Unit 6 TB

9. A patient with leukemia has developed stomatitis and is experiencing a nutritional deficit. An oral anesthetic has consequently been prescribed. What health education should the nurse provide to the patient? A) Chew with care to avoid inadvertently biting the tongue. B) Use the oral anesthetic 1 hour prior to meal time. C) Brush teeth before and after eating. D) Swallow slowly and deliberately.

A Feedback: If oral anesthetics are used, the patient must be warned to chew with extreme care to avoid inadvertently biting the tongue or buccal mucosa. An oral anesthetic would be metabolized by the time the patient eats if it is used 1 hour prior to meals. There is no specific need to warn the patient about brushing teeth or swallowing slowly because an oral anesthetic has been used.

2. A nurse is caring for a patient who has a diagnosis of acute leukemia. What assessment most directly addresses the most common cause of death among patients with leukemia? A) Monitoring for infection B) Monitoring nutritional status C) Monitor electrolyte levels D) Monitoring liver function

A Feedback: In patients with acute leukemia, death typically occurs from infection or bleeding. Compromised nutrition, electrolyte imbalances, and impaired liver function are all plausible, but none is among the most common causes of death in this patient population.

22. A patient has been found to have an indolent neoplasm. The nurse should recognize what implication of this condition? A) The patient faces a significant risk of malignancy. B) The patient has a myeloid form of leukemia. C) The patient has a lymphocytic form of leukemia. D) The patient has a major risk factor for hemophilia.

A Feedback: Indolent neoplasms have the potential to develop into a neoplasm, but this is not always the case. The patient does not necessary have, or go on to develop, leukemia. Indolent neoplasms are unrelated to the pathophysiology of hemophilia.

18. A patient with a diagnosis of acute myeloid leukemia (AML) is being treated with induction therapy on the oncology unit. What nursing action should be prioritized in the patients care plan? A) Protective isolation and vigilant use of standard precautions B) Provision of a high-calorie, low-texture diet and appropriate oral hygiene C) Including the family in planning the patients activities of daily living D) Monitoring and treating the patients pain

A Feedback: Induction therapy causes neutropenia and a severe risk of infection. This risk must be addressed directly in order to ensure the patients survival. For this reason, infection control would be prioritized over nutritional interventions, family care, and pain, even though each of these are important aspects of nursing care.

1. An oncology nurse is providing health education for a patient who has recently been diagnosed with leukemia. What should the nurse explain about commonalities between all of the different subtypes of leukemia? A) The different leukemias all involve unregulated proliferation of white blood cells. B) The different leukemias all have unregulated proliferation of red blood cells and decreased bone marrow function. C) The different leukemias all result in a decrease in the production of white blood cells. D) The different leukemias all involve the development of cancer in the lymphatic system.

A Feedback: Leukemia commonly involves unregulated proliferation of white blood cells. Decreased production of red blood cells is associated with anemias. Decreased production of white blood cells is associated with leukopenia. The leukemias are not characterized by their involvement with the lymphatic system.

20. A 60-year-old patient with chronic myeloid leukemia will be treated in the home setting and the nurse is preparing appropriate health education. What topic should the nurse emphasize? A) The importance of adhering to the prescribed drug regimen B) The need to ensure that vaccinations are up to date C) The importance of daily physical activity D) The need to avoid shellfish and raw foods

A Feedback: Nurses need to understand that the effectiveness of the drugs used to treat CML is based on the ability of the patient to adhere to the medication regimen as prescribed. Adherence is often incomplete, thus this must be a focus of health education. Vaccinations normally would not be administered during treatment and daily physical activity may be impossible for the patient. Dietary restrictions are not normally necessary.

28. Following an extensive diagnostic workup, an older adult patient has been diagnosed with a secondary myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS). What assessment question most directly addresses the potential etiology of this patients health problem? A) Were you ever exposed to toxic chemicals in any of the jobs that you held? B) When you were younger, did you tend to have recurrent infections of any kind? C) Have your parents or siblings had any disease like this? D) Would you say that youve had a lot of sun exposure in your lifetime?

A Feedback: Secondary MDS can occur at any age and results from prior toxic exposure to chemicals, including chemotherapeutic medications. Family history, sun exposure, and previous infections are unrelated to the pathophysiology of secondary MDS.

13. A nurse is caring for a patient with Hodgkin lymphoma at the oncology clinic. The nurse should be aware of what main goal of care? A) Cure of the disease B) Enhancing quality of life C) Controlling symptoms D) Palliation

A Feedback: The goal in the treatment of Hodgkin lymphoma is cure. Palliation is thus not normally necessary. Quality of life and symptom control are vital, but the overarching goal is the cure the disease.

The nurse is caring for a patient diagnosed with a megaloblastic anemia and administers what drug? a. Folic acid b. Hydroxyurea c. Ferrous sulfate d. Epoetin alfa

A Folic acid and vitamin B12 are given as replacement therapy for dietary deficiencies, as replacement in high-demand conditions such as pregnancy and lactation, and to treat megaloblastic anemia. Hydroxyurea is used to treat sickle cell anemia. Ferrous sulfate is indicated for the treatment of iron deficiency anemia. Epoetin alfa is administered to treat anemias caused by inadequate erythropoietin production, such as in renal failure.

The nurse admits a 26-year-old patient with sickle cell anemia. What drug does the nurse anticipate administering? a. Hydroxyurea b. Methoxy polyethylene glycol-epoetin beta c. Vitamin B12 d. Leucovorin

A Indications for use of hydroxyurea include reducing the frequency of painful crises and the need for blood transfusions in adult patients with sickle cell anemia. Other options would not be used to treat a patient with sickle cell anemia.

The nurse is caring for a child who is prescribed supplemental iron therapy in liquid form. What is the priority parent teaching to be provided by the nurse? a. the iron should be taken through a straw b. positive results from treatment will be seen in 1 to 2 weeks c. results will be evaluated through the child's appearance d. dosages are determined by serum iron levels

A Iron doses for replacement therapy are determined by age. If a liquid solution is being used, the child should drink it through a straw to avoid staining the teeth. Periodic blood counts should be performed; it may take 4 to 6 months of oral therapy to reverse an iron deficiency. Remember that iron can be toxic to children, so that iron supplements should be kept out of their reach and administration monitored.

The patient receiving epoetin alfa (Procrit) asks the nurse why it has to be administered IV because he read that it could be self-administered subcutaneously. What is the nurse's best response? a. giving the drug IV reduces the risk of a potentially serious response to the drug b. giving the drug by the IV route makes it begin working sooner c. only patients with renal disease can receive the drug subcutaneously d. it is all determined by physician preference and this doctor prefers the IV route

A It is now recommended that patients receive Procrit and other drugs in this classification intravenously rather than subcutaneously because this reduces the risk of antibody production that can result from severe anemia. This decision is not based on speed of onset, diagnosis, or physician preference.

For what purpose would the nurse administer postoperative epoetin alfa to the patient who is Jehovah's Witness? a. reduce the need for allogenic blood transfusion b. treatment of anemia associated with chronic renal failure c. treatment of HIV infection d. to prevent the need for chemotherapy

A Jehovah's Witnesses often refuse allogenic blood transfusions because of their religious beliefs. Indications for the use of epoetin alfa include treatment of anemia associated with chronic renal failure, related to treatment of HIV infection or to chemotherapy in cancer patients, to reduce the need for allogenic blood transfusions in surgical patients. There is no indication in this question that the patient has chronic renal failure, HIV, or need for chemotherapy.

The nurse teaches hemodialysis patients that anemia occurs because damaged kidneys fail to produce what? a. erythropoietin b. renin c. angiotensin d. urine

A People with chronic renal failure are often anemic because their kidneys are unable to produce erythropoietin. The production of renin and angiotensin impact the patient's blood pressure. Anemia is not caused by lack of urine production.

