VT140 Ovine & Caprine Med

Which of the following statements is not true? Vibriosis is the number one cause of abortion in sheep in North America. Scrapie is another name for transmissible spongiform encephalopathy. "Spider lamb syndrome" is contracted by consumption of infective oocytes in cat feces. Joint ill occurs primarily in kids.

"Spider lamb syndrome" is contracted by consumption of infective oocytes in cat feces. (syndrome is recessive genetic abnormality)

What is the average gestation period for sheep? 114 days 148 days 151 days 283 days

148 days

The dental formula for sheep and goats is: 2(I3/3 C1/1 PM4/4 M3/3) 2(I0/3 C0/1 PM3/3 M3/3) 2(I1/3 C1/1 P1-2/1-2 M3/3) 2(I3/3 C0-1/0-1 PM3-4/3-4 M3/3)

2(I0/3 C0/1 PM3/3 M3/3) (sheep have no upper incisors)

Which of the following statements about Haemonchus contortus infestation is true? 20% of the flock harbors 80% of the worms It causes muscle lesions. The Famacha card used in identifying infected animals evaluates the color of the oral mucous membranes. It affects only goats.

20% of the flock harbors 80% of the worms (barber pole worm)

If the California Mastitis Test is run on a milk sample from a dairy goat and yields a score of 1 ("suspicious"), this indicates _________ somatic cells per milliliter. 10,000,000-plus 1,080,000 to 5,850,000 240,000 to 1,440,000 0 to 640,000

240,000 to 1,440,000

At what age do female goats reach puberty? 3 months 4 to 8 months 6 to 9 months 7 to 18 months

3 months

Regarding body condition scoring, a goat that exhibits the following would be given a score of ___________: Sternal fat, costochondral fat, and rib fat continuous; transverse processes difficult to palpate; spinous processes not palpable. 2 3 4 5

4

What is the approximate normal gestation period for a goat? 2 months 4 months 5 months 9 months

5 months (goats & sheep)

The normal pulse rate in sheep and goats is: 28 to 44 bpm 40 to 80 bpm 60 to 90 bpm 70 to 90 bpm

70 to 90 bpm

In goats, night blindness, poor appetite, weight loss, unthrifty appearance with a poor hair coat, and a thick nasal discharge have resulted from a lack of vitamin: B K D A

A

All of the following statements about chlamydophilosis are true except: It is the number one cause of abortion in goats. Abortion occurs in the first 2 to 3 weeks of gestation. It also is known as "enzootic abortion in ewes." After aborting, the bacteria are eliminated from the dam's uterus within 3 months.

Abortion occurs in the first 2 to 3 weeks of gestation.

To minimize the likelihood of development of urolithiasis in goats, it is most important to: Decrease salt intake Limit hay intake Alkalinize the urine Feed no grain

Feed no grain (stones in urinary tract; influenced by diet)

Which of the following nerve blocks is used for dehorning small ruminants? Auriculopalpebral block Bier block Epidural Cornual block

Cornual block

Sheep are the intermediate host for which tapeworm? Nematodirus filicollis Echinococcus granulosus Strongyloides papillosus Cooperia punctata

Echinococcus granulosus

Psoroptes spp. is a: Fly Mite Louse Tick

Mite

Which of the following is not a possible cause of pneumonia in small ruminants? Pasteurella multocida Parainfluenza 3 E. Coli Moraxella bovis

Moraxella bovis

The all-white breed of goat is the: Saanen French alpine LaMancha Toggenburg

Saanen

Which of the following statements is FALSE? Sheep have no upper incisors. Sheep are browsers. Not all sheep have wool. Rumping is acceptable restraint for a sheep.

Sheep are browsers (sheep are grazers; goats are browsers)

Johne's disease (mycobacterium avium) can cause muscle wasting in all ruminants. Small ruminants differ from cattle in that: Cattle are more resistant to Johne's than sheep or goats, and show fewer symptoms. In small ruminants, diarrhea is rare whereas in cattle it is common. Small ruminants have an effective vaccine, cattle do not. Cattle have an effective treatment, small ruminants do not.

In small ruminants, diarrhea is rare whereas in cattle it is common.

Entropion is the most common ocular disease of: Neonatal calves Neonatal lambs Neonatal goats Neonatal foals

Neonatal lambs

Treatment of choice for infectious conjunctivitis is: Tetracycline Panacur Enrofloxacin Clorsulon

Tetracycline

Which of the following statements is FALSE? Goats have an estrous cycle of approximately 21 days. The scientific name for goats is Capra hircus. Tail docking in goats is a common practice. Goats should have 1-3 rumen contractions per minute.

Tail docking in goats is a common practice.

