V3
In which position should the patient be placed for insertion of the enema tip during a barium enema procedure? A. Sims.' B. Valsalva. C. Trendelenburg. D. Fowler's.
a
Opening the collimators wider than necessary using digital radiography has which effect on image quality? A. Image noise is increased. B. There is no effect on image quality. C. The contrast resolution of the image is decreased. D. The spatial resolution of the image is increased.
a
The Alexander method is performed to demonstrate a dislocation of which joint? A. Acromioclavicular. B. Glenohumeral. C. Radioulnar. D. Patellofemoral.
a
The appendix is connected anatomically to which structure? A. Cecum. B. Ileum. C. Jejunum. D. Sigmoid.
a
What is the advantage of using a high kilovolts peak (kVp), low milliamperage seconds (mAs) technique with digital radiography (DR) systems? a. patient exposure decreases b. spatial resolution increases c. scale of contrast increases d. quantum noise decreases
a
What is the maximum allowable tabletop intensity in high-level control (HLC) fluoroscopic procedures? a. 200 mGya/min b. 50 mGya/min c. 100 mGya/min d. 150 mGya/min
a
What route of transmission is responsible for transmitting a disease to a patient through an improperly cleaned x-ray table? a. Fomite. b. Vector. c. Vehicle. d. Direct contact.
a
When a radiographer asks a patient to lie down on the imaging table and the patient complies, which type of consent has the patient given? a. Simple consent. b. Implied consent. c. Informed consent. d. General consent.
a
Which acronym describes a network of computers that manages digital images? A. PACS. B. RIS. C. HIS. D. DICOM.
a
Place the parts of the respiratory tract in order from the most proximal to the most distal. 1. Trachea. 2. Primary bronchi. 3. Bronchioles. 4. Alveolar sacs.
1. Trachea. 2. Primary bronchi. 3. Bronchioles. 4. Alveolar sacs.
A trauma patient arrives to the emergency department unconscious with tachycardia and hypotension. The patient has lost a significant volume of blood. The patient is experiencing which condition? a. Hypovolemic shock. b. Cardiogenic shock. c. Septic shock. d. Neurogenic shock.
a
All other factors remaining the same, how will increasing the source to image receptor distance (SID) from 40 inches to 60 inches affect the appearance of a radiographic image? A. Decreased magnification. B. Decreased sharpness. C. Increased shape distortion. D. Increased density.
a
At which location is the ionization chamber located in an automatic exposure control (AEC) device? A. Between the grid and the image receptor (IR). B. Between the patient and the image receptor (IR). C. Between and the x-ray tube and the patient. D. Between the image receptor (IR) and the wall.
a
Biologic damage resulting from the ionization of key atoms causing these molecules to become inactive or functionally altered is much more likely to occur after exposure to which type of radiation? a. HIgh-LET radiation such as alpha particles. b. Low-LET radiation such as x-rays. c. Nonionizing radiation such as microwaves. d. High-LET radiation such as gamma rays.
a
During a routine radiographic examination, a patient complains of dizziness and appears anxious and diaphoretic. While checking the patient's vital signs, the radiographer notes a rapid heart rate, shaky hands, and clammy skin. Which is the most likely explanation for this presentation? a. Hypoglycemia. b. Vasovagal syncope. c. Grand mal seizure. d. Transient ischemic attack (TIA).
a
For which purpose is gonadal shielding recommended? a. To reduce the probability of genetic mutations. b. To reduce the probability of sterility. c. To reduce the population genetically significant dose. d. To reduce the probability of transient infertility.
a
How does aliasing appear radiographically when using computed radiography (CR)? A. Two superimposed images, slightly out of alignment. B. A white line along the length of the image. C. Black lines, branching across the image. D. Excessive noise on the image.
a
How many posterior ribs should be visible above the diaphragm on a posteroanterior (PA) chest projection? A. Ten. B. Seven. C. Eight. D. Nine.
a
How should a mobile C-arm fluoroscope be positioned to provide maximum radiation protection to the operator? a. With the x-ray tube under the patient and as far from the patient as possible. b. With the x-ray tube under the patient and as close to the patient as possible. c. With the x-ray tube above the patient and as far from the patient as possible. d. With the x-ray tube above the patient and as close to the patient as possible.
a
Identify the proper medical record documentation of medication administration. a. 5 mcg/min, Epinephrine, IV, 11/12/2007, 0940. b. 07/13/2005, 1:35 p.m., two 25 mg Benadryl tablets. c. 0.5% Lidocaine, 2.5 mg/kg, IV, 03/13/2010, 8:45 a.m. d. 20 mg, Prednisone, PO, 09/16/2011.
a
In the diagnostic energy range, which substances possesses the greatest ability to absorb radiant energy through the process of photoelectric absorption? a. bone b. muscle c. fat d. air
a
In which position is the knee placed in order to demonstrate the head of the fibula without superimposition? A. 45 degrees medial rotation. B. 3-5 degrees medial rotation. C. 45 degrees lateral rotation. D. 3-5 degrees lateral rotation.
a
Which alternative procedure is recommended when positioning a patient for a Swimmer's lateral (Twining method) of the cervicothoracic region (C7-T1) if the shoulder away from the image receptor (IR) cannot be fully depressed? A. Angle the central ray 3 - 5 degrees caudad. B. Place a weight in the patient's hand prior to the exposure. C. Perform a horizontal beam lateral projection of C7-T1. D. Gently pull down on the patient's arm to lower the shoulder.
a
Which are by-products of photoelectric absorption? a. Photoelectron and characteristic photon. b. Low-energy scattered x-ray photon and Compton scattered electron. c. Photoelectron and Compton scattered electrons. d. Low-energy scattered x-ray photon and characteristic photon
a
Which central ray (CR) orientation is recommended for a standard anteroposterior (AP) axial projection of the skull to demonstrate the dorsum sellae within the foramen magnum? A. 30 degrees to the orbitomeatal line (OML). B. 15 degrees to the orbitomeatal line (OML). C. Perpendicular to the infraorbitomeatal line (IOML). D. Parallel to the mentomeatal line (MML).
