z. SAN Lecture Final (tested)

d) uses a tip that moved in an elliptical pattern with energy dispersion providing vibrations on all surfaces

(T2) The magnetostrictive scaler: a) uses an abrasive back and forth movement pattern b) uses a ceramic disk or crystal as the transducer to produce the straight, linear movement of the tip c) is a stack of thin, nickel alloy metal strips attached to a ceramic disk d) uses a tip that moved in an elliptical pattern with energy dispersion providing vibrations on all surfaces

b) periodontal disease

(T2) The most common oral disease in pets is- a) malignant melanoma b) periodontal disease c) squamous carcinoma d) gingivitis

d) milliliters

(T2) The owner of a new cat asks you how much water the cat should be given each day. You explain that the number of _______ of water per day should be roughly equivalent to kcal per day a) liters b) ounces c) centiliters d) milliliters

a) subgingival

(T2) The patient's accumulation of ______ plaque is a sign of possible periodontitis a) subgingival b) surface calculus c) periodontal d) translingual

c) root

(T2) The portion of the tooth that is submerged under the gum is known as the: a) crown b) dentin c) root d) pulp

b) measure and assess the tooth and its surrounding anatomy

(T2) The purpose of the periodontal probe is to- a) remove gross calculus from the crown of the tooth b) measure and assess the tooth and its surrounding anatomy c) to scale the root surface and debride the lining of the soft tissue d) to detect resorptive areas and open canals in broken teeth

a) energy density

(T2) The term ________ refers to the kcal per unit of food ingredient or pet food a) energy density b) energy expenditure c) resting energy requirement d) metabolism

b) create better contact conditions for plaque to attach

(T2) The tiny grooves created in the surface area of the tooth during scaling- a) remain stained even after cleaning b) create better contact conditions for plaque to attach c) are areas susceptible to fractures d) are a sign of periodontal disease

a) magnetostrictive and piezoelectric

(T2) The two types of ultrasonic scalers include: a) magnetostrictive and piezoelectric b) sonic and ultrasonic c) ferrite and aluminum alloy d) high frequency and low frequency

a) crown

(T2) The visible portion of the tooth is known as the- a) crown b) dentin c) root d) pulp

d) saturated

(T2) These fatty acids have no double bonds in their primary hydrocarbon chain a) monounsaturated b) polyunsaturated c) long-chain d) saturated

c) water soluble and fat soluble

(T2) Vitamins C and E are ________ respectively a) fat soluble and water soluble b) fat soluble and antioxidant c) water soluble and fat soluble d) antioxidant and fat soluble

b) chronic ulcerative paradental stomatitis

(T2) What does the acronym CUPS refer to? a) chronic ulcerative papillary sepsis b) chronic ulcerative paradental stomatitis c) caustic ulcerative papillary stomatitis d) canine upper premolar syndrome

d) 704

(T2) What would the Triadan number be for the primary lower left canine? a) 304 b) 504 c) 509 d) 704

b) 107

(T2) What would the Triadan number be for the upper right third premolar? a) 106 b) 107 c) 108 d) 205

d) 110

(T2) When sharpening hand instruments, the angel between the stone and the face should be approximately ______ degrees a) 45 b) 60 c) 90 d) 110

d) right mandible

(T2) When using the Triadan system, quadrant four is the: a) left maxilla b) right maxilla c) left mandible d) right mandible

b) right maxilla

(T2) When using the Triadan system, quadrant one is the: a) left maxilla b) right maxilla c) left mandible d) right mandible

c) left mandible

(T2) When using the Triadan system, quadrant three is the: a) left maxilla b) right maxilla c) left mandible d) right mandible

a) left maxilla

(T2) When using the Triadan system, quadrant two is the: a) left maxilla b) right maxilla c) left mandible d) right mandible

d) taurine

(T2) Which amino acid is not required in the diets of dogs but is essential for the cats? a) tryptophan b) lysine c) tyrosine d) taurine

b) 2 year old, 3-kg, nursing queen

(T2) Which cat has the highest daily energy requirement? a) 12 year old, 3-kg, castrated male b) 2 year old, 3-kg, nursing queen c) 4 year old, 9-kg, intact male d) 5 year old, 4-kg, pregnant queen

b) cellulose

(T2) Which dietary component is least digestible? a) microbial protein b) cellulose c) fatty acids d) starch

c) curette

(T2) Which hand instrument can be used subgingivally and supragingivally? a) hand scaler b) periodontal probe c) curette d) periodontal explorer

c) curette

(T2) Which instrument can be either universal or area specific depending on the angulation of the face of the blade? a) scaler b) ultrasonic scaler c) curette d) periodontal probr

c) obsessive chewing

(T2) Which of the below is not a sign of oral pain? a) dropping food from the mouth b) salivation c) obsessive chewing d) behavioral changes

b) guinea pigs

(T2) Which of the following animals are unable to synthesize vitamin C and require daily supplementation? a) ferrets b) guinea pigs c) snakes d) rabbits

c) linolenic

(T2) Which of the following is an essential fatty acid for both dogs and cats? a) lysine b) leucine c) linolenic d) tryptophan

b) fiber

(T2) Which of the following is not technically a nutrient? a) protein b) fiber c) carbohydrate d) microminerals

b) lack of daily assessment

(T2) Which of the following may be a reason why a hospitalized pet would have nutritional support delayed? a) patient is overweight b) lack of daily assessment c) owner decides the amount to feed the pet d) patient's metabolic system is slow

a) feline patients

(Q1) Buccal administration of analgesia is effective in: a) feline patients b) canine patients c) neonates only d) geriatric patients only

c) not contain dextrose

(Q1) Fluids given subcutaneously should: a) always be hypertonic b) be administered through a small gauge needle c) not contain dextrose d) be absorbed within 24 hours

a) conjunctivitis

(Q1) Medications can be applied topically to the eye for the treatment of: a) conjunctivitis b) hypotension c) head trauma d) sepsis

c) every 72 hours

(Q1) Short peripheral catheters are usually replaced: a) every 24-36 hours b) every 48 hours c) every 72 hours d) only as necessary

a) cephalic

(Q1) The most commonly used vessel for IV medication administration is which of the following a) cephalic b) jugular c) femoral d) auricular

b) IV

(Q1) What is the most appropriate route of fluid administration in the patient with poor perfusion? a) SC b) IV c) IO d) IT

c) epaxial muscles

(Q1) What is the preferred site for IM injections in small patients? a) pectoral muscles b) rectus abdominus muscles c) epaxial muscles d) hypaxial muscles

c) IV

(Q1) irritating or hypertonic medications are best given: a) SC b) IM c) IV d) IP

d) jugular vein

(Q1) Which catheterization site is most appropriate for long-term infusion of fluids and nutrients? a) medial auricular vein b) femoral artery c) saphenous vein d) jugular vein

a) aggressive, to restore intravascular volume quickly

(Q2) A dog presents to the hospital after being hit by a car and has pale mucous membranes, a weak, rapid pulse, and abdominal distention. Fluid therapy for this patient should be: a) aggressive, to restore intravascular volume quickly b) initiated gradually, to avoid vascular overexpansion, and renal overload c) initiated only once the degree of dehydration is determined d) unnecessary because the dog is adequately hydrated

c) 40-60 ml/kg/day

(Q2) Normal fluid losses and hence maintenance fluid requirements for most domestic species are: a) 5-15 ml/kg/day b) 20-40 ml/kg/day c) 40-60 ml/kg/day d) 80-100 ml/kg/day

a) crackles

(Q2) Overhydration can cause which abnormality on lung auscultation? a) crackles b) wheezes c) areas of absent or reduced lung sounds d) bronchial sounds

c) sodium

(Q2) Which ion is most important for maintaining extracellular fluid volume? a) potassium b) calcium c) sodium d) chloride

b) isotonic

(Q2) A fluid in which body cells retain their normal water content is referred to as: a) hypotonic b) isotonic c) hypertonic d) balanced

d) all of the above

(Q3) As x-rays pass through materials, they have the ability to: a) cause some substances to fluoresce (emit visible light) b) completely remove an electron from an atom, leaving the atom positively charged c) cause chemical changes that can kill cells d) all of the above

d) both b and c

(Q3) Bundles of energy traveling in a wave are called a) protons b) photons c) quanta d) both b and c

c) toward the anode in an x-ray tube

(Q3) Electrons travel: a) toward the cathode in an x-ray tube b) away from the anode in an x-ray tube c) toward the anode in an x-ray tube d) within the nucleus of an atom

d) emit electrons when heated

(Q3) Filaments located in an x-ray tube: a) are made of molybdenum b) must have a low melting point and low atomic number c) are found in the anode d) emit electrons when heated

b) heat

(Q3) In x-ray tubes, the majority of energy produced by the movement of electrons is in the form of: a) light b) heat c) sound d) x-ray energy

c) have a shorter wavelength

(Q3) On the electromagnetic spectrum, in relation to visible light, x-rays: a) have a longer wavelength b) have a lower frequency c) have a shorter wavelength d) are closer in wavelength to infrared rays than light waves

d) all of the above

(Q3) The anode's target: a) is composed of tungsten b) reaches temperatures in excess of 1000°C during x-ray production c) usually has a copper base d) all of the above

False

(Q3) True or False A radiograph is synonymous with an x-ray

True

(Q3) True or False X-ray electromagnetic radiation travels in a straight line, the direction of which can be altered

a) using the shortest exposure time possible

(Q3) Veterinary patients have a tendency to move while being positioned for radiographs to be taken. The radiographer should help to safely prevent artifacts of movement by: a) using the shortest exposure time possible b) altering the direction in which the x-rays move c) selecting a longer exposure time than is recommended d) sedating all patients before taking radiographs

b) x-rays with shorter wavelengths penetrate parther than rays with longer wavelengths

(Q3) Which of the following statements is true? a) x-rays with longer wavelengths penetrate farther than rays with shorter wavelengths b) x-rays with shorter wavelengths penetrate parther than rays with longer wavelengths c) electromagnetic radiation with lower frequency has more penetrating power through space and mater d) gamma rays are required for the production of a radiograph

b) is a type of disometer designed to monitor the actual amount of radiation received