Great care must be taken when dehorning a goat with a hot electric dehorner because. The hair may catch fire. The smell of burning skin scares goats. It is difficult to control dehorning pain in goats. The heat may damage their brains.

The heat may damage their brains

Which of the following statements about artificial insemination in sheep and goats is not true? Semen may be deposited in the vagina, cervix, or uterus. Transcervical insemination in the ewe is the easiest route. Insemination is most commonly performed 52 hours after estrus detection. The further that semen is deposited into the reproductive tract, the higher the conception rate.

Transcervical insemination in the ewe is the easiest route.

Which of the following is of zoonotic concern? caseous lymphadenitis malignant edema contagious ecthyma flystrike

contagious ecthyma

Rich legume diets may cause which of the following? grain overload laminitis lameness frothy bloat

frothy bloat (from excess legumes or grains in diet)

Which of the following statements regarding adequacy of passive transfer of antibodies is not true? Lambs and kids should consume 10% to 15% of their body weight in colostrum in the first 24 hours postpartum. When bottle feeding is necessary, lambs can be given goat colostrum. When bottle feeding is necessary, lambs can be given cow colostrum. Commercial colostrum substitutes are high in immunoglobulins.

x B x C

For which of the following diseases in sheep and goats is a vaccine not available? Leptospirosis Chlamydophilosis Toxoplasmosis Botulism

x D

A 21 lb 3-month-old Pygmy buck kid has diarrhea and is 5% dehydrated. What is his fluid deficit in L? 1.1 L 480 L 0.01 L 0.48 L

0.48 L (21 lb = 9.5 kg; 9.5 x 0.05 = 0.48 kg; 1 kg = 1 L)

At what approximate age is a kid disbudded? 1 hour 1 day 1 week 1 month

1 week

The normal temperature range in sheep and goats is: 99° F to 101.5° F 100° F to 102.5° F 101° F to 103° F 101° F to 104° F

101° F to 104° F

A struggling sheep rapidly becomes hyperthermic in hot weather, because its normal body temperature is: 90° F (36.6° C) 98° F (38.3° C) 103° F (39.4° C) 107° F (40.5° C)

103° F (39.4° C) (goat/sheep normal temp: 101-104 F)

In preparation for standing surgery on lambs and kids that have begun consuming solid feedstuffs, food is withheld for __________ and water is withheld for _______ prior to surgery. 2 to 4 hours, 1 hour 2 to 4 hours, 0 hours 6 to 8 hours, 1 hour 6 to 8 hours, 0 hours

2 to 4 hours, 0 hours

How many stomach chambers do sheep have? 1 2 3 4

4

A 200 lb 5-year-old Dorset ewe has been prescribed fenbendazole (100mg/ml) at 5 mg/kg PO. How many ml does she need? 450 ml 10 ml 4.5 ml 1000 ml

4.5 ml

What is the maximum volume that can be administered subcutaneously in adult sheep and goats? 50 mL 35 mL 20 mL 5 mL

50 mL

Brucella infections cause: Mastitis Lameness Abortion Anemia

Abortion

Which of the following statements about general anesthesia in sheep and goats is not true? In animals weighing less than 150 lb, face mask induction is possible. Oxygen is administered for 1 to 2 minutes before the anesthetic gas is introduced. An endotracheal tube with an internal diameter of 3 to 5 mm is the appropriate size for adult small ruminants. The heart rate for sheep and goats under general anesthesia should be between 80 to 150 bpm.

An endotracheal tube with an internal diameter of 3 to 5 mm is the appropriate size for adult small ruminants.

Which of the following statements about infertility and the intersex condition encountered in many European breeds of goats is true? Animals that are heterozygous for the polled gene have normal fertility. Animals with the hh genotype are polled. Males that are homozygous for the polled gene are intersex. Females that are homozygous for the polled gene are intersex but fertile.

Animals that are heterozygous for the polled gene have normal fertility. (polled = genetically have no horns)

Scent glands in the male goat are located: Around the tail base Around the horn base In the groin area In the axial area

Around the horn base

Where is the preferred site for administration of a subcutaneous injection in a small ruminant? Jugular vein Intrascapular area Lateral cervical muscles Axillary area

Axillary area

All of the following statements about the use of local anesthetics in sheep and goats are true except: Because sheep and goats have a dual nerve supply to each horn, a cornual nerve block is administered at two sites per horn. Lidocaine should not be used in concentrations greater than 2%. The L block is the most common form of local anesthesia used in sheep and goats. The dose of local anesthetic used for a caudal epidural should not exceed 0.5 mL to 1 mL of 2% solution per 50 kg body weight.