a
Which condition requires a patient to be placed in a negative pressure room, and healthcare workers to wear respiratory protection when entering? a. Tuberculosis. b. Influenza. c. Staphylococcus aureus. d. Hepatitis C.
a
Which describes the proper technique for needle insertion during venipuncture? a. Insert needle into vein at a 15-degree angle with bevel facing upward. b. Insert needle into vein at a 45-degree angle with bevel facing downward. c. Insert needle into vein at a 15-degree with bevel facing downward. d. Insert needle into vein at a 45-degree angle with bevel facing upward.
a
Which device is located in the primary section of a general x-ray circuit? A. Timer circuit. B. Rheostat. C. Step-down transformer. D. Milliampere (mA) meter.
a
Which device provides the required amount of voltage for x-ray production? A. Transformer. B. Battery. C. Rheostat. D. Capacitor.
a
Which effect does switching to the small focal spot size have on the manifest image? A. Image unsharpness decreases. B. Image density increases. C. Size distortion decreases. D. Scale of contrast increases.
a
Which factor will have the greatest impact on decreasing recorded detail or spatial resolution? A. Motion. B. Source-to-image-receptor-distance (SID). C. Object-to-image-receptor-distance (OID). D. Focal spot size.
a
Which interaction with matter contributes to the majority of occupational exposure? a. compton scattering b. pair production c. photoelectric effect d. classical scattering
a
Which is the most appropriate response if a patient asks about the risks of radiation exposure from a computed tomography (CT) exam? a. "A CT results in a much higher dose than an x-ray, but your physician believes the benefits outweigh the risks." b. "The radiation dose from a CT is about twice as much as the dose from an x-ray." c. "Medical radiation is considered low dose, so CT exams are completely safe." d. "A typical CT requires about 20 millisieverts of radiation, which is equal to about 20 years of natural background radiation."
a
Which is the most likely result if an exposure is made without the use of a focusing cup? a. Increased off focus radiation. b. Decreased electron production. c. Decreased leakage. d. Increased resolution
a
Which is the primary controlling factor for x-ray beam quality? a. Kilovolts peak (kVp). b. Milliampere seconds (mAs). Focal spot size. c. Source to image receptor distance (SID).
a
Which milliampere seconds (mAs) value should be selected for a patient measuring 30 centimeters if 22 mAs is optimal for a patient measuring 25 centimeters? A. 44 mAs. B. 40 mAs. C. 33 mAs. D. 28 mAs.
a
Which position/projection of the elbow best demonstrates the trochlear notch of the ulna? A. Lateral, lateromedial projection. B. Anteroposterior (AP), internal oblique. C. Anteroposterior (AP), external oblique. D. Anteroposterior (AP).
a
Which post-processing action is always acceptable? A. Annotating with an upright marker to show the patient was in an erect position. B. Placing an anatomically appropriate annotated marker showing which side is the left side. C. Using electronic masking to eliminate unnecessary anatomy. D. Changing the processing algorithm to a different procedure.
a
Which term refers to the removal of an electron from the orbital shell of an atom? a. ionization b. annihilation c. irradiation d. excitation
a
Which type of radiation is produced when an outer shell electron fills an inner shell vacancy? a. characteristic b. brems c. remnant d. scatter
a
Which value represents a normal respiratory rate for a pediatric patient? a. 25 breaths per minute. b. 10 breaths per minute. c. 35 breaths per minute. d. 15 breaths per minute.
a
With all other factors remaining the same, which source-to-image-receptor-distance (SID) results in the greatest exposure to the image receptor (IR)? A. 40 inches. B. 72 inches. C. 44 inches. D. 60 inches.
a
Which post-processing techniques may be used with digital imaging? (Select the three that apply.) A. Electronic masking. B. Filtering. C. Smoothing. D. Automatic brightness control (ABC). E. Quantum noise.
a b c
Which procedures should imaging personnel perform in order to reduce exposure time during fluoroscopic procedures? (Select the three that apply.) a. Use the last image hold feature. b. Use the pulsed progressive mode. c. Reset the cumulative timer before procedure. d. Increase the distance from image intensifier to table top. e. increase the fluoroscopic field size.
a, b, c
Which factors will impact the radiation barrier calculations for an x-ray room? (Select the three that apply.) a. How often the room is used. b. Types of exams performed in the room. c. Number of occupational workers in the room. d. People in adjoining rooms. Number of repeat exposures
a, b, d
For which lumbar spine projections should a shaped contact shield be applied to provide protection for the gonads of a male patient? (Select the three that apply.) a. AP b. PA LAO c. L5-S1 lateral spot d. AP RPO e. PA
a, c, d
Place the following types of dosimeters in proper order from least radiosensitive to most radiosensitive. a. film badge b. OSL c. Pocket ionization chamber d. TLD
a, d, b, c
Which bones make up the ankle mortise? A. Tibia, fibula, and talus. B. Tibia, fibula, and calcaneus. C. Talus, calcaneus, and navicular. D. Talus, calcaneus, and medial cuneiform.
a.
