accumulation in the alveoli and lung tissues, most often caused by congestive heart failure:
pulmonary edema
Measures lung ventilation volume:
pulmonary function tests
Valve that separates the R ventricle from the pulmonary artery:
pulmonary valve
A Semb is a type of ___.
raspatory
Parkes and Putti are types of (rasps/rongeurs).
rasps
A Tuffier is a (cutting/retracting) instrument.
retracting
Autoimmune disease involving the joints
rheumatoid arthritis
A Bailey-Gibbon is used to contract the ___.
ribs
The 2 upper chambers of the heart:
right and left atrium
Arteries of the heart:
right and left pulmonary artery coronary artery
The right lung lobes are:
right apex, right middle, right lower
Which bronchus is shorter and more vertical?
right bronchus
Which lung has 3 lobes, is larger, heavier, with shorter apex at the anterior and posterior aspects:
right lung
Nodes just above the clavicle; diagnosis bronchial carcinomas or other neoplasms such as esophageal and interabdominal malignancies
scalene/supraclavicular lymph node biopsy
A Lawrie is a type of ___.
scissors
Strully is a type of (scissors/pliers).
scissors
15-35% of all cancers:
small cell lung cancer
Diagnostic procedure that assists with diagnosing infections and pathogens:
spectrum culture analysis
Types of anesthesia regional blocks used in orthopedic surgery:
spinal, epidural, peripheral
20-35% of all cancers:
squamous cell carcinoma
Incision into the middle of the sternum:
sternotomy
Consists of a manubrium, gladiolus, and xiphoid process:
sternum
Injury that is commonly seen in the knee with no break in the skin
subluxation