ugh

Which of the following phenotypes is most indicative of a natural killer (NK) cell? A. CD2+ CD3+ CD5+ CD7+ B. CD2+ CD3- CD11b+ CD16+ C. CD11b+ CD16+ CD33+ CD56- D. CD19+ CD20+ CD22+ CD57-

B

Which of the following signs and symptoms may be associated with immediate transfusion reaction, but is NOT usually associated with delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction? A. Fever and chills B. Unexplained bleeding from surgical site C. Unexplained drop in hemoglobin D. Transient jaundice

B

Which one of the following conditions is associated with G6PD deficiency? 1. Microcytic red cells 2. Precipitation of hemoglobin 3. Faulty heme synthesis 4. Hemoglobins with low oxygen affinities

B

In patients with Sickle cell disease, upon sickling what laboratory test will see an increase? A. MCV B. RBC C. MCHC D. Hematocrit

C

A patient has a history of repeated spontaneous abortion. Coagulation studies reveal an elevated APTT, normal PT, normal platelet function, and normal thrombin time. Schistocytes were seen on the peripheral blood smear. Which test should be performed to determine if the patient has lupus anticoagulant? A. Factor VIII assay B. Mixing studies with factor deficient plasmas C. Antinuclear antibody test D. Platelet neutralization test

D

What are the globular inclusions in this cell? A. Bacteria B. Fat droplets C. Vacuoles D. Russell bodies

D

All of the following tests will be abnormal in a patient with Stuart-Prower factor deficiency EXCEPT: A. PT B. APTT C. dRVVT D. Fibrinogen

D

What is the term used to describe inadequate blood supply that decreases availability of oxygen to the myocardium? A. Acute myocardial infarction (AMI) B. Angina C. Congestive heart failure (CHF) D. Myocardial ischemia

D

Which genetic description will NOT contain Bart's hemoglobin at birth? A. Heterozygous alpha thalassemia-1/alpha thalassemia-2 B. Heterozygous alpha-thalassemia-1 C. Homozygous alpha-thalassemia-2 D. Heterozygous alpha thalassemia-2

D

Which of the following organisms is indole negative? A. Escherichia coli B. Klebsiella oxytoca C. Chryseobacterium indologenes D. Capnocytophaga canimorsus

D

The suspicious form pictured here in a red cell (lacking Schuffner's dots) is responsible for which of the following conditions? A. Benign tertian malaria B. Black water fever C. Filariasis D. Chaga's disease

B

All of the following are methods employed for measuring the specific gravity of urine EXCEPT: A. Refractometry B. Hydrometry C. Osmolality D. Urine reagent strips

C

All of the following laboratory tests are used to determine kidney function EXCEPT: A. Creatinine B. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) C. Amylase D. Phosphorus

C

Which marker is the most useful for detection of gestational trophoblastic disease? A. CEA B. AFP C. hCG D. CA-125

C

According to your laboratory guidelines, a single homozygous cell may be used to rule out an antibody. Based on the 3 cell screen performed by tube, which of the following clinically significant antibodies are you unable to rule out? A. Anti-Fya, Anti-D B. Anti-Lua, Anti-Lea, Anti-Fya, Anti-C C. Anti-Lea, Anti-Fya, Anti-C D. Anti-Fya, Anti-C, Anti-Lub

D

Which test is NOT used as a screen for retroviruses in donated blood? A. Antibody to HIV type 1 or 2 B. Nucleic acid testing to detect HIV-1 RNA C. Antibody to HTLV types I and II D. Nucleic acid testing for HCV

D

Which of these methods measure fetal hemoglobin or D positive red cells or both to evaluate fetomaternal hemorrhage? A. Rosette test B. Kleihauer-Betke test C. Flow cytometry D. AHG testing

C

An obese adult with premature arthrosclerosis is seen in the clinic. When her serum is tested, no chylomicrons are present, LDL levels are normal, and VLDL levels are increased. There is an increase in triglycerides and slight increase in cholesterol. Lipoprotein electrophoresis reveals a heavy pre-beta band. She has no skin rash and uric acid is increased. The patient most likely has what kind of hyperlipoproteinemia? A. Type I B. Type III C. Type IV D. Type V

C

Assume you perform microbiology for an institution submitting surveillance cultures for MRSA. Which isolate should receive further workup to rule out methicillin (oxacillin) resistance? A. On Baird Parker agar, a gray brownish colony with no clear zone. Gram positive cocci in clusters, catalase positive B. Black colonies on Chromagar. Catalase positive, Gram positive cocci in clusters C. Yellow colonies on Mannitol Salt agar; catalase positive, coagulase positive D. Clear colonies on Mannitol Salt agar; catalase positive, coagulase negative