A radiograph of optimal density is produced at 15 milliampere seconds (mAs) and a source to image receptor distance (SID) of 40 inches. Which mAs value is required to produce the same radiographic density if this exam is repeated at an SID of 48 inches? A. 16 B. 22 C. 10 D. 18
b
An anteroposterior (AP) shoulder image acquired with the epicondyles perpendicular to the image receptor (IR) will demonstrate which radiographic appearance? A. The glenoid cavity is seen in profile, free of superimposition. B. The lesser tubercle is seen in profile medially. C. The humeral head is seen in profile, free of superimposition. D. The greater tubercle is seen in profile laterally.
b
Consider these different abdomen images of the same patient. What most likely caused the difference in these images? A. Image B was produced with a large effective focal spot (EFS). B. Image A was produced at a shorter source to image receptor distance (SID). C. Image A was produced with less object to image receptor distance (OID). D. Image B was produced with a larger image receptor (IR).
b
How is the process of thermionic emission described? a. A k shell electron is ejected from its orbit. b. Electrons are released when the filament is heated. c. Electrons flow from the cathode to the anode. d. An orbital electron becomes excited and releases its energy.
b
How many millimeters of lead equivalency is recommended for lead aprons worn by pregnant radiographers? a. 0.75 b. 0.5 c. 1 d. 0.25
b
How should the radiographer position the patient to best demonstrate a left axillary 6th rib fracture? A. Upright posteroanterior (PA). B. Upright and 45 degree left posterior oblique (LPO). C. Supine and 45 degree left posterior oblique (LPO). D. Prone
b
If a radiographic image is requested to show the nephrogram phase of an intravenous urogram (IVU), how long after IV contrast administration should this image be obtained? A. 5 minutes. B. 30 seconds to 1 minute. C. 10 to 15 minutes. D. 20 minutes.
b
If all other factors remain constant, how is radiation dose related to source-to-object distance (SOD)? a. Exponentially. b. By the inverse square law. c. Proportionately. d. Directly.
b
In which position should the patient be placed in order to demonstrate the right intervertebral foramina of the cervical spine while minimizing radiation dose to the thyroid gland? a. LPO b. RAO c. LAO d. RPO
b
The center of the x-ray beam must be aligned to the center of the bucky tray to within what percent of the source to image receptor distance (SID)? A. 3%. B. 1%. C. 2%. D. 4%.
b
What is the annual occupational effective dose limit for a non-pregnant radiation worker? a. 0.5 mSv b. 50 mSv c. 500 mSv d. 5 mSv
b
What is the primary purpose of beam filtration? a. Produce uniform density. b. Protect patient from low energy xrays. c. Increases the intensity of radiation. d. Improve radiographic contrast.
b
What precautions should a radiographer take when entering the room of a patient with varicella virus? a. Don gloves. b. Wear aparticulate respirator mask, gloves and gown. c. Wear a surgical mask. d. Wear a surgical mask, gloves and gown.
b
What should be demonstrated on a properly exposed supine image of the abdomen? A. Bladder. B. Perirenal fat. C. Kidneys. D. Shadow of the spleen.
b
When obtaining a blood pressure reading, systolic and diastolic values are determined by monitoring which pulse point? a. Carotid. b. Brachial. c. Apical. d. Radial.
b
Which advantage is gained by increasing the standard source to image receptor distance (SID) from 40 inches to 48 inches? A. Increased radiographic contrast. B. Increased image resolution. C. Increased x-ray tube life. D. Increased signal to noise ratio (SNR).
b
Which anatomical structure is the most distal? A. Coronoid fossa. B. Radial tuberosity. C. Trochlea. D. Radial head.
b
Which anatomical structure is the most medial? A. Radial head. B. Coronoid tubercle. C. Coronoid fossa. D. Radial notch.
b
Which appearance is demonstrated by a lateral projection of the shoulder obtained using the Lawrence method? A. The intertubercular groove is seen in profile. B. The proximal humerus is projected through the lung field. C. The greater tubercle is projected onto the head of the humerus. D. The glenoid cavity is seen in profile.
b
Which describes the relationship between linear energy transfer (LET) and relative biologic effectiveness (RBE)? a. There is no direct relationship between LET and RBE. b. As LET increases, RBE increases. c. As LET increases, RBE decreases. d. As LET decreases, RBE increases.
b
Which effect does a step-up transformer have on voltage and current? A. Voltage and current are increased. B. Voltage is increased and current is decreased. C. Voltage and current are decreased. D. Voltage is decreased and current is increased.
b
Which effect will a low signal-to-noise ratio (SNR) have on the appearance of a digital radiographic image? A. Decreased spatial resolution. B. Decreased contrast resolution. C. Decreased brightness. D. Decreased dynamic range.
b
Which finding is demonstrated most clearly by a left lateral decubitus image of the abdomen? A. Air/fluid levels in the liver. B. Free air over the liver. C. Ascites. D. Free air over the stomach.
b
Which history factor has an increased risk of aspiration during an upper gastrointestinal study? a. Steroid therapy. b. Dizziness. c. Colon biopsy. d. Constipation.
b
Which human cell is the most resistant to the effects of radiation? a. intestinal crypt b. neurons c. spermatogonia d. lymphocytes
b
Which image, when performed according to normal standards, will demonstrate the greatest magnification of the anatomy of interest? A. Lateral forearm. B. Lateral cervical spine. C. Anteroposterior (AP) lumbar spine. D. Posteroanterior (PA) hand.
b
Which is the best way to control severe bleeding from a deep laceration of the upper arm? a. Apply an ice pack on the wound and place the patient's arm below the level of the heart. b. Apply direct pressure to the wound and raise the patient's arm above the level of the heart. c. Apply a warm compress on the wound and place the patient's arm below the level of the heart. d. Place a tourniquet above the wound and raise the patient's arm above the level of the heart.
b
Which is the correct central ray (CR) location for an anteroposterior (AP) oblique projection of the urinary bladder during a cystogram? A. At the level of the pubic symphysis and 2 inches medial to the downside anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS). B. 2 inches superior to the pubic symphysis and 2 inches medial to the elevated anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS). C. At the level of the pubic symphysis and 2 inches medial to the elevated anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS). D. 2 inches superior to the pubic symphysis and 2 inches medial to the downside anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS).
b
Which set of exposure factors is most likely to provide clear visualization of the upper cervical spine through the mandible when performing an anteroposterior (AP) "wagging jaw" projection (Ottonello Method)? A. 85 kilovolts peak (kVp), 200 milliamperes (mA), 0.2 seconds. B. 75 kilovolts peak (kVp), 25 milliamperes (mA), 2.0 seconds. C. 85 kilovolts peak (kVp), 400 milliamperes (mA), 0.1 seconds. D. 75 kilovolts peak (kVp), 100 milliamperes (mA), 0.5 seconds.
