Unit 2-5
How many bones fuse in adulthood to form the hip bone? A. 3 B. 4 C. 6 D. 2 E. 5
A. 3
What neurotransmitter will result in constriction of the pupil? A. Acetylcholine B. Epinephrine C. Norepinephrine D. Serotonin
A. Acetylcholine
A drug is called an agonist if it ________. A. acts like the endogenous neurotransmitter by binding to its receptor B. causes pain C. blocks the voltage-gated calcium ion channel D. interferes with neurotransmitter reuptake E. blocks a receptor
A. acts like the endogenous neurotransmitter by binding to its receptor
Which of the following is NOT a role of glycocalyces? A. Contain molecules that allow the cell to bind to other cells B. Prevent donated organ rejection C. Contain receptors for hormones D. Contain enzymes to break down nutrients
B. Prevent donated organ rejection
Which Of Mendel's laws states that when any individual produces sex cells, gametes, the copies of gene separate, so that each sex cell, gamete, receives only one copy. A gamete will receive one allele or the other? A. Incomplete dominance B. Principle of segregation C. Recessive trait D. Sickle cell
B. Principle of segregation
Human sex cells (sperm or egg) contain _____ chromosomes. All other cells contain _____ chromosomes. A. 24; 48 B. 25; 50 C. 30; 60 D. 23; 46 E. 22; 44
D. 23; 46
Zoe has cystic fibrosis. Which of the following is the most likely explanation? A. Zoe probably inherited one faulty allele from her father, who is a carrier, and one normal allele from her mother. B. Zoe probably inherited one faulty allele from her mother, who must also have cystic fibrosis, and one normal allele from her father. C. Zoe must have inherited faulty alleles from both parents, both of whom must also have cystic fibrosis. D. Zoe must have inherited faulty alleles from both parents, both of whom are carriers.
D. Zoe must have inherited faulty alleles from both parents, both of whom are carriers.
In the Sliding Filament Model of Contraction, actin and myosin filaments slide past one another using what as an energy source? A. ADP B. DNA C. Carbon Dioxide D. NADH E. ATP
E. ATP
Anatomists name the skeletal muscles according to a number of criteria, each of which describes the muscle in some way. These include naming it_____________. A. after its shape B. its size compared to other nearby muscles C. its location in the body D. its action E. All of the above
E. All of the above
The cell membrane (also called the plasma membrane) contains which of the following molecules? A. proteins B. cholesterol C. phospholipids D. glycoproteins E. All of the above
E. All of the above
A synapse is the location where the axon of a neuron connect with another neuron or a muscle fiber. The following characteristic(s) are always present in chemical synapses: A. presynaptic element B. neurotransmitter (packaged in vesicles) C. synaptic cleft D. receptor proteins E. All the above are present.
E. All the above are present.
The neurochemistry of the sympathetic nervous system is based on the adrenergic system. Which of the following neurotransmitters affect(s) the sympathetic nervous system to most? A. epinephrine B. acetylcholine C. norepinephrine D. propranolol E. Answers A and C are correct.
E. Answers A and C are correct.
Which type of contraction allows a muscle to produce tension without changing the angle of a skeletal joint or moving a load? A. A motor neuron and the muscle fibers it innervates B. The sarcomere and its associated sarcolemma C. A packet of actin and myosin microfilaments D. All of the muscle fibers in a specific muscle E. A functional group of sarcomeres
A. A motor neuron and the muscle fibers it innervates
Which of the following is an INCORRECT pairing? A. Acetylcholine decreases digestion B. Epinephrine increases blood pressure C. Norepinephrine dilates the pupil D. Norepinephrine increases heart rate
A. Acetylcholine decreases digestion
Which of the following release ACh? A. All Preganglionic fibers B. Parasympathetic preganglionic fibers C. Sympathetic preganglionic fibers
A. All Preganglionic fibers
Axons in which tract are considered to be both ipsilateral and contralateral? A. Anterior corticospinal tract B. Corticobulbar tract C. Lateral corticospinal tract
A. Anterior corticospinal tract
Lesions of the cerebellar hemispheres and associated pathways cause ________. A. Appendicular ataxia B. Multiple Sclerosis C. Spasticity D. Truncal ataxia
A. Appendicular ataxia
Where the CSF is filtered back into the blood for drainage from the nervous system. A. Arachnoid granulations B. Arachnoid matter C. Pia matter D. Subarachnoid space
A. Arachnoid granulations
What type of ganglion contains neurons that control homeostatic mechanisms of the body? A. Autonomic ganglion B. Cranial nerve ganglion C. Dorsal root ganglion D. Sensory ganglion
A. Autonomic ganglion
Which part of a neuron transmits an electrical signal to a target cell? A. Axon B. Cell body C. Dendrites D. Soma
A. Axon
The two vertebral arteries merge to form which artery? A. Basilar B. Carotid C. Choroidal D. Ophthalmic
A. Basilar
Where are gomphosis joints found? A. Between teeth and the socket they sit in B. Between the long bones of the body, such as the radius and ulna C. Between the tibia and fibula bones
A. Between teeth and the socket they sit in
The loss of lateral peripheral vision is known as ___________. A. Bilateral hemianopia B. Double vision C. Near sighted D. Tunnel vision
A. Bilateral hemianopia