(Q4) A film badge: a) is a type of pocket ionization chamber b) is a type of disometer designed to monitor the actual amount of radiation received c) must always be worn on the collar d) should always be submitted weekly to determine the level of exposure

a) animal's cells are not as suceptible to damage from radiation as human cells

(Q4) All of the following are true except: a) animal's cells are not as suceptible to damage from radiation as human cells b) radiation can effect the body's ability to produce red and white blood cells c) exposure to radiation can affect the lens by causing cataracts d) individuals younger than 18 years of age may not assist with animal restraint while radiographs are taken

d) all of the above

(Q4) If kVp is too low for an abdominal radiograph, which of the following will be evident on a radiograph? a) no distinct difference exists among anatomic organs b) the penetrating power is weak, and x-rays cannot penetrate the patient c) the radiograph will have a "soot and whitewashed" appearance (grey and white) d) all of the above

d) all of the above

(Q4) Scatter depends on: a) the intensity of the beam b) kilovoltage (kVp) level c) the composition of the structure being radiographed d) all of the above

d) lead

(Q4) What do grids contain that control scatter radiation? a) molybdenum b) aluminum c) silver d) lead

c) 0.5mm

(Q4) What is the thickness of the lead impregnated rubber lining protective apparel in veterinary radiography? a) 1 cm b) 10mm c) 0.5mm d) 0.5 cm

c) 0.05 Sv/year

(Q4) What is the upper limit of exposure that an occupationally exposed individual may receive according to state and federal regulations? a) 0.5 Sv/year b) 100 rem/year c) 0.05 Sv/year d) 0.005 Sv/year

b) cataracts

(Q4) Which of the following is a type of somatic damage caused by radiation a) gene mutation b) cataracts c) sterility d) none of the above

b) scatter radiation can be reduced by the collimator

(Q4) Which of the following statements is true? a) veterinary personnel who restrain animals for radiographs are often exposed to the primary beam b) scatter radiation can be reduced by the collimator c) aluminum filtration helps to increase soft, less penetrating x-rays, thus increasing the quality of the radiograph d) scatter radiation is produced by the primary beam interacting with the anode

a) 6 months

(Q5) At what age would a cat be expected to have all of its permanent teeth erupted? a) 6 months b) 8 months c) 10 months d) 12 months

d) b and c

(Q5) The canine and feline teeth used for shearing and grinding are the: a) canines b) molars c) premolars d) b and c

d) mandibular

(Q5) The only easily palpable salivary gland of the dog and cat is the- a) sublingual b) parotid c) zygomatic d) mandibular

c) periodontal probe

(Q5) This instrument is used to measure gingival sulcus depth- a) periodontal explorer b) periodontal curette c) periodontal probe d) periodontal scaler

c) paralleling technique

(Q5) When performing dental radiographs, which technique is most useful for obtaining images of the mandibular teeth caudal to the second premolars? a) bisecting angel technique b) occlusal technique c) paralleling technique d) cone-cutting technique

b) anorexia

(Q5) Which of the clinical symptoms of oral disease may be manifested later in the disease process? a) rubbing the face on furniture b) anorexia c) dropping food d) pawing at the mouth

b) freshness date

(Q6) All of the following components are legally required on a pet food label, except: a) ingredient statement b) freshness date c) net weight d) feeding instructions

c) proteins

(Q6) Anemia is caused by a deficiency of: a) fat b) carbohydrates c) proteins d) calcium

d) a and b

(Q6) Carbohydrates in the diet: a) are broken down into glucose in the intestinal tract b) are stored in the liver and muscle as glycogen c) do not provide energy to the animal d) a and b

d) carbohydrates

(Q6) Dogs and cats have minimum dietary requirements for all of the following nutrients except: a) protein b) fat c) vitamins and minerals d) carbohydrates

a) regulate water balance

(Q6) Each of the following is a major function of proteins except: a) regulate water balance b) act as enzymes for certain reactions c) provide structure for organs and tissues d) carry oxygen to tissues

b) are the building blocks of triglycerides

(Q6) Fatty acids: a) are short, saturated molecules b) are the building blocks of triglycerides c) are all nonessential and do not need to be supplied in the diet d) are only utilized by fat cells

d) resists digestion in the gastrointestinal tract

(Q6) Fiber is often a component of dog and cat foods and- a) is an essential nutrient b) comes from protein found in animal tissues c) is broken down by the body into glucose d) resists digestion in the gastrointestinal tract

d) may include bones, which can obstruct or perforate the GI tract

(Q6) Raw meat diet recipes: a) contain adequate levels of calcium and phosphorous to support growth b) are safe for people to handle and for animals to eat c) rarely cause GI upset as the ingredients do not contain preservatives d) may include bones, which can obstruct or perforate the GI tract

c) vitamin C

(Q6) The essential nutrients required in the diet of cats includes all of the following except: a) taurine b) Arachadonic acid c) vitamin C d) calcium

c) calcium

(Q6) Which of the following items is optional in a guaranteed analysis on a pet food label? a) crude protein b) moisture c) calcium d) crude fiber

c) protein, carbohydrates, and fats

(Q6) The nutrients that supply energy to an animal include: a) vitamins, carbohydrates, and fats b) fats, proteins, and minerals c) protein, carbohydrates, and fats d) carbohydrates, vitamins, and minerals

d) all of the above

(Q7) A patient is a candidate for nutritional support if the animal has: a) lost more than 10% of body weight b) diarrhea with body condition loss c) organ dysfunction d) all of the above

d) all of the above

(Q7) Acceptable routes of nutritional support include a) enteral b) parenteral c) intravenous d) all of the above

b) teeth

(Q7) Although canned food has greater palatability than dry food, its use raises some concerns for the health of the: a) kidneys b) teeth c) heart d) lungs

inappropriate levels of protein and lactulose

(Q7) Cow's milk is not an acceptable milk substitiute for puppies because it contains-

c) building body tissue

(Q7) Dietary protein is used for- a) digestion b) metabolism c) building body tissue d) cell repair

c) fat

(Q7) Diets for active dogs must have enhanced levels of a) magnesium b) selenium c) fat d) phosphorous

a) metabolism

(Q7) Energy is used for: a) metabolism b) fighting disease c) skin turgor d) clotting

a) fiber

(Q7) Prevention of uroliths involves manipulation of the dietary intake of minerals, water, and: a) fiber b) vitamin A c) vitamin C d) fat

nutrients

(Q7) The digestive system converts food eaten by the animal into _________ that body cells used for metabolic food

feeding decisions

(Q7) This must be based on age, breed, health status, activity level, and reproductive conditions

d) both a and b

(Q7) To break down cellulose, herbivores depend on: a) bacteria b) microorganisms c) parasites d) both a and b

waste

(Q7) Water balance in the digestive system affects the ability to excrete _____________

over-ingestion

(Q7) allowing pet's free access to food at any time increases this, which leads to obesity

c) third degree

(Q8) A full thickness burn that is characterized by tough, discolored skin, but without the involvement of deep tissues would be classified as- a) first degree b) second degree c) third degree d) fourth degree

d) intravenously

(Q8) Patients with a severely infected wound and systemic signs (such as lethargy, pain, and decreased appetite) often require that antimicrobials be given a) topically b) orally c) intramuscularly d) intravenously

c) elbow and stifle

(Q8) Splints, casts, and slings can be used only to immobilize injuries below the a) metacarpus and metatarsus b) carpus and tarsus c) elbow and stifle d) hip and shoulder

a) lag phase

(Q8) The inflammatory phase of wound healing is also known as the- a) lag phase b) second phase c) final phase d) contraction phase

a) 1:40 (0.05%) dilution of chlorhexidine solution and water

(Q8) The preferred antiseptic for wound lavage is- a) 1:40 (0.05%) dilution of chlorhexidine solution and water b) warm isotonic crystalloid fluid c) 1% povidone-iodine solution d) 2% chlorhexidine gluconate surgical scrub

c) swelling

(Q8) The toes of an animal with a distal limb bandage must be monitored for complications daily. An increased distance between toenails of a foot is a sign of a) decreased viability b) nothing, it is normal c) swelling d) skin maceration

d) Robert-Jones bandage

(Q8) There is a relatively low risk of complications from tightening the tertiary layer of a- a) modified Robert-Jones bandage b) chest bandage c) head bandage d) Robert-Jones bandage

b) 50%

(Q8) When applying cast padding and conforming gauze that comes on a roll, it should be overlapped by approximately- a) 30% b) 50% c) 70% d) it should not be overlapped

c) antimicrobials

(Q8) Which of the following does not negatively affect wound healing? a) chemotherapy b) corticosteroids c) antimicrobials d) radiation

d) non-selective mechanical debridement

(Q8) Wound debridement by the use of a wet to dry bandage causes debridement that is classified as- a) debridement "en bloc" b) selective biologic debridement c) staged selective surgical debridement d) non-selective mechanical debridement

b) primary intention healing

(Q8) surgical wounds closed by direct apposition heal by- a) moist wound healing b) primary intention healing c) second intention healing d) third intention healing

b) 3 to 5 days

(Q8) wound drains should be removed when the amount of fluid decreases. This is often after approximately a) 1 to 2 days b) 3 to 5 days c) 5 to 7 days d) 7 to 10 days

b) increased CRT

(T1) A clinical finding with 8% dehydration is: a) slight loss in skin turgor b) increased CRT c) cold extremities d) very depressed patient

c) need to add 10 to 15 to the sum of Sante's Rule

(T1) A grid with a ratio of 12:1 will be used with a machine at your clinic. How does this affect the generation of your variable kVp chart? a) need to add 5 to 10 to the sum of Sante's Rule b) need to subtract 10 to 15 from the sum of Sante's Rule c) need to add 10 to 15 to the sum of Sante's Rule d) need to add 8 to 12 to the sum of Sante's Rule

d) donor RBC's against recipient plasma

(T1) A major crossmatch tests: a) recipient plasma against doner plasma b) recipient RBC's against doner plasma c) donor RBC's against recipient RBC's d) donor RBC's against recipient plasma

d) 95, 5

(T1) About _____% of radiographic density is due to the intensifying screen and _____% is from x-ray exposure a) 99, 1 b) 1, 99 c) 5, 95 d) 95, 5

b) prolongation of prothrombin time

(T1) All but which of the following is true with the administration of a hemoglobin-based oxygen carrier? a) discoloration of the mucous membranes b) prolongation of prothrombin time c) antibody production to bovine hemoglobin d) increase in total plasma protein

b) 1 ml/kg over the first 15 minutes

(T1) An administration rate to observe for blood transfusion reaction is: a) transfuse over 4 hours b) 1 ml/kg over the first 15 minutes c) 22 ml/kg/hr d) no faster than 4 ml/kg/hr

c) convenience for owners medicating a pet at home

(T1) An advantage of transdermal medication administered is... a) all animals tolerate it well b) absorption can be well predicted c) convenience for owners medicating a pet at home d) gloves don't need to be worn

c) cardiac insufficiency

(T1) An animal with which condition is more prone to fluid overload? a) early renal disease b) parvovirus infection c) cardiac insufficiency d) fractured humerus

c) barium sulfate

(T1) An example of a radiopaque contrast medium is: a) nitrous oxide b) carbon dioxide c) barium sulfate d) halothane

a) shoulder joint and elbow joint

(T1) Anatomic landmarks for radiographing the humerus are: a) shoulder joint and elbow joint b) midbody scapula and midshaft humerus c) midshaft humerus and midshaft radius d) spine of scapula and midshaft humerus

d) define antigen on the surface of RBC's

(T1) Blood typing is used to: a) determine if a patient was previously transfused b) determine the presence of antibodies in the plasma c) determine the presence of antigens in the plasma d) define antigen on the surface of RBC's

c) IV > IP > IM > SC > PO

(T1) Choose the most rapid to slowest method of drug administration: a) SC > PO > IM > IV > IP b) IP > IM > SC > IV > PO c) IV > IP > IM > SC > PO d) IM > SC > PO > IT > IP

b) uses an x-ray receiver similar to a film cassette

(T1) Computed radiography: a) digitalizes an analogue image immediatly b) uses an x-ray receiver similar to a film cassette c) allows manipulation of images after acquisition d) couples an x-ray tube and specialized receiver

d) envelopes

(T1) Different types of beam limiting devices include all of the following except: a) cones b) diaphragms c) collimators d) envelopes e) filters

c) increased fluid loss through the kidneys

(T1) Diuresis is: a) kidney disease b) chemotherapy c) increased fluid loss through the kidneys d) dehydration

c) are typically twice the intravenous dose

(T1) Drug doses for intratracheal administration: a) are the same of intravenous doses b) are typically one half of the intravenous dose c) are typically twice the intravenous dose d) should be altered due to slow absorption

c) cathode to the anode

(T1) During an exposure, electrons in the x-ray tube travel from the- a) anode to the cathode b) anode to the target c) cathode to the anode d) cathode to the filament

a) sodium, chloride, bicarbonate

(T1) Electrolytes found in extracellular fluid are: a) sodium, chloride, bicarbonate b) potassium, magnesium, phosphorous c) magnesium, sodium, chloride d) bicarbonate, potassium, phosphorous

d) potassium, magnesium, phosphorous

(T1) Electrolytes found in intracellular fluid are: a) sodium, chloride, potassium b) magnesium, sodium, bicarbonate c) chloride, bicarbonate, phosphorous d) potassium, magnesium, phosphorous

