UWorld Behavoiral Sciences
The _____________________ _____________________ describes experimental subjects modifying their behavior or responses because they know they are being observed.
- Hawthorne effect
__________________ _________________ is a type of associative learning process whereby a neutral stimulus takes on the properties of an unconditioned stimulus after they are paired. Unconditioned stimuli (eg, scary noises) are biologically arousing, eliciting an innate (untrained) behavior (eg, startle response).
- Classical conditioning During classical conditioning acquisition (training), a neutral stimulus is paired with the unconditioned stimulus. After acquisition, the neutral stimulus becomes the conditioned stimulus if it elicits the response, which would then be called the conditioned response.
The __________________________________ law suggests that there is an optimal level of physiological or mental arousal at which performance is maximized; performance will decline with too little or too much arousal. For example, athletes tend to perform best when nervous but not too nervous.
- Yerkes-Dodson
In classical conditioning, the strength of the conditioned response tends to follow a characteristic pattern over time: ___________________________ refers to the learning that takes place as an association is formed between the unconditioned stimulus (eg, food) and the neutral stimulus (eg, bell). ___________________________ occurs when a conditioned response gradually stops occurring in the absence of the unconditioned stimulus. For example, a dog that has been conditioned to salivate in response to the sound of a bell will gradually stop salivating if the bell is repeatedly presented without food. ______________________ _____________________ occurs when an extinct response reappears after a period of time (eg, a dog will salivate again upon hearing a bell a few days after extinction has occurred).
-Acquisition -Extinction -Spontaneous recovery
Implicit/nondeclarative memory is memory for things that cannot be consciously recalled, such as skills, tasks, emotions, and reflexes. Examples of implicit memory include: ___________________ memory, which is memory for motor skills (eg, riding a bicycle) ___________________ memory, which is memory for associations between stimuli (eg, salty ocean air triggers pleasant emotions from childhood beach vacations).
-Procedural -Emotional/Reflective
__________________ __________________ are drugs that have an effect on mood, thinking, and/or behavior. They may be classified in a number of ways, such as by chemical structure or the effect they have on the brain. Among the most common classifications are narcotics (usually opiates), depressants, stimulants, and hallucinogens.
-Psychoactive drugs
In sociology, the _______________ ________________ predicts that an individual's response or reaction to a situation is the result of her interpretation of the situation. In other words, our actions are based on our perception of reality.
-Thomas theorem
The ________________ __________________ ___________________, proposed by Hans Seyle, describes how the body reacts to __________ that is acute or long-lasting. According to this model, there are three stages of the stress response: 1) ____________ stage 2) ____________ stage 3) ____________ stage
-general adaptation syndrome (GAS) -stress 1) The alarm stage is the first few minutes of the stress response, during which the sympathetic nervous system prepares the body to act (ie, fight-or-flight response). Heart rate, respiratory rate, and blood glucose levels increase, and stress hormones (eg, adrenaline, cortisol) are released. 2) The resistance stage can last for hours (eg, exercise), days (eg, final exams), or even months (eg, family death). During this stage, the body attempts to resist or address the stressor. Levels of stress hormones begin to return to normal. The body attempts to establish a new equilibrium. 3) If stress continues over a prolonged period, the body enters the exhaustion stage, a state of arousal but with depleted energy. It is during this stage that chronic diseases (eg, high blood pressure, heart disease) can develop. The body is no longer able to resist the impact of stressors.
Student 1, eighth-grade valedictorian: "When my mother first came to the United States from China, she spent all her time working, trying to earn a living to support her three children. I know how much she has sacrificed, and I am so grateful that I am willing to do just about anything for her." If Student 1 has progressed to identity achievement status, how would the student most likely respond to the question, "Would you change your career choice if a better option came along?" A. "I don't think so; I've made my career decision carefully and I'm committed to my choice." B. "My family is in agreement about my career path, so I already know where I am going." C. "I haven't really thought about it that much because it makes no difference to me." D. "You never know what the future holds, so if something better comes along I would consider it."
