Unit 2 homework questions A&P

What are giant, multinucleated cells that remove and recycle bone matrix called?

osteoclasts

An extension of a pelvic bone that makes an angle with the main body of the structure is called a(n) _________.

ramus

Synovial fluid is not/does not:

similar in composition to the ground substance in dense connective tissues.

The inferior and superior nuchal lines are not/do not:

sites of articulation between the skull and the first cervical vertebra.

Which muscle types are voluntary, and which are involuntary?

skeletal muscle is voluntary, and cardiac and smooth muscles are involuntary

Which three organ systems coordinate to maintain normal blood calcium level?

skeletal system, digestive system, urinary system

A totally, rigid, immovable joint, which is created when two bones fuse and the boundary between them disappears, is called a(n) ___________.

synostosis

What supplies the articular cartilage of long bones with oxygen and nutrients?

synovial fluid

Which tarsal bone functions to transmit the weight of the body from the tibia toward the toes?

talus

The external acoustic meatus is a foramen in which skull bone?

temporal

Which bone contains the carotid canal?

temporal

At each end of the muscle, the collagen fibers of the epimysium, and each perimysium and endomysium, come together to form a

tendon

Which of the following are not components of the skeletal system?

tendons

Glenoid labrum

A fibrocartilage rim that increases the depth of the shoulder joint cavity

Red bone marrow

A highly vascular tissue involved in the production of blood cells

Tronchanter

A large, rough projection

Lacuna

A pocket sandwiched between layers of matrix

Acetabular labrum

A projecting rim of fibrous cartilage that increases the depth of the hip joint cavity

Osteoblasts

Precursor bone cells that produce new bone matrix

Osteogenesis

Process in which new bone matrix is produced when osteoid is converted to bone

What process is the insertion site for the temporalis muscle?

coronoid process

Typical lumbar vertebrae do not have __________.

costal facets

A ________ is a rounded passageway for passage of blood vessels and/or nerves.

foramen

The hyoid bone is suspended by

ligaments

Which of the following primary vertebral ligaments connects the laminae of adjacent vertebrae?

ligamentum flavum

Of the primary vertebral ligaments, the __________ extends from vertebra C7 to the base of the skull.

ligamentum nuchae

Which structure of the hip joint originates along the transverse acetabular ligament and attaches to the fovea capitis?

ligamentum teres

When a pencil is held upright, without securing the point, it can be pushed across the surface; this kind of motion, gliding, is an example of__________ motion.

linear

Femur

long bone

What type of bone has a shaft (diaphysis) and two expanded knoblike ends (epiphyses)?

long bone

When the epiphyseal plate is replaced by bone,

long bones have reached their adult length

Wrinkles in elderly individuals are the result of______

loss of elastic filaments in the reticular layer of the dermis.

The parathyroid glands secrete parathyroid hormone (PTH) in response to which condition?

low calcium ion levels in plasma

Which carpal bone lies medial to the scaphoid and also articulates with the radius?

lunate

The _____ is the smooth, cup-shaped articular surface of the acetabulum.

lunate surface

To enable clinicians to examine the structure of problematic joints, __________ is a cost-effective and noninvasive method of viewing.

magnetic resonance imaging

The Na+/K+ ion pump is responsible for

maintaining the sodium/potassium concentration gradients constant.

The part of the sternum that articulates with the clavicles is the

manubrium.

Which surface feature of the skull is a large passageway through the substance of a bone?

meatus

Which of the following is an attachment site for a tendon on the humerus?

medial epicondyle

The movement in which the anterior surface of a limb turns toward the long axis of the trunk is called _________.

medial rotation

The movement of rotating a limb toward the anterior surface of the body is called

medial rotation

The space within the hollow shaft of a long bone is called which of the following?

medullary cavity

Within the synovial joint, a pad of fibrous cartilage situated between opposing bones is known as which of the following?

meniscus

The following are major steps in the process of intramembranous ossification. 1. Clusters of osteoblasts form osteoid that becomes mineralized. 2. Osteoblasts differentiate within mesenchymal connective tissue. 3. Spicules of bone radiate out from the ossification centers. 4. Mesenchymal cells aggregate. What is the correct order for these events?

4, 2, 1, 3

The region of the sarcomere containing the thick and thin filaments is the

A band.

Fibrodysplasia ossificans progressiva (FOP)

A rare single-gene mutation results in the deposition of bone around skeletal muscles.

Synchondrosis

A rigid, cartilaginous bridge binds the articulating bones.

Sacral tuberosity

A roughened area that marks the attachment site of ligaments that stabilize the sacroiliac joint

Fossa

A shallow depression or recess in the surface of the bone

Tuberosity

A small, rough projection that may occupy a broad area of the bone surface

Foramen

A small, rounded passageway through which blood vessels or nerves penetrate the bone

Tubercle

A small, rounded projection

Synostosis

A totally rigid, immovable joint is created when two bones fuse and the boundary between them disappears.