b
Which statement describes the presence of patient rotation on a lateral cervical spine image? A. Superior to inferior displacement of zygapophyseal joints. B. Anterior to posterior displacement of zygapophyseal joints. C. Anterior to posterior narrowing of intervertebral foramina. D. Superior to inferior narrowing of intervertebral foramina.
b
Which term means the loss or change of a nitrogenous base in the DNA chain? a. aneuploidy b. mutation c. bleb d. free radical
b
Which type of shock is caused by a reaction to contrast media? a. Cardiogenic. b. Vasogenic. c. Hypovolemic. d. Neurogenic
b
Which whole-body dose most closely approximates the LD 50/30 for humans? a. 1 Sv b. 3 Sv c. 5 Sv d. 2 Sv
b
Which x-ray tube orientation is used to create a 90-degree angle between the central ray (CR) and the metatarsals for an anteroposterior (AP) axial projection of the foot? A. 15 degrees posteriorly. B. 10 degrees posteriorly. C. Perpendicular to the image receptor (IR). D. Parallel to the metatarsophalangeal (MTP) joint spaces.
b
Which factors affect spatial resolution in digital imaging? (Select the two that apply.) A. Increased pixel pitch. B. Greater number of pixels. C. Smaller pixels. D. Smaller matrix size. E. Increased bit depth.
b c
Which describes a linear, nonthreshold dose-response relationship? a. The response increases as the dose increases. b. No dose may be considered completely safe. c. There is a range of doses that are completely safe. d. A response occurs above a minimum dose.
b.
A patient is slumped over in his wheelchair and is non-responsive. After easing the patient to the floor, the radiographer finds no carotid pulse. This patient is experiencing which condition? a. Epileptic seizure. b. Diabetic coma. c.Cardiac arrest. d. Myocardial infarction.
c
A radiographer performs an abdomen examination with a mobile digital radiography (DR) system. In order to reduce the likelihood of a repeat exposure, he decides to increase the technical factors slightly more than necessary. Which term refers to this undesirable practice? a. reciprocity b. maximum permissible dose c. dose creep d. technique creep
c
A radiographer stands six feet from the x-ray source when performing a portable chest exam and receives an exposure of 2 mGy. If the radiographer performs a repeat exam using the same technical factors standing at a distance of three feet from the source, how much exposure will be received? a. 8 mGy b. 16 mGy c. 8 mGy d. 4 mGy
c
A six-year-old pediatric patient arrives in the radiology suite for a radiograph of the abdomen. Which set of technical factors provides the best radiation protection? a. 72 kilovolt-peak (kVp), 15 milliampere-seconds (mAs). b. 63 kilovolt-peak (kVp), 30 milliampere-seconds (mAs). c. 82 kilovolt-peak (kVp), 7.5 milliampere-seconds (mAs). d. 55 kilovolt-peak (kVp), 30 milliampere-seconds (mAs).
c
An anteroposterior (AP) pelvis image shows evidence that the patient is rotated toward the right hip. Which statement below best describes the appearance of this image? A. Pelvic inlet appears elongated with the symphysis pubis projected inferiorly. B. Symphysis pubis is projected over the mid-sacrum. C. Right iliac wing appears larger than the left iliac wing. D. Right obturator foramen appears larger than the left obturator foramen.
c
An image of the abdomen demonstrates appropriate density and scale of contrast, but motion blur is present due to peristalsis. If the original image was obtained with a 200 milliampere (mA) station and an exposure time of 0.35 seconds, which set of technical factors will produce a comparable exposure while minimizing motion artifact? A. 300 mA and 0.23 seconds. B. 400 mA and 0.35 seconds. C. 500 mA and 0.14 seconds. D. 100 mA and 0.7 seconds.
c
Assuming that automatic exposure control is to be used, what backup milliampere-seconds (mAs) are sufficient for a large (100 kg) adult anteroposterior (AP) lumbar spine done at 80 kilovolts peak (kVp)? A. 40 mAs. B. 80 mAs. C. 100 mAs. D. 60 mAs.
c
For which purpose is orthoroentgenography performed? A. Spinal canal visualization. B. Soft tissue and foreign body localization. C. Long bone measurement. D. Joint space evaluation.
c
How are the patient's hand and fingers positioned for a posteroanterior (PA) wrist projection? A. Hand pronated with fingers extended. B. Hand supinated with fingers flexed. C. Hand pronated with fingers flexed. D. Hand supinated with fingers extended.
c
How does a wide window width affect an image? A. Increases contrast. B. Increases brightness. C. Decreases contrast. D. Decreases brightness.
c
How far should the upper border of the image receptor (IR) extend above the shoulders for a posteroanterior (PA) chest projection? A. 0 inch. B. 2.5 -3 inches. C. 1.5 -2 inches. D. 1 inch.
c
How much barium is administered on an average adult patient with a colostomy undergoing a single contrast barium enema? a. 1500 mL. b. 300 mL. c. 250 mL. d. 3000 mL
c
How should the radiographer rotate the patient's lower leg and foot for an anteroposterior (AP) oblique projection of the second toe? A. 10 - 25 degrees medially. B. 10 - 25 degrees laterally. C. 30 - 45 degrees medially. D. 30 - 45 degrees laterally.
c
In cassette-based computed radiography (CR) systems, the photostimulable phosphor plate is made of which material? A. Calcium tungstate. B. Amorphous silicon. C. Barium fluorohalide. D. Cesium iodide.
c
Over the entire gestational period, what is the fetal exposure limit? a. 50 mSv b. 2.5 mSv c. 5 mSv d. 1 mSv
c
The collimator light must be aligned to the radiation field to within what percent of the source to image distance (SID)? A. 4%. B. 3%. C. 2%. D. 5%.