A. "I don't think so; I've made my career decision carefully and I'm committed to my choice." The identity development theory by James Marcia evaluates the psychological progress of individuals based on their level of commitment and degree of exploration, yielding four identity statuses: 1. Identity diffusion (low commitment, low exploration): People at this level lack direction, have not explored options, and have not committed to a particular career path or future. 2. Identity foreclosure (high commitment, low exploration): People at this level have accepted an identity that they have been assigned (typically by a parent or authority figure) without contemplation or exploration. 3. Identity moratorium (low commitment, high exploration): People at this level are still trying new activities and thinking about a career path, but have not yet arrived at a decision. 4. Identity achievement (high commitment, high exploration): People at this level have explored their options and typically feel confident about who they are and what they want to do in the future. If Student 1 has reached identity achievement status, the student is most likely to respond with, "I don't think so; I've made my career decision carefully and I'm committed to my choice." (Choice B) This quotation suggests identity foreclosure because it indicates that parents have already made the decision without describing any effort to explore options. (Choice C) This quotation suggests identity diffusion because it expresses no commitment to a future goal and no willingness to think about options. (Choice D) This quotation suggests no commitment and therefore does not reflect an identity achievement status.
During a visual field test, patients are instructed to look straight ahead at a fixed point as objects are flashed in their peripheral field of vision. A patient with normal vision should have: A. no difficulty detecting a moving point of light in the periphery in dim light conditions. B. no difficulty correctly identifying color presented in the periphery in dim light conditions. C. difficulty detecting motion in the periphery in bright light conditions. D. difficulty correctly identifying color presented near the point of fixation in bright light conditions.
A. no difficulty detecting a moving point of light in the periphery in dim light conditions. Central (foveal) vision: Cones are sensitive to certain wavelengths (colors) and high-intensity (bright) light. Cones are more densely packed at the fovea, the central portion of the retina that receives information from the central visual field, producing the highest visual acuity (image sharpness and clarity). Peripheral vision: Rods, present primarily in the periphery of the retina, are much more sensitive to light than cones. Rods do not transmit information about color but are well suited to detect motion and low-intensity (dim) light, producing high visual sensitivity. Therefore, during a visual field test, a patient with normal vision should have no difficulty detecting a moving point of light in the periphery in dim light conditions. (Choice B) Rods are not sensitive to color; therefore, a patient with normal vision will have difficulty correctly identifying color presented in the periphery in both bright and dim light conditions. (Choice C) The ability to detect motion (eg, an advancing predator) in one's periphery is an important evolutionary adaptation, and peripheral vision is designed to detect such changes, regardless of light conditions. As a result, a patient with normal vision will not have difficulty detecting motion in the periphery in either bright or dim light conditions. (Choice D) More cones are present near/at the fovea than in the periphery. Therefore, a patient with normal vision will not have difficulty correctly identifying color in bright light conditions when it is presented near the point of fixation, which is within the central visual field.
To prevent groupthink in Groups 2, 3, and 4, experimenters could: A. require each group member to defend an alternative estimate during discussion. B. reward groups that reach a consensus quickly. C. have groups participate in 15 minutes of team-building activities before discussion. D. ask the groups to agree on a team leader.
A. require each group member to defend an alternative estimate during discussion. (Choice B) Rewarding groups that reach a consensus quickly is more likely to cause groupthink than prevent it because the promise of a reward is likely to lead members to suppress their own opinions in favor of going along with the group decision. (Choice C) Team-building activities are more likely to cause groupthink than prevent it because groups that are more cohesive are more likely to sacrifice rational decision-making for group harmony. (Choice D) Requiring group members to agree on a team leader is more likely to cause groupthink than prevent it, because an agreed-upon leader is more likely to encourage the other group members to go with the consensus decision.
Which of the following examples is correctly paired with the type of stressor it most exemplifies? A. Serious car accident; daily hassle B. Cancer diagnosis; personal life event C. Death of a spouse; catastrophe D. War; environmental
B. Cancer diagnosis; personal life event Stress refers to a threatening or demanding stimulus that disturbs equilibrium in some way (mentally, emotionally, physically). Stress can lead to high blood pressure, anxiety, headaches, and many other health problems. There are four major types of stressors: Daily hassles are common, everyday occurrences that affect few people and are irritating but are not major stressors (eg, driving in traffic). A personal life event is a major life transition that affects few people but is very stressful. Personal life events can be positive (eg, baby) or negative (eg, death in the family). Environmental (or ambient) stressors are large-scale (affecting many people), minor but persistent irritations (eg, traffic noise). Catastrophes are large-scale major events that affect many people (eg, natural disasters).