Acromegaly

Abnormal increase of growth hormone levels after epiphyseal cartilages close results in thicker, not longer, bones, especially those in the face, jaw, and hands.

Yellow bone marrow

Adipose tissue important in the storage of energy reserves

Which is false regarding arthroscopy?

An arthroscope can show soft tissue details outside the joint cavity.

Fissure

An elongated cleft or gap

Which statement regarding synovial joints is true?

Any mobile diarthrosis will be damaged by movement beyond the normal range of motion.

Ligamentum teres

Attaches the deep fossa of the hip bone to the fovea capitis of the femoral head

Once a pimple on Marcus' face begins to heal, what skin cells will divide rapidly to heal any damaged epithelial tissue in the epidermis?

Basal cells

Sagittal suture

Between the parietal bones

Annular ligament

Binds the head of the radius to the ulna

Scaphoid

Boat-shaped proximal carpal bone on the lateral border of the wrist

What happens to bones when large numbers of calcium ions are mobilized into the blood?

Bones become weaker.

Crista galli

Bony ridge to which the falx cerebri, a membrane that stabilizes the position of the brain, attaches

Ala

Broad and winglike; provides an extensive area for muscle attachment

Which of the following vertebrae has no vertebral body and no spinous process?

C1

Which vertebra is known as the vertebra prominens?

C7

Calcium is stored.

Calcitonin inhibits osteoclasts but does not affect osteoblasts, which continue to deposit calcium ions within the bone matrix.

Calcium is conserved.

Calcitriol is continuously secreted by the kidneys at low levels sufficient to keep pace with the rate of calcium ion reabsorption at the kidneys.

5th step of endochondral ossification

Capillaries and osteoblasts migrate into the epiphyses.

Humeroradial joint

Capitulum of humerus with the head of the radius

Small, oval, curved faces on vertebral body

Cervical vertebrae

1st step of endochondral ossification

Chondrocytes near the center of the shaft increase greatly in size.

Which type of fracture is a break in the distal portion of the radius?

Colles' fracture

Bulging disc

Compressed nucleus pulposus may distort the anulus fibrosus.

Anterior longitudinal ligament

Connects the anterior surfaces of adjacent vertebral bodies

Foramen magnum

Connects the cranial cavity with the vertebral canal, which is enclosed by the vertebral column

Posterior longitudinal ligament

Connects the dorsal surfaces of adjacent vertebral bodies

Interspinous ligament

Connects the spinous processes of adjacent vertebrae

Ethmoidal labyrinth

Consists of small interconnected chambers that open into the nasal cavity on each side

Orbital process (of the palatine bone)

Contains a small sinus that normally opens into the sphenoidal sinus

Superior nasal concha

Delicate projection of the lateral masses

Styloid process of the radius

Distal end of the radius, which helps stabilize the wrist joint

Eversion

Elevating the lateral edge of the sole

Marfan syndrome

Excessive cartilage formation at the epiphyseal cartilages results in very tall individuals whose limbs are very long and slender.

Epiphysis

Expanded area found at each end of the bone

Plantar flexion

Extension at the ankle joint

3rd step of endochondral ossification

Fibroblasts migrating with the blood vessels differentiate into osteoblasts as the vessels invade the central region.

Transverse acetabular ligament

Fills in the gap in the inferior border of the deep fossa that accommodates the head of the femur

Popliteal Surface

Flattened triangular area on the distal end of the posterior surface of the femur

Dorsiflexion

Flexion at the ankle joint

________ are non-ossified fibrous attachments between cranial bones.

Fontanelles

Coronoid process

Forms the inferior lip of the trochlear notch of the ulna

Vomer

Forms the inferior portion of the bony nasal septum

Horizontal plate (of the palatine bone)

Forms the posterior part of the hard palate

Coronal suture

Frontal bone — Parietal bones of either side

Osteoclasts

Giant cells that remove and recycle bone matrix

Compare gigantism with acromegaly.

Gigantism results from an overproduction of growth hormone before puberty, whereas acromegaly results from an overproduction of growth hormone after puberty.

The area in the center of the A band that contains no thin filaments is the

H band.

Coracoacromial ligament

Helps stabilize the shoulder joint

Hamate

Hooked carpal bone that lies medially in the distal row

Which statement is incorrect regarding hydroxyapatite?

If it is compressed, it will bend.

Sacral promontory

Important landmark in females during pelvic examinations and during labor and delivery

Osteopenia

Inadequate ossification

Pituitary growth failure

Inadequate production of growth hormone leads to reduced epiphyseal cartilage activity and abnormally short bones.

Calcium is excreted.

Increased calcitonin levels have an inhibitory effect on the kidneys and suppress calcium ion reabsorption.