Because sheep and goats have a dual nerve supply to each horn, a cornual nerve block is administered at two sites per horn.

Infestation with the parasite Fasciola hepatica predisposes flocks to which of the following diseases? Foot rot Black disease Malignant edema Food and mouth disease

Black disease

Which of the following diseases is transmitted by gnats? Leptospirosis Vibriosis Caprine arthritis-encephalitis Bluetongue

Bluetongue

Which of the following diseases is reportable and zoonotic? Big head Scrapie Listeriosis Brucellosis

Brucellosis

Which of the following vaccines is routinely recommended in both sheep and goats? C. Tetani Brucella Rabies Leptospirosis

C. Tetani

Which of the following statements is not true? Castration of a goat will reduce "buck odor" and eliminate the self-urination behavior. Meningitis is a possible consequence of dehorning goats with heat cautery. In the United States, dairy goats cannot be registered if they have horns. Improperly performed tail docking in sheep can lead to rectal prolapse.

Castration of a goat will reduce "buck odor" and eliminate the self-urination behavior.

Which of the following statements regarding a sick neonatal lamb or kid is not true? Clinical signs of hypothermia begin at a rectal temperature less than 100° F. Hypoglycemia is a common cause of weakness in the neonate. Starvation is among the primary causes of neonatal death. Depression is among the most common clinical signs of illness in the neonate.

Clinical signs of hypothermia begin at a rectal temperature less than 100° F.

Which of the following diseases is best characterized by diarrhea, incoordination, excitement, circling, head pressing, convulsions, and sudden death? Leptospirosis Chlamydophilosis Toxoplasmosis Clostridium Perfringens Infection Type D

Clostridium Perfringens Infection Type D

Which of the following diseases usually is seen in feedlot lambs consuming high-concentrate diets? Leptospirosis Chlamydophilosis Toxoplasmosis Clostridium Perfringens Infection Type D

Clostridium Perfringens Infection Type D

Which of the following can result in sudden death in a previously healthy kid or lamb? E. coli Cryptosporidium parvum Rotavirus Clostridium perfringens

Clostridium perfringens

Core vaccination in sheep and goats protects against: Rabies Haemonchus contortus Clostridium perfringens and Clostridium tetani Contagious ecthyma

Clostridium perfringens and Clostridium tetani

Diarrhea in sheep and goats is caused by single-celled parasites called: Leptospira pomona Clostridium perfringens type C and D Haemonchus contortus Coccidia

Coccidia

Sheep and goats can be rapidly screened for anemia by checking the: Conjunctiva Red blood cell count Mouth Capillary refill time

Conjunctiva

Which of the following does not require treatment and will generally resolve on its own? Ringworm Coccidia Contagious ecthyma Lice

Contagious ecthyma

A pregnant sheep has what kind of placentation? Zonary Cotyledonary Diffuse Discoid

Cotyledonary

Q fever in sheep is caused by: Coxiella burnetii Clostridium chauvoei Chlamydia psittaci Campylobacter jejuni

Coxiella burnetii (q-fever = coxiellosis)

Most scent glands in male goats can be destroyed at the time of: Birth Weaning Foot trimming Dehorning

Dehorning

Lack of what vitamin in goats can cause nutritional muscular dystrophy (white muscle disease)? E B D A

E

Consumption of unaccustomed quantities of grain, or of lush pasture when first turned out in the spring, by goats or sheep can lead to incomplete digestion, overgrowth of clostridia in the small intestine, and production of epsilon toxin. This syndrome is called: Parturient paresis Urolithiasis Posthitis Enterotoxemia

Enterotoxemia ("overeating dz")

Small ruminants should be vaccinated for enterotoxemia: Every 2 months Every 4 months Every 6 months Once a year

Every 6 months

Mastitis is most likely to effect: Lambs and kids Rams and bucks Ewes and does Wethers

Ewes and does (female sheep & goats)

Frequently, the most challenging aspect of housing goats is: Building materials Fencing Heating Size considerations

Fencing

FAMACHA scoring is useful for determining if small ruminants need treatment for ___________ infection which can cause serious __________________. Barber pole worm; diarrhea Haemonchus contortus; anemia Orf; anemia Coccidia; diarrhea

Haemonchus contortus; anemia (barber pole worm)

Which of the following statements about parturition in sheep and goats is true? In goats, twins and triplets are more common than singleton births. Crutching is the shearing of wool from around the eyes of sheep when parturition is impending. Ewes typically hide their offspring after they are born. Does often are housed in "jugs" when clinical signs of impending parturition are seen.

In goats, twins and triplets are more common than singleton births.