A successful business owner has a motor vehicle collision, leaving him paralyzed and in a wheelchair. He perceives that his colleagues and clients begin to treat him as though he is less capable. He starts to doubt his ability to successfully run his business. This reaction is best explained by which of the following? A. Strain theory B. Looking-glass self concept C. Dramaturgical approach D. Psychosexual theory of development
B. Looking-glass self concept The concept of the looking-glass self is part of the symbolic interactionism perspective and states that an individual's self-concept is shaped by that person's interpretation of others' perceptions, regardless of the accuracy of those interpretations. (Choice A) Strain theory suggests that when individuals are unable to attain socially acceptable goals (eg, having a nice car) through legitimate means (eg, a job), the resulting strain may lead to deviant behavior (eg, stealing). Strain theory does not address how self-concept is shaped by the interpretations of others' perceptions. (Choice C) The dramaturgical approach explains behavior using a theater metaphor: How we behave in front of others (the "audience") is a "performance" meant to manage their impression of us. The dramaturgical approach does not address an individual's interpretation and internalization of others' perceptions. (Choice D) Psychosexual theory of development states that personality develops through five psychosexual stages that begin in childhood; conflict in any of these stages can lead to psychological issues (eg, anxiety) in adulthood. The impact of interpreting others' perceptions on self-concept is not explored in this theory.
Normative social influence is most likely to arise in the group: A. containing several members who have expertise regarding cancer. B. composed of all females from the same university. C. with an assigned group spokesperson. D. whose members are the most disparate in socioeconomic status.
B. composed of all females from the same university. (Choice A) Informational social influence describes when people conform to what others are doing because they don't know what to do and believe others do. If several group members have medical expertise regarding cancer, another participant of that group may conform because the individual believes the others are experts with the best information about cancer risk. (Choice C) Without further information regarding the group spokesperson, it is not possible to determine if that individual would foster normative social influence within the group. (Choice D) A disparity in socioeconomic status among the participants is less likely to foster normative social influence because the group members are less likely to identify with each other.
A researcher wants to train a mouse to run on an exercise wheel. The LEAST effective way to train this new behavior would involve: A. rewarding the mouse at first for touching the wheel, then for climbing on it, then for running on it. B. providing reinforcement every 5 minutes, as long as the mouse runs on the wheel at some point during that time. C. first depriving the mouse of food for 24 hours, then using food pellets as a reward. D. providing positive reinforcement each time the mouse runs on the exercise wheel.
B. providing reinforcement every 5 minutes, as long as the mouse runs on the wheel at some point during that time. A continuous reinforcement schedule, which provides a reward after every desired behavior, is most effective for training an animal to perform a new behavior. Shaping (ie, rewarding successive approximations of the desired behavior) is often needed initially. Depriving the animal of the reward (eg, food) prior to training heightens its motivation, making training easier.
Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) would be most likely to address PTSD symptoms through: A. a person-centered approach focused on empathy. B. systematic desensitization of traumatic triggers or memories. C. uncovering unconscious memories associated with the trauma. D. examination of the initial cause of the trauma.
B. systematic desensitization of traumatic triggers or memories. Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) is an effective treatment approach for trauma-related disorders (eg, PTSD) and anxiety disorders (eg, GAD). CBT focuses on problematic symptoms like maladaptive thoughts (eg, persistent negative beliefs about oneself or the world) and destructive/unproductive behaviors (eg, drinking, avoiding social situations). The goal of CBT is to replace maladaptive thoughts and behaviors with ones that are healthy and positive.
A trait theorist would most likely challenge the study findings described in the passage by asserting that researchers failed to assess: A. which interventions were most effective in eliciting changes in personality. B. whether personality changes were maintained following the period of intervention. C. the influence of human interactions in enabling changes in personality. D. each participant's reason for the specific personality trait chosen.