c
Washing the hands with soap and waterdisrupts the chain of infection by which process? a. Preventing pathogens from exiting the host. b. Reducing host susceptibility to microorganisms. c. Decreasing the number of pathogens present. d. Killing all microorganisms on the surface of the skin.
c
What is the minimum recommended filtration for general diagnostic x-ray units? a. 3 mm Al b. 5 mm Al c. 2.5 mm Al d. 1.5 mm Al
c
When transferring a patient with hemiparesis from a wheelchair to the x-ray table, in which position should the wheelchair be placed? a. Perpendicular to the x-ray table, and ask the patient to lead with the weak side. b. Perpendicular to the x-ray table, and ask the patient to lead with the strong side. c. Parallel to the x-ray table, with the patient's strong side closest to the table. d. Parallel to the x-ray table, with the patient's weak side closest to the table.
c
Where should the central ray (CR) be directed for a lateral lumbosacral spine projection when using a 14 x 17 in (35 x 43 cm) image receptor (IR)? A. Anterior superior iliac spine. B. Lower costal margin. C. Iliac crest. D. Xiphoid process.
c
Where should the central ray (CR) enter the patient for a lateral sacrum projection? A. 2 inches posterior and 2 inches inferior to the anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS). B. 2 inches posterior to the anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS). C. 3-4 inches posterior to the anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS). D. 3-4 inches posterior and 2 inches inferior to the anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS).
c
Which body plane is positioned perpendicular to the image receptor (IR) on a lateral chest projection? A. Midsagittal plane. B. Interiliac plane. C. Midcoronal plane. D. Horizontal plane.
c
Which central ray (CR) angle is recommended to demonstrate the coronoid process of the elbow using the Coyle method? A. 45 degrees toward the shoulder. B. 35 degrees away from the shoulder. C. 45 degrees away from the shoulder. D. 35 degrees toward the shoulder.
c
Which combination results in an image with the greatest recorded detail? A. 2 inch object-to-image-receptor-distance (OID), 44 inch source-to-image-receptor-distance (SID), 0.6 mm focal spot size (FSS). B. 4 inch object-to-image-receptor-distance (OID), 72 inch source-to-image-receptor-distance (SID), 1.2 mm focal spot size (FSS). C. 2 inch object-to-image-receptor-distance (OID), 72 inch source-to-image-receptor-distance (SID), 0.6 mm focal spot size (FSS). D. 4 inch object-to-image-receptor-distance (OID), 44 inch source-to-image-receptor-distance (SID), 1.2 mm focal spot size (FSS).
c
Which dose may cause temporary sterility of both males and females? a. 1 Gy b. 5 Gy c. 2 Gy d. 0 Gy
c
Which example of nonverbal communication is most effective for helping a patient overcome anxiety and apprehension prior to an exam? a. Provide the patient with a clear explanation of the procedure. b. Stand with arms folded while listening to the patient. c. Maintain direct but appropriate eye contact with patient. d. Politely introduce yourself to the patient before the exam
c
Which fluoroscopic mode results in the lowest patient dose? a. continous b. magnification c. digital pulsed progressive d. HLC
c
Which is an advantage of digital imaging systems compared to traditional film-screen systems? A. Higher spatial resolution. Incorrect B. Reduced image noise. C. Improved contrast resolution. D. Less sensitivity to scatter.
c
Which is the best strategy for communicating health care information to a patient who is completely deaf? a. Discuss care with the patient's family members. b. Speak loudly and slowly to the patient. c. Call for an interpreter certified in sign language. d. Relay the pertinent information to the patient's nurse.
c
Which is the correct central ray (CR) location for a posteroanterior (PA) hand projection? A. Midpoint of the third carpometacarpal (CMC) joint. B. Third proximal interphalangeal (IP) joint. C. Third metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joint. D. Midpoint of the third metacarpal.
c
Which is the most appropriate response to a patient who asks what the term "peritonitis" means? a. "That's a good question to ask your doctor." b. "There are plenty of medical websites that can answer your questions." c. "Peritonitis is an inflammation of the abdomen." d. "Peritonitis is an infection of the peritoneum that can result in death."
c
Which method of respiration is recommended for a soft tissue neck exam to evaluate the trachea? A. Shallow breathing. B. Deep breathing. C. Suspended inspiration. D. Suspended expiration.
c
Which method of respiration will demonstrate the maximum number of ribs above the diaphragm when performing an anteroposterior (AP) projection of the upper ribs? A. Deep breathing. B. Shallow breathing. C. Suspended deep inspiration. D. Suspended expiration.
c
Which method should be the first choice to reduce exposure to the reproductive organs in every radiographic exam? a. Employ high kilovolts peak (kVp) techniques. b. Reduce exposure time. c. Collimate to include only the anatomy of interest. d. Use gonadal shielding.
c
Which milliampere-seconds (mAs) setting is most likely to produce quantum mottle? A. 100 mAs. B. 25 mAs. C. 2.5 mAs. D. 50 mAs.
c
Which minimum thickness of lead shielding is required to cover the bucky slot during fluoroscopic exams? a. 2 mm b. 1 mm c. 0.25 mm d. 0.5 mm
c
Which portion of the small intestine is most commonly affected by Crohn's disease? A. Cecum. B. Duodenum. C. Ileum. D. Jejunum.
c
Which projection of the facial bones demonstrates the petrous pyramids below the maxillary sinuses? A. Posteroanterior (PA) axial (Caldwell). B. Posteroanterior (PA). C. Parietoacanthial (Waters). D. Anteroposterior (AP) axial (modified Towne).
c
Which radiographic finding is characteristic of cervical spine trauma resulting in a Jefferson fracture? A. Open mouth view demonstrates a transverse fracture at the base of the odontoid process. B. Lateral projection demonstrates a spondylolisthesis of C2. C. Open mouth view demonstrates bilateral displacement of the lateral masses of C1. D. Lateral projection demonstrates an avulsion of the C7 spinous process.