When providing patient teaching for a 30-year-old primigravida diagnosed with sickle cell anemia, but not currently in crisis, the priority teaching point is what? a. Avoidance of infection b. Constipation prevention c. Control of pain d. Iron-rich foods

A Severe, acute episodes of sickling with blood vessel occlusion may be associated with acute infections and the body's reactions to the immune and inflammatory responses. Avoidance of infection is, then, a priority teaching point. Pain would be a concern only if the patient is in crisis. Constipation prevention and iron-rich foods would not be the priority at this time.

The nurse is caring for a patient who just received a cancer diagnosis. The patient tells the nurse, "I saw the commercials on TV and I want to start taking epoetin alfa (Procrit) immediately so I don't get tired from chemotherapy". What is the nurse's best response? a. "Epoetin alfa is only effective if you develop anemia from chemotherapy that is caused by low levels of erythropoietin." b. "Before the doctor will order this drug, you will need to be found to have anemia, so we will draw some blood for lab work while you are here." c. "Chemotherapy causes anemia and only when that happens will it be appropriate to prescribe epoetin alfa for you." d. "The doctor may order epoetin alfa for you when it is appropriate, but now is not the appropriate time for you to take this drug."

A There is a risk of decreasing normal levels of erythropoietin if epoetin alfa (Procrit), or any of this classification of drug (erythropoiesis-stimulating agents), is given to patients who have normal renal functioning and adequate levels of erythropoietin. The patient should be taught that the drug will only be prescribed if he develops anemia due to inadequate erythropoietin. Although it is true the doctor may prescribe the drug when it is appropriate, this answer does not explain why it is inappropriate to prescribe it now. Anemia alone is not sufficient cause for prescribing Procrit and not all chemotherapy results in anemia.

A 50-year-old patient with pernicious anemia asks why she can't just take a vitamin B12 pill instead of getting an injection. What is the nurse's best response to her question? a. "Pernicious anemia is caused by the body's inability to absorb vitamin B12." b. "Oral ingestion of vitamin B12 irritates the GI tract and bleeding could occur." c. "Pernicious anemia alters mucous membrane lining of the bowel and impairs absorption." d. "With severe deficiencies like yours, oral vitamin B12 does not work fast enough."

A Vitamin B12 cannot be taken orally, because one problem with pernicious anemia is an inability by the patient to absorb vitamin B12 due to low levels of intrinsic factor. Other options are incorrect.

A patient who has anemia and a severe GI absorption disorder has been ordered ferrous sulfate IM. What is the most appropriate diagnosis for the patient related to the administration of this drug? a. acute pain related to drug administration b. deficient knowledge regarding drug therapy c. risk for injury related to CNS effects d. disturbed body image related to drug staining of teeth

A When given IM, it must be given by the Z-track method, which can be very painful.

A patient with renal failure has decreased erythropoietin production. Upon analysis of the patient's complete blood count, the nurse will expect which of the following results?

A decreased hemoglobin and hematocrit

A patient comes into the clinic complaining of fatigue. Blood work shows an increased bilirubin concentration and an increased reticulocyte count. What would the nurse suspect the patient has?

A hemolytic anemia

For what purpose might the nurse administer folic acid to the patient? (Select all that apply.) a. Nutritional deficiency b. Megaloblastic anemia c. Pregnancy or preparation for pregnancy d. Sickle cell anemia e. Renal failure

A, B, C Folic acid is indicated for the treatment of megaloblastic anemia caused by sprue and to replace a nutritional deficiency. It is also given to women who are, or plan to become, pregnant to reduce the risk of a neural tube disorder in the fetus. It is not indicated for the treatment of sickle cell anemia or renal failure.

35. A nurse is writing the care plan of a patient who has been diagnosed with myelofibrosis. What nursing diagnoses should the nurse address? Select all that apply. A) Disturbed Body Image B) Impaired Mobility C) Imbalanced Nutrition: Less than Body Requirements D) Acute Confusion E) Risk for Infection

A, B, C, E Feedback: The profound splenomegaly that accompanies myelofibrosis can impact the patients body image and mobility. As well, nutritional deficits are common and the patient is at risk for infection. Cognitive effects are less common.

The nurse is preparing the patient prescribed hydroxocobalamin for discharge and teaches the patient to be alert for what adverse effects? (Select all that apply.) a. Itching b. Peripheral edema c. Hypotension d. Heart failure e. Constipation

A, B, D Hydroxocobalamin has been associated with itching, rash, and signs of excessive vitamin B12 levels, which can also include peripheral edema and heart failure. Hypotension and constipation are not adverse effects of hydroxocobalamin therapy.

25. An oncology nurse recognizes a patients risk for fluid imbalance while the patient is undergoing treatment for leukemia. What relevant assessments should the nurse include in the patients plan of care? Select all that apply. A) Monitoring the patients electrolyte levels B) Monitoring the patients hepatic function C) Measuring the patients weight on a daily basis D) Measuring and recording the patients intake and output E) Auscultating the patients lungs frequently

A, C, D, E Feedback: Assessments that relate to fluid balance include monitoring the patients electrolytes, auscultating the patients chest for adventitious sounds, weighing the patient daily, and closely monitoring intake and output. Liver function is not directly relevant to the patients fluid status in most cases.

A group of nurses are learning about the high incidence and prevalence of anemia among different populations. Which of the following individuals is most likely to have anemia?

An 81-year-old woman who has chronic heart failure

The medical nurse is aware that patients with sickle cell anemia benefit from understanding what situations can precipitate a sickle cell crisis. When teaching a patient with sickle cell anemia about strategies to prevent crises, what measures should the nurse recommend?

Avoiding cold temperatures and ensuring sufficient hydration

Before administering an iron preparation, what should the nurse assess? a. RBC count b. hematocrit and hemoglobin c. aspartate aminotransferase levels d. serum creatinine levels

B

The nurse improves patient compliance with the drug regimen of epoetin alfa by providing what? a. an appointment card for each drug administration day b. a calendar to mark the days of the week the drug is to be administered c. a referral for community transportation d. the telephone number of the pharmacy where the medication can be purchased

B

The nurse is caring for a patient in end-stage renal failure and anemia. What is the cause of this patient's anemia? a. low serum iron levels b. low erythropoietin levels c. inadequate oxygenation of tissue d. lack of B12 and folic acid intake

B

The nurse admits a child to the pediatric unit who has an abnormally high serum iron level. What chelating agent will be appropriate to treat this child? a. Calcium disodium edetate b. Deferoxamine c. Dimercaprol d. Succimer

B Deferoxamine is given IM, IV, or subcutaneously to treat elevated iron levels. Calcium disodium edetate and succimer are used to treat elevated lead levels. Dimercaprol treats arsenic, gold, and mercury poisoning.

21. An older adult patient is undergoing diagnostic testing for chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL). What assessment finding is certain to be present if the patient has CLL? A) Increased numbers of blast cells B) Increased lymphocyte levels C) Intractable bone pain D) Thrombocytopenia with no evidence of bleeding

B Feedback: An increased lymphocyte count (lymphocytosis) is always present in patients with CLL. Each of the other listed symptoms may or may not be present, and none is definitive for CLL.

30. A nurse is preparing health education for a patient who has received a diagnosis of myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS). Which of the following topics should the nurse prioritize? A) Techniques for energy conservation and activity management B) Emergency management of bleeding episodes C) Technique for the administration of bronchodilators by metered-dose inhaler D) Techniques for self-palpation of the lymph nodes

B Feedback: Because of patients risks of hemorrhage, patients with MDS should be taught techniques for managing emergent bleeding episodes. Bronchodilators are not indicated for the treatment of MDS and lymphedema is not normally associated with the disease. Energy conservation techniques are likely to be useful, but management of hemorrhage is a priority because of the potential consequences.