Serum blood chemistry levels for creatinine will ________ with kidney disease, and serum creatine kinase levels will _________ with muscle damage. Increase, decrease Increase, increase Decrease, increase Decrease, decrease

Increase, increase

With regard to drugs used for pain management in animals undergoing surgery, the meat withdrawal time for ____________ is 7 days. Flunixin meglumine Ketoprofen Ketamine Acetylsalicylic acid

Ketoprofen

Which of the following breeds of goats is a dairy breed whose distinguishing characteristic is very small ears? Pygmy Nubian Cashmere La Mancha

La Mancha

The breed of goat with almost no external ears is the: Oberhasli French alpine LaMancha Saanen

LaMancha

Goats are most at risk for developing the metabolic condition termed ketosis during: Middle of gestation Late lactation Early gestation Late gestation

Late gestation

Ivermectin is the treatment of choice for which of the following? Ringworm Entropion Contagious ecthyma Lice

Lice (ectoparasites)

Linognathus pedalis is a: Fly Mite Louse Tick

Louse (sucking louse; anoplura)

Urea toxicity in small ruminants typically occurs within 1 hour after ingestion. What is not a sign of urea toxicity? Low packed cell volume (PCV) Frequent urination and defecation Incoordination Muscle and chin tremors

Low packed cell volume (PCV)

Which of the following statements about urine collection is not true? Female sheep can be stimulated to urinate by holding their nostrils and mouth shut. Male goats tend to urinate less frequently during breeding season. Goats often urinate upon standing after spending time in recumbency. Placing a goat in a new stall or pen can encourage urination.

Male goats tend to urinate less frequently during breeding season.

The breed of goat with long, wide, pendulous ears and a Roman nose is the: Toggenburg Nubian Saanen French alpine

Nubian

Which of these is a zoonotic disease of sheep? Psittacosis Orf Shigellosis Yellow fever

Orf

A wether with a urethral obstruction would likely need what life-saving procedure? Perineal urethrostomy Urethral catheterization Castration Electroejaculation

Perineal urethrostomy

Which of the following breeds of sheep is a fine wool breed? Dorset Hampshire Rambouillet Lincoln

Rambouillet

Which of the following breeds of sheep is a medium wool breed known for its ability to produce large litters? Romney Suffolk Romanov Merino

Romanov

Where in the sheep does microbial fermentation of roughage occur? Reticulum Rumen Abomasum Cecum

Rumen

Which of the following is a reportable disease? Scrapie Barber pole worm Contagious ecthyma Tetanus

Scrapie

Small ruminants display what type of estrous cycle? Polyestrous Seasonally polyestrous Monstrous Diestrous

Seasonally polyestrous

What breed of sheep is used predominantly for meat? Merino Romney marsh Suffolk Karakul

Suffolk

Which of the following statements about intramuscular injection sites is true? The longissimus muscle is the most common site for IM injection in sheep and goats. The gluteal region in sheep and goats is well muscled and often used for IM injection. The lateral cervical muscles are not used for IM injection in show goats. When using the gluteal muscles for IM injection, a needle at least 2 inches long must be used.

The lateral cervical muscles are not used for IM injection in show goats.

All of the following statements about castration in sheep and goats are true except: Routine castration of sheep and goats usually takes place in the first week postpartum. In animals that will be kept as pets, it is better to postpone castration until the animal is 5 to 6 months of age. Adult animals undergoing castration are sedated. The risk of tetanus following castration with an emasculatome is greater than with an elastrator.

The risk of tetanus following castration with an emasculatome is greater than with an elastrator.

Which of the following statements about contagious ecthyma is not true? The vaccine consists of a modified live virus. It also is known as "orf" and "sore mouth." It is zoonotic. Clinical signs include anorexia, dehydration, and malnutrition.

The vaccine consists of a modified live virus.

Polioencephalomalacia is caused by a deficiency in: Niacin Thiamine Vitamin D Calcium

Thiamine (polioencephalomalacia: gray matter in brain becomes soft)

Pregnancy toxemia generally presents during which stage of gestation? First Trimester Second Trimester Third Trimester Post partum

Third trimester (final trimester)

Lack of what nutrients can cause retarded growth and rickets in goat kids? Vitamin B and magnesium Vitamins E and C Vitamin C and calcium Vitamins A and B

Vitamin C and Calcium

Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis is the infectious agent for which condition? caseous lymphadenitis orf overeating disease pregnancy toxemia

caseous lymphadenitis

Too much grain in a diet may predispose sheep and goats to any of the following except? grain overload obesity urinary calculi rumen alkalosis

rumen alkalosis

Selenium deficiencies may cause which of the following? rickets septic arthritis white muscle disease arthritis encephalitis

white muscle disease (nutritional myodegeneration; from lack of selenium and/or vit E)