When radiographing the craniocaudal view of an animal's limb, the primary x-ray beam enters the *cranial aspect* of the limb and exits through the *caudal aspect*

(T1) Fill in the blanks with the following choices When radiographing the craniocaudal view of an animal's limb, the primary x-ray beam enters the ________ of the limb and exits through the ________. a) caudal aspect; cranial aspect b) medial aspect; lateral aspect c) lateral aspect; medial aspect d) cranial aspect; caudal aspect

b) film exposed to low grade light leak in darkroom

(T1) Fogging artifact on a radiograph may be caused by: a) poor film-screen contact b) film exposed to low grade light leak in darkroom c) scratched film surface before or after exposure d) rough handling of film before or after exposure

b) isotonic

(T1) For subcutaneous administration of fluids, the fluids are preferred to be- a) hypertonic b) isotonic c) hypotonic d) super hypotonic

d) decrease scatter radiation to the film and increase contrast on the radiograph

(T1) Grids are used to- a) decrease scatter radiation to personnel b) decrease scatter radiation to the radiograph c) increase contrast on a radiograph d) decrease scatter radiation to the film and increase contrast on the radiograph

d) 1

(T1) How many blood group systems are well defined in a cat? a) 4 b) 3 c) 2 d) 1

c) 13

(T1) How many specific antigens have been identified on the surface of canine RBC's? a) 4 b) 7 c) 13 d) 22

d) central venous catheter

(T1) Hyperosmolar solutions should be administered through which type of catheter? a) cephalic catheter b) intraosseous catheter c) arterial catheter d) central venous catheter

b) increase mAs 30%-50%

(T1) If a radiograph is too light after taking a view of the lateral abdomen, what change may be recommended? a) decrease kVp 10%-15% b) increase mAs 30%-50% c) increase kVp 30%-50% d) decrease mAs 30%-50%

d) blood buffers, lungs, kidneys

(T1) In order of fastest to slowest, the three systems that control acid-base balance are: a) kidneys, lungs, liver b) blood buffers, kidneys, lungs c) lungs, kidneys, liver d) blood buffers, lungs, kidneys

c) recent colonic surgery

(T1) In which situation are enemas contraindicated? a) dehydration b) fever c) recent colonic surgery d) severe vomiting

a) epidural administration

(T1) Injection of local anesthetics or analgesics into the lumbosacral junction is termed: a) epidural administration b) central venous administration c) CSF administration d) Intraperitoneal administration

c) pediatric

(T1) Intraosseous catheter placement is typically utilized in which of the following patients? a) geriatric b) feline only c) pediatric d) canine only

b) places medications directly into the abdominal cavity

(T1) Intraperitoneal drug administration... a) can only be used for fluid administration b) places medications directly into the abdominal cavity c) places medications directly into the thoracic cavity d) can only be used for lavage

a) 40-60 ml/kg/day

(T1) Maintenance fluid rate is generally considered: a) 40-60 ml/kg/day b) 90 ml/kg/day c) 90 ml/kg/hr d) 40-60 ml/kg/hr

a) 1-2 ml/kg/hr

(T1) Normal urine production is: a) 1-2 ml/kg/hr b) 1-2 ml/kg/day c) 2-5 ml/kg/hr d) 2-5 ml/kg/day

b) decrease the contrast

(T1) Scatter radiation fogs films, which: a) decrease the detail b) decrease the contrast c) decrease the density d) decrease the degree of blackness on the film

a) reduce distortion

(T1) The anatomic area of interest should be as close to the film as possible in order to do the following: a) reduce distortion b) increase magnification c) enlarge the area of interest as much as possible d) keep the structure as far from the cathode as possible

a) 450 kD

(T1) The average molecular weight of hydroxyethyl starches is: a) 450 kD b) 30 kD c) 40 kD d) 70 kD

a) DEA 1.1 negative

(T1) The blood group of canines synonymous with the term universal donor is: a) DEA 1.1 negative b) DEA 1.1 positive c) DEA 4.3 positive d) DEA 13 negative

c) controls the electrical potential between the anode and the cathode

(T1) The high voltage circuit in an x-ray tube: a) is also known as the milliamperage circuit b) controls the electrical potential across the circuit c) controls the electrical potential between the anode and the cathode d) affects the volume of electrons created

a) is also known as the milliamperage circuit

(T1) The low voltage circuit in an x-ray tube: a) is also known as the milliamperage circuit b) controls the speed of electron acceleration c) controls the energy level of x-ray beams d) controls the electrical potential between the anode and the cathode

a) IV

(T1) The most effective route of administration for blood transfusion therapy is: a) IV b) IO c) IP d) SC

b) 7.4

(T1) The normal pH or arterial blood is: a) 7.2 b) 7.4 c) 7.6 d) 7.8

a) acidic

(T1) The pH of the fixer chemical is: a) acidic b) neutral c) slightly alkaline d) severely alkaline

a) blood pressure

(T1) The parameter used to measure for end-point resuscitation is: a) blood pressure b) completion of a large, controlled fluid bolus c) patient stability d) vital signs

a) kilovolts

(T1) The potential difference between the anode and the cathode is measured in- a) kilovolts b) calipers c) milliamperes d) centimeters

a) trap cellular debris

(T1) The purpose of filtering all blood products during administration is to a) trap cellular debris b) diminish the chance of an adverse reaction c) decrease the chance of a hemolytic reaction d) deliver the product more rapidly

c) patient autoagglutination

(T1) The purpose of performing an autocontrol in a blood crossmatch is to rule out: a) RBC antibodies in the plasma of the donor b) donor autoagglutination c) patient autoagglutination d) anemia

the area on the head situated toward the nose

(T1) The term "rostral" describes-

d) PCV, TP, urine SG

(T1) The tests that are very useful in assessing fluid loss in a patient are: a) PCV, BUN, and ALT b) PCV only c) PCV, BUN d) PCV, TP, urine SG

c) 4 hours

(T1) To ensure administration of functional blood components and to prevent the growth of bacteria, all blood products must be transfused within this amount of time a) 15 minutes b) 1 hour c) 4 hours d) 8 hours

d) both A and B are correct

(T1) To prevent magnification and distortion of the object being radiographed, the patient must: a) be as parallel to the film as possible b) be as close to the film as possible c) be as close to the x-ray tube as possible d) both A and B are correct

b) receptors that sense changes in blood flow and pressure

(T1) What are baroreceptors? a) receptors that combat catecholamine release b) receptors that sense changes in blood flow and pressure c) receptors that alter fluid protein levels d) receptors that stop fluid movement between compartments

b) intracellular and extracellular

(T1) What are the 2 main fluid compartments of the body? a) interstitial and vascular b) intracellular and extracellular c) interstitial and extracellular d) transcellular and extracellular

b) anti-A alloantibodies

(T1) What are the strongest alloantibodies found in cats? a) anti-B alloantibodies b) anti-A alloantibodies c) cats don't have significant alloantibodies against other blood types d) all alloantibodies have the same strength

a) Type A

(T1) What blood type is most common in domestic shorthair cats? a) Type A b) Type B c) Type AB d) Type C

c) vascular space

(T1) What fluid compartment will colloid solutions primarily enter? a) all fluid compartments b) intracellular c) vascular space d) transcellular

b) fibrin meshwork and clot breakdown following vessel repair

(T1) What is fibrinolysis? a) fibrin meshwork formation over a platelet plug b) fibrin meshwork and clot breakdown following vessel repair c) primary hemostasis d) platelets adhering to an injured vessel

c) increased sodium levels

(T1) What is hypernatremia? a) decreased sodium levels b) decreased potassium levels c) increased sodium levels d) increased potassium levels

b) decreased potassium levels

(T1) What is hypokalemia? a) decreased sodium levels b) decreased potassium levels c) increased sodium levels d) increased potassium levels

d) number of particles per L or solution

(T1) What is osmolarity? a) tonicity b) molecules that are effective at making osmosis occur c) number of cells per L of blood d) number of particles per L or solution

c) hemoglobin based oxygen carrier

(T1) What is oxyglobin? a) artificial RBC's b) artificial plasma c) hemoglobin based oxygen carrier d) artificial oxygen carrier

c) unknown medical histories

(T1) What is the biggest disadvantage in securing blood donors from terminal situations? a) cost b) recruitment of donors c) unknown medical histories d) donor screening process

d) focused primary x-ray beam

(T1) What is the effective focal spot? a) target on the anode b) angle of the anode c) actual focal spot d) focused primary x-ray beam

a) develop, fix, rinse, wash, dry

(T1) What is the proper order of manual processing of x-ray film? a) develop, fix, rinse, wash, dry b) rinse, fix, dry, wash, develop c) wash, develop, rinse, fix, dry d) fix, wash, develop, dry, rinse

b) 60%

(T1) What percentage of lean body weight is composed of fluid? a) 25% b) 60% c) 75% d) 90%

d) albumin

(T1) What protein does the body make that is responsible for osmotic pressure? a) dalton b) hydroxyethyl starch c) bilirubin d) albumin

d) warm medications by holding them in the palm of the hand for 1-2 minutes prior to use

(T1) When administering ophthalmic medications: a) always place ointments before liquids b) separate medications by 10-20 seconds c) make certain to touch the dispenser to the surface of the eye d) warm medications by holding them in the palm of the hand for 1-2 minutes prior to use

d) produce the heel effect

(T1) When an x-ray photon strikes an object it can do all of the following except: a) be absorbed by the object b) penetrate the object c) produce scatter radiation d) produce the heel effect

a) cells will swell

(T1) When hypotonic IV fluids are given: a) cells will swell b) cells will shrink c) cells will remain the same size d) fluid will shift from ICF to ECF

d) the first part of the word is where the beam enters the body

(T1) When naming a radiographic view such as ventrodorsal, which of the following is correct? a) the first part of the word is the side closest to the cassette b) the last part of the word is where the beam is centered c) the last part of the word is where the beam enters the body d) the first part of the word is where the beam enters the body

caudal border of the 13th rib

(T1) When radiographing a dog's abdomen, where should the primary x-ray beam be focused?