c
Which statement correctly describes the amount of kinetic energy required for a photon to remove an inner shell electron from its orbit? a. Equal to or greater than 1.022 MeV, regardless of the electron binding. b. Ten times greater than the electron binding energy. c. The same as or greater than the electron binding energy. d. Less than the electron binding energy.
c
Which statement most accurately describes the position of the kidneys within the abdominal cavity of an average patient? A. The lower poles lie closer to the vertebral column than the upper poles. B. Both kidneys are located within the peritoneal cavity. C. The left kidney is positioned slightly higher than the right kidney. D. The upper poles are located at or near the level of T8.
c
Which tarsal bone is best seen when the plantar surface of the foot is positioned perpendicular to the image receptor (IR), and a 40-degree cephalic central ray (CR) is directed to the base of the third metatarsal? A. Cuboid. B. Lateral cuneiform. C. Calcaneus. D. Talus.
c
Which technical factor increases the number of x-ray photons reaching the image receptor (IR)? A. Small focal spot size. B. Decreased milliamperage (mA). C. Increased milliamperage (mA). D. Large focal spot size.
c
Which term describes the process by which an overexposed or underexposed image receptor (IR) appears acceptable on a display monitor? a. Stitching. b. Filtering. c. Rescaling. d. Shuttering
c
Which type of pathology is defined as inflammation of an outpouching of the colon? A. Diverticulosis. B. Ulcerative colitis. C. Diverticulitis. D. Colitis.
c
Which value represents the annual maximum dose limit (in millisieverts - mSv) for exposure to the extremities in medical imaging personnel? a. 5 mSv b. 50 mSv c. 500 mSv d. 10 mSv
c
With all other factors remaining the same, a decrease in kilovolts peak (kVp) will cause an increase in which x-ray beam characteristic? a. HVL b. quantity c. wavelength d. frequency
c
Which practices are considered violations of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)? (Select the two that apply.) a. Calling out a patient's name in the waiting room. b. Posting a sign-in sheet in the reception area. c. Accessing medical images of a coworker. d. Looking up test results of a family member. e. Displaying images on a PACS monitor where others may see.
c, d
According to the ARRT Standards of Ethics, a radiographer may be subject to sanctions including revocation of certification for which actions? (Select the three that apply.) a. Inadvertently imaging the wrong patient or performing an incorrect exam. b. Failing to repeat an unsatisfactory radiographic image. c. Performing a medical procedure without appropriate training or supervision. d. Failing to report a medical error because the patient was unharmed. e. Performing duties while under the influence of illegal drugs or alcohol.
c, d, e
When a pregnant patient must undergo a radiographic procedure, which practices will minimize radiation exposure? (Select the three that apply.) a. Increase collimation to ensure complete coverage of the image receptor (IR). b. Use high milliampere seconds (mAs) and low kilovolts peak (kVp) exposure factors. c. Collimate to include only the area of interest. d. Shield the abdomen and pelvis whenever this does not interfere with the image. e. Select appropriate exposure factors for the part being imaged
c, d, e
According to the American Heart Association (AHA) guidelines, which is the correct rate of chest compressions when administering cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) to a 6-month-old patient? a. At least 120 per minute. b. At least 80 per minute. c. At least 100 per minute. d. At least 60 per minute.
c.
Which general guideline is the most appropriate for determining when to use standard precautions? a. When handling contaminated needles. b. When performing exams on isolation patients. c. When performing exams on all patients. d. When handling soiled linens.
c.
Which term is an alternate name for the prodromal stage of acute radiation syndrome (ARS)? a. latent period b. recovery period c. inital stage d. manifest illness period
c.
A 14-year-old female patient arrives in the radiology department for a scoliosis series. Which option provides both the best image quality and lowest radiation dose for this patient? a. Use of a posteroanterior (PA) projection only. b. High milliampere-seconds (mAs), low kilovolt-peak (kVp) technique. c. Use of an anteroposterior (AP) projection only. d. Employ shadow shields
d
A fixed kilovolts peak (kVp)-variable milliampere (mA) chart recommends exposure factors of 70 kVp and 32 mAs for an anteroposterior (AP) abdomen projection on an average-size patient. Based on this chart, which fixed kVp technique is most appropriate for an AP projection of a double contrast upper gastrointestinal (UGI) image? A. 70 kVp, 42 mAs. B. 80 kVp, 16 mAs. C. 60 kVp, 64 mAs. D. 90 kVp, 8 mAs
d
A lateral lumbar spine image was obtained with a field size of 11x14 inches at 95 kilovolts peak (kVp) and automatic exposure control (AEC) with the center detector selected. The resulting image demonstrates excessive quantum noise. Which is the most likely cause for this appearance? A. The field size was too large. B. The kVp was too high. C. The incorrect AEC detector was selected. D. The patient was not accurately centered.
d
A posteroanterior (PA) axial projection of the coccyx is performed because the patient is unable to tolerate the supine position due to injuries sustained after falling backward. How should the central ray (CR) be adjusted for this projection? A. 15 degrees caudad. B. 15 degrees cephalad. C. 10 degrees caudad. D. 10 degrees cephalad.
d
According to the Food and Drug Administration (FDA), what is the maximum air kerma rate for fixed fluoroscopic units? a. 4 cGy/min b. 5 cGy/min c. 2 cGy/min d. 10 cGy/min
d
After contrast has been administered into the hip joint during hip arthrography, what should the patient do? A. Return the following day for coordinating examinations of the hip such as computed tomography (CT). B. Remain as still as possible to prevent the contrast from dissipating. C. Wait 2-4 hours before having coordinating examinations of the hip such as computed tomography (CT). D. Exercise the joint to allow the contrast to completely fill the joint space.
d
An exam of the right sacroiliac (SI) joint was performed by placing the patient in a 30-degree left posterior oblique (LPO) position with the central ray (CR) directed 1 inch medial to the left anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS). The resulting image demonstrates a closed right SI joint space. Which is the most likely explanation for this appearance? A. The patient was placed in the wrong posterior oblique position. B. The patient was not rotated enough. C. The CR was not angled 30 degrees cephalad. D. The CR was directed to the wrong ASIS.