During prophase, as the centrioles are migrating to opposite ends of the cell, their spindle fibers attach to what part of the chromatids? A. Centromeres B. Microtubules C. Telomeres
A. Centromeres
Which of the following is not part of the corticospinal pathway? A. Cerebellar deep white matter B. Lateral column C. Medulla D. Midbrain
A. Cerebellar deep white matter
The comparison of cerebral motor commands and proprioceptive feedback occurs where? A. Cerebellum B. Cerebrum C. Hypothalamus D. Thalamus
A. Cerebellum
Reduces blood loss from damaged blood vessels and forms a network of fibrin proteins that traps blood vessels and binds the edges of the wound together describes which of these? A. Clotting B. Endothelium C. Histamine D. Swelling
A. Clotting
Salivary glands and glands of the respiratory passages are which type of exocrine gland? A. Compound tubuloalveolar B. Compound tubular C. Simple branched alveolar D. Simple tubular
A. Compound tubuloalveolar
Referred pain is ____________. A. Conscious perception B. Random C. Unconscious perception
A. Conscious perception
The parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system ___________. A. Contains spinal and cervical nerves B. Has numerous collateral ganglia C. Has relatively long postganglionic fibers D. Mediates the body's response to stress
A. Contains spinal and cervical nerves
The pelvic girdle consists of which of the following bones? A. Coxal B. Coxal bones and leg C. Coxal bones, leg bones and foot D. Coxal, sacrum, and coccyx
A. Coxal
Which non-nervous tissue develops from the neuroectoderm? A. Craniofacial bone B. Digestive lining C. Respiratory mucosa D. Vertebral bone
A. Craniofacial bone
What is the fluid matrix inside the cell is called? A. Cytosol B. Endoplasm C. Nucleoplasm D. Plasma
A. Cytosol
Memory, emotional, language, and sensorimotor deficits together are most likely the result of what kind of damage? A. Developmental disorder B. Gunshot wound C. Stroke D. Whiplash
A. Developmental disorder
Bone develops from fibrous membranes and cartilage. Which of the following is the term referring to the development of bone from cartilage? A. Endochondral ossification B. Intramembranous ossification C. Periosteal ossification D. Remodeling
A. Endochondral ossification
The cuticle of the nail is also known as the _____________. A. Eponychium B. Lunula C. Hyponychium D. Perinychium E. None of the above
A. Eponychium
What is the projection of the thick proximal nail fold commonly called the cuticle also known as? A. Eponychium B. Hyponychium C. Lunula D. Nail root
A. Eponychium
Regarding the ABCDE mnemonic of a skin evaluation, "E" stands for _____________. A. Evolving B. Ever-changing C. Enormous D. Eczema E. None of the above
A. Evolving
Transitional epithelium is unique in that it: A. Expands and stretches B. Lubricates and filtrates C. Protects and filtrates D. Secrets and absorbs
A. Expands and stretches
Which nerve is responsible for taste, as well as salivation, in the anterior oral cavity? A. Facial B. Glossopharyngeal C. Hypoglossal D. Vagus
A. Facial
Which bones serve a point of attachment for muscles? A. Flat bones B. Long bones C. Sesamoid bones D. Short bones
A. Flat bones
Which bony landmark is located on the lateral side of the proximal humerus? A. Greater tubercle B. Lateral epicondyle C. Lesser tubercle D. Trochlea
A. Greater tubercle
Mendel believed that the characteristics of pea plants are determined by which of the following? A. Inheritance of units or factors from both parents B. Inheritance of units or factors from one parent C. Relative health of the parent plants at the time of pollination
A. Inheritance of units or factors from both parents
The stage of the cell cycle during which two new and fully functional nuclei are formed is called ________. A. M B. G1 C. S D. G3 E. G2
A. M
The two general types of cells found in the nervous system are _______ and ________. A. Neurons; glial cells B. Neurons; target cells C. Glial cells; myelin cells D. Neurons; nodes of Ranvier E. Astrocytes; oligodendrocytes
A. Neurons; glial cells
The following types of glial cells (supportive cells) are responsible for helping to synthesize myelin, the insulation of axons: _____________ in the central nervous system (CNS) and ____________ in the peripheral nervous system (PNS.) A. Oligodendrocytes; Schwann cells B. Neurons; astrocytes C. Neurons; Schwann cells D. Microglia; astrocytes E. Schwann cells; Oligodendrocytes
A. Oligodendrocytes; Schwann cells
Which type of fiber could be considered the longest? A. Preganglionic parasympathetic B. Preganglionic sympathetic C. Postganglionic parasympathetic D. Postganglionic sympathetic
A. Preganglionic parasympathetic
All of the following are functions of skeletal muscles except for which? A. Regulate blood pressure B. Maintain balance C. Produce movement D. Produce heat E. Stop movement
A. Regulate blood pressure
This is the outermost layer with 15-30 cell layers, and accounts for the bulk of epidermal thickness; Helps prevent the penetration of microbes and the dehydration of underlying tissues. A. Stratum Corneum B. Stratum Granulosum C. Stratum Lucidum D. Stratum Spinosum
A. Stratum Corneum
Although a number of muscles may be involved in an action, the principal muscle involved is called the prime mover, or ________. A muscle with the opposite action of the prime mover is called an _________. A. agonist; antagonist B. antagonist; opposer C. antagonist; agonist D. agonist; secondary mover E. None of the above are true.