b) include the joint proximal and joint distal

(T1) When radiographing a long bone it is important to- a) include as much of the abdomen as possible b) include the joint proximal and joint distal c) measure over the thinnest area for the kilovoltage peak d) include the long bone only, not the joints

b) the head should face the viewer's left with the spine at the top

(T1) When viewing a radiograph of a laterally positioned animal: a) the head should be at the top of the viewbox b) the head should face the viewer's left with the spine at the top c) the head should face the viewer's right with the spine at the bottom d) the head should face the viewer's left with the spine at the bottom

a) between the patient and the cassette

(T1) Where is the grid located? a) between the patient and the cassette b) in the cathode c) in the anode d) radiographer wears it on his/her collar

d) Hetastartch

(T1) Which IV fluid would increase oncotic pressure? a) LRS b) 5% Dextrose in water c) normal saline d) Hetastartch

a) DEA 1.1

(T1) Which canine blood type incompatibility is considered to be of the most concern clinically? a) DEA 1.1 b) DEA 4 c) DEA 7 d) DEA 8

c) maintenance solution

(T1) Which fluid contains lower concentrations of sodium and chloride, and a higher concentration of potassium? a) extracellular fluid b) replacement solution c) maintenance solution d) normal saline

d) both a and c

(T1) Which of the following are means of eliminating artifact due to motion on a radiograph? a) short exposure time, highest possible mA b) longer exposure time, highest possible mA c) physical or chemical restraint d) both a and c

d) butterfly catheters

(T1) Which of the following catheters is not indwelling, and used to administer small volumes? a) over the needle b) through the needle c) multi-lumen guide wire catheters d) butterfly catheters

a) kVp

(T1) Which of the following controls radiographic contrast? a) kVp b) mAs c) Focal Film Distance d) Object Film Distance

c) kVp

(T1) Which of the following controls the degree of contrast on a radiograph? a) focal spot size b) focal-film distance c) kVp d) mAs

a) hemolysis will be seen due to alloantibodies

(T1) Which of the following is characteristic of Immune Mediated Transfusion reactions? a) hemolysis will be seen due to alloantibodies b) anaphylaxis will set in quickly c) they may be transient d) urticaria and pruritus

a) can be used for fluid or drug therapy

(T1) Which of the following is incorrect regarding intra-arterial catheters? a) can be used for fluid or drug therapy b) can be used for blood pressure monitoring c) can be used for blood gas monitoring d) can be left in place while the patient is in the hospital

d) metal, bone, water, fat, air

(T1) Which of the following places subject density in order of least to most x-ray penetration? a) water, bone, metal, fat, air b) metal, bone, air, fat, water c) air, fat, water, bone, metal d) metal, bone, water, fat, air

d) all fluid compartments

(T1) What fluid compartment can crystalloid solutions enter? a) intracellular b) extracellular c) interstitial d) all fluid compartments

d) consil

(T2) A material or product used to help with bone regeneration in extraction sites is- a) osteoconductive allograft b) doxirobe c) porcine cadaver bone d) consil

c) 8-9th rib

(T2) A nasoesophageal feeding tube placement uses the landmark of "from the tip of the nose to the-" a) 3-4th rib b) 6-7th rib c) 8-9th rib d) 10-12th rib

c) only when necessary and after careful consideration of nutritional requirements

(T2) A pet's diet should be changed: a) periodically to maintain interest and stimulate appetite b) frequently to avoid problems associated with poor diet quality c) only when necessary and after careful consideration of nutritional requirements d) abruptly, with no transitional period

a) hydration

(T2) A thorough nutritional assessment includes a patient's history, physical exam including body weight, body condition scoring, and __________ status a) hydration b) musculoskeletal c) neurologic d) cardiovascular

d) gross

(T2) Although not the most practical measure of energy available, _________ energy is all of the potential energy available in a food or diet a) metabolizable b) digestible c) net d) gross

a) arachidonic acid

(T2) Among the essential fatty acids, cats need to get ________ from their diet, but dogs can synthesize it from other fatty acids in their diet a) arachidonic acid b) linoleum acid alpha-linoleic acid d) chylomicrons

c) 50 kgs x 2

(T2) An adult dog weighing 25 kg should be offered _______ grams of protein per day in their diet a) 30 b) 40 c) 50 d) 60

c) 9

(T2) An animal that is consuming much more feed than it requires for maintenance is likely to have a body condition score of- a) 1 b) 5 c) 9 d) 12

b) checking the ears

(T2) An internal oral examination includes everything except a) checking under the tongue b) checking the ears c) counting the teeth d) checking the tonsils

d) act as a scaffold for new bone cells to traverse a defect

(T2) An osteoconductive material will: a) stimulate progenitor cells of osteoblasts to differentiate and form new bone in a defective area b) induce new bone c) repair defects through the regeneration of cells d) act as a scaffold for new bone cells to traverse a defect

b) before; hypoglycemia

(T2) Animals that undergo aerobic training should be fed _______ training to prevent the onset of _________. a) before; hypothermia b) before; hypoglycemia c) after; hypoglycemia d) after; gluconeogenesis

a) decreases

(T2) As protein quality is increased, the amount of protein needed: a) decreases b) increases c) stays the same d) increases for a short period of time only

b) from teeth contacting teeth

(T2) Attrition refers to wear: a) due to chewing inappropriately b) from teeth contacting teeth c) from chewing at hair d) from chewing on metal

d) brachycephalic

(T2) Boxers, Pugs, and Persians are examples of which skull type? a) isocephalic b) dolichocephalic c) mesaticephalic d) brachycephalic

a) 1273 40lbs/ 2.2 = 18.18 kgs 18.18kgs x 70 = 1273

(T2) Calculate the RER for a 40-lb dog: a) 1273 b) 6167 c) 2503 d) 1227

a) both vertical and lateral canals

(T2) Canals include: a) both vertical and lateral canals b) parallel and vertical canals c) horizontal and lateral canals d) vertical and lateral canals

a) E

(T2) Cats fed home-cooked diets rich in oily fish are at increased risk of developing yellow fat disease because of the deficiency of which of the following vitamins a) E b) C c) A d) D

a) posterior crossbite

(T2) Dolichocephalic breeds are predisposed to what type of malocclusion? a) posterior crossbite b) overbite c) underbite d) anterior crossbite

a) water

(T2) During lactation, _________ is (are) the most important nutrient(s) a) water b) iron c) B vitamins d) folic acid

b) calcium

(T2) Excess of which of the following may possibly lead to skeletal abnormalities? a) protein b) calcium c) phosphorous d) iron

b) 20 mL

(T2) For enteral nutrition stomach volume is approximately ____ per kg of body weight a) 10 mL b) 20 mL c) 30 mL d) 40 mL

b) a reduced protein content, but with protein of high biological value

(T2) Geriatric dogs should be fed a diet that contains: a) nutrients in the same amounts as in growth diet because metabolic needs increase during the aging process b) a reduced protein content, but with protein of high biological value c) high levels of sodium and phosphorous d) no fat and limited calcium

c) 42

(T2) How many permanent teeth are there in the normal adult canine dentition? a) 32 b) 36 c) 42 d) 44

d) proteins

(T2) Identify the substance that can perform all of the following: act as structural components of organs and tissues; function as enzymes, hormones, carriers of other molecules, and can be a source of energy: a) hemoglobin b) water c) carbohydrates d) proteins

b) to avoid deflection of the adult tooth

(T2) If a deciduous tooth is still present when a permanent tooth is erupting, it should be extracted carefully- a) to allow both teeth to come in together b) to avoid deflection of the adult tooth c) to remove both deciduous and permanent teeth d) to make it easier to pull the permanent tooth into proper position

c) 600 1200 kcal/24hr = 600 kcal/12hr x 1ml/1kcal = 600 ml/12hr

(T2) If a patient is to receive 1200 kcal/day and is fed BID, what is the mL of diet pet feeding for a 1 kcal/ml diet? a) 1200 b) 1800 c) 600 d) 300

b) 1680 1400 x 1.2 = 1680

(T2) If the RER is 1400, and the illness factor is 1.2, what is the MER/DER? a) 1167 b) 1680 c) 2347 d) 2745

c) weight

(T2) Ingredients on a pet food label must be listed in order by a) kcal values b) water percentages c) weight d) units

d) gastric dilation volvulus

(T2) It is recommended to avoid feeding dogs before exercise, particularly large and giant breed dogs, to minimize the possibility of _________ a) ileus b) increased energy requirements c) vomiting d) gastric dilation volvulus

c) required be animals in relatively large amounts

(T2) Macrominerals are: a) rarely supplemented in most commercial diets b) rarely harmful if consumed in excess c) required be animals in relatively large amounts d) fundamental energy and metabolic substrates

c) underbite

(T2) Maxillary brachygnathism is also known as a(n)- a) posterior crossbite b) overbite c) underbite d) anterior crossbite

b) overbite

(T2) Maxillary prognathism is also known as a(n)- a) posterior crossbite b) overbite c) underbite d) anterior crossbite

a) metabolizable energy

(T2) Modified Atwater factors can be useful to determine how much energy is provided by protein, fat, and carbohydrates on a(n) ___________ basis a) metabolizable energy b) energy density c) resting energy d) kcal

c) 60 or 70

(T2) Most dental radiology machines operate at ________ kVp a) 40 or 50 b) 50 or 100 c) 60 or 70 d) 80 or 100

c) osteochondritis

(T2) Overfeeding large and giant breed puppies can cause: a) pancytopenia b) hip luxation c) osteochondritis d) cranial cruciate ligament rupture

c) name and address of the manufacturer or distributor

(T2) Pet food manufacturers are required by the FDA to include the following on labels: a) a statement that the diet is complete and balanced with respect to life stages of the animal b) feeding instructions c) name and address of the manufacturer or distributor d) caloric content

c) AAFCO

(T2) Pet foods should be tested by (the): a) USDA b) FDS c) AAFCO d) NRMT

d) bacteria and mucopolysaccharides

(T2) Plaque is a soft mixture of: a) organic collagen fibers and water b) rete pegs and periodontal ligaments c) carbohydrates and collagen d) bacteria and mucopolysaccharides

c) mesaticephalic

(T2) Poodles, Labradors, and DSH's are examples of which skill type? a) isocephalic b) dolichocephalic c) mesaticephalic d) brachycephalic

b) lipoproteins

(T2) Proteins conjugated with fats are called: a) amino acids b) lipoproteins c) glycoproteins d) enzymes

d) 3; 4

(T2) Puppies (except for toy breeds and weak animals) should begin to eat gruel at approximately _____ weeks of age; peak lactation occurs at ______ weeks a) 2; 5 b) 3; 6 c) 6;8 d) 3; 4

a) contact the manufacturer directly

(T2) Regarding crude protein content on pet food labels, in order to measure the amino acid bioavailability and protein digestibility, one must: a) contact the manufacturer directly b) look at the total nitrogen content c) assume that a higher crude protein content also means higher protein quality d) understand that food with low crude protein content must be supplemented with another protein source

c) dolichocephalic

(T2) Sight hound breeds have what head type? a) brachycephalic b) mesocephalic c) dolichocephalic d) psyocephalic

a) Oral Health Council

(T2) The VOHC is a The Veterinary- a) Oral Health Council b) Oral Health Committee c) Overall Health Council d) Overall Health Committee

a) bisecting angel and parallel

(T2) The basic techniques for positioning dental radiographs include: a) bisecting angel and parallel b) bisecting angel and oblique c) oblique and tangential d) parallel and perpendicular

a) 318

(T2) The daily metabolizable energy requirement of a 10-lb cat is approximately _____ kcal a) 318 b) 370 c) 2060 d) 200

a) 2-4 g/kg of anticipated adult weight

(T2) The daily weight gain of the average growing puppy is approximately: a) 2-4 g/kg of anticipated adult weight b) 1-2 g/kg of anticipated adult weight c) 5-7 g/kg of anticipated adult weight d) 0.25-0.5 g/kg of anticipated adult weight

c) to avoid missing any portion of the cleaning process

(T2) The dental prophylaxis should be approaches in a systemic manner- a) because hand instruments are to be used in a certain order b) because diagrams used for charting tell you to c) to avoid missing any portion of the cleaning process d) to speed up the dental cleaning process

c) checking under the tongue

(T2) The external oral examination includes everything except: a) palpating salivary glands b) palpating lymph nodes c) checking under the tongue d) retropulsion of the globes of the eyes

a) A, D, E, and K

(T2) The fat-soluble vitamins are: a) A, D, E, and K b) B complex and C c) E and K d) A, B, C, and D

a) rugae

(T2) The folds of the upper palate are referred to as: a) rugae b) the roughened palate c) the incisor papilla d) the hard palate

c) generic and private label foods are made at contract feed mills using least-cost formulation methods