Calcium is absorbed slowly.

Increased calcitonin secretion causes decreasing PTH or calcitriol levels, resulting in a decrease in the rate of calcium ion absorption from the intestines.

Supraspinous ligament

Interconnects the tips of the spinous processes from the sacrum to vertebra C7

Ligamentum nuchae

Interconnects the tips of the spinous processes from vertebra C7 to the base of the skull

Define intramembranous ossification.

Intramembranous ossification is bone formation within connective tissue without the prior development of a cartilage model.

Which of the following is not a characteristic of endosteum?

It has a fibrous outer layer and a cellular inner layer.

Which statement regarding degenerative joint disease (DJD) is FALSE?

It is not primarily caused by genetic factors.

What is the function of the annulus fibrosus?

Its collagen fibers attach the intervertebral disc to the bodies of adjacent vertebrae.

Medial malleolus

Large tibial process that provides support for the ankle joint

Cuboid

Lateral tarsal bone, which articulates with the anterior surface of the calcaneus

Trapezium

Lateral-most bone of the distal row; its proximal surface articulates with the scaphoid

Jugular foramen

Lies between the occipital bone and the temporal bone

Diaphysis

Long and tubular shaft of the bone

Smallest vertebral foramen

Lumbar vertebrae

Transverse processes have no transverse foramina

Lumbar vertebrae

Cruciate ligaments

Maintain the alignment of the femoral and tibial condyles

If the skin is able to repair itself so efficiently, why might incomplete healing and scarring result if Marcus irritates his pimples?

Marcus could permanently damage the dermis and accessory organs by irritating his pimples

Which condition, due to excessive cartilage formation at the epiphyseal cartilages, results in individuals who are very tall, with long, slender limbs?

Marfan Syndrome

Tibial tuberosity

Marks the attachment of the patellar ligament

Linea aspera

Marks the attachment site of powerful hip muscles to the posterior femur

Osteocytes

Mature bone cells that maintain the protein and mineral content of the surrounding matrix

Navicular

Medial tarsal bone, which articulates with the talus and with the three cuneiform bones

________ subdivide synovial cavities, channel the flow of synovial fluid, and allow for variations in the shapes of the articular surfaces.

Menisci

Subdivides, channels the flow of synovial fluid, and allows for variations in the shape of articular surfaces

Meniscus

________ sweat glands are widely distributed across the body surface, ________ glands are located wherever hair follicles exist, and ________ sweat glands are found only in a few areas.

Merocrine; sebaceous; apocrine

Osteogenic cells

Mesenchymal cells that divide to produce daughter cells that differentiate into osteoblasts and are important in the repair of a fracture

Abduction

Movement away from the longitudinal axis of the body in the frontal plane

Extension

Movement in the anterior-posterior plane that increases the angle between the articulating elements

Flexion

Movement in the anterior-posterior plane that reduces the angle between the articulating elements

Retraction

Movement of a part of the body posteriorly in the horizontal plane

Elevation

Movement of a structure in a superior direction

Opposition

Movement of the thumb toward the surface of the palm or the pads of other fingers at the first carpometacarpal and metacarpophalangeal joints

Adduction

Movement toward the longitudinal axis of the body in the frontal plane

Canaliculi

Narrow passageways that penetrate the layers of matrix

Metaphysis

Narrow zone that connects the expanded area of the epiphysis to the shaft of the bone

Trabeculae

Network of struts and plates formed by the matrix in spongy bone

Lambdoid suture

Occipital bone — Parietal bones

________ is also known as degenerative joint disease.

Osteoarthritis

________ free calcium from bone to maintain blood calcium levels.

Osteoclasts

________ is the organic component of the matrix in developing or repairing bone.

Osteoid

The structural units of mature compact bone are called

Osteons

Gigantism

Overproduction of growth hormone before puberty results in very tall individuals.

Calcium is released into body fluids.

PTH stimulates osteoclasts so that they accelerate their erosion of bone matrix.

Calcium is absorbed quickly.

PTH stimulates the increased release of calcitriol by the kidneys and enhances the effects of calcitriol on the intestines.

In relationship to the diaphysis of a long bone, the osteons are

Parallel

Perforating canal

Passageway that extends roughly perpendicular to the surface of the bone

The tibial tuberosity marks the attachment point of the ______.

Patellar ligament

Pisiform

Pea-shaped carpal bone

_____ are passageways, other than the central canals, that extend roughly perpendicular to the surface of the bone.

Perforating canals

Cribriform plate

Permits passage of the olfactory nerves through its olfactory foramina

The bumpy bone on the medial side of your wrist is actually the ________ bone.

Pisiform

__________ extends the ankle joint and elevates the heel.

Plantar flexion

Bones do not contain most of the body's ______.