15. An adult patient has presented to the health clinic with a complaint of a firm, painless cervical lymph node. The patient denies any recent infectious diseases. What is the nurses most appropriate response to the patients complaint? A) Call 911. B) Promptly refer the patient for medical assessment. C) Facilitate a radiograph of the patients neck and have the results forwarded to the patients primary care provider. D) Encourage the patient to track the size of the lymph node and seek care in 1 week.

B Feedback: Hodgkin lymphoma usually begins as an enlargement of one or more lymph nodes on one side of the neck. The individual nodes are painless and firm but not hard. Prompt medical assessment is necessary if a patient has this presentation. However, there is no acute need to call 911.

6. A nursing student is caring for a patient with acute myeloid leukemia who is preparing to undergo induction therapy. In preparing a plan of care for this patient, the student should assign the highest priority to which nursing diagnoses? A) Activity Intolerance B) Risk for Infection C) Acute Confusion D) Risk for Spiritual Distress

B Feedback: Induction therapy places the patient at risk for infection, thus this is the priority nursing diagnosis. During the time of induction therapy, the patient is very ill, with bacterial, fungal, and occasional viral infections; bleeding and severe mucositis, which causes diarrhea; and marked decline in the ability to maintain adequate nutrition. Supportive care consists of administering blood products and promptly treating infections. Immobility, confusion, and spiritual distress are possible, but infection is the patients most acute physiologic threat.

16. A nurse practitioner is assessing a patient who has a fever, malaise, and a white blood cell count that is elevated. Which of the following principles should guide the nurses management of the patients care? A) There is a need for the patient to be assessed for lymphoma. B) Infection is the most likely cause of the patients change in health status. C) The patient is exhibiting signs and symptoms of leukemia. D) The patient should undergo diagnostic testing for multiple myeloma

B Feedback: Leukocytosis is most often the result of infection. It is only considered pathologic (and suggestive of leukemia) if it is persistent and extreme. Multiple myeloma and lymphoma are not likely causes of this constellation of symptoms.

10. A patient diagnosed with acute myelogenous leukemia has just been admitted to the oncology unit. When writing this patients care plan, what potential complication should the nurse address? A) Pancreatitis B) Hemorrhage C) Arteritis D) Liver dysfunction

B Feedback: Pancreatitis, arteritis, and liver dysfunction are generally not complications of leukemia. However, the patient faces a high risk of hemorrhage.

39. A patient has a diagnosis of multiple myeloma and the nurse is preparing health education in preparation for discharge from the hospital. What action should the nurse promote? A) Daily performance of weight-bearing exercise to prevent muscle atrophy B) Close monitoring of urine output and kidney function C) Daily administration of warfarin (Coumadin) as ordered D) Safe use of supplementary oxygen in the home setting

B Feedback: Renal function must be monitored closely in the patient with multiple myeloma. Excessive weight-bearing can cause pathologic fractures. There is no direct indication for anticoagulation or supplementary oxygen

24. A patient who is undergoing consolidation therapy for the treatment of leukemia has been experiencing debilitating fatigue. How can the nurse best meet this patients needs for physical activity? A) Teach the patient about the risks of immobility and the benefits of exercise. B) Assist the patient to a chair during awake times, as tolerated. C) Collaborate with the physical therapist to arrange for stair exercises. D) Teach the patient to perform deep breathing and coughing exercises

B Feedback: Sitting is a chair is preferable to bed rest, even if a patient is experiencing severe fatigue. A patient who has debilitating fatigue would not likely be able to perform stair exercises. Teaching about mobility may be necessary, but education must be followed by interventions that actually involve mobility. Deep breathing and coughing reduce the risk of respiratory complications but are not substitutes for physical mobility in preventing deconditioning.

36. An adult patients abnormal complete blood count (CBC) and physical assessment have prompted the primary care provider to order a diagnostic workup for Hodgkin lymphoma. The presence of what assessment finding is considered diagnostic of the disease? A) Schwann cells B) Reed-Sternberg cells C) Lewy bodies D) Loops of Henle

B Feedback: The malignant cell of Hodgkin lymphoma is the Reed-Sternberg cell, a gigantic tumor cell that is morphologically unique and thought to be of immature lymphoid origin. It is the pathologic hallmark and essential diagnostic criterion. Schwann cells exist in the peripheral nervous system and Lewy bodies are markers of Parkinson disease. Loops of Henle exist in nephrons.

19. A nurse is caring for a patient who has been diagnosed with leukemia. The nurses most recent assessment reveals the presence of ecchymoseson the patients sacral area and petechiae in her forearms. In addition to informing the patients primary care provider, the nurse should perform what action? A) Initiate measures to prevent venous thromboembolism (VTE). B) Check the patients most recent platelet level. C) Place the patient on protective isolation. D) Ambulate the patient to promote circulatory function.

B Feedback: The patients signs are suggestive of thrombocytopenia, thus the nurse should check the patients most recent platelet level. VTE is not a risk and this does not constitute a need for isolation. Ambulation and activity may be contraindicated due to the risk of bleeding.

The nurse is caring for a patient diagnosed with pernicious anemia and anticipates this patient will require supplemental what? a. Iron b. Vitamin B12 c. Erythropoietin d. Oxygen

B Pernicious anemia occurs when the gastric mucosa cannot produce intrinsic factor and vitamin B12 cannot be absorbed. Other options are incorrect.

What genetic carrier screening would be appropriate for an African American couple planning to begin a family? a. Renal failure b. Sickle cell anemia c. Iron deficiency anemia d. Vitamin B12 deficiency

B Sickle cell anemia is a chronic hemolytic anemia that occurs most commonly in people of African descent, so it would be appropriate to have genetic screening to determine the risk associated with having children. The other answers are incorrect because they are not associated with people of African descent.

A nurse caring for a 28-year-old woman with renal failure is to start the patient on epoetin alfa therapy for iron replacement. What will the nurse assess before initiating therapy? a. weight b. last menstrual period c. intake and output for a 24-hour period d. blood type

B The use of epoetin alfa is not recommended during pregnancy or lactation because of potential adverse effects to the fetus or baby. It is important to determine that the patient is not pregnant before drug therapy has started.

A 62-year-old female patient is started on vitamin B12 for pernicious anemia. When the nurse develops the plan of care, what expected outcome will the nurse include? a. Decreased bleeding b. Increased hemoglobin c. Decreased joint pain d. Less fatigue

B Vitamin B12 is essential for normal functioning of red blood cells (RBCs) so the drug would be evaluated as successful in treating the disorder if the patient's hemoglobin and RBC count increased after administration. Expected outcomes do not include decreased bleeding, decreased joint pain, or less fatigue.

A woman who is in her third trimester of pregnancy has been experiencing an exacerbation of iron-deficiency anemia in recent weeks. When providing the patient with nutritional guidelines and meal suggestions, what foods would be most likely to increase the woman's iron stores?

Beef liver accompanied by orange juice

After assessing the patient receiving erythropoietin drug therapy, the nurse suspects what finding is an adverse effect of erythropoietin drug therapy? a. constipation b. hypotension c. edema d. depression

C

The nurse instructs a patient taking oral iron preparations about which potential adverse effect? a. clay-colored stools b. hypotension c. constipation d. frequent flatus

C

A patient has been prescribed epoetin alfa. The nurse determines the drug is contraindicated as a result of what finding in the patient history? a. asthma b. IBS c. hypertension d. shortness of breath

C Erythropoiesis-stimulating agents are contraindicated in the presence of uncontrolled hypertension because of the risk of worsening hypertension when red blood cell counts increase and the pressure within the vascular system also increases. There is no contraindication to the use of erythropoiesis-stimulating agents for patients with asthma, irritable bowel syndrome, or shortness of breath.