(T2) Which of the following statements are true a) nutritional adequacy statements are required in the united states on treats or snacks intended for intermittent feeding b) heavier ingredients are listed last on pet food labels c) generic and private label foods are made at contract feed mills using least-cost formulation methods d) in the united states, the maximum moisture content in pet food allowed is 78% as long as the words stew, gravy, and juice are not on the label and the food does not contain milk replacer

a) nutrients can be defined as any substance that produces energy when ingested

(T2) Which of the following statements is false? a) nutrients can be defined as any substance that produces energy when ingested b) water, vitamins, and minerals cannot be broken down to produce energy c) proteins, fats, and carbohydrates are considered energy producing nutrients d) animals that are exercising, reproducing, and growing have a higher requirement for energy or nutrition

a) water soluble vitamins

(T2) Which of the following substances are depleted in the body faster because of limited storage capability, making toxicosis less likely? a) water soluble vitamins b) fat soluble vitamins c) amino acids d) microminerals

a) horses

(T2) Which species has radicular hypsodont teeth? a) horses b) rabbits c) ferrets d) snakes

a) mammals cannot digest insoluble carbohydrates

(T2) Which statement concerning insoluble carbohydrates is most accurate? a) mammals cannot digest insoluble carbohydrates b) the increase the diet's caloric density c) they are an important source of nutrition in the carnivore diet d) they are ineffective in nutritional management of obesity and gastrointestinal disorders

c) dentin

(T2) Which tissue would not be considered part of the periodontium? a) alveolar bone b) gingival connective tissue c) dentin d) cementum

b) amino acids

(T2) _______ are considered building blocks for plant and animal protein- a) fatty acids b) amino acids c) arachidonic acids d) complex carbohydrates

a) metabolizable

(T2) _________ is the most common estimate of how much energy is supplied by pet food a) metabolizable b) digestible c) net d) gross

b) periodontium

(T2) ___________ make(s) up the supporting structures of the teeth a) enamel b) periodontium c) cemetum d) endodontics

d) 3 to 4

(T2) puppies (except for toy breeds and weak animals) usually begin to eat gruel at approximately _______ weeks a) 2 to 5 b) 3 to 6 c) 6 to 8 d) 3 to 4

c) K

(T2) A deficiency of which of the following vitamins can lead to spontaneous bleeding? a) B b) C c) K d) A

c) underbite

(T2) Brachycephalic breeds are predisposed to what type of malocclusion? a) posterior crossbite b) overbite c) underbite d) anterior crossbite

b) the kidneys

(T2) Phosphorous should be limited in older dogs due to detrimental effects on: a) the liver b) the kidneys c) the heart d) the lungs

b) enamel

(T2) Which anatomic structure would be the most radiopaque on a dental radiograph? a) cementum b) enamel c) dentin d) lamina dura

c) kilocalories

(T2) _________ are the standard units of measurement for energy a) calories b) kilojoules c) kilocalories d) joules

Secondary Layer

Quilted leg wraps would be appropriate for this bandaging layer

tissue fibrosis and vascular scarring

Radiation therapy can lead to __________ and __________, both of which negatively effect wound healing

a) the difference between adjacent areas on a radiographic image

Radiograph contrast is: a) the difference between adjacent areas on a radiographic image b) the degree of blackness on a radiograph c) the sharpness between interfaces of tissues and organs d) the fuzziness between interfaces of tissues and organs

b) the degree of blackness on an image

Radiographic density is: a) the difference between adjacent areas on a radiographic image b) the degree of blackness on an image c) the sharpness between the interfaces of tissues and organs d) the fuzziness between the interfaces of tissue and organs

c) the sharpness between interfaces of tissues and organs

Radiographic detail is: a) the difference between adjacent areas on a radiographic image b) the degree of blackness on a radiograph c) the sharpness between interfaces of tissues and organs d) the fuzziness between interfaces of tissues and organs

Primary Layer: hypertonic/hyperosmolar

20% Sodium Chloride dressing would be an example of this type of primary bandaging layer

Non-adherant

A Teflon pad is one example of this type of wound dressing

Bivalved

A cast that has been cut on both sides to create a top and bottom half is said to have been-

c) 1 L

A change in body weight of 1kg refelcts approximately what volume of fluid gained or lost? a) 10 ml b) 100 ml c) 1 L d) 10 L

-0.05% dilution (1:40) of Chlorhexidine -0.1% dilution (1:10) of povidone-iodine solution

A dilute antiseptic can be added to a lavage solution, however the cytotoxic potential must be kept in mind. What are some common antiseptic dilutions used?

a) aggressive to restore intravascular volume quickly

A dog presents to the hospital after being hit by a car and has pale MM, a weak, rapid pulse, and abdominal distention. Fluid therapy in this patient should be: a) aggressive to restore intravascular volume quickly b) initiated gradually to avoid vascular over-expansion, overhydration, and renal overload c) initiated only once the degree of dehydration has been determined d) unnecessary because the dog is adequately hydrated

b) isotonic

A fluid in which body cells retain their normal water content is referred to as: a) hypotonic b) isotonic c) hypertonic d) balaced

Third Degree Burn

A full thickness burn that is characterized by tough, discolored skin, but without involvement of deep tissues, would be classified as a-

b) safe x-ray equipment that is monitored every 5 years by OSHA

A good radiographic safety program should include all of the following EXCEPT: a) low exposure techniques utilizing patient positioning aids b) safe x-ray equipment that is monitored every 5 years by OSHA c) consistent measuring methods among staff and proper positioning methods d) shielding and monitoring of radiation exposure to personnel

bacteria may become trapped beneath the occlusive layer if it is not applied correctly and changed at appropriate intervals

A lower infection rate is seen with moist wound healing, however this can occur-

Second Degree Burn

A partial thickness burn that is characterized by blisters and discoloration would be classified as a-

A properly applied Ehmer sling will internally *rotate* and *abduct* the femur, forcing it into the *acetabulum* and maintaining reduction

A properly applied Ehmer sling will internally ________ and __________ the femur, forcing it into the _________ and maintaining reduction

100,000 (10^5) organisms per gram of tissue

A wound is considered infected when the bacterial count is greater than-

syringe casing

After placing a tail bandage this can be used to provide additional protection for the tip of the tail

c) Antimicrobials

All of the following treatments but one, negatively impact wound healing. Which one does not negatively affect wound healing? a) Chemotherapy b) Corticosteroids c) Antimicrobials d) Radiation

older animals often have concurrent health problems that may alter their healing capacities

Although age is not a disease, how can age have an impact of wound healing?

b) 5 mA

An exposure setting of 200 mA for 1/40 second is equivalent to: a) 4 mA b) 5 mA c) 8 mA d) 15 mA

Streptococcus and Staphylococcus

Antibiotics are often chosen empirically on the basis of efficacy against common skin pathogens such as- (2)

a) feline patients

Buccal administration of analgesia is effective in: a) feline patients b) canine patients c) neonates only d) geriatric patients only

depth and size

Burn wounds are classified based on-

CO2; ammonia

By bandaging a wound we can encourage healing by promoting an acidic environment by preventing ______ loss, and absorbing _________

Secondary Layer

Cast padding would be appropiate for use as this bandage layer

delay wound healing

Endocrinopathies (cushing's disease and hypothyroidism), and chronic viral infections (FeLV and FIV) have what effect on wound healing?

c) 1% radiation and 99% heat

Energy from the electrons interacting with the atoms of the target in the x-ray tube is converted into: a) 10% heat and 90% radiation b) 1% heat and 99% radiation c) 1% radiation and 99% heat d) 10% radiation and 90% heat

4-5 days post injury

Epithelialization generally occurs how many days after the injury?

Tertiary Layer

Flannel tack wrap would be appropriate for use as this bandaging layer

c) not contain dextrose

Fluids given SC should: a) always be hypertonic b) be administered through a small gauge needle c) not contain dextrose d) be absorbed within 24 hours

b) fast films with high-speed, rare earth screens

For thoracic radiographs, which combination is likely to yield the best results? a) fast film with calcium tungsten screens b) fast films with high-speed, rare earth screens c) direct exposure film of average speed d) par film with slow screens

True

Healthy granulation tissue is naturally resistant to infection and therefore does not require routine antimicrobial therapy

a) 20 mA

If 10 mA is used for an initial film and the density of the radiograph must be doubled for subsequent films, which mA should be used? a) 20 mA b) 12 mA c) 40 mA d) 25 mA

10^5 organisms per gram of tissue

If bacteria are able to multiply beyond a critical number of ________ organism per gram of tissue, they will infect tissue which will stop wound healing

c) IV

Irritating or hypotonic medications are best given: a) SC b) IM c) IV d) IP

below the elbow or stifle joint

It is important to remember that only injuries in these anatomic locations can be effectively immobilized and that even with splints and casts, movement of joints and bones is possible

Tertiary Layer

Kling conforming gauze would be appropriate for use as this bandaging layer

Local wound healing cannot be effective if foreign material is present, especially if this material is also contaminated. Even the presence of suture or drains can interfere with normal healing

Local wound healing cannot be effective if ______ is present

second intention healing

Most decubital ulcers are treated with __________ and are left to granulate and epithelialize after the splint or cast has been modified or removed

Caudal Surface

Most forelimb splints should be applied to the-

Lateral Surface (with the exception of metatarsal and foot splints)

Most rear limb splints should be applied to the-

Primary Layer: non-adherant occlusive

NU-GEL hydrogel would be an example of what type of primary bandaging layer?

Second Intention Healing

No closure of a wound will lead to this type of wound healing

granulation tissue has formed or epithelialization has begun to protect and promote second intention wound healing

Non-adherent primary layers are in direct contact with the wound bed but do not adhere to it. It is imperative to use this type of primary layer when-

2-3 weeks

Non-weight bearing slings such as the Ehmer and Velpeau, should not be maintained for more than how long?

c) 40-60 ml/kg/day

Normal fluid losses and hence maintenance requirements for most domestic species are: a) 5-15 ml/kg/day b) 20-40 ml/kg/day c) 40-60 ml/kg/day d) 80-100 ml/kg/day

b) 1-2 ml/kg/hr

Normal urine output in an animal is: a) 0.1-0.2 ml/kg/hr b) 1-2 ml/kg/hr c) 2-4 ml/kg/hr d) 10-20 ml/kg/hr

24 hours

Open saline bottles should not be reused because bacterial growth occurs within _____ hours of opening unless an antiseptic is added

a) crackles

Overhydration can cause which abnormality on lung ascultation? a) crackles b) wheezes c) areas of reduced or absent lung sounds d) bronchial sounds

IV

Patients with a severely infected wound and systemic signs (lethargy, pain, decreased appetite) often require that antimicrobials be given: a) topically b) PO c) IM d) IV

Primary Layer: non-adherant non-occlusive

Petrolium impregnated gauze would be considered what type of primary bandage layer?

Primary Wound Healing

Primary closure of a wound will lead to this type of wound healing

1) lateral recumbency (treated leg up) 2) apply stirrups 3) reduce fracture 4) interdigital/bony prominence padding 5) place stockinette liner 6) cotton cast padding layer 7) roll gauze layer 8) vetrap (applying before the cast will reduce adhesion of the bandaging material to the cast material) 9) apply fiberglass casting tape (the stockinette can be pulled proximally at the distal end and distally at the proximal end to round the cast edges before it sets) 10) secure the stirrups 11) apply a vetrap or elastikon protective layer 12) bivalve the cast as needed

What are the steps for casting an extremity?

honey and granulated sugar create a hypertonic environment, thereby producing an antimicrobial effect, and are able to draw fluid abd debris away from the wound (this also means that they become frequently diluted by wound fluid and need to be changed frequently)

What effects do granulated sugar and honey have on wound healing?

a new basement membrane is formed and cells begin to differentiate to re-epithelialize skin

What happens once a wound is covered by keratinocytes?