Potassium

Lesser trochanter

Process that projects posteriorly and medially from the junction of the head and shaft of the femur; marks area where large tendons attach to the femur

Circumferential lamella

Produced during the growth and maintenance of the bone

Lesser tubercle

Projection that lies on the anterior, medial surface of the epiphysis of the humerus

Menisci

Provide(s) lateral stability to the joint

Fibular collateral ligament

Provide(s) lateral support

Tibial collateral ligament

Provide(s) medial support

Foramen ovale

Provides passage for nerves innervating the jaws

Stylomastoid foramen

Provides passage for the facial nerve, which controls the facial muscles

_____ _____ is a highly vascular tissue that fills the medullary cavity.

Red bone marrow

Osteoporosis

Reduction in bone mass is sufficient to compromise normal function.

Popliteal ligaments

Reinforce(s) the knee joint's posterior surface

Interstitial lamella

Remnant of osteons whose matrix components have been almost completely recycled by osteoclasts

Osteolysis

Resorption process in which the acids and proteolytic enzymes secreted by osteoclasts dissolve the matrix and release the stored minerals

Median sacral crest

Ridge formed by the fused spinous processes of the sacral vertebrae

Arcuate line

Ridge on the ilium that is continuous with the ridge that ends at the pubic tubercle

Ischial tuberosity

Roughened projection that bears the body's weight when one is seated

Greater tubercle

Rounded projection on the lateral surface of the epiphysis of the humerus

Given that acne relates to "oils" on Marcus' skin, what accessory skin part do you think is most directly related to acne?

Sebaceous glands

Illiac fossa

Shallow depression that helps support the abdominal organs

Fovea capitis

Small pit in the center of the femoral head where a ligament attaches the acetabulum to the femur

Triquetrum

Small pyramid-shaped carpal bone medial to the lunate; the pisiform sits anterior to this bone

Obturator foramen

Space that is closed by a sheet of collagen fibers whose inner and outer surfaces provide a firm base for the attachment of muscles of the hip

Trochlea

Spool-shaped medial portion of the condyle

Radial collateral ligament

Stabilizes the lateral surface of the elbow joint

Ulnar collateral ligament

Stabilizes the medial surface of the elbow joint

Nasal bone

Supports the superior portion of the bridge of the nose

________ bones are small, flat irregularly shaped bones that are typically found between the flat bones of the skull.

Sutural

Which exocrine glands are in the integument?

Sweat glands and sebaceous glands

Cuneiform bones

Tarsal bones named according to their relative position when arranged in a row with other bones of the same type

Squamous suture

Temporal bone — Parietal bone

Medial rotation

The anterior surface of a limb is turned toward the long axis of the trunk.

Syndesmosis

The articulating bones are connected by a ligament.

Symphysis

The articulating bones are separated by a wedge or pad of fibrocartilage.

Transverse fracture

The break occurs across the long axis of a bone.

Pott fracture

The break occurs at the ankle and affects both the medial malleolus of the distal tibia and the lateral malleolus of the distal fibula.

Comminuted fracture

The break shatters the affected area into a multitude of bony fragments.

Epiphyseal fracture

The break tends to occur where the bone matrix is undergoing calcification and chondrocytes are dying.

2nd step of endochondral ossification

The cells of the perichondrium are converted to osteoblasts around the edges of the cartilage.

Suture

The edges of the bones are interlocked and bound together by dense fibrous connective tissue.

Describe the connective tissue layers associated with skeletal muscle tissue.

The epimysium surrounds the entire muscle; the perimysium divides the skeletal muscle into fascicles; the endomysium surrounds individual muscle fibers.

Achondroplasia

The epiphyseal cartilages of the long bones grow unusually slowly and are replaced by bone early in life.

6th step of endochondral ossification

The epiphyses are filled with spongy bone.

Intramembranous ossification

The formation of bone without a prior cartilaginous model

What happens when an arrector pili muscle contracts?

The hair follicle becomes erect, producing "goose bumps."

Calcaneous

The largest of the tarsal bones

Which statement regarding the pectoral girdle is true?

The lateral angle forms a process that supports the glenoid cavity.

Herniated disc

The nucleus pulposus breaks through the anulus fibrosus.

Describe the nucleus pulposus and annulus fibrosus of an intervertebral disc.

The nucleus pulposus is a soft, elastic, gelatinous core and the annulus fibrosus is a tough outer ring of fibrocartilage.

Sacral hiatus

The opening at the inferior end of the sacral canal

Osteoid

The organic bone matrix before calcium salts are deposited

4th step of endochondral ossification

The osseous tissue of the shaft becomes thicker, and the cartilage near each epiphysis is replaced by shafts of bone.

Endochondral ossification

The process through which cartilaginous bones are gradually converted to bone, resulting in increased length of the bone as the cartilaginous plate continues to grow at the epiphyseal side of the cartilage

Appositional growth

The process through which the diameter of a bone is enlarged by addition of successive layers of circumferential lamellae to the outer surface of the bone

Which statement regarding the pelvis is false?