A. agonist; antagonist
In observing epithelial cells under a microscope, the cells are arranged in a single layer and look tall and narrow, and the nucleus is located close to the basal side of the cell. The specimen is what type of epithelial tissue? A. columnar B. stratified C. transitional D. squamous E. stratified
A. columnar
The nervous system is involved in receiving __________ about the environment around and then generating __________ to that information. A. information; responses B. information; input C. responses; input D. integration; responses E. responses; integration
A. information; responses
A drug that affects both divisions of the autonomic system is going to bind to, or block, which type of neurotransmitter receptor? A. nicotinic B. muscarinic C. α-adrenergic D. β-adrenergic E. Both A and C are correct.
A. nicotinic
Striations, cylindrical cells, and multiple nuclei are observed in ________. A. skeletal muscle only B. cardiac muscle only C. smooth muscle only D. skeletal and cardiac muscles E. all three types of muscle
A. skeletal muscle only
The process named "transcription" occurs within the cell nucleus. ___________ is produced during this process. A. A ribosome B. A mRNA molecule C. A very short amino acid chain D. A tRNA molecule E. A pRNA
B. A mRNA molecule
Why is DNA replication said to be "semiconservative"? A. After replication is complete, a proofreading process begins so that mistakes can be corrected. B. After replication is complete, one of the two parent DNA strands makes up half of each new DNA molecule. C. DNA replication takes place at the same time as cell division saving time and effort. D. Replication takes place like unzipping a zipper and requires little effort.
B. After replication is complete, one of the two parent DNA strands makes up half of each new DNA molecule.
Which of these allows the head to rock forward and backward? A. Atlantoaxial joint B. Atlanto-occipital joint C. Temporomandibular joint D. Zygapophysial joint
B. Atlanto-occipital joint
With respect to their direct effects on osseous tissue, which pair of hormones has actions that oppose each other? A. Calcitonin and calcitriol B. Calcitonin and parathyroid hormone C. Estrogen and progesterone D. Estrogen and testosterone
B. Calcitonin and parathyroid hormone
Which of the following types of joints are associated with the growth plate? A. Amphiarthorosis B. Cartlaginous C. Synarthrosis D. Synovial
B. Cartlaginous
Connective tissue is made of which three essential components? A. Cells, ground substance, and carbohydrate fibers B. Cells, ground substance, and protein fibers C. Collagen, ground substance, and protein fibers D. Matrix, ground substance, and fluid
B. Cells, ground substance, and protein fibers
Which nucleus in the medulla is connected to the inferior colliculus? A. Chief sensory nucleus B. Cochlear nucleus C. Solitary nucleus D. Vestibular nucleus
B. Cochlear nucleus
Multiple sclerosis best described by which of the following? A. Buildup of protein in midbrain B. Demyelination, axons lose myelin C. Inability to form new memories D. Late onset of dementia
B. Demyelination, axons lose myelin
Which layer of the meninges surrounds and supports the sinuses that form the route through which blood drains from the CNS? A. Arachnoid mater B. Dura mater C. Pia mater D. Subarachnoid
B. Dura mater
Which gland is primarily responsible for thermoregulation and homeostasis? A. Apocrine gland B. Eccrine gland C. Sebaceous gland
B. Eccrine gland
Which of the following is not a type of muscle tissue? A. Skeletal Muscle B. Elastic Muscle C. Cardiac Muscle D. Smooth Muscle E. All of the above are types of muscle tissue
B. Elastic Muscle
The body can synthesize Vitamin D when: A. Develop rickets. B. Exposed to UV radiation. C. You drink milk. D. You have soft bones.