An example of primary wound healing would be a surgical incision with direct apposition of the wound edges. All three phases of wound healing still occur, however no granulation tissue will form in the proliferative phase because no defect is present between wound edges

What is Primary Wound Healing?

If it is placed too tightly this sling can constrict breathing. Monitor patient closely after application

What is a complication of an incorrectly wrapped Velpeau sling?

Passive drains provide a direct avenue for ascending infection and must be covered with a sterile bandage when in place

What is a concern associated with passive drains?

lateral shoulder luxations (this sling lateralizes the proximal humerous)

What is a contraindication for a Velpeau sling?

Ventral Hip Luxations

What is a contraindication for an Ehmer sling?

contraction over joints, muscles, or tendons which can cause impaired function

What is a possible complication of second intention healing that occurs in the distal limbs?

*Fiberglass Cast* Casts are used to provide stability for joint injuries or fractures either for temporary support until surgery, as a means of definitive treatment, or as an adjunct after surgical stabilization. They must only be used for injuries below the elbow or stifle joint as they cannot effectively immobilize injuries above those joints.

What is being showed in the picture? When would this treatment be indicated?

*Hobbles* Hobbles prevent abduction of the pelvic limbs and are used after reduction of ventral hip luxations

What is being shown in the picture? When would this treatment be indicated?

b) 1 L

What is the approximate hourly maintenance fluid rate for a 1000 lb thoroughbred on an IV CRI? a) 500 ml b) 1 L c) 3 L d) 5 L

a) tall tented T-waves

What is the classic ECG change associated with myocardial weakness from hyperkalemia in an animal? a) tall tented T-waves b) widened QRS complex c) Depressed ST segment d) absence of a P-wave

b) IV

What is the most appropriate route of fluid administration in the patient with poor perfusion? a) SC b) IV c) IO d) IT

d) kidneys

What is the most powerful acid-base regulatory system in the body? a) blood buffers b) heart c) liver d) kidneys

b) 1-2 sec

What is the normal CRT in healthy animals? a) less than 1 sec b) 1-2 sec c) 5-7 sec d) greater than 10 sec

c) epaxial muscles

What is the preferred site for IM injection in small patients? a) pectoral muscles b) rectus abdominus muscles c) epaxial muscles d) hypaxial muscles

Granulation tissue created a barrier against infection and a surface for re-epithelialization to occur

What is the purpose of granulation tissue?

a) conjunctivitis

medications can be applied topically to the eye for the treatment of: a) conjunctivitis b) hypotention c) heatruma d) sepsis

2-3 weeks

non-weight bearing slings should be maintained for no longer than ___-___ weeks to prevent muscle and joint contracture

healthy granulation tissue

wounds with this are inherently resistant to infection and do not require antimicrobial use

1) lateral recumbency with the treated leg up 2) apply tape stirrups (lateral) 3) place interdigital or bony prominence padding (i.e. cotton balls or stockinette "doughnuts") 4) wound care 5) bulky cotton roll layer (distal to proximal) little risk of getting this layer too tight 6) roll gauze layer (cling gauze most commonly used; 50% overlap) 7) secure the stirrups to the lateral aspect the the leg 8) add the outer protective layer of vetwrap or elastikon (50% overlap). unlike other bandaged this layer can be pulled slightly snug

What is the step by step process of applying a Robert-Jones bandage?

*Use/Function:* -Draws fluid and debris away from the wound -Has an antimicrobial effect -Enhanced wound healing -Used commonly on high exudative, contaminated, and infected wounds *Examples:* -Hypertonic Sodium Chlorite dressing (20%)- e.g. CURASALT -Granulated Sugar -Honey

What is the use/function of a Hypertonic/Hyperosmolar primary bandage layer? What are some examples you might see in practice?

*Use/Function:* -Covered surgical incisions -Protects recently epithelialized surfaces *Examples:* -Teflon Pads (Telfa Pads) -Petrolatum-impregnated gauze (Adaptic)

What is the use/function of a non-adherent non-occlusive primary bandage layer? What are some examples you might see in practice?

*Use/Function:* -Minimally exudative wounds -Maintains moist wound environment -Promotes epithelialization -Promotes new epithelium *Examples:* ++Hydrophilic Substances such as: -Variety of Hydrogels (NU-GEL) -Hydrocolloids (Tegaderm Hydrocolloid) ++Non-Hydrophilic Substances such as: -Tegaderm Transparent Dressing

What is the use/function of a non-adherent occlusive primary bandage layer? What are some examples you might see in practice?

*Use/Function:* -Moderately to high exudative wounds -Maintains a moist wound environment -Draws fluid and debris away from the wound *Examples:* ++Hydrophilic substances such as: -Variety of Hydrogels (Curagel) -Hydrocolloids (Ultec Hydrocolloid Dressing) -Absorptive Foam (Hydrosorb Plus Foam) ++Non-Hydrophilic substances such as: -Polyurethane Film (Bioclusive)

What is the use/function of a non-adherent semi-occlusive primary bandage layer? What are some examples you might see in practice?

Used for non-selective debridement Examples: -sterile, wide-mesh gauze

What is the use/function of an adherent primary bandage layer? What are some examples you might see in practice?

b) 60%

What percentage of lean body weight is composed of fluid? a) 25% b) 60% c) 75% d) 90%

d) albumin

What protein does the body make that is responsible for osmotic pressure? a) dalton b) hydroxyethyl starch c) bilirubin d) albumin

change the bandage right away to avoid skin irritation. they *cannot* be effectively dried with fans, hair dryers, etc...

What should you do if a Robert-Jones bandage becomes damp or wet?

*Robert Jones Bandage* The Robert Jones bandage can be used to temporarily immobilize a limb distal to the elbow or stifle joint.

What type of bandage is being pictured? What are the primary indications for this bandage?

*Modified Robert Jones Bandage* As with most distal limb bandages, the modified Robert Jones is often used to protect wounds as well as to stabilize bone or joint injuries. Casts and splints can be incorporated into a modified Robert Jones bandage between the elastic gauze layer and outer protective layer if substantial support is needed

What type of bandage is being shown in the picture? When would this bandage be indicated?

*Ehmer Sling* An Ehmer sling is a non-weight-bearing sling applied to the pelvic limb to protect the hip joint after injury. It is primarily used after closed reduction of craniodorsal hip luxation or after surgery associated with the coxofemoral joint (such as open reduction of a craniodorsal luxation or acetabular fractures)

What type of sling is being pictured? What are the primary indications for this sling?

*Velpeau Sling* The Velpeau sling is a non-weight-bearing sling for the forelimb used to immobilize all joints of the affected leg. It is mainly applied after reduction of medial shoulder joint luxation or after reconstruction of tenuous fractures.

What type of sling is being pictured? What are the primary indications for this sling?

*Carpal Flexion Sling* A carpal flexion sling can be used in any situation where weight bearing should be avoided, but some movement of the elbow and shoulder joints is acceptable. It can also be used to relieve tension on the carpal flexor tendons after injury or surgical repair.

What type of sling is being pictured? What are the primary indications for this type of sling?

Secondary Closure

What type of wound closure is being described below?: Appropriate for wounds older than 6-8 hours, for infected or necrotic wounds, and for failed primary wound closure. The wound is allowed to form a healthy granulation tissue and then is closed by apposition of granulation surfaces or by excision of the granulation tissue followed by primary closure. This is also known as third intention wound healing

Second Intention Wound Healing

What type of wound closure is being described below?: Appropriate for wounds older than 6-8 hours, or for infected or necrotic wounds. The wound is allowed to heal by granulation tissue formation and epithelialization. Disadvantages include length of time required for healing, cost of prolonged treatment, fragility of the newly epithelialized wound, loss of function due to scarring or contraction, and poor cosmetic results

Delayed Primary Closure

What type of wound closure is being described below?: Appropriate for wounds older than 6-8 hours, with some contamination and questionable ability to heal with primary closure. The wound is treated as an open wound for 2 or 3 days to allow drainage and elimination of infection, and then the wound is surgically closed primarily. Closure occurs before granulation tissue appears

Primary Closure with Primary Intention Wound Healing

What type of wound closure is being described below?: Surgical opposition of wound edges with sutures or staples. Can be performed in fresh, clean wounds with little loss of soft tissue, such as surgically created wounds. Epithelialization begins within 1-2 days because cells can cross over the incision. Granulation tissue is not needed

the joints proximal and distal to the injury

When applying a cast to a limb, for optimal effectiveness the cast must immobilize-

50%

When applying cast padding and conforming gauze that comes on a roll, often it should be overlapped by approximately-

Drains are generally removed when the amount of wound fluid decreases (*3-5 days*) because the simple presence of a drain will stimulate some fluid production

When are drains generally removed? Why?

further contamination

When caring for a wound in a patient first presented for treatment, the first priority is always to prevent this-

30-50%

When creating a fiberglass cast using casting tape, how much overlap should there be between passes?

about 1 week after the injury and can continue for several weeks

When does wound contraction begin?

b) low intensity white frosted bulb with a filter

When fitting a safelight in a darkroom it is best to use a: a) red light bulb b) low intensity white frosted bulb with a filter c) blue light bulb d) green light bulb

This sling is critical in puppies after repair of distal femoral fractures, to prevent quadriceps tie-down or contracture by keeping the effected muscles stretched

When is the 90/90 flexion sling indicated?

elbow luxation reduction

When is the Spica Splint most commonly indicated?

-after reduction of medial shoulder joint luxation -after reconstruction of tenuous fractures

When is the Velpeau sling indicated?

prevent further contamination of the wound while avoiding contamination of the environment with pathogens from he wound

When presented with a wound the first objective must be to-

d) par film with slow screens

When radiographing extremities, which combination is likely to yield the best results? a) fast film with calcium tungsten screens b) fast films with high-speed, rare earth screens c) direct exposure film of average speed d) par film with slow screens

so that when hair around the wound is clipped, any hair that falls into the wound can be caught by the sterile lube and flushed out after clipping

When treating an open wound, sterile gauze or sterile water soluble lubricant (K-Y Jelly) can be placed on the wound for this purpose-

2-3 days

When treating patients with wound infections, antimicrobials are often chosen empirically. If the correct medication was chosen, the infection should generally resolve within how many days?

non-adherent

When treating wounds, once granulation tissue has formed and epithelialization begins, this type of primary bandage layer is needed to promote second intention healing

Epithelialization begins at the wound edged and moves towards the center. Epithelial cells can also arise from surviving hair follicles and sweat glands

Where does epithelialization begin?