The pubic symphysis is a pad of hyaline cartilage.

Explain why the propagation of action potentials along electrically excitable membranes occurs in only one direction.

The refractory period prevents it from propagating back in the direction from which it began.

Explain the function of sodium-potassium ion pumps.

The sodium-potassium ion pump maintains the resting membrane potential of a cell by exporting three sodium ions out in exchange for two potassium ions entering the cell.

Medullary cavity

The space within the hollow shaft of the bone

Olecranon

The superior end of the ulna, the point of the elbow

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of thoracic vertebrae?

The transverse processes are short, without articular facets or transverse foramina.

Supination

The wrist and hand are turned so that the palm is facing anteriorly.

Which of the following accurately describes the pterygoid processes?

They are vertical, inferior projections that originate on either side of the sphenoidal body.

Auricular surface

Thickened, flattened area lateral and anterior to the superior portion of the lateral sacral crest

Lamellae

Thin layers of matrix

Displaced fracture

This type of break produces new and abnormal bone arrangements in addition to the break.

Talus

Transmits the weight of the body from the tibia toward the toes

Define transverse tubules.

Transverse tubules are tubular extensions of the sarcolemma that extend deep into the sarcoplasm contacting the terminal cisternae of the sarcoplasmic reticulum.

Humero-ulnar joint

Trochlea of the humerus with the trochlear notch of ulna

True or false, the pectoral girdle is formed by the two clavicles and scapulae.

True

Spiral fracture

Twisting stresses that spread along the length of the bone produce the break.

Trapezoid

Wedge-shaped carpal bone; also articulates with the scaphoid

The effects of aging on the skin include

a decline in the activity of sebaceous glands.

The articular cartilage damaged by osteoarthritis is characterized by __________.

a rough network of bristly collagen fibers

Spreading the fingers or toes apart is an example of __.

abduction

The intestinal response to PTH secretion when calcium ion levels are low is that calcium is

absorbed quickly.

Reinforce synovial joints

accessory ligaments

The __________ is a projecting rim of fibrous cartilage in the hip joint.

acetabular labrum

A rim of fibrocartilage in the joint cavity of the hip is called the

acetabular labrum.

Each clavicle curves laterally and posteriorly for roughly half its length, then forms a smooth posterior curve to articulate with a process of the scapula, the __________.

acromion

Movement toward the longitudinal axis of the body in the frontal plane is called:

adduction.

A syndesmosis is:

an amphiarthrotic joint

Which of the following structures binds the head of the radius to the ulna?

annular ligament

Which of the fontanelles does not disappear within a month or two after birth?

anterior fontalle

Deodorants are used to mask the effects of secretions from which type of skin gland?

apocrine sweat glands

Inferior radioulnar joint

appendicular

Pubic symphysis

appendicular

Sacroiliac joint

appendicular

The _______ includes the bones of the limbs and the pectoral and pelvic girdles.

appendicular skeleton

The __________ joint is an articulation between C1 and C2.

atlantoaxial

An example of a pivot joint is the joint between _________________.

atlas and axis

Atlanto-occipital joint

axial

Lumbosacral joint

axial

Sacrococcygeal joint

axial

The endosteum consists of a simple flattened layer of cells that covers the ______, generally without any intervening connective tissue fibers.

bone matrix

A __________ is a small, thin, fluid-filled pocket that forms in connective tissue outside of a joint capsule

bursa

Acts as shock absorber

bursa

Elevated levels of calcium ion in the blood stimulate the secretion of the hormone

calcitonin.

Parathyroid hormone (PTH) stimulates the increased release of _____ by the kidneys, enhancing its effects on the intestines and resulting in an increase in the rate of intestinal calcium absorption.

calcitriol

Bone plays a central role in the regulation of blood levels of

calcium.

The most abundant mineral in the human body is

calcium.

Structures that connect osteons with one another, and which radiate through the lamellae of bone, are called:

canaliculi.

The four curves of the adult spinal column are not all present at birth. Which of the following are the secondary curves, those that do not appear until several months later?

cervical and lumbar

Long, bifid, spinous process that points inferiorly

cervical vertebrae

Which substance is produced in the skin when exposed to UV radiation and subsequently converted to calcitriol?

cholecalciferol

During appositional bone growth, which of the following are deposited?

circumferential lamellae

In appositional growth, successive layers of what structure are added to the outer surface of the bone?

circumferential lamellae

Which of these constitutes the pectoral girdle?

clavicles and scapulae

The five vertebral regions are the cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and

coccygeal.