C

Donor red cells were collected on July 12th of this year. The RBCs were then frozen in glycerol on July 17th (5 days later) and stored at -65°C. What should the expiration date read on the frozen RBC unit? A. July 12, 1 year from collection date B. July 17, 1 year from freezing date C. July 12, 10 years from collection date D. July 17, 10 years from freezing date

C

The kidneys perform all of the following functions except: A. Acid-base balance B. Hormone production C. Reabsorption of waste products D. Water and electrolyte balance

C

The morphology of yeasts inoculated on cornmeal agar can be helpful in making a species identification. The field of view shown in this image is most consistent with the identification of: A. Candida kefyr B. Candida glabrata C. Candida parapsilosis D. Candida tropicalis

C

When transporting donated platelet units, what is the maximum amount of time that agitation of platelets can be stopped for? A. 1 hour B. 12 hours C. 24 hours D. 3 days

C

Which of the following antigens are well-developed on fetal cells? A. Lewis B. ABO C. Kell D. I

C

A patient has anemia with an elevated MCV of 106 fL. All of the following could be likely causes EXCEPT: A. Vitamin B12 deficiency B. Alcoholism C. Acute blood loss D. Liver disease

A

Which of the following dematiaceous fungi can cause Chromoblastomycosis? A. Culvaria spp. B. Cladophialophora spp. C. Bipolaris spp. D. Exophiala spp.

B

All of the following conditions would be associated with an increased level of alpha-fetoprotein EXCEPT: A. Prostate cancer B. Hepatocellular carcinoma C. Viral hepatitis D. Testicular tumor

A

Of the Enterobacteriaceae listed below, which of the following species fails to decarboxylate lysine, ornithine, and arginine? A. Pantoea agglomerans B. Enterobacter aerogenes C. Yersinia enterocolitica D. Proteus mirabilis

A

Which cardiac biomarker is a regulator of myocyte contraction? A. Myoglobin B. cTnT C. CK-MB D. CK-MB isoforms

B

Which of the following are markers currently used to differentiate heart failure from lung disease? A. TnI and TnT B. BNP and NT-proBNP C. Myoglobin and LD D. hs-CRP and homocysteine

B

The smooth, pasty appearing 72 hour yeast colonies growing on blood agar shown in the upper image are nons-specific and further studies must be performed to make the identification. One of these studies is a cornmeal agar preparation and is illustrated in the bottom image in which tiny, uniform, spherical cells are arranged in tight clusters. This yeast is commonly recovered from UTIs. Select the most likely yeast isolate. A. Candida glabrata B. Candida albicans C. Cryptococcus neoformans D. Candida parapsilosis

A

What procedure uses leukapheresis to collect the buffy coat from whole blood? A. Photopheresis B. Plasmapheresis C. Therapeutic apheresis D. Erythracytapheresis

A

What type of lipoprotein is the least dense? A. Chylomicrons B. VLDL C. LDL D. HDL

A

Which of the following analytes would be increased due to delay in centrifugation? A. Creatinine B. Ionized calcium C. Folate D. Bicarbonate

A

Which of the following parasites resembles Entamoeba histolytica but lacks ingested red cells in the trophozoite form? A. Entamoeba hartmanni B. Entamoeba coli C. Entamoeba gingivalis D. Endolimax nana

A

All of the following are Lancefield carbohydrate antigens found on beta-hymolytic Streptococcus spp. All of the following antigens are found on organisms from the Streptococcus anginosis group except: A. A B. B C. F D. G

B

An electrophoretic separation of lactate dehydrogenase enzyme that demonstrates elevation in LD-1 greater than LD-2 could be indicative of: A. A normal LD isoenzyme pattern B. Hemolysis C. Pancreatitis D. Hepatic injury

B

Human dog bite infections may be caused by each of the following bacterial species EXCEPT: A. Pasteurella multocida B. Capnocytophaga ochracea C. Captocytophaga cynodegmi D. Neisseria weaveri

B

Identify the urine sediment element shown by the arrow. A. Mucus thread B. Cylindroid C. Fiber D. Amorphous urates

B

A gram positive bacillus that has a rod-coccus cycle (short, thin rods in young cultures and cocci in older cultures) and an odor resembling cheese is: A. Rothia spp. B. Corynebacterium diphtheriae C. Brevibacterium spp. D. Dermabacter hominis

C

Which of the following gastrointestinal pathogens has an incubation period of 1-8 hours? A. Salmonella spp. B. Listeria monocytogenes C. Staphylococcus aureus D. Vibrio spp.

C

Error rates in the laboratory are estimated at what rate? A. Between 1:10 and 1:100 results B. Between 1:32 and 1:260 results C. Between 1:164 and 1:8300 results D. Between 1:250 and 1:11500 results

C