11. An emergency department nurse is triaging a 77-year-old man who presents with uncharacteristic fatigue as well as back and rib pain. The patient denies any recent injuries. The nurse should recognize the need for this patient to be assessed for what health problem? A) Hodgkin disease B) Non-Hodgkin lymphoma C) Multiple myeloma D) Acute thrombocythemia

C Feedback: Back pain, which is often a presenting symptom in multiple myeloma, should be closely investigated in older patients. The lymphomas and bleeding disorders do not typically present with the primary symptom of back pain or rib pain.

29. A patient with a myelodysplastic syndrome is being treated on the medical unit. What assessment finding should prompt the nurse to contact the patients primary care provider? A) The patient is experiencing a frontal lobe headache. B) The patient has an episode of urinary incontinence. C) The patient has an oral temperature of 37.5C (99.5F). D) The patients SpO2 is 91% on room air.

C Feedback: Because the patient with MDS is at a high risk for infection, any early signs of infection must be reported promptly. The nurse should address each of the listed assessment findings, but none is as direct a threat to the patients immediate health as an infection.

4. A nurse is planning the care of a patient who has been admitted to the medical unit with a diagnosis of multiple myeloma. In the patients care plan, the nurse has identified a diagnosis of Risk for Injury. What pathophysiologic effect of multiple myeloma most contributes to this risk? A) Labyrinthitis B) Left ventricular hypertrophy C) Decreased bone density D) Hypercoagulation

C Feedback: Clients with multiple myeloma are at risk for pathologic bone fractures secondary to diffuse osteoporosis and osteolytic lesions. Labyrinthitis is uncharacteristic, and patients do not normally experience hypercoagulation or cardiac hypertrophy.

23. A nurse is caring for a patient who is being treated for leukemia in the hospital. The patient was able to maintain her nutritional status for the first few weeks following her diagnosis but is now exhibiting early signs and symptoms of malnutrition. In collaboration with the dietitian, the nurse should implement what intervention? A) Arrange for total parenteral nutrition (TPN). B) Facilitate placement of a percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG) tube. C) Provide the patient with several small, soft-textured meals each day. D) Assign responsibility for the patients nutrition to the patients friends and family.

C Feedback: For patients experiencing difficulties with oral intake, the provision of small, easily chewed meals may be beneficial. This option would be trialed before resorting to tube feeding or TPN. The family should be encouraged to participate in care, but should not be assigned full responsibility.

34. A nurse at a long-term care facility is amending the care plan of a resident who has just been diagnosed with essential thrombocythemia (ET). The nurse should anticipate the administration of what medication? A) Dalteparin B) Allopurinol C) Hydroxyurea D) Hydrochlorothiazide

C Feedback: Hydroxyurea is effective in lowering the platelet count for patients with ET. Dalteparin, allopurinol, and HCTZ do not have this therapeutic effect.

26. After receiving a diagnosis of acute lymphocytic leukemia, a patient is visibly distraught, stating, I have no idea where to go from here. How should the nurse prepare to meet this patients psychosocial needs? A) Assess the patients previous experience with the health care system. B) Reassure the patient that treatment will be challenging but successful. C) Assess the patients specific needs for education and support. D) Identify the patients plan of medical care.

C Feedback: In order to meets the patients needs, the nurse must first identify the specific nature of these needs. According to the nursing process, assessment must precede interventions. The plan of medical care is important, but not central to the provision of support. The patients previous health care is not a primary consideration, and the nurse cannot assure the patient of successful treatment.

5. A patient with advanced leukemia is responding poorly to treatment. The nurse finds the patient tearful and trying to express his feelings, but he is clearly having difficulty. What is the nurses most appropriate action? A) Tell him that you will give him privacy and leave the room. B) Offer to call pastoral care. C) Ask if he would like you to sit with him while he collects his thoughts. D) Tell him that you can understand how hes feeling.

C Feedback: Providing emotional support and discussing the uncertain future are crucial. Leaving is incorrect because leaving the patient doesnt show acceptance of his feelings. Offering to call pastoral care may be helpful for some patients but should be done after the nurse has spent time with the patient. Telling the patient that you understand how hes feeling is inappropriate because it doesnt help him express his feelings.

37. A young adult patient has received the news that her treatment for Hodgkin lymphoma has been deemed successful and that no further treatment is necessary at this time. The care team should ensure that the patient receives regular health assessments in the future due to the risk of what complication? A) Iron-deficiency anemia B) Hemophilia C) Hematologic cancers D) Genitourinary cancers

C Feedback: Survivors of Hodgkin lymphoma have a high risk of second cancers, with hematologic cancers being the most common. There is no consequent risk of anemia or hemophilia, and hematologic cancers are much more common than GU cancers.

7. A 77-year-old male is admitted to a unit with a suspected diagnosis of acute myeloid leukemia (AML). When planning this patients care, the nurse should be aware of what epidemiologic fact? A) Early diagnosis is associated with good outcomes. B) Five-year survival for older adults is approximately 50%. C) Five-year survival for patients over 75 years old is less than 2%. D) Survival rates are wholly dependent on the patients pre-illness level of health.

C Feedback: The 5-year survival rate for patients with AML who are 50 years of age or younger is 43%; it drops to 19% for those between 50 and 64 years, and drops to1.6% for those older than 75 years. Early diagnosis is beneficial, but is nonetheless not associated with good outcomes or high survival rates. Preillness health is significant, but not the most important variable.

38. The clinical nurse educator is presenting health promotion education to a patient who will be treated for non-Hodgkin lymphoma on an outpatient basis. The nurse should recommend which of the following actions? A) Avoiding direct sun exposure in excess of 15 minutes daily B) Avoiding grapefruit juice and fresh grapefruit C) Avoiding highly crowded public places D) Using an electric shaver rather than a razor

C Feedback: The risk of infection is significant for these patients, not only from treatment-related myelosuppression but also from the defective immune response that results from the disease itself. Limiting infection exposure is thus necessary. The need to avoid grapefruit is dependent on the patients medication regimen. Sun exposure and the use of razors are not necessarily contraindicated.

The patient has taken epoetin alfa (Epogen) with good results for several months. On this visit, the nurse analyzes the patient's lab results and finds indications of severe anemia and cytopenias. What order will the nurse anticipate receiving? a. increase the dosage of epoetin alfa (Epogen) b. change the patient to another erythropoiesis-stimulating agent c. discontinue epoetin alfa (Epogen) d. begin administering epoetin alfa (Epogen) IV instead of subcutaneously

C In patients treated with Epogen or any drug in this class who develop severe anemia after improvement, the drug should be stopped and should not be changed to another drug in the class because it is likely due to patient's development of neutralizing antibodies.

The nurse is administering an erythropoiesis-stimulating agent to a patient with renal failure and anemia. What is the maximum hemoglobin level the nurse would want to assess when reviewing this patient's lab results? a. 8 g/dL b. 10 g/dL c. 12 g/dL d. 14 g/dL

C In recent years, the Food and Drug Administration alerted providers to the importance of a target hemoglobin of no more than 12 g/dL when using erythropoiesis-stimulating agents. As a result, other options are either too low or too high.

A 2-year-old child weighing 32 pounds is to take ferrous sulfate (Feosol) 6 mg/kg/d PO. How many milligram will the child receive per dose? a. 47 mg b. 67 mg c. 87 mg d. 107 mg

C The nurse will administer 87 mg per dose. The child's weight is first converted to kilograms by dividing 32 by 2.2, or 32/2.2 = 14.5 kg. Next, calculate the dose by multiplying weight times mg/kg/d or 14.5 × 6 = 87 mg.