B. whether personality changes were maintained following the period of intervention. (Choices A and C) Trait theories do not consider situational factors on behavior, so a trait theorist is unlikely to be interested in analyzing which interventions are most effective or how human interactions influence personality change. (Choice D) Trait theories do not consider why and how individuals develop the traits that they do, so a trait theorist is unlikely to be interested in analyzing the reasons each participant selected the personality trait chosen.
Which of the following best exemplifies instinctive drift? A. Children are born with a biological predisposition to prefer sweet foods and to dislike bitter foods, which are more likely to be toxic. B. In humans, it is easier to condition a fear response to innately dangerous stimuli, such as snakes, than to harmless stimuli, such as rabbits. C. Animals trained to perform a specific behavior will often lose that behavior in favor of innate behaviors, even when reinforcement is present. D. Animals who become ill after one exposure to a noxious stimulus will quickly learn to avoid that stimulus in the future.
C. Animals trained to perform a specific behavior will often lose that behavior in favor of innate behaviors, even when reinforcement is present. Instincts are innate, fixed behaviors. Instinctive drift describes an animal's reverting from a learned behavior to an innate behavior despite reinforcement. Instinctive drift often involves behaviors related to food or exploration. (Choice A) Children are biologically predisposed to prefer sweet over bitter tastes, which is believed to confer an evolutionary advantage to babies who preferred more calorie-dense (sweet) foods and rejected foods more likely to be toxic (bitter). However, this describes an innate preference and is not an example of instinctive drift. (Choice B) Most animals have an innate fear of their predators. Although human behavior is more complex than animal behavior, studies suggest that it is easier to condition humans to fear certain stimuli, specifically snakes, spiders, and rats. However, this describes a fear instinct in humans, which is not an example of instinctive drift. (Choice D) Animals and humans will associate whatever they consumed (usually through sight or smell cues) with becoming ill and will avoid it in the future. This is known as a taste aversion, a powerful type of associative learning, and is not an example of instinctive drift.
Social loafing would be best demonstrated by members of: A. Group 1 arriving at their individual estimates after careful consideration. B. Group 2 spending the most time discussing compared to Groups 3 and 4. C. Group 3 arriving at a consensus in the shortest amount of time compared to Groups 2 and 4. D. Group 5 spending less time discussing compared to Groups 2, 3, and 4.
C. Group 3 arriving at a consensus in the shortest amount of time compared to Groups 2 and 4. Social loafing occurs when an individual exerts less effort as a member of a group than when alone. For example, studies show that people tend to applaud more loudly when alone than when part of an audience. (Choices A and B) Careful consideration (Group 1) and spending a lot of time debating (Group 2) both suggest social loafing was not occurring. (Choice D) Group 5 members spending less time debating than Groups 2, 3, and 4 could be attributed to the fact that there were fewer members and they all started off with very similar estimates, so less discussion was needed.
According to Kohlberg's theory of moral development, which of the following is most likely to motivate Student 2 to work hard in school? A. Fear of being punished B. Expectation of a reward C. Praise from parents D. Internal standards of success
C. Praise from parents Lawrence Kohlberg proposed a theory of moral development progressing through six stages in sequence, but did not assign age ranges to the stages. He also asserted that most adults do not progress past stage 3 or 4. At the pre-conventional level, morality is controlled by outside forces: Individuals attempt to avoid punishment (stage 1) and try to maximize an exchange of favors with others (stage 2). At the conventional level, morality is defined by existing social norms and values: Individuals want to be "good" and liked by others (stage 3) and obey laws (stage 4). At the post-conventional level, morality is based on universal moral principles: Laws are viewed as flexible, considered in the context of helping the greatest number of people (stage 5), and justice and human dignity apply universally to all people (stage 6). Student 2's quote reflects a desire to be seen as "good" and secure the approval of others (stage 3); therefore, the individual should be most motivated to work hard in school by praise from the parents. (Choice A) Student 2's quote does not indicate a concern about punishment by authority (stage 1), so this student is unlikely to be most motivated by fear of punishment. (Choice B) Student 2's quote does not reflect a concern for self-reward (stage 2), so this individual is unlikely to be most motivated by a reward. (Choice D) Student 2's quote does not reflect a level of moral development in which the individual is motivated by internal standards (post-conventional level).