Epithelialization begins at the wound edged and moves towards the center then ends when epithelial cells meet in the middle. The process stops due to *contact inhibition*

Where does epithelialization end? Why?

c) gray bar

Which control is used to make the adjustment for the overall brightness of the ultrasound image? a) depth b) delay c) gray bar d) far-field gain

c) sodium you drink *sod*a when it's hot *outside*

Which ion is the most important for maintaining extracellular fluid? a) potassium b) calcium c) sodium d) chloride

b) potassium you have to grow *pot* *inside* so you don't get in trouble

Which is the dominant intracellular ion that is responsible for osmotic pressure in the intracellular space? a) sodium b) potassium c) choride d) bicarbonate

a) large gauge, short length

Which of the following catheters should be used when rapid administration of fluids is required? a) large gauge, short length b) large gauge, long length c) small gauge, short length d small gauge, long length

b) fixer

Which of the following clears the remaining silver halide crystals from exposed x-ray film: a) wash water b) fixer c) prolonged safelight exposutre d) developer

a) LRS

Which of the following is a balanced crystalloid solution? a) LRS b) Normosol-M c) 0.9% NaCl d) 5% dextrose

a) increased bleeding tendencies

Which of the following is a harmful complication of artificial colloids? a) increased bleeding tendencies b) decreased blood volume c) decreased oncotic pressure d) elevated heart rate

b) dorsal neck

Which of the following is considered to be the most appropriate site when administering SC fluids in small animal patients? a) limbs b) dorsal neck c) ventral abdomen d) base of the tail

c) femur

Which of the following radiographs should have the shortest scale of contrast? a) abdomen b) thorax c) femur d) all are approximately equal

d) bone

Which of the following tissues is least sensitive to ionizing radiation? a) lymphoid tissue b) the lens of the eye c) the skin d) bone

a) 7.25

Which pH value represents acidosis? a) 7.25 b) 7.35 c) 7.45 d) 7.55

c) when using a grid it is necessary to increase the mA, sometimes by up to 6 times

Which statement about grids is the most accurate? a) the grid is installed on the patient side of the tube head to minimize scatter radiation and to collimate the beam b) a grid is unnecessary when radiographing areas less than 30 cm thick c) when using a grid it is necessary to increase the mA, sometimes by up to 6 times d) the grid improves penetrating ability and radiographic detail by redirecting the x-rays so they strike the film perpendicularly

a) 7.5 mHz

Which ultrasound transducer provides the best resolution? a) 7.5 mHz b) 5 mHz c) 3.5 mHz d) 2.25 mHz

Due to the skin's elasticity small puncture wounds may be visible, however subcutaneous tissues, muscles, and even bone and neurovascular structures can be severely damaged. Along with having tissues crushed and lacerated, bite victims are often shaken which adds to the separation of tissues and the creation of dead space

Why are bite wounds, projectile wounds, and impalement wounds considered "iceberg injuries"?

to allow for easier removal, especially in an emergency situation

Why are casts often bivalved?

moisture will accumulate in the bandage

Why must the tertiary bandage layer be non-occlusive?

b) to monitor exposure to the thyroid gland and eyes

Why should the x-ray film badge be worn outside the lead apron at collar level? a) to protect the thyroid gland b) to monitor exposure to the thyroid gland and eyes c) to deflect more of the primary beam away from the head and neck d) so the scatter radiation bouncing off of the animal and table can reach the badge more

bony prominences such as the olecranon or tuber calcis

With which body parts would a stockinette "doughnut" be a useful tool for padding bony prominences?

No,the 90°-90° flexion sling is considered preventative because it is used to avoid quadriceps contracture not treat it once it has happened

Would the 90°-90° flexion sling be considered definitive treatment? why or why not?

contractions of the myofibroblasts within the granulation tissue

Wound contraction of the full-thickness skin edges occurs as a result of-

non-selective mechanical debridement

Wound debridement by use of a wet-to-dry bandage causes debridement that is classified as-

3-5 days

Wound drains should be removed when the amount of fluid decreases. This is often after approximately how long?

WBC's and fluid leaked from blood vessels and lymphatics

Wound exudate is a combination of-

1) Inflammatory 2) Proliferative 3) Maturation

Wound healing is a continuous process that lasts up to three months thereafter. What are the three major phases of wound healing?

-health of the animal -status of the wound -concurrent treatment of the animal

Wound healing is influenced by many factors including- (3)

Proliferative Phase

Wound strength increases considerably during this phase

b) electromagnetic energy generated when fast moving electrons collide with matter

X-rays are: a) light beams in the ultraviolet (invisible) spectrum b) electromagnetic energy generated when fast moving electrons collide with matter c) the black and white images produced by electromagnetic radiation striking special film d) high-speed protons, propelled from the x-ray machine's tube head

-reddening of the skin -hair loss

You might know that a pressure sore is starting to form if you see either of these two symptoms

Secondary Layer

a Military field bandage would be appropriate for use as this bandage layer

Clean-Contaminated Wound

a natural wound with minor contamination would be considered a: -Clean Wound -Clean-Contaminated Wound -Contaminated Wound -Dirty and Infected Wound

Contaminated Wound

a surgical wound into the colon would be considered a: -Clean Wound -Clean-Contaminated Wound -Contaminated Wound -Dirty and Infected Wound

Clean-Contaminated Wound

a surgical wound that enters a hollow viscus would be considered a: -Clean Wound -Clean-Contaminated Wound -Contaminated Wound -Dirty and Infected Wound

Contaminated Wound

a surgical wound with a major break in sterile technique would be considered a: -Clean Wound -Clean-Contaminated Wound -Contaminated Wound -Dirty and Infected Wound

Clean-Contaminated Wound

a surgical wound with a minor break in sterile technique would be considered: -Clean Wound -Clean-Contaminated Wound -Contaminated Wound -Dirty and Infected Wound

Clean Wound

a surgical wound would be considered a: -Clean Wound -Clean-Contaminated Wound -Contaminated Wound -Dirty and Infected Wound

non-selective debridement (this has many undesirable consequences including maceration of intact skin, a dry wound environment that is not conducive to healing, and pain/bleeding upon removal; as such is has been largely replaced by non-adherent primary layers)

a wet-to-dry bandage uses an adherent primary layer for-

Dirty and Infected wound

a wound with a high bacterial count would be considered a: -Clean Wound -Clean-Contaminated Wound -Contaminated Wound -Dirty and Infected Wound

Tertiary Layer

an ace bandage would be appropriate for this bandaging layer

Dirty and Infected Wound

an old traumatic wound would be considered a: -Clean Wound -Clean-Contaminated Wound -Contaminated Wound -Dirty and Infected Wound

Contaminated Wound

an open traumatic wound would be considered a: -Clean Wound -Clean-Contaminated Wound -Contaminated Wound -Dirty and Infected Wound

Secondary Layer

Rolled cotton would be considered appropriate for this bandaging layer

Third Intention Healing

Secondary Closure of a wound will lead to this type of wound healing

False During the maturation phase of wound healing, the tissue regains strength, but will never be as strong as normal tissue

T or F During the maturation phase of wound healing, the tissue regains normal strength

False Wound drainage is not a sign of infection and should not be used by itself as the determining factor for treatment

T or F Fluid drainage from a wound is a reliable sign of infection and warrants antimicrobial therapy

True

T or F Horses with open wounds on a limb below the carpus or tarsus are at risk for the development of exuberant granulation tissue

True

T or F In general, small animals cannot tolerate excessive bandage tightness as well as large animals unless a thick secondary layer is used

False Burns are more often caused by accidental inappropriate use of heating blankets and lamps, hair dryers, or poorly grounded electrocautery units

T or F Most burns in domestic animals are a result of accidental or deliberate injury from things like stoves, electrical chords, or hot liquids

True

T or F Multiplication of bacteria beyond 10^5 organisms per gram of tissue will stop wound healing

True

T or F Stall confinement is mandatory after equine cast application

False The Robert Jones bandage has largely been replaced by the modified Robert Jones bandage

T or F The Robert Jones bandage is the most frequently used bandage for small animal patients

False The best treatment for bandage-associated pressure sores is prevention

T or F The best treatment for pressure sores arising from splints or casts is the use of occlusive, non-adherent dressings

False The author recommends wetting fiberglass material with water at room temperature as warm water will speed up the curing process and result in premature hardening

T or F The use of warm water is preferred for wetting fiberglass casting material

True

T or F The wet-to-dry bandage technique has largely been replaced by other techniques in recent years

False To keep a bandage dry, it should be covered with a plastic bag or old IV bag when the animal goes outside; however, the bag must not be kept in place for longer than the time required for the patient to eliminate as it can cause accumulation of moisture from the foot, which can lead to soft-tissue maceration

T or F To keep a bandage dry, it should be covered with a plastic bag or old IV bag at all times

False Cattle are often not as cooperative as horses, and more restraint is required

T or F When applying bandages, splints, and casts, cattle often require less restraint than other animals

False The main benefit of wound lavage comes from the volume of lavage solution used rather than the type of fluid (e.g., tap water vs. isotonic saline)

T or F When lavaging a highly contaminated wound for initial removal of debris and contamination, the type of fluid is more important that the amount you use

never use a rubber band

Tape should be used to secure the "overshoe" to the Robert-Jones bandage when a patient goes outside. What should never be used in place of tape?

Priamry Layer: non-adherant non-occlusive

Teflon Pads would be an example of this type of primary bandaging layer

Primary Layer: non-adherent occlusive

Tegaderm Hydrocolloid would be an example of this type of primary bandaging layer

Primary Layer: non-adherent occlusive

Tegaderm transparent dressing would be an example of this type of primary bandaging layer

the proliferative phase

Tension on wound edges or movement of surrounding tissues can interfere with this wound healing phase especially

2-3 weeks

The Ehmer sling is designed for short term application and its use is typically limited to how many weeks in order to avoid soft tissue contracture of the hip, knee, and tarsal joint?

d) unequal distribution of the x-ray beam intensity emitted from the x-ray tube

The anode heel effect is due to the: a) focal spot oriented at an angle b) collimation angled at 15° c) the x-ray beam penetrating power being reduced d) unequal distribution of the x-ray beam intensity emitted from the x-ray tube

a) can be used to advantage when radiographing the thorax and abdomen

The anode heel effect: a) can be used to advantage when radiographing the thorax and abdomen b) is not important in a clinical setting c) causes "blackouts" on the anode side of the film d) can be prevented by using a grid

d) tungsten filament of the cathode

The electrons in the X-ray tube are generated in the: a) tungsten target of the anode b) tungsten filament of the anode c) tungsten target of the cathode d) tungsten filament of the cathode

wound debridement

The goal of this is the removal of obviously contaminated, devitalized, or necrotic tissue, and the elimination of foreign debris from the wound

Lag Phase

The inflammatory phase of wound healing is also known as the-

a) cephalic

The most commonly used vessel for IV administration is: a) cephalic b) jugular c) femoral d) auricular

b) 68°F for 5 min

The optimal development temperature and time for manual processing of radiographic film is: a) 75°F for 3 min b) 68°F for 5 min c) 65°F for 7 min d) 70°F for 5 min

because it causes muscle contracture with permanent loss of limb function if used to treat fractures. It has since been replaced with the Spica Splint

The original indication for the Schroeder-Thomas splint was to immobilize distal femoral fractures that otherwise were not able to be bandaged. This splint suspended the pelvic limb in a rigid metal frame fashioned to match the outline of the leg. Why is it no longer recommended? What has since replaced it?

warm isotonic saline

The preferred antiseptic for wound lavage is-

b) 0.5 mEq/kg/hr

The recommended maximum IV potassium supplementation is: a) 0.1 mEq/lg/hr b) 0.5 mEq/kg/hr c) 0.5 mEq/kg/min d) 1 mEq/kg/hr

8-12 psi This can achieved by using a 35 mls syringe with a 19g hypodermic needle or over the needle catheter. These can be connected to a sterile fluid bag and three-way stop cock to create a closed wound lavage system

The recommended wound lavage pressure is between ___-___ psi. How can this be achieved?

they are cytotoxic to wound cells (instead the wound should be lavaged with a warm *isotonic crystalloid fluid such as LRS or 0.9% NaCl*)

The skin surrounding an open wound should be cleaned with an antiseptic such as *chlorhexidine* or *povidone-iodine* scrub, however care must be taken not to apply soap to the wound because-

c) SID, IOD, focal spot

The three main factors that influence the amount of penumbra effect on a radiograph are: a) SID, IOD, film speed b) size of the focal spot, patient motion, SID c) SID, IOD, focal spot d) grid ratio, mA, SID

swelling

The toes of an animal with a distal limb bandage must be monitored for complications daily. An increased distance between toenails of a foot is a sign of-

d) patient motion and the penumbra effect

The two most common causes of the loss of radiographic detail are: a) patient motion and the heel effect b) the object not being parallel and the heel effect c) patient motion and not having the beam perpendicular to the recording surface d) patient motion and the penumbra effect

Inflammatory Phase

The wound is at its weakest in this phase of healing?