What drugs might the nurse administer that have been developed to stimulate erythropoiesis? (Select all that apply.) a. Levoleucovorin b. Hydroxocobalamin c. Darbepoetin alfa d. Methoxy polyethylene glycol-epoetin beta e. Epoetin alfa

C, D, E Patients who are no longer able to produce enough erythropoietin in the kidneys may benefit from treatment with exogenous erythropoietin (EPO), which is available as the drugs epoetin alfa (Epogen, Procrit), darbepoetin alfa (Aranesp), and methoxy polyethylene glycol-epoetin beta (Mircera). Both darbepoetin alfa and methoxy polyethylene glycol-epoetin beta are approved to treat anemias associated with chronic renal failure, including patients receiving dialysis. Levoleucovorin and hydroxocobalamin are not erythropoiesis-stimulating agents.

What ordered dosage for epoetin alfa could the nurse administer without needing to question the order? a. 0.45 mcg/kg IV once per week b. 1 mg/d IM c. 100 mg/d PO d. 150 units/kg subcutaneously 3 times per week

D

What anemia does the nurse classify as a type of hemolytic anemia? a. Iron deficiency anemia b. Megaloblastic anemia c. Pernicious anemia d. Sickle cell anemia

D Another type of anemia is hemolytic anemia, which involves a lysing of red blood cells because of genetic factors or from exposure to toxins. Sickle cell anemia is a type of hemolytic anemia. Iron deficiency and megaloblastic anemias are different classifications of anemia.

40. A nurse is caring for patient whose diagnosis of multiple myeloma is being treated with bortezomib. The nurse should assess for what adverse effect of this treatment? A) Stomatitis B) Nephropathy C) Cognitive changes D) Peripheral neuropathy

D Feedback: A significant toxicity associated with the use of bortezomib for multiple myeloma is peripheral neuropathy. Stomatitis, cognitive changes, and nephropathy are not noted to be adverse effects of this medication.

31. A clinic patient is being treated for polycythemia vera and the nurse is providing health education. What practice should the nurse recommend in order to prevent the complications of this health problem? A) Avoiding natural sources of vitamin K B) Avoiding altitudes of 1500 feet (457 meters) C) Performing active range of motion exercises daily D) Avoiding tight and restrictive clothing on the legs

D Feedback: Because of the risk of DVT, patients with polycythemia vera should avoid tight and restrictive clothing. There is no need to avoid foods with vitamin K or to avoid higher altitudes. Activity levels should be maintained, but there is no specific need for ROM exercises.

12. A home health nurse is caring for a patient with multiple myeloma. Which of the following interventions should the nurse prioritize when addressing the patients severe bone pain? A) Implementing distraction techniques B) Educating the patient about the effective use of hot and cold packs C) Teaching the patient to use NSAIDs effectively D) Helping the patient manage the opioid analgesic regimen

D Feedback: For severe pain resulting from multiple myeloma, opioids are likely necessary. NSAIDs would likely be ineffective and are associated with significant adverse effects. Hot and cold packs as well as distraction would be insufficient for severe pain.

8. A 35-year-old male is admitted to the hospital complaining of severe headaches, vomiting, and testicular pain. His blood work shows reduced numbers of platelets, leukocytes, and erythrocytes, with a high proportion of immature cells. The nurse caring for this patient suspects a diagnosis of what? A) AML B) CML C) MDS D) ALL

D Feedback: In acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL), manifestations of leukemic cell infiltration into other organs are more common than with other forms of leukemia, and include pain from an enlarged liver or spleen, as well as bone pain. The central nervous system is frequently a site for leukemic cells; thus, patients may exhibit headache and vomiting because of meningeal involvement. Other extranodal sites include the testes and breasts. This particular presentation is not closely associated with acute myeloid leukemia (AML), chronic myeloid leukemia (CML), or myelodysplastic syndromes (MDS).

27. A patient has completed the full course of treatment for acute lymphocytic leukemia and has failed to respond appreciably. When preparing for the patients subsequent care, the nurse should perform what action? A) Arrange a meeting between the patients family and the hospital chaplain. B) Assess the factors underlying the patients failure to adhere to the treatment regimen. C) Encourage the patient to vigorously pursue complementary and alternative medicine (CAM). D) Identify the patients specific wishes around end-of-life care.

D Feedback: Should the patient not respond to therapy, it is important to identify and respect the patients choices about treatment, including measures to prolong life and other end-of-life measures. The patient may or may not be open to pursuing CAM. Unsuccessful treatment is not necessarily the result of failure to adhere to the treatment plan. Assessment should precede meetings with a chaplain, which may or may not be beneficial to the patient and congruent with the familys belief system.

32. A clinic nurse is working with a patient who has a long-standing diagnosis of polycythemia vera. How can the nurse best gauge the course of the patients disease? A) Document the color of the patients palms and face during each visit. B) Follow the patients erythrocyte sedimentation rate over time. C) Document the patients response to erythropoietin injections. D) Follow the trends of the patients hematocrit.

D Feedback: The course of polycythemia vera can be best ascertained by monitoring the patients hematocrit, which should remain below 45%. Erythropoietin injections would exacerbate the condition. Skin tone should be observed, but is a subjective assessment finding. The patients ESR is not relevant to the course of the disease.

14. A patient with non-Hodgkins lymphoma is receiving information from the oncology nurse. The patient asks the nurse why she should stop drinking and smoking and stay out of the sun. What would be the nurses best response? A) Everyone should do these things because theyre health promotion activities that apply to everyone. B) You dont want to develop a second cancer, do you? C) You need to do this just to be on the safe side. D) Its important to reduce other factors that increase the risk of second cancers.

D Feedback: The nurse should encourage patients to reduce other factors that increase the risk of developing second cancers, such as use of tobacco and alcohol and exposure to environmental carcinogens and excessive sunlight. The other options do not answer the patients question, and also make light of the patients question.

What drug used to treat anemia might the nurse administer as an antineoplastic drug because it is cytotoxic? a. Epoetin alfa b. Ferrous sulfate c. Hydroxocobalamin d. Hydroxyurea

D Hydroxyurea is a cytotoxic antineoplastic drug that is also used to treat leukemia, ovarian cancer, and melanoma. The other options would not serve this purpose.

An older adult patient, diagnosed with pernicious anemia, asks the nurse what causes this disorder. The nurse's best response is that there is a lack of intrinsic factor secreted needed for absorption of vitamin B12 where? a. Large bowel b. Lower esophagus c. Stomach d. Small bowel

D Intrinsic factor, also secreted by the gastric mucosa, combines with dietary vitamin B12 so that the vitamin can be absorbed in the ileum, located in the small bowel. Other options are incorrect.

The nurse develops a care plan for a patient who has been prescribed a folic acid derivative that includes what priority nursing diagnosis? a. Deficient knowledge regarding drug therapy b. Monitor possibility of hypersensitivity reactions c. Acute pain related to injection or nasal irritation d. Risk for fluid volume imbalance related to cardiovascular effects

D Nursing diagnoses related to drug therapy might include: Risk for fluid volume imbalance related to cardiovascular effects. Deficient knowledge and acute pain might apply to this patient, but the priority nursing diagnosis this patient, but the priority nursing diagnosis for this patient is the risk for fluid imbalance related to cardiovascular effects. Monitoring for hypersensitivity is not a nursing diagnosis.

A nurse is caring for a patient who has sickle cell anemia and the nurse's assessment reveals the possibility of substance abuse. What is the nurse's most appropriate action?

Encourage the patient to seek care from a single provider for pain relief.

A patient with poorly controlled diabetes has developed end-stage renal failure and consequent anemia. When reviewing this patient's treatment plan, the nurse should anticipate the use of what drug?

Epoetin alfa

An adult patient has been diagnosed with iron-deficiency anemia. What nursing diagnosis is most likely to apply to this patient's health status?