If the amount of change for the control and experimental groups did not actually differ, which of the following measurement errors would most likely result in a false positive (finding that the experimental group increased more than the control group)? A. Experimental group participants in Study 1 overestimated their pretest scores. B. All participants in Study 1 underestimated their pretest scores by the same amount. C. Researchers in Study 2 underestimated the pretest scores for the experimental group participants. D. Researchers in Study 2 overestimated the posttest scores for both groups by the same amount.
C. Researchers in Study 2 underestimated the pretest scores for the experimental group participants. (Choices B and D) If both the experimental and control groups underestimated pretest measurements or overestimated posttest measurements by the same amount, there would be no effect on net differences observed between the groups. Therefore, this would not increase the likelihood of finding a false difference between the groups. (Choice A) An overestimate of baseline measurements in the experimental group would decrease the observed effect of the intervention. This would not increase the likelihood of stating that the experimental group improved relative to the control. If in reality the experimental group did experience more change than the control group, this type of measurement error could lead researchers to fail to reject a false null hypothesis (type II error) with the erroneous conclusion that there is no difference (false negative).
Paragraph 2: Immigrant youths in the United States tend to adapt extremely well to their new surroundings. Researchers report that immigrant students often perform in school as well or better than their US-born classmates. Studies assessing psychological adjustment reveal similar findings: Foreign-born students are less likely to abuse alcohol or break the law, and they demonstrate relatively higher levels of self-esteem than their US-born peers. The findings on immigrant youths' overall adjustment to their new surroundings (Paragraph 2) best reflects immigrant youths': A. inability to culturally assimilate. B. avoidance of cultural lag. C. ability to overcome culture shock. D. susceptibility to ethnocentrism.
C. ability to overcome culture shock. Culture refers to the behaviors, beliefs, and general way of life of a particular society at a particular time. When people move to a new country, they face the challenge of acculturation, or adapting to the culture of their new country. Immigrating to a new country often results in culture shock: feelings of disorientation, uneasiness, and even fear due to the unfamiliar culture. The biggest causes of culture shock include difficulty communicating due to language barriers and unfamiliarity with symbols, norms, and customs. The fact that immigrant youths tend to adapt extremely well to their new culture (Paragraph 2) reflects their ability to overcome culture shock. (Choice A) Assimilation occurs when people adopt the culture of their new country, replacing the culture of their native country. Immigrant youths appear to adjust well to their new surroundings, which reflects an ability (not inability) to culturally assimilate. (Choice B) Culture lag refers to the social problems created by the time delay between rapid changes in material culture (technology, fashion) and slower changes in nonmaterial culture (ideas, beliefs, laws). For example, the Internet has evolved faster than have the laws needed to protect the safety of minors while online. Societies (not individuals) experience culture lag, so avoidance of cultural lag is not relevant to the adjustment of immigrant youths. (Choice D) Ethnocentrism is the belief that other cultures are inferior to the dominant culture. Ethnocentrism may result in discrimination, unfair treatment based on culture or ethnic affiliation. Immigrants often face ethnocentric beliefs and practices, yet immigrant children appear to prevail in spite of ethnocentrism, suggesting that their overall adjustment to new surroundings does not best reflect susceptibility to ethnocentrism.
As described in the passage, the success of immigrant youths: A. appears to be the result of social and economic capital. B. appears to result from social reproduction and intersectionality. C. demonstrates intergenerational and intragenerational mobility. D. demonstrates class consciousness and false consciousness.
