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The "true ribs" are attached directly to the sternum anteriorly. These ribs include ribs:
1-7
The manubriosternal joint is attached to rib:
2
The seventh rib articulates with the ______ and ______ vertebral bodies.
5, 7
Stance vs swing ratio
60:40
Why did the patient have limited cervical rotation with a poor posture?
Abnormal compression of the bilateral zygapophyseal joints
Lateral ligaments of the ankle resist inversion forces. Adding plantar flexion to the inversion stress can isolate which of the following ligaments?
Anterior talofibular ligament
Which of the following statement is true about the location of the "hamstring" muscles?
Biceps femoris is lateral and the semimembranosus/tendinosis is medial.
Knee menisci are important for shock absorption.The medial meniscus is _____ and the lateral meniscus is _____.
C-shaped; O-shaped
CoP: at initial contact
CoP is just lateral to heel
The concept of a supination twist to overcome substantial hindfoot pronation in weight bearing includes which of the following motions?
Dorsiflexion of the 1st & 2nd rays with plantarflexion of the 4th & 5th rays
As the patient successfully completes the pull-up phase, what is the next phase of the stair cycle?
Forward continuance
Orthopedic gait- knee motion restriction
IC occurs at midfoot if full extension is limited stride length is shortened knee doesn't reach full extension at mid stance, COM remains lower throughout gait cycle
Which of the following statements about the meniscofemoral ligaments is NOT correct?
Is thicker than the posterior cruciate ligament
Which of the following statements is NOT correct about the iliofemoral ligament of the hip?
It attaches to the anterior superior iliac spine.
How does a forward head posture affect the temporomandibular joint (TMJ)?
It causes the mandible to be in a retruded position.
ll of the following structures attach to the patella EXCEPT
LCL
When customizing an ankle foot orthosis for a patient,the therapist and orthotisttypically work together to determine the best position for the foot and ankle. If an individual status post stroke is unable to tolerate the abrupt heelstrike-to-foot flat motion that is presented in thepreceding scenario, which of the following is the best accommodation?
Lock the ankle in 5 degrees of plantarflexion instead of neutral. Doing so will leave less distance for the foot to travel during heel strike to foot flat, but still allows enough toe clearance during swing phase because the toe will still be held up.
Taking into consideration, the increased knee flexion during foot flat in the scenario, would this form of orthosis be appropriate for an individual with 0/5 strength in the ipsilateral quadriceps?
No, this orthosis will affect the ankle and will put the knee in the flexed weight-bearing position, which will require increased quadriceps strength to maintain stance.
Although the ankle foot orthosis (AFO) is designed to aid in swing phase of gait, what biomechanical changes are expected during the heel strike to foot flat stages of the stance phase?
Owing to lack of plantarflexionrange of motion (ROM),heel strike will abruptly proceed to foot flat; the knee will require more eccentric extensor strength and, ultimately, increased knee flexion at foot flat.
the peroneal (fibulas) longus and brevis contribute to
PF and eversion
the gastrocnemius muscle is biarticulate. Thus, it is the prime mover of ankle __ and an assistant movers of knee
PF, flex
In addition to having the necessary ROM of knee, what muscle should be activated?
Quadriceps
What may contribute to this patient's inability to ascend the 6-inch step from the weight acceptance phase through the pull-up phase?
Range of motion (ROM) of knee flexion of only 60 degrees
Which of the following is NOT correct about the thoracodorsal fascia?
Tension on the thoracodorsal fascia via abdominal muscle contraction will cause it to decrease spinal stiffness.
For this individual to position in better alignment with the "plumb line" and stand without upper extremity (UE) support, what must he do? On which anatomical structures must he depend?
The individual must shift his UE weight behind the plumb line, allowing his hips to rest in extension on the "Y-ligament."
Which of the following statements is correct about the structure and the motion it prevents?
The posterior cruciate ligament prevents posterior translation of the tibia on the femur.
Step up at the knee
The quadriceps muscle is a knee extensor, which is the main motion required at the knee during a step up.
Stair gait cycle
The stair gait cycle consists of weight acceptance, pull up, forward continuance, foot clearance, and foot placement. Forward continuance occurs after the pull up phase.