In a ______ fracture, the affected area of the bone is shattered into a multitude of bony fragments.

comminuted

Metatarsophalangeal joints are examples of __________ joints, a type of synovial joint.

condylar

Metacarpophalangeal joints 2-5

condylar joints

The __________ of the mandible articulates with the temporal bone at the temporomandibular joint.

condylar process

Ligamentum flavum

connects the laminae of adjacent vertebrae

Which of the following is a characteristic of spongy bone?

consists of a network of trabeculae

In spongy bone, the trabeculae are oriented along stress lines and are ______ extensively.

cross braced

The ligaments that limit the anterior-posterior movement of the femur and maintain the alignment of the femoral and tibial condyles are the ________ ligaments.

cruciate

Physical evidence that supports the sliding filament theory of muscle contraction includes

decreased width of the H band during contraction.

On the humerus, the __________ is a large, rough elevation on the lateral surface of the shaft, approximately halfway along its length.

deltoid tuberosity

What is the roughened surface on the humerus where the deltoid muscle attaches?

deltoid tuberosity

The long, tubular portion of a typical long bone is known as which of the following?

diaphysis

A freely movable joint is a(n)

diarthrosis

Which of the following is the functional category of joints that allow free movement?

diarthrosis

The weight of the body is supported by the

distal metatarsals and calcaneus.

The clavicle articulates with the scapula

distally with the acromion

Flexion at the ankle joint and elevation of the sole is an example of which of the following?

dorsiflexion

When bone formation begins in the embryo, the cartilaginous skeletal elements are gradually converted to bone through the process of ______

endochondral ossification

The delicate connective tissue that surrounds the skeletal muscle fibers and ties adjacent muscle fibers together is the

endomysium.

Osteogenic cells are mesenchymal cells present in the inner layer, or ______, that lines medullary cavities.

endosteum

The dense layer of connective tissue that surrounds an entire skeletal muscle is the

epimysium.

What structure allows a bone to grow in length?

epiphyseal cartilages

Which fracture type tends to occur where the bone matrix is undergoing calcification and chondrocytes are dying?

epiphyseal fracture

Secondary ossification centers occur in

epiphyses

Near the end of the endochondral ossification process, the:

epiphyses are filled with spongy bone.

Which cranial bone(s) forms the anteromedial floor of the cranium, the roof of the nasal cavity, and part of the nasal septum?

ethmoid bone

When a person is in the anatomical position, all of the major joints of the axial and appendicular skeletons (except the ankle joints) are at full ______.

extension

Which structural feature of fracture repair contains cartilage?

external callus

Thoracic vertebrae can be distinguished from other vertebrae by the presence of

facets for the articulation of ribs.

True or false, the shoulder joint is formed by the articulation of the humerus and clavicle.

false

Acts as packing material for the joint

fat pad

Granulation tissue is composed of

fibroblasts, clotted blood, an extensive capillary network.

A rare single-gene mutation disorder that involves the deposition of bone around skeletal muscles is called:

fibrodysplasia ossificans progressive (FOP).

The lateral bulge at your ankle is a projection from the

fibula

Which ligament is at risk for injury if the knee is hyperextended?

fibular collateral ligament

Dancer's fracture, due to rapid shifting of weight to a less elastic portion of the arch, occurs in which structure?

fifth metatarsal, close to the toe

Interstitial lamellae __________________________.

fill the spaces between the osteons in compact bone

What type of bone is the sternum?

flat

Sternum

flat bone

Which type of bones provides protection of underlying soft tissues?

flat bones

A ________ is a round or oval hole or opening in a bone.

foramen

The __________ is a jagged slit extending between the sphenoid and the petrous portion of the temporal bone.

foramen lacerum

Which foramen is the passageway for nerves to exit the cranium and innervate the jaw and its associated structures?

foramen ovale

The temporal bone DOES NOT _________

form part of the medial wall of the cranium

As at other joints, bursae at the shoulder reduce __________ where large muscles and tendons pass across the joint capsule.

friction

The shoulder joint, or ________ joint, permits the greatest range of motion of any joint.

glenohumeral

Which joint permits the greatest range of motion of any joint?

glenohumeral joint

Which fibrous-cartilaginous structure of the shoulder joint increases the actual extent of the joint cavity?

glenoid labrum

Vertebrocostal joint

gliding joint

Acromegaly results from which of the following?

growth hormone levels rising abnormally after epiphyseal cartilages close

List some hormones that are necessary for maintaining a healthy integument.

growth hormone, sex hormones, growth factors, glucocorticoids, and thyroid hormones

Variations in hair color reflect differences in the pigment produced by melanocytes that are located at the __________.

hair matrix

Which wrist bone is immediately proximal to the fifth metacarpal (V)?

hamate

Muscle fibers differ from "typical cells" in that muscle fibers

have many nuclei

A typical thoracic vertebra has a distinctive __________ body that is much larger and more massive than that of a cervical vertebra.

heart-shaped

The ligamentum nuchae

helps to hold the head in an upright position.