d
At which energy range does photodisintegration occur? a. 60-90 kilovolts peak (kVp). b. 1-50 kilovolts peak (kVp). c. 200 kilovolts peak (kVp) to 2 megaelectron volts (MeV). d. Above 10 megaelectron volts (MeV).
d
At which location is the central ray (CR) directed for an anteroposterior (AP) projection of the thoracic spine? A. 3 to 4 inches below the sternal angle. B. At the level of the inferior angles of the scapulae. C. 7 to 8 inches below the vertebra prominens. D. Midway between the sternal notch and the xiphoid process.
d
Beginning with the patient's head in true lateral position, which positioning method is recommended for demonstrating the mandibular body without foreshortening on an axiolateral oblique projection of the mandible? A. Rotate the patient's head 45 degrees toward the image receptor. B. Rotate the patient's head 45 degrees away from the image receptor. C. Rotate the patient's head 30 degrees away from the image receptor. D. Rotate the patient's head 30 degrees toward the image receptor.
d
How are automatic exposure control (AEC) devices for mammography different than those used with diagnostic radiography? A. Exposures are indirectly terminated. B. Detector location is fixed. C. Fewer detectors are available. D. Greater accuracy is required.
d
How should the central ray (CR) be angled to compensate for a patient who is unable to assume the erect lordotic position for an anteroposterior (AP) axial lordotic projection of the chest? A. 5 - 10 degrees caudad. B. 15 - 20 degrees caudad. C. 5 - 10 degrees cephalad. D. 15 - 20 degrees cephalad.
d
How will raising the window level affect the digital image? A. Decreases brightness. B. Decreases contrast. C. Increases contrast. D. Increases brightness.
d
How will the dose area product (DAP) be affected during a 4 Roentgen exposure if the collimated field is reduced from 8 X 8 cm to 4 X 4 cm? a. DAP will remain the same b. DAP will be 1/2 the original c. DAP will double d. DAP will be 1/4 of the original
d
The Holmblad method is performed to demonstrate which radiographic appearance? A. Superimposed medial and lateral condyles. B. Patella in profile. C. Open tibiofemoral joint space. D. Open intercondylar fossa.
d
This mobile chest image lacks which required image element? Click for image a. Radiographer initials. b. Exposure factors. c. Patient shielding. d. Anatomical markers.
d
What are the six rights of drug administration that radiographers should follow? a. Right patient, right drug, right amount, right vial, right route, and right time. b. Right patient, right drug, right amount, right side, right documentation, and right time. c. Right patient, right drug, right amount, right route, right documentation, and right supplies. d. Right patient, right drug, right amount, right route, right documentation, and right time
d
When using digital imaging, which has the greatest influence on contrast? A. Milliampere-seconds (mAs). B. Kilovolts peak (kVp). C. Modulation transfer function (MTF). D. Lookup table (LUT).
d
Where should the central ray (CR) enter the patient on an anteroposterior (AP) projection of the chest with the patient in the lateral decubitus position? A. Xiphoid process. B. T10. C. Six inches below the jugular notch. D. Three inches below the jugular notch.
d
Which anatomical landmark coincides with the level of the central ray (CR) entrance point for a posteroanterior (PA) chest projection? A. Sternal angle. B. Xiphoid process. C. Manubrium. D. Inferior border of the scapula.
d
Which combination of technical factors is recommended to reduce patient dose? a. High kilovolt peak (kVp), high milliamperage in seconds (mAs). b. Low kilovolts peak (kVp), high milliamperage in seconds (mAs). c. Low kilovolt peak (kVp), low milliamperage in seconds (mAs). d. High kilovolts peak (kVp), low milliamperage in seconds (mAs).
d
Which describes the appearance of a posteroanterior (PA) axial projection of the skull using the Caldwell method? A. Zygomatic arches are seen with minimal superimposition. B. Dorsum sellae is seen within the foramen magnum. C. Sphenoid sinuses are demonstrated through the open mouth. D. Petrous pyramids are demonstrated in the lower third of the orbit.
d
Which describes the correct central ray (CR) orientation for a lateral decubitus abdomen? A. Iliac crest and midsagittal plane, horizontal beam. B. 2 inches inferior to the iliac crest and at the midsagittal plane, vertical beam. C. Iliac crest and midsagittal plane, vertical beam. D. 2 inches superior to the iliac crest and at the midsagittal plane, horizontal beam.
d
Which device in the x-ray circuit changes alternating current to direct current? A. Filament. B. Autotransformer. C. Rheostat D. Rectifier.
d
Which guideline is recommended for safely lifting a patient from a seated position? a. Do not allow the patient to assist during the movement. b. Place a transfer belt under the patient's arms to improve leverage. c. Bend forward at the waist to establish a low center of gravity. d. Stand with feet apart to establish a wide base of support.
d
Which is the best way for a radiographer to reduce the effects of patient motion during a radiographic procedure on an adult patient? a. Increase the length of exposure. b. Have a second radiographer hold patient. c. Sedate the patient. d. Explain the procedure prior to beginning.
d
Which is the best way to avoid excessive quantum noise when using cassette-based digital systems? A. Calibrate the system to operate at a higher speed class. B. Erase the imaging plate prior to each exposure. C. Adjust the window level to decrease image brightness. D. Increase the amount of exposure to the image receptor.
d
Which is the correct central ray (CR) for an anteroposterior (AP) knee projection? A. 1/2 inch above the base of the patella. B. 1/2 inch below the base of the patella. C. 1/2 inch above the apex of the patella. D. 1/2 inch below the apex of the patella.
d
Which is the maximum allowable exposure to the embryo or fetus each month? a. 50 mSv b. 15 mSv c. 0.25 mSv d. 0.5 mSv
d
Which is the primary advantage of a rotating anode? A. More heat is generated at the filament. B. More heat is generated at the target. C. Less heat is generated at the filament. D. Less heat is generated at the target.