C. demonstrates intergenerational and intragenerational mobility. The term social mobility refers to the change or movement of individuals, groups, or families between or within status categories in society (eg, from middle class to upper class). Social mobility can be horizontal, upward, or downward and is related to a multitude of other factors, such as educational achievement, job loss, career advancement, marriage, and institutionalized discrimination. The success of immigrant youths appears to be both intergenerational and intragenerational. It is intragenerational because the parents typically achieve a more prosperous status in the United States than in their native country. It is also intergenerational because the children achieve better education than their parents, with the potential for additional social advancement. (Choice A) Although social capital (defined as one's social network) appears to factor into the success of immigrant youths, economic capital (defined as one's financial resources) does not because the passage states that immigrant students succeed despite financial hardships. (Choice B) Social reproduction refers to the transmission of social inequality between generations (eg, children of poor parents remain poor), which is not occurring for the immigrant children since their status is likely to exceed that of their parents. Intersectionality refers to the way social categories (race, gender, class) overlap and contribute to discrimination and oppression; immigrant children appear to be succeeding despite intersectionality. (Choice D) Class consciousness is an awareness of one's social status in society (which is necessary for social classes to unite in revolution), and false consciousness refers to an inaccurate assessment of one's own status. Neither concept explains the success of immigrant youths.
The psychoanalytic theory would most likely suggest that experimental group participants who are able to alter their personality traits have: A. superegos that overcome defense mechanisms. B. ids that contain an intact reality principle. C. stronger egos than participants who are not able. D. more rational ids than participants who are not able.
C. stronger egos than participants who are not able. (Choice A) Defense mechanisms are unconscious strategies used by the ego when it is overwhelmed or otherwise weaker than the id. Defense mechanisms help alleviate anxiety or other suffering. The superego does not engage in defense mechanisms. (Choice B) During personality change, the ego (not the id) addresses the reality principle. (Choice D) The id is always chaotic and irrational. The ego's responsibility is to negotiate the impulses of the id with rational and goal-directed behavior.
_____________________ ___________________________ occurs when a stimulus that did not previously elicit a meaningful response takes on the properties of a biologically arousing stimulus. For example, when a dog hears the sound of a bell every time it receives food, the sound of the bell alone will eventually produce salivation (eg, a meaningful response). Unconditioned (ie, biologically arousing) stimuli cause unconditioned responses (ie, innate reactions). Neutral stimuli do not produce meaningful responses. After being paired with an unconditioned stimulus, the previously neutral stimulus becomes a conditioned stimulus when it causes the organism to react with a learned (ie, conditioned) response, which is typically similar to the unconditioned response.
Classical conditioning
A researcher is testing a patient's neurological function. When a word is flashed briefly in the patient's right visual field, he can correctly vocalize what he saw. When a word is flashed briefly in the patient's left visual field, he is unable to say what he saw but can correctly draw it. Which of the following is most likely damaged in this patient? A. Left retina B. Wernicke area C. Right occipital cortex D. Corpus callosum
D. Corpus callosum The corpus callosum is a bundle of myelinated axonal projections connecting the right and left hemispheres of the brain, allowing the two hemispheres to communicate. The right and left hemispheres are specialized for certain processes, known as cortical lateralization. Each hemisphere is responsible for contralateral control of the body: The left hemisphere controls touch and movement on the right side of the body, and vice versa. Each hemisphere is also specialized for certain cognitive processes. The left hemisphere is specialized for language functions, including speech production (Broca area) and language comprehension (Wernicke area). Severing the corpus callosum is most frequently used to treat severe epileptic seizures. Individuals with a severed corpus callosum ("split-brain") experience a disconnection between information processed on the right and left sides of the brain. Information presented in a patient's left visual field is processed in the right hemisphere; without interhemispheric communication, the patient is unable to express what is seen using language but would be able to draw it. (Choice A) If the patient's left retina were damaged, he would be unable to receive and transmit information presented to the left visual field. Therefore, he would not be able to process the word or correctly draw it. (Choice B) The patient is correctly able to vocalize what is seen when it is flashed briefly in the right visual field, suggesting that both language centers in the left hemisphere (speech production in Broca area and language comprehension in Wernicke area) are intact. (Choice C) Damage to the right occipital cortex would result in an inability to process visual information presented in the left visual field. This patient is still able to draw the image represented by the word even though he cannot speak it, suggesting that the occipital lobe is intact.