For an individual with a thoracic spinal cord injury, what is the postural/biomechanical purpose of hanging on the Y-ligaments?
This position shifts the ground reaction force (GRF)/plumb line to allow for standing without the use of muscles in the hips/trunk.
Choose the best description of coupled motions occurring in the cervical spine.
Upper cervical spine has rotation and side-bending occurring to opposite sides.
What posture deviation was evident in this patient?
abnormal atlanto-occipital position
Which of the following is NOT considered part of the innominate?
acetabulum
The greatest amount of muscle contraction occurs in what type of sitting
active erect sitting
When performing a seated knee extension exercise with a very heavy weight, one might attempt to extend the hip to avoid __________ insufficiency of the __________.
active; rectus femoris
if you stand on a single leg and the pelvis on the opposite side drops, the motion occurring at the weight-bearing hip is:
adduction
The clavicular portion of the pectoralis major muscle CANNOT:
aid in exhalation if the arms are overhead
A normal response to a slight perturbation of balance would be
an ankle strategy
In normal gait, the ground reaction forces (external forces) at initial contact are:
ankle plantar flexion, knee extension, hip flexion
The outermost portion of the intervertebral disc is known as the:
annulosum fibrosum
If a person is standing erect and flexes the trunk on the hip, the center of mass will move __________ and the line of gravity moves __________ within the base of support.
anterior; anterior
in optimal standing posture, the line of gravity passes __ to the ankle, __ to the knee and __ to the hip
anterior; anterior, posterior
An individual has difficulty achieving terminal knee extension. To facilitate this motion, one should glide the tibia _______ with slight _______ rotation.
anterior; external
During deep inspiration, the upper rib cage expands more in a(n) ____ direction and the lower rib cage expands more in a(n) ____ direction.
anterior; lateral
A newborn has approximately 30° to 40° of femoral neck ____________. This ____________ about 1.5° per year until skeletal maturity.
anteversion; decreases
Which of the following DOES NOT limit thoracic flexion?
approximation of anterior vertebral bodies
When rotating to the RIGHT, the ribs on the right side:
become more convex posteriorly and less convex anteriorly
In weight-bearing (CKC), the coupled motions of pronation are:
calcaneal eversion, abduction (medial rotation), and dorsiflexion
the proximal attachment of the plantar fascia
calcaneous
In the human adult spine, lordotic curves naturally occur in the:
cervical and lumbar regions
The spinous process is bifid in the:
cervical spine
The central tendon of the diaphragm becomes stabilized by:
compression on the abdominal viscera
The osteology of the knee involves movement of the _____ tibia and the _____ femur.
concave;convex
Orthopedic gait- glute medius weakness
contralateral (swing side) pelvis drops in frontal plane compensation occurs by leaning forward assistive device (cane) for unaffected side
Using a cane on the ____________ side of a hip injury helps to reduce weight-bearing on the involved hip by 15%. It is also instrumental in activating the ____________ on the cane side to assist the ____________ muscles on the involved side to overcome gravitational torque.
contralateral; latissimus dorsi; abductor
The best description of the atlanto-occipital joint is:
convex superior joint surface on concave inferior joint surface
The head of the femur is _____ and the acetabulum is _____.
convex; concave
The transverse atlantal ligament is part of the:
cruciform ligament
the distal tarsal bones include the cuneiforms and
cuboid bone
Old people walking:
decreased velocity increased stance time; double limb support decreased swing time decreased step and stride length increased stride width
The bursa found between the tibial tuberosity and the patellar tendon is:
deep infrapatellar
all of the following are lateral ankle ligs except
deltoid lig
A characteristic unique to the thoracic spine is:
demifacets
The zagapophyseal joints are:
diarthrodial
the tibias anterior muscle contributes to
dorsiflexion and inversion
Isolated contraction of the anterior tibialis produces ___________. Isolated contraction of the posterior tibialis produces ___________. Co-contraction of the anterior and posterior tibialis produces ___________.
dorsiflexion; plantarflexion; inversion
Performing the lowering motion of a squat with increased attention to preventing knee valgus involves the following muscle activity:
eccentric knee extensors, concentric hip external rotation, isometric erector spinae
The active contribution of the lateral pterygoid in relation to the disc is it:
eccentrically controls posterior translation of the disc during elevation.