d
Which is the required amount of inherent filtration for general purpose x-ray tubes? a. 2 mm aluminum (AL) equivalent. b. 1 mm aluminum (AL) equivalent. c. 1.5 mm aluminum (AL) equivalent. d. 0.5 mm aluminum (AL) equivalent.
d
Which item must be discarded in a biohazard bag? a. Contaminated needle. b. Used patient gown. c. Facial tissue with nasal drainage. d. Bed sheet saturated with blood.
d
Which lumbar spine structures are best demonstrated with the patient in a 45-degree left posterior oblique (LPO) position? A. The right zygapophyseal joints. B. The right intervertebral foramina. C. The left intervertebral foramina. D. The left zygapophyseal joints.
d
Which milliamperage (mA) station will result in a milliampere seconds (mAs) value of 44 if the exposure time is 0.11 seconds? A. 44 mA. B. 444 mA. C. 40 mA. D. 400 mA.
d
Which organ has the highest tissue weighting factor? a. thyroid b. lung c. breast d. gonads
d
Which percentage of hospital patients receiving antibiotics develop Clostridium difficile (C. diff) colitis infections? a. 1%. b. 10%. c. 40%. d. 20%
d
Which positioning procedure is performed to demonstrate the right intervertebral foramina (IVF) of the cervical spine? A. Lateral position, with right side against the image receptor (IR). B. Anteroposterior (AP) projection, 15 to 20 degree cephalic central ray (CR) angle. C. Anteroposterior (AP) projection, 45-degree right posterior oblique (RPO) position. D. Anteroposterior (AP) projection, 45-degree left posterior oblique position (LPO).
d
Which procedure is most effective for reducing localized image blurring caused by involuntary patient motion? A. Take exposures during suspended respiration. B. Clearly explain each procedure. C. Use immobilization techniques. D. Decrease exposure times.
d
Which radiographic appearance results when the anterior surface of the patient's elbow is rotated 45 degrees medially for an anteroposterior (AP) elbow projection? A. The olecranon process is seen in profile. B. The radial head and neck are free of superimposition. C. The medial and lateral epicondyles are superimposed. D. The coronoid process is seen in profile.
d
Which radiopaque marker is image-appropriate after micturition has taken place? A. Post-evacuation. B. Decubitus. C. Upright. D. Post-void.
d
Which regulatory agency has the authority to control the possession, use, and production of atomic energy in the interest of national security? a. Occupational Safety and Drug Administration. b. Environmental Protection Agency. c. U.S. Food and Drug Administration. d. Nuclear Regulatory Commission
d
Which scenario causes foreshortening of the anatomy on the image? A. The entire arm in contact with the image receptor, and the central ray directed perpendicular to the long axis of the arm. B. A two inch gap between the arm and the image receptor (IR), and the central ray directed perpendicular to the long axis of the arm. C. The arm flat against the image receptor (IR), and the central ray angled along the long axis of the arm. D. The humerus in contact with the image receptor (IR), the forearm lifted off the image receptor, and the central ray directed perpendicular to the long axis of the humerus.
d
Which skull positioning line is situated perpendicular to the image receptor (IR) when performing a parietoacanthial projection (Waters method) of the facial bones? A. Glabellomeatal line (GML). B. Infraorbitomeatal line (IOML). C. Orbitomeatal line (OML). D. Mentomeatal line (MML).
d
Which statement describes a properly positioned lateral foot image? A. Equidistance between all metatarsals. B. The cuboid and fifth metatarsal demonstrated with minimal overlap. C. Superimposition of all metatarsals. D. Superimposition of the first and fifth metatarsal heads.
d
Which structure is demonstrated without superimposition on a properly positioned medial oblique foot image? A. Navicular. B. First cuneiform. C. First metatarsal. D. Cuboid.
d
Which substance is added to the x-ray tube housing to increase heat dissipation? A. Methane. B. Water. C. Liquid nitrogen. D. Oil.
d
Which term is used to describe the intensity of the x-ray beam? a. density b. HVL c. mAs d. quantity
d
Which term refers to a graphical representation of pixel values? A. Exposure indicators. B. Algorithm. C. Modulation transfer function (MTF). D. Histogram.
d
Which term refers to the positive electrode of the x-ray tube? A. Diode. B. Triode. C. Cathode. D. Anode.
d
Which type of interaction results in the production of bremsstrahlung x-rays? a. A projectile electron ejects an inner-shell electron of the target atom. b. A projectile electron ejects an outer-shell electron of the target atom. c. A projectile electron is absorbed by the nucleus. d. A projectile electron slows down near the nucleus of the target atom.
d
Which wrist projection best demonstrates a Colles' fracture? A. Posteroanterior (PA) with ulnar deviation. B. Anteroposterior (AP). C. Posteroanterior (PA) oblique. D. Lateral wrist.
d
Which x-ray tube orientation represents the correct application of the anode heel effect? A. The cathode end is positioned toward the elbow for a lateral humerus projection. B. The anode end is positioned toward the elbow for a lateral forearm projection. C. The cathode end is positioned toward the knee for an anteroposterior (AP) femur projection. D. The anode end is positioned toward the head for an anteroposterior (AP) thoracic spine projection.
d
Why is a cross-table lateral preferred over a recumbent left lateral when obtaining images for a myelogram? A. Contrast cannot be visualized on a recumbent left lateral using the table bucky. B. Less exposure technique is needed. C. Less chance of grid cutoff. D. Contrast may move out of the area of interest when rolling into the lateral position.
d
Place the following actions in the order of greatest to least impact for reducing occupational exposure during fluoroscopy. a. Wear a lead apron b. Double distance from x-ray source or patient. c. Cut exposure time in half. d. Stand behind control panel.
d, b, c, a
Which is considered a major contraindication for intravenous urography? a. History of abdominal aortic aneurysm. b. Patients who take metformin. c. Known ureteric calculi. d. Hypersensitivity to contrast media.
d.