Fatigue related to decreased oxygen-carrying capacity

A patient, 25 years of age, comes to the emergency department complaining of excessive bleeding from a cut sustained when cleaning a knife. Blood work shows a prolonged PT but a vitamin K deficiency is ruled out. When assessing the patient, areas of ecchymosis are noted on other areas of the body. Which of the following is the most plausible cause of the patient's signs and symptoms?

Hepatic dysfunction

A nurse is planning the care of a patient with a diagnosis of sickle cell disease who has been admitted for the treatment of an acute vaso-occlusive crisis. What nursing diagnosis should the nurse prioritize in the patient's plan of care?

Ineffective tissue perfusion related to thrombosis

A patient is being treated on the medical unit for a sickle cell crisis. The nurse's most recent assessment reveals an oral temperature of 100.5ºF and a new onset of fine crackles on lung auscultation. What is the nurse's most appropriate action?

Inform the primary care provider that the patient may have an infection.

A patient comes to the clinic complaining of fatigue and the health interview is suggestive of pica. Laboratory findings reveal a low serum iron level and a low ferritin level. With what would the nurse suspect that the patient will be diagnosed?

Iron deficiency anemia

A nurse is providing education to a patient with iron deficiency anemia who has been prescribed iron supplements. What should the nurse include in health education?

Iron will cause the stools to darken in color.

A patient with a history of cirrhosis is admitted to the ICU with a diagnosis of bleeding esophageal varices; an attempt to stop the bleeding has been only partially successful. What would the critical care nurse expect the care team to order for this patient?

Packed red blood cells (PRBCs)

A nurse is caring for a patient with severe anemia. The patient is tachycardic and complains of dizziness and exertional dyspnea. The nurse knows that in an effort to deliver more blood to hypoxic tissue, the workload on the heart is increased. What signs and symptoms might develop if this patient goes into heart failure?

Peripheral edema

A patient's blood work reveals a platelet level of 17,000/mm3. When inspecting the patient's integumentary system, what finding would be most consistent with this platelet level?

Petechiae

When providing patient teaching the nurse warns the patient to avoid what triggers of an episode of sickling? (Select all that apply.) a. Acute infections b. Immune response c. Exposure to heat d. Inflammatory responses e. Metabolic alkalosis

a. Acute infections b. Immune response d. Inflammatory responses Severe, acute episodes of sickling with occluded blood vessels may be associated with acute infections and the body's reactions to the immune and inflammatory responses. Exposure to heat and metabolic alkalosis are not considered triggers.

A 22-year-old woman who has severe dysmenorrhea has been prescribed ferrous gluconate to treat iron deficiency anemia. What is important for the nurse to instruct the patient to avoid when taking the drug? a. eggs b. chocolate c. pork d. whole wheat

A

What medication does the nurse administer to treat anemia associated with chronic renal failure? a. Methoxy polyethylene glycol-epoetin beta b. Ferrous sulfate exsiccated c. Levoleucovorin d. Hydroxyurea

A Both darbepoetin alfa and methoxy polyethylene glycol-epoetin beta are approved to treat forms of anemia associated with chronic renal failure, including in patients receiving dialysis. Ferrous sulfate exsiccated is used to treat iron deficiency. Levoleucovorin is administered to diminish toxicity and counteract the effects of impaired methotrexate elimination and of inadvertent overdose of folic acid antagonists after high-dose methotrexate therapy for osteosarcoma. Hydroxyurea is used to reduce the frequency of painful sickle cell crises and to decrease the need for blood transfusions in adults with sickle cell anemia.

3. An oncology nurse is caring for a patient with multiple myeloma who is experiencing bone destruction. When reviewing the patients most recent blood tests, the nurse should anticipate what imbalance? A) Hypercalcemia B) Hyperproteinemia C) Elevated serum viscosity D) Elevated RBC count

A Feedback: Hypercalcemia may result when bone destruction occurs due to the disease process. Elevated serum viscosity occurs because plasma cells excrete excess immunoglobulin. RBC count will be decreased. Hyperproteinemia would not be present.

33. A nurse is planning the care of a patient who has been diagnosed with essential thrombocythemia (ET). What nursing diagnosis should the nurse prioritize when choosing interventions? A) Risk for Ineffective Tissue Perfusion B) Risk for Imbalanced Fluid Volume C) Risk for Ineffective Breathing Pattern D) Risk for Ineffective Thermoregulation

A Feedback: Patients with ET are at risk for hypercoagulation and consequent ineffective tissue perfusion. Fluid volume, breathing, and thermoregulation are not normally affected.

An intensive care nurse is aware of the need to identify patients who may be at risk of developing disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). Which of the following ICU patients most likely faces the highest risk of DIC?

A patient who is being treated for septic shock

12. A patient has been diagnosed with a lymphoid stem cell defect. This patient has the potential for a problem involving which of the following? A) Plasma cells B) Neutrophils C) Red blood cells D) Platelets

Ans: A

15. An older adult client is exhibiting many of the characteristic signs and symptoms of iron deficiency. In addition to a complete blood count, what diagnostic assessment should the nurse anticipate? A) Stool for occult blood B) Bone marrow biopsy C) Lumbar puncture D) Urinalysis

Ans: A

19. A patient's most recent blood work reveals low levels of albumin. This assessment finding should suggest the possibility of what nursing diagnosis? A) Risk for imbalanced fluid volume related to low albumin B) Risk for infection related to low albumin C) Ineffective tissue perfusion related to low albumin D) Impaired skin integrity related to low albumin

Ans: A

2. A man suffers a leg wound which causes minor blood loss. As a result of bleeding, the process of primary hemostasis is activated. What occurs in primary hemostasis? A) Severed blood vessels constrict. B) Thromboplastin is released. C) Prothrombin is converted to thrombin. D) Fibrin is lysed.

Ans: A

26. The nurse's brief review of a patient's electronic health record indicates that the patient regularly undergoes therapeutic phlebotomy. Which of the following rationales for this procedure is most plausible? A) The patient may chronically produce excess red blood cells. B) The patient may frequently experience a low relative plasma volume. C) The patient may have impaired stem cell function. D) The patient may previously have undergone bone marrow biopsy.

Ans: A

28. A nurse at a blood donation clinic has completed the collection of blood from a woman. The woman states that she feels ìlightheadedî and she appears visibly pale. What is the nurse's most appropriate action? A) Help her into a sitting position with her head lowered below her knees. B) Administer supplementary oxygen by nasal prongs. C) Obtain a full set of vital signs. D) Inform a physician or other primary care provider.

Ans: A

34. A patient is receiving a blood transfusion and complains of a new onset of slight dyspnea. The nurse's rapid assessment reveals bilateral lung crackles and elevated BP. What is the nurse's most appropriate action? A) Slow the infusion rate and monitor the patient closely. B) Discontinue the transfusion and begin resuscitation. C) Pause the transfusion and administer a 250 mL bolus of normal saline. D) Discontinue the transfusion and administer a beta-blocker, as ordered.

Ans: A

38. The nurse is preparing to administer a unit of platelets to an adult patient. When administering this blood product, which of the following actions should the nurse perform? A) Administer the platelets as rapidly as the patient can tolerate. B) Establish IV access as soon as the platelets arrive from the blood bank. C) Ensure that the patient has a patent central venous catheter. D) Aspirate 10 to 15 mL of blood from the patient's IV immediately following the transfusion.