Actions of the medial pterygoid include:
elevates and contra laterally deviates
when the heel rises in WB, the great toe will
extend at the MTP
sesamoid bones of the foot are located under the
first MT
the sesamoid bones of the foot are found under the
first MT
The orientation of the lumbar zygapophyseal joints favors what motions?
flex and ext
The sesamoid bones of the foot serve as an anatomic pulley for the _____________.
flexor hallucis brevis
Hip abduction occurs in the:
frontal plane
if the right gluteus medius muscle is weak, you would see increased __ plane motion of the pelvis during right __ phase of gait
frontal; stance
Knock knees
genu algum
The larger medial condyle of the femur results in an angle at the knee known as:
genu valgus
The muscle that will ACTIVELY LIMIT (control) hip flexion is the
gluteus maximus
The greater trochanter is the attachment for the:
gluteus medius and piriformis
An individual is lying prone and the hip is taken to end range abduction. The range is limited to 30° with the knee in extension. When the knee is flexed, the leg can be abducted further. Thus, the limiting structure is most likely the ___________.
gracilis
the intervertebral disc does not consist of
granulosum centrosome
A bunion involves a structural deformity of the foot which is described as:
hallux valgus
the most likely compensation that would occur for a lack of ankle dorsiflexion range of motion would be
hip external rotation
The rectus femoris muscle contributes to:
hip flex. and knee ext.
If an individual has an increased anterior pelvic tilt, stretching the __________ or strengthening__________, may help reduce the tilt.
hip flexors; hamstrings
Which of the following hip ligaments is known as the "Y" ligament?
iliofemoral lig
The lesser trochanter is the attachment for the:
iliopsoas
An increased lumbosacral angle:
increases the shearing force between L5 and S1
The structure that tethers the disc from moving too far anteriorly is the:
inferior retrodiscal lamina
contraction of the diaphragm causes
inhalation
weight acceptance
initial contact; loading responce
Swing phase
initial swing, midswing, terminal swing
If a person is standing erect and rotates the trunk to the right, the right hip is in:
internal rotation
The ligament that connects spinous processes above and below is the:
interspinous
Orthopedic gait- quadriceps weakness
knee in full extension knee achieves extension w/ aid of hip extensors and forward motion of trunk pulling femur over tibia, extension maintained by calf knee may have tendency to be hyper extended
the mortise of the ankle is the space between the
lateral malleolus and medial malleolus
The muscle that has attachments to the articular disc is the:
lateral pterygoid
Based on the study by Delp et al., the piriformis muscle was determined to be a:
lateral rotator in hip extension and a medial rotator in 90° of hip flexion
For an individual with mid- to low-thoracic paralysis, which of the following muscles can be used to maintain extension and ensure postural stability during standing with KAFOs without upper extremity support?
latissimus dorsi
compensation for knee extensor weakness during walking may be achieved by all of the following EXCEPT
leaning the trunk backward
Muscles contracting during mandibular deviation to the right include:
left medial and lateral pterygoid
The deep erector spinae muscles have an anterior inclination, which allows them to resist lumbar anterior shearing forces. The muscle that has a similar function in the upper quarter is:
levator scapula
Center of pressure
location w/in foot where GRFs are applied
the curve of the cervical spine is a _______ and is ______ posteriorly
lordosis; concave
in a slumped seated posture, muscles you would expect to be elongated include:
lumbar erector spinae, longus colli
gait
manner or style of walking
Muscles of mandibular elevation include:
masseter and temporalis
Muscles that can cause ipsilateral deviation.
masseter and temporalis
single limb support
midstance; terminal stance
CoP: terminal stance and preswing
moves medial b/w 1st and 2nd MT
When palpating the 1st ray of the foot, the sequence of the bones one would encounter (proximal to distal) would be:
navicular, medial cuneiform, metatarsal
CoP: midstance
near center of foot
Contraction of the diaphragm results in all the following EXCEPT:
negative pressure results on the abdominal viscera
Muscles NOT attached to the superior and inferior borders of the ribs.