B. Exposed to UV radiation.
What is the name for a bundle of axons within a nerve? A. Epineurium B. Fascicle C. Nerve root D. Tract
B. Fascicle
A movement in the sagittal plane that decreases the angle of the joint and reduces the distance between the 2 bones is called? A. Extentsion B. Flexion C. Pronation D. Rotation
B. Flexion
One of the functions of the integumentary system is protection. Which of the following does NOT directly contribute to that function? A. Desmosomes B. Folic acid synthesis C. Merkel cells D. Stratum Lucidum
B. Folic acid synthesis
Smooth muscle tissue can be found in all but which of the following places? A. Stomach B. Heart C. Artery walls D. Skin E. Visceral organs
B. Heart
Choose the genetic disorder caused by a dominant allele. A. Hemophilia B. Huntington's disease C. Sickle-cell anemia D. Tay-Sachs disease
B. Huntington's disease
Similar to the hair, nails grow continuously throughout our lives. Which of the following is furthest from the nail growth center? A. Eponychium B. Hyponychium C. Nail bed D. Nail root
B. Hyponychium
What region of the diencephalon coordinates homeostasis? A. Epithalamus B. Hypothalamus C. Subthalamus D. Thalamus
B. Hypothalamus
Broken bone ends forced into each other. A. Closed/simple fracture B. Impacted fracture C. Oblique fracture D. Spiral fracture
B. Impacted fracture
Where is bone marrow found? A. Inside compact bone B. Inside spongy bone C. Inside the Haversian canal D. Inside the lamellae of the bone
B. Inside spongy bone
Which of the following is a feature of both somatic and visceral senses? A. Causes skeletal muscle contraction B. Involves an axon in the ventral nerve root C. Projects to a ganglion near the target effector D. Requires cerebral input
B. Involves an axon in the ventral nerve root
The ankle joint ________. A. Allows for gliding movements that produce inversion/eversion of the foot B. Is a uniaxial hinge joint C. Is also called the subtalar joint D. Is supported by the tibial collateral ligament on the lateral side
B. Is a uniaxial hinge joint
Which of the following foods is best for bone health? A. Carrots B. Leafy green vegetables C. Liver D. Oranges
B. Leafy green vegetables
Which location on the body has the largest region of somatosensory cortex representing it, according to the sensory homunculus? A. Elbow B. Lips C. Neck D. Thigh
B. Lips
Atrophy refers to ________. A. Loss of elasticity B. Loss of mass C. Loss of permeability D. Loss of rigidity
B. Loss of mass
When a patient flexes their neck, the head tips to the right side. Also, their tongue sticks out slightly to the left when they try to stick it straight out. Where is the damage to the brain stem most likely located? A. Brain stem B. Medulla C. Occipital lobe D. Temporal lobe
B. Medulla
Which primary vesicle of the embryonic nervous system does not differentiate into more vesicles at the secondary stage? A. Diencephalon B. Mesencephalon C. Prosencephalon D. Rhombencephalon
B. Mesencephalon
Of the following, which protects the nervous system but is not a part of nervous tissue? A. Astrocyte cell B. Microglia C. Neuroglia D. Schwann cell
B. Microglia
The tight coil of wrapped membranes that encloses the axon is called the ___________. A. Schwann cell B. Myelin sheath C. Satellite cell D. Neurons
B. Myelin sheath
A muscle-forming stem cell is called a what? A. Myotube B. Myoblast C. Somite D. Satellite cell E. Mesodermal cell
B. Myoblast
Which nerve projects to the hypothalamus to indicate the level of light stimuli in the retina? A. Oculomotor B. Optic C. Glossopharyngeal D. Vagus
B. Optic
What is the layer of fibrous connective tissue covering the long bones called? A. Epiphyseal Plate B. Periosteum C. Lacunae D. Medullary Cavity E. Diaphysis
B. Periosteum
When the rounded process of one bone fits into the concave surface of another to allow movement in one plane it is called what type of joint? A. Hinge B. Pivot C. Plane D. Saddle
B. Pivot
Which of the following is a function of the rough ER? A. Detoxification of certain substances. B. Production of proteins. C. Regulation of intracellular calcium concentration. D. Synthesis of steroid hormones.
B. Production of proteins.
The functional unit of a muscle fiber is called what? A. Sarcolemma B. Sarcomere C. Sartorius D. Sarcophagus E. Sarcoplasmic reticulum
B. Sarcomere
As you are walking down the beach, you see a dead, dry, shriveled-up fish. Which layer of your epidermis keeps you from drying out? A. Stratum Basale B. Stratum Corneum C. Stratum Granulosum D. Stratum Spinosum
B. Stratum Corneum
In muscular hypertrophy, what happens to muscle fibers? A. New muscle cells are formed B. Structural proteins are added and cell diameter increases C. Structural proteins are lost and cell diameter decreases D. Muscle fibers deteriorate from lack of use E. Muscle mass decreases
B. Structural proteins are added and cell diameter increases
The plantar reflex that tests for the Babinski sign is which type of reflex? A. Stretch reflex B. Superficial reflex C. Visceral reflex D. Withdrawal reflex
B. Superficial reflex
Which of the following joints are functionally different but structurally the same? A. Amphiarthrosis and diarthrosis B. Synarthrosis and amphiarthrosis C. Synarthrosis and diarthrosis
B. Synarthrosis and amphiarthrosis
When testing sensory perception within a dermatome, it is essential that you do what? A. Position the patient appropriately B. Test lateral to medial on the trunk C. Test proximal to distal on appendages D. Use deep pressure as a stimulus
B. Test lateral to medial on the trunk
Which of the following terms would be used in the name of a muscle that moves the leg away from the body? A. extensor B. abductor C. rotator D. adductor E. flexor
B. abductor
A drug is called an antagonist if it ________. A. blocks the voltage-gated calcium ion channel B. blocks a receptor which makes the endogenous neurotransmitter not function as well C. acts like the endogenous neurotransmitter by binding to its receptor D. causes pain E. interferes with neurotransmitter reuptake
B. blocks a receptor which makes the endogenous neurotransmitter not function as well
The division of the nervous system that includes the brain and the spinal cord is the _________ nervous system. A. autonomic B. central C. sympathetic D. parasympathetic E. peripheral
B. central
Which of the following cavities contains a component of the central nervous system? A. abdominal B. cranial C. pelvic D. peritoneal E. thoracic
B. cranial
Which of the following chemicals can stimulate the parasympathetic nervous system? A. epinephrine B. nicotinic C. acetylcholine D. propranolol E. Answers A and B are correct.