Ans: A

9. Through the process of hematopoiesis, stem cells differentiate into either myeloid or lymphoid stem cells. Into what do myeloid stem cells further differentiate? Select all that apply. A) Leukocytes B) Natural killer cells C) Cytokines D) Platelets E) Erythrocytes

Ans: A, D, E

11. A patient undergoing a hip replacement has autologous blood on standby if a transfusion is needed. What is the primary advantage of autologous transfusions? A) Safe transfusion for patients with a history of transfusion reactions B) Prevention of viral infections from another person's blood C) Avoidance of complications in patients with alloantibodies D) Prevention of alloimmunization

Ans: B

13. The nurse is describing normal RBC physiology to a patient who has a diagnosis of anemia. The nurse should explain that the RBCs consist primarily of which of the following? A) Plasminogen B) Hemoglobin C) Hematocrit D) Fibrin

Ans: B

16. A patient is being treated for the effects of a longstanding vitamin B12 deficiency. What aspect of the patient's health history would most likely predispose her to this deficiency? A) The patient has irregular menstrual periods. B) The patient is a vegan. C) The patient donated blood 60 days ago. D) The patient frequently smokes marijuana.

Ans: B

20. An individual has accidentally cut his hand, immediately initiating the process of hemostasis. Following vasoconstriction, what event in the process of hemostasis will take place? A) Fibrin will be activated at the bleeding site. B) Platelets will aggregate at the injury site. C) Thromboplastin will form a clot. D) Prothrombin will be converted to thrombin.

Ans: B

21. The nurse is providing care for an older adult who has a hematologic disorder. What age-related change in hematologic function should the nurse integrate into care planning? A) Bone marrow in older adults produces a smaller proportion of healthy, functional blood cells. B) Older adults are less able to increase blood cell production when demand suddenly increases. C) Stem cells in older adults eventually lose their ability to differentiate. D) The ratio of plasma to erythrocytes and lymphocytes increases with age.

Ans: B

22. A client's health history reveals daily consumption of two to three bottles of wine. The nurse should plan assessments and interventions in light of the patient's increased risk for what hematologic disorder? A) Leukemia B) Anemia C) Thrombocytopenia D) Lymphoma

Ans: B

25. A patient is scheduled for a splenectomy. During discharge education, what teaching point should the nurse prioritize? A) The importance of adhering to prescribed immunosuppressant therapy B) The need to report any signs or symptoms of infection promptly C) The need to ensure adequate folic acid, iron, and vitamin B12 intake D) The importance of limiting activity postoperatively to prevent hemorrhage

Ans: B

27. A nurse has participated in organizing a blood donation drive at a local community center. Which of the following individuals would most likely be disallowed from donating blood? A) A man who is 81 years of age B) A woman whose blood pressure is 88/51 mm Hg C) A man who donated blood 4 months ago D) A woman who has type 1 diabetes

Ans: B

30. A patient on the medical unit is receiving a unit of PRBCs. Difficult IV access has necessitated a slow infusion rate and the nurse notes that the infusion began 4 hours ago. What is the nurse's most appropriate action? A) Apply an icepack to the blood that remains to be infused. B) Discontinue the remainder of the PRBC transfusion and inform the physician. C) Disconnect the bag of PRBCs, cool for 30 minutes and then administer. D) Administer the remaining PRBCs by the IV direct (IV push) route.

Ans: B

32. A patient is being treated in the ICU after a medical error resulted in an acute hemolytic transfusion reaction. What was the etiology of this patient's adverse reaction? A) Antibodies to donor leukocytes remained in the blood. B) The donor blood was incompatible with that of the patient. C) The patient had a sensitivity reaction to a plasma protein in the blood. D) The blood was infused too quickly and overwhelmed the patient's circulatory system.

Ans: B

36. A patient is receiving the first two ordered units of PRBCs. Shortly after the initiation of the transfusion, the patient complains of chills and experiences a sharp increase in temperature. What is the nurse's priority action? A) Position the patient in high Fowler's. B) Discontinue the transfusion. C) Auscultate the patient's lungs. D) Obtain a blood specimen from the patient.

Ans: B

40. A patient's electronic health record states that the patient receives regular transfusions of factor IX. The nurse would be justified in suspecting that this patient has what diagnosis? A) Leukemia B) Hemophilia C) Hypoproliferative anemia D) Hodgkin's lymphoma

Ans: B

6. The nurse caring for a patient receiving a transfusion notes that 15 minutes after the infusion of packed red blood cells (PRBCs) has begun, the patient is having difficulty breathing and complains of severe chest tightness. What is the most appropriate initial action for the nurse to take? A) Notify the patient's physician. B) Stop the transfusion immediately. C) Remove the patient's IV access. D) Assess the patient's chest sounds and vital signs.

Ans: B

7. The nurse is describing the role of plasminogen in the clotting cascade. Where in the body is plasminogen present? A) Myocardial muscle tissue B) All body fluids C) Cerebral tissue D) Venous and arterial vessel walls

Ans: B

1. A patient with a hematologic disorder asks the nurse how the body forms blood cells. The nurse should describe a process that takes place where? A) In the spleen B) In the kidneys C) In the bone marrow D) In the liver

Ans: C

17. The nurse's review of a patient's most recent blood work reveals a significant increase in the number of band cells. The nurse's subsequent assessment should focus on which of the following? A) Respiratory function B) Evidence of decreased tissue perfusion C) Signs and symptoms of infection D) Recent changes in activity tolerance

Ans: C

24. A patient has been scheduled for a bone marrow biopsy and admits to the nurse that she is worried about the pain involved with the procedure. What patient education is most accurate? A) "You'll be given painkillers before the test, so there won't likely be any pain?" B) "You'll feel some pain when the needle enters your skin, but none when the needle enters the bone because of the absence of nerves in bone." C) "Most people feel some brief, sharp pain when the needle enters the bone." D) "I'll be there with you, and I'll try to help you keep your mind off the pain."

Ans: C

29. A patient's low hemoglobin level has necessitated transfusion of PRBCs. Prior to administration, what action should the nurse perform? A) Have the patient identify his or her blood type in writing. B) Ensure that the patient has granted verbal consent for transfusion. C) Assess the patient's vital signs to establish baselines. D) Facilitate insertion of a central venous catheter.

Ans: C

3. A patient has come to the OB/GYN clinic due to recent heavy menstrual flow. Because of the patient's consequent increase in RBC production, the nurse knows that the patient may need to increase her daily intake of what substance? A) Vitamin E B) Vitamin D C) Iron D) Magnesium

Ans: C

37. Fresh-frozen plasma (FFP) has been ordered for a hospital patient. Prior to administration of this blood product, the nurse should prioritize what patient education? A) Infection risks associated with FFP administration B) Physiologic functions of plasma C) Signs and symptoms of a transfusion reaction D) Strategies for managing transfusion-associated anxiety

Ans: C

39. Which of the following circumstances would most clearly warrant autologous blood donation? A) The patient has type-O blood. B) The patient has sickle cell disease or a thalassemia. C) The patient has elective surgery pending. D) The patient has hepatitis C.

Ans: C

10. A patient's wound has begun to heal and the blood clot which formed is no longer necessary. When a blood clot is no longer needed, the fibrinogen and fibrin will be digested by which of the following? A) Plasminogen B) Thrombin C) Prothrombin D) Plasmin

Ans: D

14. The nurse educating a patient with anemia is describing the process of RBC production. When the patient's kidneys sense a low level of oxygen in circulating blood, what physiologic response is initiated? A) Increased stem cell synthesis B) Decreased respiratory rate C) Arterial vasoconstriction D) Increased production of erythropoietin

Ans: D

18. A nurse is educating a patient about the role of B lymphocytes. The nurse's description will include which of the following physiologic processes? A) Stem cell differentiation B) Cytokine production C) Phagocytosis D) Antibody production

Ans: D

23. A patient's diagnosis of atrial fibrillation has prompted the primary care provider to prescribe warfarin (Coumadin), an anticoagulant. When assessing the therapeutic response to this medication, what is the nurse's most appropriate action? A) Assess for signs of myelosuppression. B) Review the patient's platelet level. C) Assess the patient's capillary refill time. D) Review the patient's international normalized ratio (INR).