outermost intercostal
patient "JT" has been observed to be walking with a decreased step duration on the right. This is most likely due to
pain on the R side with weight-bearing
static posture is maintained by all of the following except
passive dermal tension
The iliotibial band attaches to the lateral border of the _______, contributes to knee _______ when the knee is flexed less than 30°, and contributes to knee _______ when the knee is flexed more than 30°.
patella; ext; flex
The "Q-angle" of the knee is the angle formed by the quadriceps tendon and the:
patellar ligament
in a slumped seated posture, muscles you would expect to be shortened include:
pectorals major, sternocleidomastoid
During ambulation, poor force development of the left hip abductors may result in:
pelvic drop on the right with compensatory hip hiking right
the motion of "pointing your toes" is known as
plantarflexion
The motion that occurs at the talocrural joint is:
plantarflexion/dorsiflexion
In closed kinetic chain, the anterior cruciate ligament prevents _______ translation of the femur on the tibia.
posterior
As a person goes into a deep squat, the line of gravity moves ______ to the knee and the flexion moment of the knee ______.
posterior; increases
limb advancement
preswing
lumbar disc pathology can be related to flexed sitting postures because of:
prolonged tension on the posterior annulus fibrosus
The two innominate bones articulate anteriorly via the
pubic symphysis
With reciprocal clicking, the first click is ______ and the second is ______.
recapturing; dislocating
hip extension is ACTIVELY LIMITED (controlled) by the
rectus femoris
Which of the following scenarios would be appropriate to isolate the gastroc-soleus complex to assess possible muscle injury?
resting PF with the knee flexed isolates the soleus
Orthopedic gait- ankle motion restriction
restriced DF early heel raise during stance may position hip in lateral rotation during stance during sway, may need to increase hip Flex/ knee flex to prevent tripping
shifting your body weight in standing from bilateral to unilateral stance on the right leg will cause the center of mass of the body to
rise and move to the right
The arthrokinematic motion during mandibular depression is ______ in the INFERIOR space and ______ in the SUPERIOR space.
roll; glide
The vertebral column contains fused vertebrae of the:
sacral spine
Cervical flexion occurs in what plane?
sagittal
The anterior and posterior cruciate ligaments prevent excess _____ plane motion.
sagittal
Hip flexion occurs in the _____ plane. In open kinetic chain hip flexion, the femur rolls _____ and glides _____.
sagittal; anterior; posterior
Which of the following muscles correspond to the action stated?
sartorius is a hip ext. rotator
Which of the following attachments is NOT common to both the medial and lateral meniscus?
semimembranosus
Mature walking
stability in stance sufficient foot clearance in swing prepositioning of foot during swing for IC adequate step length
Which of the following best describes the sacroiliac joint?
synovial joint anteriorly and syndesmosis posteriorly
the ankle joint is known as the talocrural joint. ID the bones of this joint
talus, tibia, and fibula
Which of the following is NOT correct about the knee meniscus?
the meniscus is not innervated
Ribs 8 through 10 are "false ribs" because:
they don't attach directly to the sternum
The _______________ muscle has a dynamic role in the functioning of the medial longitudinal arch.
tibialis posterior
gait cycle; stride
time from when the heel of one foot touches the ground to the time it touches the ground again
A characteristic unique to the cervical spine is:
transverse foramen
When the angle of inclination of the hip increases, this is called coxa ____________. The change in alignment (shorter distance between femoral head and greater trochanter) results in a ____________ in muscular demand to overcome gravitational adduction moments to maintain hip abduction.
valgus; increase
Which of the following muscles is not biarticulate?
vastus medialis
The muscle group that generates the most torque at the knee is:
vastus medialis; intermedius, lateralis
The costovertebral joint is an articulation between the ________ and the ________.
vertebral body; rib head
Immature walking
wide-based gait stepping initiated at hips w/ stiff knees IC made w/entire foot hips in lat. rotation short steps increased double limb support upper extremities used for balance lack of pelvic mobility