B. nicotinic
The pectoral girdle consists of two bones, the ________ and the ________. A. 1st rib, scapula B. scapula, clavicle C. humerus, femur D. acromion, 1st rib E. shoulder, clavicle
B. scapula, clavicle
A major role of _________ receptors (part of the somatic nervous system) is to help us learn about the environment around us or about the state of our internal environment. A. peripheral B. sensory C. unencapsulated D. somatic E. motor
B. sensory
A more familiar name for the major sense named gustation is ________. A. hearing B. taste C. balance D. sight E. smell
B. taste
What is an allele? A. A heterozygous genotype B. A homozygous genotype C. Another word for a gene D. One of several possible forms of a gene
C. Another word for a gene
Which of the following sequences on a DNA molecule would be complementary to GCTTATAT? A. TAGGCGCG B. ATCCGCGC C. CGAATATA D. TGCCTCTC E. None of the above
C. CGAATATA
In general, skin cancers ________. A. Affect only the epidermis. B. Are easily treatable and not a major health concern. C. Can be reduced by limiting exposure to the sun. D. Occur due to poor hygiene.
C. Can be reduced by limiting exposure to the sun.
Name the short, hook-like bony process of the scapula that projects anteriorly. A. Acromial process B. Clavicle C. Coracoid process D. Glenoid fossa
C. Coracoid process
Which of the following is NOT a difference between DNA and RNA? A. DNA contains thymine whereas RNA contains uracil B. DNA contains deoxyribose and RNA contains ribose C. DNA contains alternating sugar-phosphate molecules whereas RNA does not contain sugars D. RNA is single stranded and DNA is double stranded
C. DNA contains alternating sugar-phosphate molecules whereas RNA does not contain sugars
The most abundant cell in connective tissue proper is the ________. A. Osteoblast B. Adipocyte C. Fibroblast D. Reticular tissue E. Elastic cell
C. Fibroblast
Which type of stem cell gives rise to red and white blood cells? A. Endothelial B. Epithelial C. Hematopoietic D. Mesenchymal
C. Hematopoietic
To pull on a bone, that is, to change the angle at its synovial joint, which essentially moves the skeleton, a skeletal muscle must also be attached to a fixed part of the skeleton. The moveable end of the muscle that attaches to the bone being pulled is called the muscle's ________, and the end of the muscle attached to a fixed (stabilized) bone is called the _______. A. Beginning; end B. Origin; fixed end C. Insertion; origin D. Origin; insertion E. Beginning; insertion
C. Insertion; origin
The Q-angle ____________. A. Is a measure of the amount of distance between the femur and tibia B. Is larger in men due to their size C. Is larger in women due to their wider pelvis D. Is normally 20-30 degrees
C. Is larger in women due to their wider pelvis
he skin is considered to be an organ because it __________. A. Comprises the largest part of the body B. Has multiple functions ranging from physical protection to homeostasis C. Is made of epithelial tissue and connective tissue
C. Is made of epithelial tissue and connective tissue
Where is the language function localized in the majority of people? A. Cerebellum B. Hippocampus C. Left cerebral hemisphere D. Right cerebral hemisphere
C. Left cerebral hemisphere
What gives rise to most of the muscle and connective tissues? A. Ectoderm B. Endoderm C. Mesoderm D. Neural tube
C. Mesoderm
Bones act as levers when: A. Muscles attach to bone. B. Muscles spasm. C. Muscle spans a joint and contracts. D. Muscles surround them and pull.
C. Muscle spans a joint and contracts.
All of the following are motor nerves EXCEPT: A. Facial B. Hypoglossal C. Optic D. Trochlear
C. Optic
Which of the following cranial nerves is not part of the VOR? A. Abducens B. Oculomotor C. Optic D. Vestibulocochlear
C. Optic
Which of the following receptors responds to vibration? A. Melanocyte B. Chemoreceptor C. Pacinian corpuscle D. Nociceptor E. Keratinocyte
C. Pacinian corpuscle
What type of cells can be extracted from human embryonic stem cells? A. Multipotent B. Oligopotent C. Pluripotent D. Totipotent
C. Pluripotent
Regarding the sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system, which of these is TRUE? A. Postganglionic fibers release acetylcholine. B. Postganglionic fibers are relatively long. C. Preganglionic fibers arise from thoracic and lumbar nerves. D. Preganglionic fibers release norepinephrine.