Ans: D

31. Two units of PRBCs have been ordered for a patient who has experienced a GI bleed. The patient is highly reluctant to receive a transfusion, stating, ìI'm terrified of getting AIDS from a blood transfusion.î How can the nurse best address the patient's concerns? A) "All the donated blood in the United States is treated with antiretroviral medications before it is used." B) "That did happen in some high-profile cases in the twentieth century, but it is no longer a possibility." C) "HIV was eradicated from the US blood supply in the early 2000s." D) "The chances of contracting AIDS from a blood transfusion in the United States are exceedingly low."

Ans: D

33. An interdisciplinary team has been commissioned to create policies and procedures aimed at preventing acute hemolytic transfusion reactions. What action has the greatest potential to reduce the risk of this transfusion reaction? A) Ensure that blood components are never infused at a rate greater than 125 ml/hr. B) Administer prophylactic antihistamines prior to all blood transfusions. C) Establish baseline vital signs for all patients receiving transfusions. D) Be vigilant in identifying the patient and the blood component.

Ans: D

35. A patient lives with a diagnosis of sickle cell anemia and receives frequent blood transfusions. The nurse should recognize the patient's consequent risk of what complication of treatment? A) Hyopvolemia B) Vitamin B12 deficiency C) Thrombocytopenia D) Iron overload

Ans: D

4. The nurse is planning the care of a patient with a nutritional deficit and a diagnosis of megaloblastic anemia. The nurse should recognize that this patient's health problem is due to what? A) Production of inadequate quantities of RBCs B) Premature release of immature RBCs C) Injury to the RBCs in circulation D) Abnormalities in the structure and function RBCs

Ans: D

5. A nurse is caring for a patient who undergoing preliminary testing for a hematologic disorder. What sign or symptom most likely suggests a potential hematologic disorder? A) Sudden change in level of consciousness (LOC) B) Recurrent infections C) Anaphylaxis D) Severe fatigue

Ans: D

8. The nurse is caring for a patient who has developed scar tissue in many of the areas that normally produce blood cells. What organs can become active in blood cell production by the process of extramedullary hematopoiesis? A) Spleen and kidneys B) Kidneys and pancreas C) Pancreas and liver D) Liver and spleen

Ans: D

A patient has been living with a diagnosis of anemia for several years and has experienced recent declines in her hemoglobin levels despite active treatment. What assessment finding would signal complications of anemia?

Ascites and peripheral edema

A client with several chronic health problems has been newly diagnosed with a qualitative platelet defect. What component of the patient's previous medication regimen may have contributed to the development of this disorder?

Aspirin

A nurse is providing discharge education to a patient who has recently been diagnosed with a bleeding disorder. What topic should the nurse prioritize when teaching this patient?

Avoiding activities that carry a risk for injury

A patient is being treated for DIC and the nurse has prioritized the nursing diagnosis of Risk for Deficient Fluid Volume Related to Bleeding. How can the nurse best determine if goals of care relating to this diagnosis are being met?

Closely monitor intake and output.

A night nurse is reviewing the next day's medication administration record (MAR) of a patient who has hemophilia. The nurse notes that the MAR specifies both oral and subcutaneous options for the administration of a PRN antiemetic. What is the nurse's best action?

Contact the prescriber to have the subcutaneous option discontinued.

17. Diagnostic testing has resulted in a diagnosis of acute myeloid leukemia (AML) in an adult patient who is otherwise healthy. The patient and the care team have collaborated and the patient will soon begin induction therapy. The nurse should prepare the patient for which of the following? A) Daily treatment with targeted therapy medications B) Radiation therapy on a daily basis C) Hematopoietic stem cell transplantation D) An aggressive course of chemotherapy

D Feedback: Attempts are made to achieve remission of AML by the aggressive administration of chemotherapy, called induction therapy, which usually requires hospitalization for several weeks. Induction therapy is not synonymous with radiation, stem cell transplantation, or targeted therapies.

The results of a patient's most recent blood work and physical assessment are suggestive of immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP). This patient should undergo testing for which of the following potential causes? Select all that apply.

Hepatitis HIV

A nurse is a long-term care facility is admitting a new resident who has a bleeding disorder. When planning this resident's care, the nurse should include which of the following?

Implementing of a plan for fall prevention

The nurse on the pediatric unit is caring for a 10-year-old boy with a diagnosis of hemophilia. The nurse knows that a priority nursing diagnosis for a patient with hemophilia is what?

Ineffective coping

The nurse is assessing a new patient with complaints of overwhelming fatigue and a sore tongue that is visibly smooth and beefy red. This patient is demonstrating signs and symptoms associated with what form of what hematologic disorder?

Megaloblastic anemia

A patient's absolute neutrophil count (ANC) is 440/mm3. But the nurse's assessment reveals no apparent signs or symptoms of infection. What action should the nurse prioritize when providing care for this patient?

Meticulous hand hygiene

A nurse is planning the care of a patient who has a diagnosis of hemophilia A. When addressing the nursing diagnosis of Acute Pain Related to Joint Hemorrhage, what principle should guide the nurse's choice of interventions?

NSAIDs are contraindicated due to the risk for bleeding.

A young man with a diagnosis of hemophilia A has been brought to emergency department after suffering a workplace accident resulting in bleeding. Rapid assessment has revealed the source of the patient's bleeding and established that his vital signs are stable. What should be the nurse's next action?

Prepare for the administration of factor VIII.

A critical care nurse is caring for a patient with autoimmune hemolytic anemia. The patient is not responding to conservative treatments, and his condition is now becoming life threatening. The nurse is aware that a treatment option in this case may include what?

Splenectomy

A nurse is admitting a patient with immune thrombocytopenic purpura to the unit. In completing the admission assessment, the nurse must be alert for what medications that potentially alter platelet function? Select all that apply.

Sulfa-containing medications Aspirin-based drugs NSAIDs

A patient's low prothrombin time (PT) was attributed to a vitamin K deficiency and the patient's PT normalized after administration of vitamin K. When performing discharge education in an effort to prevent recurrence, what should the nurse emphasize?

The need for adequate nutrition

A patient's electronic health record notes that he has previously undergone treatment for secondary polycythemia. How should this aspect of the patient's history guide the nurse's subsequent assessment

The nurse should assess for evidence of lung disease.

A patient with Von Willebrand disease (vWD) has experienced recent changes in bowel function that suggest the need for a screening colonoscopy. What intervention should be performed in anticipation of this procedure?

The patient should be given necessary clotting factors before the procedure.

A patient with a pulmonary embolism is being treated with a heparin infusion. What diagnostic finding suggests to the nurse that treatment is effective?

The patient's activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is 1.5 to 2.5 times the control value.

A patient newly diagnosed with thrombocytopenia is admitted to the medical unit. After the admission assessment, the patient asks the nurse to explain the disease. What should the nurse explain to this patient?

There could be decreased production of platelets.

A patient with a recent diagnosis of ITP has asked the nurse why the care team has not chosen to administer platelets, stating, I have low platelets, so why not give me a transfusion of exactly what I'm missing? How should the nurse best respond?

Transfused platelets usually aren't beneficial because they're rapidly destroyed in the body

A patient is admitted to the hospital with pernicious anemia. The nurse should prepare to administer which of the following medications?

Vitamin B12

A patient with a history of atrial fibrillation has contacted the clinic saying that she has accidentally overdosed on her prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). The nurse should recognize the possible need for what antidote?

Vitamin K

A patient with a documented history of glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency has presented to the emergency department with signs and symptoms including pallor, jaundice, and malaise. Which of the nurse's assessment questions relates most directly to this patient's hematologic disorder?

What medications have taken recently?