If this study also included a functional neuroimaging procedure, then (compared to controls) patients with PTSD would be most likely to exhibit alterations in which of the following? (I)Prefrontal cortex (II)Hippocampus (III)Amygdala A. I and II only B. I and III only C. II and III only D. I, II, and III
D. I, II, and III The hippocampus, amygdala, and prefrontal cortex (anterior portion of the frontal lobe) are sensitive to stress hormones and demonstrate structural changes in response to chronic stress, such as what might be experienced with PTSD. (Number I) Prefrontal cortex: Chronic stress has been shown to decrease dendritic branching in areas associated with cognitive flexibility, resulting in reduced coping mechanisms. It also increases dendritic branching in areas associated with hypervigilance. (Number II) Hippocampus: Chronic stress has been shown to increase inflammation while decreasing dendritic branching and volume in the hippocampus. These physiological changes may inhibit learning and memory and produce emotional changes, such as anhedonia (decreased ability to experience pleasure). (Number III) Amygdala: Chronic stress changes the growth of dendritic spines and alters the excitability of neurons in the amygdala, leading to more anger, fear, and anxiety.
Which concept best explains why it CANNOT be concluded that American students are underperforming academically compared to students in other countries, based on the passage's comparison between immigrant children and their US-born classmates? A. Social desirability bias B. Confirmation bias C. Hindsight bias D. Sampling bias
D. Sampling bias Sampling bias occurs when study participants are recruited from a population nonrandomly. Nonrandom sampling strategies can result in nonrepresentative samples, those that do not reflect the overall characteristics of the population of interest. For example, convenience sampling describes a nonrandom process of selecting participants who are easy to access in some way (eg, geographic location). Immigrant children in America (convenience sample) are not representative of students in other countries because there are likely to be fundamental differences between families that have immigrated and those that have not. In other words, sampling bias best explains why researchers cannot conclude that American students are underperforming academically compared to students in other countries based on data from immigrant children. (Choice A) Social desirability bias describes the tendency of research participants to overemphasize positive behaviors (eg, studying) while downplaying or underreporting undesirable behaviors (eg, consuming alcohol). This bias fails to explain why the comparison between American and foreign students is inappropriate. (Choice B) Confirmation bias describes the tendency, when one has already formed a conclusion, to look for supporting information, ignoring undermining information. This bias fails to explain why the comparison between American and foreign students is inappropriate. (Choice C) Hindsight bias describes the tendency to perceive an event as being likely after it has occurred, even if it was unlikely (eg, after winning the lottery, the winner states that she knew it was a lucky ticket). This bias fails to explain why the comparison between American and foreign students is inappropriate.
A sociologist is interested in investigating leukemia diagnoses in children. Which of the following research topics is most consistent with the sociological paradigm of symbolic interactionism? A study investigating how: A. socioeconomic status is related to leukemia treatment outcomes in children. B. the rights and obligations of the sick role apply to children diagnosed with leukemia. C. stereotypes about women and girls impact social support for girls diagnosed with leukemia. D. a child's leukemia diagnosis impacts interpersonal interactions and roles within families.
D. a child's leukemia diagnosis impacts interpersonal interactions and roles within families. Symbolic interactionism is a microsociological perspective that suggests that people develop subjective meanings for things (eg, objects, behaviors) through social interaction. The definition of the situation allows people to understand the roles of everyone involved in a social encounter so that each person acts accordingly.
A researcher interested in whether there is a correlation between the personality trait of neuroticism and somatic symptom disorder is most likely to assess if: A. delusions increase as agreeableness scores increase. B. delusions increase as emotional stability scores decrease. C. anxiety about illness increases as agreeableness scores decrease. D. anxiety about bodily symptoms increases as emotional stability scores decrease.
D. anxiety about bodily symptoms increases as emotional stability scores decrease. (Choices A and B) Delusions are irrational beliefs that are maintained despite evidence to the contrary (eg, the neighbors are aliens). Delusions are symptomatic of certain psychological disorders (eg, schizophrenia), but the excessive worry about bodily symptoms characteristic of SSD does not qualify as delusional thinking. Therefore, this researcher is unlikely to assess delusional symptoms. (Choice C) Agreeableness is not a measure of emotional instability or neuroticism. Therefore, this researcher is unlikely to assess if there is a correlation between agreeableness and illness anxiety.