C. Preganglionic fibers arise from thoracic and lumbar nerves.
Which region of the frontal lobe is responsible for initiating movement by directly connecting to cranial and spinal motor neurons? A. Prefrontal cortex B. Premotor cortex C. Primary motor cortex D. Supplemental motor area
C. Primary motor cortex
Which is the lateral-most carpal bone of the proximal row? A. Hamate B. Pisiform C. Scaphoid D. Trapezium
C. Scaphoid
Which of the following bones is part of the Appendicular Skeleton? A. Rib B. Sacrum C. Scapula D. Vertebra E. Sternum
C. Scapula
A person typically has 206 bones. Which classification of bone varies in number from person to person? A. Irregular bone B. Long bone C. Sesamoid bone D. Short bone
C. Sesamoid bone
The embryonic tissue level, mesoderm, gives rise to which of the following type(s) of tissue? A. Skin cells B. Neurons C. Skeletal muscle D. Thyroid cells E. All of the above
C. Skeletal muscle
Our blood vessels are lined with muscles that allow for automatic dilation and constriction based on environmental situations. What kind of muscle tissue lines the blood vessels? A. Cardiac B. Skeletal C. Smooth
C. Smooth
The resting membrane potential is primarily due to the differences in concentrations of which ions? A. Calcium and sodium B. Proteins and potassium C. Sodium and potassium D. Calcium and phosphate E. Sodium and proteins
C. Sodium and potassium
The meninges protrude through the spinal column but nerves may not be involved and few symptoms are present. This describes which of the following? A. Development of the ventricles B. Formation of the neural tube C. Spina bifida meningocele D. Spina bifida occulta
C. Spina bifida meningocele
What region of the cerebral cortex is associated with understanding language, both from another person and the language a person generates himself or herself? A. Medial temporal lobe B. Postcentral gyrus C. Superior temporal gyrus D. Ventromedial prefrontal cortex
C. Superior temporal gyrus
Which of these joints is classified as a biaxial diarthrosis? A. The elbow joint B. The hip joint C. The metacarpophalangeal joint D. The pubic symphysis
C. The metacarpophalangeal joint
Hematopoiesis is best described as: A. The production of calcium in the bone. B. Triglycerides stored in adipose tissue. C. The production of blood cells. D. The bone acting as a reservoir of minerals.
C. The production of blood cells.
Which portion of the ventricular system is found within the diencephalon? A. Cerebral aqueduct B. Fourth ventricle C. Third ventricle D. Lateral ventricles
C. Third ventricle
What is the name of the process during which a chain of amino acids called a polypeptide is synthesized? A. Synthesizing B. Splicing C. Translation D. Transcription E. Trans-section
C. Translation
Slow oxidative (SO) muscle fibers: A. May fatigue more quickly than fast glycolic and fast oxidative fibers B. Are intermediate types between fast glycolic and fast oxidative fibers C. Use primarily aerobic respiration D. Use primarily anaerobic glycolysis E. Do not produce ATP
C. Use primarily aerobic respiration
Testing for the vestibulocochlear nerve (CN VIII) include all of these EXCEPT? A. Rhine test B. Snellen chart C. Vibrating tuning fork D. Webber test
C. Vibrating tuning fork
The skeletal muscles are divided into _______ (muscles of the trunk and head) and ___________ (muscles of the arms and legs) categories. A. anterior, posterior B. trunk, extremity C. axial, appendicular D. proximal, distal E. superior, inferior
C. axial, appendicular
The standard and initial response of the body to injury is called ___________. A. fever B. cell atrophy C. inflammation D. necrosis E. apoptosis
C. inflammation
What type of receptor cell is involved in the sensations of sound and balance? A. free nerve ending B. chemoreceptor C. mechanoreceptor D. photoreceptor E. nociceptor
C. mechanoreceptor
If a thermoreceptor is sensitive to temperature sensations, what would a chemoreceptor be sensitive to? A. light B. sound C. molecules D. vibration E. Both C and D are correct.
C. molecules
Which type of drug would be an antidote to atropine poisoning? A. anticholinergic B. nicotinic agonist C. muscarinic agonist D. nicotine E. α-blocker
C. muscarinic agonist
Which is moved the least during muscle contraction? A. the insertion B. the ligaments C. the origin D. the joints E. the tendons
C. the origin
A more familiar name for the major sense of somatosensation is ________. A. balance B. hearing C. touch D. taste E. sight
C. touch
Some specialists list as many as _____ different sensory modalities. There are ______ major senses which can then be separated into more specific categories. A. 3; 2 B. 5; 2 C. 7; 19 D. 17; 5 E. 10; 3
D. 17; 5
A DNA molecule has which of the following 3-dimensional structures? A. A linear chain of proteins B. A circular array of nucleotides C. A double-stranded array of proteins D. A double-stranded array of sugar-phosphate groups linked together by "bases" E. None of the above
D. A double-stranded array of sugar-phosphate groups linked together by "bases"
Wolff's law, which describes the effect of mechanical forces in bone modeling/remodeling, would predict that ________. A. A bed-ridden patient will have thicker bones than an athlete. B. A broken bone will heal thicker than it was before the fracture. C. A right-handed cyclist will have thicker bones in her right leg compared to her left. D. A right-handed pitcher will have thicker bones in his right arm compared to his left.
D. A right-handed pitcher will have thicker bones in his right arm compared to his left.
Which two proteins interact to cause a contraction in skeletal muscle? A. Collagen and Actin B. Myosin and Elastin C. Adenine and Guanine D. Actin and Myosin E. Keratin and Collagen
D. Actin and Myosin
Which property allows muscle tissue to pull on its attachment points and shorten with force? A. Elasticity B. Extensibility C. Excitability D. Contractility E. Volatility
D. Contractility
The joints between the articular processes of adjacent vertebrae can contribute to which movement? A. Abduction B. Circumduction C. Dorsiflexion D. Lateral flexion
D. Lateral flexion
The strand of DNA that is continuously synthesized into the replicating fork is: A. Double helix B. DNA replication C. Lagging strand D. Leading strand
D. Leading strand
Marfan syndrome is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern. Which of the following is TRUE? A. Female offspring are more likely to be carriers of the disease. B. Female offspring are more likely to inherit the disease. C. Male offspring are more likely to inherit the disease. D. Male and female offspring have the same likelihood of inheriting the disease.