If the nucleus pulposus breaks through the anulus fibrosus, the condition is known as:

herniated disc

Articular cartilage is not/does not:

highly vascularized.

Interphalangeal joint

hinge joint

The largest and strongest articulation at the elbow is the:

humeroulnar joint.

Movement in the anterior-posterior plane that increases the angle between articulating elements past the anatomical position is called __________.

hyperextension

Which structural feature begins at the lateral base of each occipital condyle and ends at the inner surface of the occipital bone, near the foramen magnum?

hypoglossal canal

The free edge of the nail extends over an area of thickened stratum corneum called the __________.

hyponychium

Which pelvic girdle structure is described as a roughened area superior to the auricular surface?

iliac tuberosity

The sacrum articulates with the

ilium

The response to increased levels of calcitonin includes ___________________.

inhibition of osteoclasts

Which of the following is/are a joint(s) of the axial skeleton?

intercoccygeal joints

In the knee joint, the anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) and posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) attach the __________ area of the tibia to the femoral condyles.

intercondylar

The __________ is/are a facial bone that functions to create turbulence in air passing through the nasal cavity.

interior nasal concha

The vestibulocochlear nerve, which transmits vestibular and sound information, exits the cranial cavity through which opening?

internal acoustic meatus

The ________ passes through the jugular foramen.

internal jugular vein

Which structure on the femur marks the edge of the proximal articular capsule on the anterior surface of the femur?

intertrochanteric line

______ begins when mesenchymal cells differentiate into osteoblasts within embryonic or fibrous connective tissue.

intramembranous ossification

Bones of the pelvis

irregular bones

Circumduction:

is a complex angular movement.

All the following are characteristics of periosteum EXCEPT __________.

it is an incomplete cellular layer that lines the medullary cavity

Which articulation arches across the posterior surface of the skull and may have associated Wormian bones?

lambdoid suture

The movement in which the anterior surface of a limb turns away from the long axis of the trunk is called __________ rotation.

lateral

Which structure on the sacrum is a ridge that represents the fused transverse processes of sacral vertebrae?

lateral sacral crest

The mandible articulates with what other cranial bones?

left and right temporal bones

The anterior fontanelle __________.

lies at the intersection of the frontal, sagittal, and coronal sutures

In a typical long bone, the ______ is a narrow zone that connects the expanded area, located at each end of the bone, to the shaft.

metaphysis

The region of a long bone between the end and the shaft is known as the

metaphysis.

Which of the following is not a function of the skeletal system?

mineral absorption

Neurons and ________ have electrically excitable membranes that propagate action potentials.

muscle cells

The superior and inferior temporal lines mark the points of attachment for

muscles that close the mouth.

Which structure gives the intervertebral disc resiliency and enables it to absorb shocks?

nucleus pulposus

A synovial fluid function, __________, is a result of the continuous circulation of synovial fluid through the cartilage matrix.

nutrient distribution

Which structures are the joint surfaces that allow the cranium to articulate with the vertebral column?

occipital condyles

Movement of the thumb toward the palmar surface, or the pads of other fingers, is called which of the following?

opposition

To pinch with a thumb and finger involves a movement called

opposition.

During endochondral ossification, fibroblasts migrating with blood vessels differentiate into which structures?

osteoblasts

Which of the following cells produce bone matrix during osteogenesis?

osteoblasts

At puberty, epiphyseal closure occurs because ___________________.

osteoblasts catch up with chondroblasts

Accounting for most of the cell population in bone, ________ are mature bone cells that occupy pockets sandwiched between layers of matrix.

osteocytes

The lacunae of osseous tissue contain

osteocytes

In appositional growth, ____ in the inner layer of the periosteum differentiate into osteoblasts and add bone matrix to the surface.

osteogenic cells

In the condition called __________, osteoblast activity begins to decline, while osteoclast activity continues at previous levels.

osteopenia

The hyoid bone helps support all of the following structures except the?

palatine processes

The nasal complex includes the bones that enclose the nasal cavity and the ________ sinuses.

paranasal

Which hormone participates in a homeostatic feedback mechanism that increases blood calcium levels when low?

parathyroid hormone (PTH)

The fibula does not:

participate in the knee joint.

Which structures form the sides of the vertebral arch?

pedicles

Nerves and blood vessels that service the muscle fibers are located in the connective tissues of the

perimysium.