A cognitive-behavioral therapist in Study 2 uses principles of classical and operant conditioning to treat a participant with extreme introversion and social anxiety. The methodologies employed by the therapist would LEAST likely include: A. repeatedly exposing the participant to extended periods of social engagement. B. commending the participant for attempts to engage socially during free time. C. requiring the participant to eat favorite foods only when in the presence of company. D. asking the participant to observe others who freely engage in social settings.
D. asking the participant to observe others who freely engage in social settings. If relying on principles of classical conditioning, a CBT therapist might use a form of systematic desensitization, in which this participant is methodically exposed to longer periods of social engagement (Choice A). A CBT technique that relies on principles from operant conditioning is rewarding social behaviors (Choices B and C). Asking the participant to observe others who freely engage in social settings, while at times used in CBT, is based more on the principles of observational learning than on those of classical or operant conditioning.
The interactionist theory of language development suggests that: A. praise for speaking a new word reinforces young children to say that word again. B. children who are deprived of language exposure early in life are unable to achieve full fluency. C. young children are unable to think about concepts for which they have not yet learned the words. D. innate factors combined with contact between children and their caregivers produce language.
D. innate factors combined with contact between children and their caregivers produce language. The interactionist theory of language development suggests that language is acquired through a process that is both social and biological. Children require interaction with caregivers early in life to learn language (social), but they are also predisposed to learn language in a way that is different from how they learn all other skills (biological). (Choice A) The learning theory, which proposes that language is acquired through conditioning and modeling, would be supported by evidence that praise for speaking a new word reinforces young children to say that word again. (Choice B) The nativist theory, which proposes that language is not learned as are other skills/behaviors but is learned via an innate process hardwired in the brain, would suggest that only language exposure during a critical (time sensitive) period early in life results in fluency. (Choice C) The linguistic relativity theory (ie, the Sapir-Whorf hypothesis) proposes that cognition is influenced and/or shaped by language; in its stronger version, this perspective would suggest that children are unable to think about concepts for which they have not yet learned the words.
_________________ ___________________ is a type of learning that occurs when the likelihood of an organism repeating a behavior is influenced by the outcome of that behavior (ie, reward or punishment). For example, when a rat receives a food pellet (ie, reward) after pushing a lever, the rat is more likely to push the lever again. Reinforcement increases (or maintains) behavior; negative reinforcement occurs when an undesirable stimulus is removed, which encourages a behavior to happen again.
Operant conditioning
Reinforcement schedules can be continuous (reward given every time) or partial. Partial schedules include fixed or variable ratio (reward given after consistent or inconsistent number of behaviors) and fixed or variable interval (reward given after consistent or inconsistent amount of time).
Partial reinforcement schedules are most often used to maintain learned behaviors, and include: Fixed ratio: Behavior rewarded after a consistent number of responses. For example, a customer loyalty program awards a free coffee after ten coffee purchases. Variable ratio: Behavior rewarded after an inconsistent number of responses, usually after some average number of responses, as in Study 1. The AVG3 schedule might provide a reward after four correct responses, then after two, then after three, and so on. Fixed interval: Behavior rewarded after a consistent amount of time, regardless of how many behaviors have occurred. For example, employees who are paid a weekly salary receive the same amount of money each Friday regardless of how hard they have worked during the week. Variable interval: Behavior rewarded after an inconsistent amount of time, regardless of how many behaviors have occurred. For example, when awaiting an email, the frequency with which users refresh their in-boxes does not affect when a new email arrives.
A ________________________ __________________ is a vivid, detailed type of autobiographical explicit memory for an event that was extremely emotional, distinct, or significant to the individual. (ex. 9/11, birth of a child)
flashbulb memory
Social mobility that takes place over more than one life span is __________________, ___________________________
intergenerational, occurring during the span of more than one generation.
If a group or a person experiences social mobility within one's own lifetime, the social mobility is said to be ____________________, _______________________
intragenerational, occurring within a generation.