D. Male and female offspring have the same likelihood of inheriting the disease.
Tendons are a type of fibrous connective tissue. What do tendons connect to bones? A. Marrow B. Fibroblasts C. Organs D. Muscles E. Other bones
D. Muscles
Where does a muscle fiber first respond to signaling from a motor neuron? A. Myosin binding site B. Excitation point C. ATP-binding site D. Neuromuscular Junction E. Flexible hinge region
D. Neuromuscular Junction
Which of the following could be elements of cytoarchitecture, as related to Brodmann's microscopic studies of the cerebral cortex? A. Activation by visual stimuli B. Connections to the cerebellum C. Number of gyri or sulci D. Number of neurons per square millimeter
D. Number of neurons per square millimeter
What are the bone forming cells that secrete organic matrix? A. Osteocytes B. Lacunae C. Trabeculae D. Osteoblasts E. Osteoclasts
D. Osteoblasts
Which of the following layers contain blood vessels? A. Stratum corneum B. Stratum basale C. Stratum granulosum D. Papillary dermis E. None of the above
D. Papillary dermis
What term describes the inability to lift the arm above the level of the shoulder? A. Fasciculation B. Fibrillation C. Paralysis D. Paresis
D. Paresis
Choose the tissue described here: Single layer of columnar cells varying in heights that appears multilayered, all cells connect to basement membrane; secretion & movement of mucin by ciliary action; ciliated version lines most of the respiratory tract, nasal cavity, part of pharynx, trachea & bronchi. A. Adipose tissue B. Cardiac muscle tissue C. Dense regular connective tissue D. Pseudostratified columnar epithelium
D. Pseudostratified columnar epithelium
Which enzyme is required for transcription? A. DNA polymerase B. Restriction enzymes C. RNAase D. RNA polymerase
D. RNA polymerase
Which trait reappears in the second generation after disappearing in the first generation when parents with different traits are bred? A. Hydrozygous B. Incomplete dominance C. Random D. Recessive trait
D. Recessive trait
Which means the reception and interpretation of sensory stimuli? A. Ataxia B. Embolus C. Hypovolemia D. Sensorium
D. Sensorium
The thalamus is the transfer point for most sensory tracts to reach the cerebral cortex. An exception would be which of these? A. Touch B. Sensation C. Sight D. Smell
D. Smell
Since the liver cells detoxify drugs, they most likely have an abundance of _________. A. Lysosomes B. Nuclei C. Ribosomes D. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
D. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
Sensory ataxia can be tested by performing which of these? A. Fine motor movements - index to thumb B. Rapid alternating movements C. Rise from chair with arms folded D. Stand feet together, eyes open then closed
D. Stand feet together, eyes open then closed
Which of the following is NOT a function of epithelial tissues? A. Absorption B. Protection C. Secretion D. Supply blood
D. Supply blood
The _________ system will dilate the pupil when the retina is not receiving enough light, and the _________ system will constrict the pupil when too much light hits the retina. A. Autonomic, somatic B. Parasympathetic, somatic C. Sympathetic, autonomic D. Sympathetic, parasympathetic
D. Sympathetic, parasympathetic
Since the shoulder joint is considered to be a ball and socket joint, it is a(n) __________ joint. A. Amphiarthorosis B. Cartlaginous C. Synarthrosis D. Synovial
D. Synovial
This stage is described as when the follicle enters a period of rest. It lasts about 3 to 4 months and the old hair falls out. A. Anagen B. Catagen C. Keratin D. Telogen
D. Telogen
Which of the following statements is correct about what happens during flexion? A. The bone rotates. B. The bone moves toward the center of the body. C. The angle between bones is increased. D. The angle between bones is decreased. E. The bone moves away from the body.
D. The angle between bones is decreased.
Voltage-gated sodium channels open upon reaching what state? A. Overshoot B. Repolarization C. Resting potential D. Threshold
D. Threshold
Which stem cells have the most potential to differentiate into any cells needed by an organism? A. Multipotent B. Oligopotent C. Pluripotent D. Totipotent
D. Totipotent
How is Treppe different from Tetanus? A. Treppe results in a fused contraction B. Treppe occurs when successive stimuli occur before the muscle can relax C. Treppe does not result in greater contractile force D. Treppe occurs with relaxation in between stimuli E. Treppe and tetanus are essentially the same
D. Treppe occurs with relaxation in between stimuli
Damage to the insula would be reflected by which deficit? A. Unable to recognize numbers B. Unable to use nouns C. Unable to identify objects D. Unable to use verbs
D. Unable to use verbs
Having a patient repeat consonants examines which nerve? A. Facial B. Glossopharyngeal C. Trigeminal D. Vagus
D. Vagus
Which region of gray matter in the spinal cord contains motor neurons that innervate skeletal muscles? A. Dorsal horn B. Lateral column C. Lateral horn D. Ventral horn
D. Ventral horn
Which region of the cerebellum receives proprioceptive input from the spinal cord? A. Flocculonodular lobe B. Left hemisphere C. Right hemisphere D. Vermis
D. Vermis
Which of the following helps an agonist work? A. an insertion B. a fixator C. the adjacent joint D. a synergist E. an antagonist
D. a synergist
Which of the following is probably going to propagate an action potential fastest? A. a thin, unmyelinated axon B. a thin, myelinated axon C. a thick, unmyelinated axon D. a thick, myelinated axon E. All of these propagate the action potential at the same rate.