The outer covering of bone that contains connective tissue and a living layer of cells is the _______.

periosteum

Which bone-associated structure is continuous with the capsule of the joint, adding strength and helping to stabilize the joint?

periosteum

Which structure(s) forms part of the nasal septum, along with the vomer and a piece of hyaline cartilage?

perpendicular plate of the ethmoid

Inadequate production of growth hormones leads to reduced epiphyseal cartilage activity and abnormally short bones in the condition known as _________

pituitary growth failure

Proximal radioulnar joints

pivot joint

What type of synovial joint is the proximal radioulnar joint?

pivot joint

Which type of joint is found between the carpal bones?

plane

In the case of the humeroulnar joint, the shape of the trochlear notch of the ulna determines the __________.

plane of movement

The weakening of which primary vertebral ligament may result in the condition called a bulging disc?

posterior longitudinal ligament

In __________, the distal epiphysis of the radius rolls across the anterior surface of the ulna as the shaft of the radius rotates.

pronation

Which of the following is the special movement that occurs when a body part is moved anteriorly in the horizontal plane?

protraction

Which of the following is NOT considered a joint of the axial skeleton?

pubic symphysis

The pectineal line ends at the ______.

pubic tubercle

Which of the following anatomical landmarks on the humerus allows for the passage of a nerve?

radial groove

Which structure on the humerus crosses the distal end of the deltoid tuberosity?

radial groove

Which structure of the antebrachium (forearm) marks the attachment site of the biceps brachii muscle?

radial tuberosity

Identify the bone(s) of the forearm.

radius and ulna

Which is a general term that indicates pain and stiffness affecting the skeletal system, the muscular system, or both?

rheumatism

Which of the following is NOT considered a vertebrosternal rib?

rib 9

Which ribs articulate only at their heads, with no tubercular facets?

ribs 11 and 12

Nail production occurs at the nail_______

root

Which regions of the vertebral column do not consist of individual vertebrae?

sacral and coccygeal

First carpometacarpal joint

saddle joint

The repeating contractile unit of a skeletal muscle fiber is the

sarcomere.

Which of the following carpal bones is most commonly fractured during a fall?

scaphoid

What is the name for the thick, projecting ridge of bone on the posterior aspect of the scapula?

scapular spine

The hypophyseal fossa is the depression within the __________, a bony, saddle-shaped enclosure on the superior surface of the body of the sphenoid.

sella turcica

Patella

sesamoid bone

The carpal bones are examples of ________ bones.

short

Tarsal bones

short bones

The sella turcica is a structure found on which bone?

sphenoid

Which bone acts as a uniting bridge between the cranial and facial portions of the skull?

sphenoid

In intramembranous ossification, the developing bone grows outward from the ossification center in small struts called_______

spicules

During fracture repair, an internal callus forms as a network of ______ ______ unites the inner edges.

spongy bone

The zygomatic process of the temporal bone, inferior to the __________ portion, articulates with the temporal process of the zygomatic bone.

squamous

Intramembranous ossification:

starts during approximately the eighth week of embryonic development.

Which joint attaches the pectoral girdle and upper limb to the axial skeleton?

sternoclavicular joint

The only articulation between the axial skeleton and the pectoral girdle and upper limb is the:

sternoclavicular joint.

A branch of the facial nerve (cranial nerve VII) passes through which foramen?

stylomastoid foramen

An immovable joint is a(n)

synarthrosis

A gomphosis is an example of a(n) __________ articulation, describing its functional and structural classifications, respectively.

synarthrosis fibrous

The joint between the ends of the first pair of vertebrosternal ribs is which of the following?

synarthrotic synchondrosis

Which structure acts as a passageway for blood vessels that provide oxygen and nourishment to the brain?

the carotid canal

During intramembranous ossification, as the rate of growth slows, the connective tissue around the bone becomes organized into which of the following?

the fibrous layer of the periosteum

Identify the facial bones.

the paired nasal, lacrimal, palatine, zygomatic, maxillae, and inferior nasal conchae, and the unpaired vomer and mandible

The elbow joint is extremely stable because

the ulna and humerus interlock

Heart-shaped vertebral body

thoracic vertebrae

Transverse processes (all but two) have facets for rib articulations

thoracic vertebrae

The patellar ligament attaches to the anterior surface of which structure?

tibia

The medial surface of the knee joint is reinforced by the ________ ligament.

tibial collateral

The interconnecting bony struts of spongy bone are known as ________.

trabeculae

The lateral metacarpal bone articulates with which carpal bone?

trapezium

The capitate bone sits between the __________ and the hamate.

trapezoid

The complex of a transverse tubule and two adjacent terminal cisternae is known as a(n)

triad.

A ______ is a smooth, grooved articular process shaped like a pulley.

trochlea

At rest, active sites on the actin are blocked by

tropomyosin molecules

The __________ forms the posterior and lateral margin of each vertebral foramen.

vertebral arch

Which of the following best describes the term "Z line"?

where thin filaments are anchored

The adult sternum consists of the broad, trapezoid-shaped manubrium to which the sternal body attaches inferiorly and extends along the midline, and it ends inferiorly attached to the______.

xiphoid process

Inside the sarcoplasm, T tubules encircle each sarcomere at which point?

zones of overlap