D. a thick, myelinated axon
What neurotransmitter is released at the neuromuscular junction? A. norepinephrine B. serotonin C. dopamine D. acetylcholine E. pre-synaptic
D. acetylcholine
A shoulder separation results from injury to the ________. A. sternoclavicular joint B. costoclavicular joint C. costosternal joint D. acromioclavicular joint E. glenohumeral joint
D. acromioclavicular joint
What are some of the specific cell types that can act as receptors? A. free nerve endings B. encapsulated nerve endings C. specialized receptor cells D. all of the above can act as receptors. E. none of the above can act as receptors.
D. all of the above can act as receptors.
Which of these locations is where the greatest level of integration is taking place in the example of testing the temperature of something? A. skeletal muscle B. spinal cord C. thalamus D. cerebral cortex E. None of the above.
D. cerebral cortex
Which of these locations is where the impulses to cause a movement, for example away from a stimulus, are initiated? A. skeletal muscle B. spinal cord C. thalamus D. cerebral cortex E. Both B and D are correct.
D. cerebral cortex
Cells of the body are organized into _____ broad categories of tissue. A. three B. six C. five D. four E. two
D. four
Which component forms the superior part of the hip bone? A. pubis B. ischium C. sacrum D. ilium E. coccyx
D. ilium
The largest and most prominent of a cell's organelles is its __________. A. mitochondrion B. Golgi apparatus C. nucleolus D. nucleus E. ribosome
D. nucleus
DNA, and the genes found on the strands of DNA, contain information necessary for synthesizing which type of material? A. DNA B. carbohydrates C. ATP D. proteins E. glucose
D. proteins
Axons from which neuron in the retina make up the optic nerve? A. amacrine cells B. photoreceptors C. bipolar cells D. retinal ganglion cells E. none of the above
D. retinal ganglion cells
The most direct method by which an ion or molecule can move across a cell membrane is by ____________. A. active transport B. using an integral protein C. a sodium-potassium pump D. simple diffusion E. osmosis
D. simple diffusion
Which of the following is the epithelial tissue that lines the interior of blood vessels? A. stratified B. transitional C. pseudostratified D. simple squamous E. columnar
D. simple squamous
Which part of a neuron contains the nucleus? A. dendrite B. synaptic cleft C. axon D. soma E. synaptic end bulb
D. soma
The broad categories of connective tissue include which of the following types of connective tissue? A. connective tissue proper B. supportive connect tissue C. fluid connective tissue D. bony connective tissue E. A, B, and C are all correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct
The following types of tissue all are part of the category named muscle tissue: A. Skeletal muscle B. Smooth muscle C. Cardiac muscle D. Visceral muscle E. A, B, and C are all correct.
E. A, B, and C are all correct.
Think about the things that you do each day—talking, walking, sitting, standing, and running—all of these activities require movement of particular _____________. A. smooth muscles B. skeletal muscles C. joints D. cartilage E. B and C are correct
E. B and C are correct
Which of the following statements is/are correct? A. The white matter of the CNS is made up of bundles of axons. B. The gray matter of the CNS is made up of numerous neuron cell bodies. C. The white matter of the PNS is made up of ganglia. D. The gray matter of the PNS is made up of spinal nerves. E. Both A and B are correct.
E. Both A and B are correct.
The molecules which store the genetic instructions of an organism is ________. A. ADP B. ATP C. Histone D. RNA E. DNA
E. DNA
What is the type of ossification (bone formation) that occurs between sheets of fibrous connective tissue? A. Trabecular Ossification B. Primary Ossification C. Endochondral Ossification D. Flat Bone Ossification E. Intramembranous Ossification
E. Intramembranous Ossification
Which of the following cells are primarily responsible for producing the pigment that gives color to the skin? A. Langerhans cells B. Basal cells C. Merkel cells D. Keratinocytes E. Melanocytes
E. Melanocytes
The upper limb is divided into three regions. These consist of the ______, located between the shoulder and elbow joints; the _______, which is between the elbow and wrist joints; and the _______, which is located distal to the wrist. There are ____ bones in each upper limb. A. upper arm, lower arm, hand, 16 B. upper arm, lower arm, hand 22 C. humerus, radius, hand, 10 D. humerus, scapula, radius, 6 E. arm, forearm, hand, 30
E. arm, forearm, hand, 30
The cells responsible for the transmission of the nerve impulse are ________. A. oligodendrocytes B. transmission cells C. microglia D. astrocytes E. neurons
E. neurons