Robert-Jones Bandage

There is relatively low risk of complications from the tightening of the tertiary layer of this type of bandage

Third-Degree Burns

These are burns are full thickness injuries characterized by a thick, leathery, often black layer of dead dermis (eschar). Treatment requires removal of the eschar and debridement of the wound

Myofibroblasts

These are cells with contractile properties that is responsible for wound contraction

Abrasions

These are partial thickness dermal wounds that are common in animals after vehicular injury. Because of the preservation of part of the dermis, these wounds heal well by re-epithelialization.

First-Degree Burns

These burns are confined to the outermost layer of the skin (epidermis). Affected skin will be red and painful, but will recover in a few days without treatment

Second-Degree Burns

These burns are the result of partial thickness dermal injury. These wounds may form fluid filled blisters across the surface but can also show discoloration of part of the dermis similar to third-degree burns

Fourth-Degree Burns

These burns involve deeper tissues apart from the dermis and require surgical reconstruction if large. Animals with these burns are critically ill and require intensive care to survive

Decubital Ulcers

These develop over bony prominences as the result of skin compression on hard flooring during long periods of recumbency. Prevention is the best treatment

Active Drains

These drains are also referred to as *closed suction drains*, and work by creating a vacuum within the wound and allowing wound fluid to be removed via a rigid fenestrated drain into an external collection container. These drains are more expensive and play an important role in more extensive wounds

Passive Drains

These drains function by allowing fluid to flow along the drain surface as the result of capillary action. They must exit in a dependent location so that fluid can gravitate toward and exit the skin incision and can be removed from the wound

Hobbles

These prevent abduction of the pelvic limbs and are used after reduction of ventral hip luxations

Lacerations

These wounds are produced by tearing of skin and deeper tissues. The tissues are relatively sharply incised and trauma to the surrounding tissue is minimal

Robert Jones Bandage

This bandage can be used to temporarily immobilize limbs distal to the elbow or stifle joint. This bandage relies on an extremely thick layer such as cast padding or cotton which is tightly compressed by the tertiary layer to cause uniform compression of the distal limb. If done correctly the finished bandage should sound like a ripe melon when tapped

secondary layer

This bandage layer absorbs and holds exudate (if present) and provides immobilization and support

Granulation Tissue

This consists of fibroblasts, myofibroblasts, endothelial cells, inflammatory cells, and new blood vessels all connected by an extracellular matrix

Hobbles

This device prevents the abduction of the pelvic limb. It is primarily used after reduction of *ventral hip luxations*

Degloving Injury

This injury is one in which a large section of skin is torn off of the underlying tissue in a glove-like fashion. Aggressive wound lavage and debridement are needed to precede granulation tissue formation and large defects will require skin grafting

Velpeau Sling

This is a device that prevents weight beaing of the thoracic limb. It is primarily used after the reduction of *medial shoulder luxations*

Ehmer Sling

This is a device that prevents weight bearing of the pelvic limb. It is frequently used after closed reduction of *craniodorsal hip luxations*

Cast

This is a device used to immobilize fractures that is most often made out of fiberglass material

Extracellular Matrix

This is a meshwork-like substance in a wound, attached to the outer cell surface, that provides support and anchorage

Ehmer Sling

This is a non-weight bearing sling applied to the pelvic limb to protect the hip joint after injury. On principle, it will internally rotate and abduct the femur, thereby forcing the femoral head into the acetabulum and maintaining reduction

Velpeau Sling

This is a non-weight bearing sling for the forelimb that is used to immobilize all joints of the effected leg. The entire forelimb is flexed and brought up against the thoracic wall, and a soft-padded bandage is applied to keep it in place. Care must be taken not to impede breathing as this sling encompasses the entire chest

90/90 flexion sling

This is a non-weight bearing sling that consists of a simple loop of adhesive tape wrapped around the stifle and hock while both joints are held at about 90 degrees of flexion

Semi-occlusive

This is a primary wound dressing that allows air and moisture to move through

Laceration

This is a sharp cut or tear of the skin

Carpal Flexion Sling

This is a simple non-weight bearing sling that is applied with the carpus in flexion. It can be used in any situation in which weight bearing should be avoided but some movement of the elbow and shoulder joints in acceptable. It can also be used to relieve tension on carpal tendons after injury or surgical repair

Modified Thomas Splint

This is a traction splint constructed of rods used for stabilizing long bone fractures in large animals

Degloving

This is a type of injury that features a large section of skin torn off of the underlying tissue in a glove-like fashion

Robert Jones Bandage

This is a very bulky bandage used to immobilize a limb distal to the elbow or stifle joint

decubital ulcer

This is a wound caused by pressure on skin over bony prominences

occlusive

This is a wound dressing that is a primary layer impermeable to moisture

Exuberant Granulation Tissue

This is also known as "proud flesh"

Modified Robert Jones Bandage

This is also known as a "soft padded bandage" and is the most commonly used distal limb bandage in small animal medicine

Primary Closure

This is also known as surgical closure of a wound

Abrasion

This is an area of skin that has been superficially scraped

Schroeder-Thomas Splint

This is an immobilization device with a rigid metal frame however its use is no longer recommended

the Lag Phase (because wound strength is at its lowest during this phase)

This is another name for the Inflammatory Phase-

Secondary wound closure

This is closure of a wound by apposing the skin over healthy granulation tissue

Collagen

This is deposited into a wound by fibroblasts during the proliferative phase of healing

Second Intention

This is healing of a wound by granulation tissue formation, epithelialization, and contraction

Primary (first) intention wound closure

This is the healing of a wound across a surgically closed incision

Modified Robert Jones Bandage

This is the most commonly applied distal limb bandage in small animals. It is often referred to as a "soft padded bandage"

Penrose Drain

This is the most commonly used passive drain in small animals and is generally placed in small wounds with dead space

a moist wound healing environment

This is the preferred wound healing environment

Epithelialization

This is the process by which skin cells advance in a single layer across the wound

Debridement

This is the removal of foreign matter and dead tissue from a wound

Dead Space

This is the space between tissues allowing for the accumulation of fluid

Carpal Flexion Sling

This is used for the forelimb in any situation where weight bearning should be avoided but some movement of the elbow and shoulder joints are acceptable

90/90 Flexion Sling

This is used in puppies after the repair of *distal femoral fractures* to prevent quadriceps tie-down or contracture

Granulation tissue

This is vascularized fibrous tissue that covers a wound if left to heal by second intention

Third Intention

This is wound healing by secondary closure after allowing granulation tissue to form

moist

This is wound healing involving treatment that does not allow the wound to dry out

Spica Splint

This maintains the limb in extention. It includes a lateral splint that reaches over the shoulder or hip

stabilization of the patient

This must take precedence over any definitive wound care

d) osmosis

This occurs when water moves across a semipermeable membrane from the side with a lower solute concentration to the side with a higher solute concentration until the concentration equal out a) osmolality b) osmolarity c) diffusion d) osmosis

Inflammatory Phase

This phase of wound healing begins immediately as the injury occurs. It is characterized by the formation of a *blood clot* within the wound, release of *growth factors*, and the recruitment of *macrophages* and *neutrophils* to clean the wound and modulate healing

Maturation Phase

This phase of wound healing occurs after about *3 weeks* and lasts weeks to months. During this phase, collagen fibers remodel and align, and a final gain in wound strength occurs, however it will never be as strong as normal tissue

Proliferative Phase

This phase of wound healing overlaps with the Inflammatory phase and begins after *2-3* days. It is characterized by invasion of *fibroblasts*, formation of granulation tissue, deposition of collagen, epithelialization across healthy granulation tissue, and wound contraction by myofibroblasts

Spica Splint

This splint maintains the forelimb or pelvic limb in extension through application of a soft-padded bandage and the addition of a strong lateral support splint that curves over the shoulder or pelvis.

Hydrophilic

This term describes anything with an affinity for water

isotonic

This term describes having an osmotic pressure equivalent to that of blood plasma

hypertonic

This term describes having an osmotic pressure greater than that of blood plasma

External Coaptation

This term describes the use of a ridgid external device such as a bandage, splint, or cast to align fracture

inguinal

This term is used to describe the groin area

Contralteral

This term means "the opposite side"

Tie Over Bandage

This type of bandage is a versatile wound bandage that can be applied to locations on the body where a traditional limb bandage cannot be used or would be impractical (axillary area or around the pelvis). It uses suture loops that encircle the wound edges and are used as anchor points for bandage material

Corticosteroids

This type of concurrent therapy can interfere with wound healing by decreasing the bodies natural inflammatory response (thereby increasing the risk of infection) and *delay all phases of wound healing*

certain types of chemotherapy

This type of concurrent therapy can interfere with wound healing by suppressing bone marrow function which causes the decreased resistance to infection, and wound healing difficulties

Second Intention Healing

This type of wound healing involves healing by granulation tissue formation, epithelialization, and contraction

Second Intention Healing

This type of wound healing is often used on the distal limb in situations where there is little available skin

b) isotonic

To avoid skin sloughing, which of the following types of fluid solutions should be administered SC? a) hypertonic b) isotonic c) hypotonic d) multitonic

c) 36-40 inches

To minimize the penumbra effect without requiring an impractical increase in mA the focal film distance should be: a) 20-24 inches b) 28-32 inches c) 36-40 inches d) 46-50 inches

False- the phases of wound healing are distinct in their characteristics but there is overlap between them in the timeline of healing

True or False? The phases of wound healing must happen in succession and cannot overlap

Primary Layer: non-adherant semi-occlusive

Ultec Hydrocolloid Dressing would be considered this type of primary bandaging layer

Tertiary Layer

Vetrap elastic bandage would be appropriate for use as this bandage layer

-medial shoulder luxation -selected scapular body fractures

What are 2 indications for a Velpaeu sling?

-temporary immobilization of a fracture/luxation *distal to the elbow or knee* -compression to control soft tissue swelling -protection of soft tissue wounds, grafts, etc

What are 3 indications for a Robert-Jones bandage?

*Stabilization of Selected Fractures Distal to the Elbow/Knee* -must span the joint above and below the fracture - >50% reduction of transverse fracture in the worst of 2 orthogonal radiographic views desired -avoid in slow healing, high mechanical demand -avoid in poor patient/owner compliance -avoid fractures in the distal radius/ulna of toy breed dogs (high incidence of non-union) *Minor Carpal/Tarsal Sprain Injuries

What are some indications and contraindications for a cast application?

-temporary immobilization of Femoral or Humerus fractures (until internal fixation) -treatment of select scapular body fractures -lateral shoulder luxation -elbow luxation

What are some indications for a Spica splint?

-isolated metatarsal or metacarpal fractures -minor carpal or tarsal sprain injuries -temporary immobilization of a fracture/luxation distal to the elbow/knee -compression to control soft tissue swelling -protection of soft tissue grafts, wounds, etc..

What are some indications for a splint application?

*Prevent quadriceps contracture in 'at risk' patients*: -fracture involving the distal half of the femur -unstable fracture fixation -skeletally-immature patient -moderate to severe trauam to the muscular envelope -coaptation with stifle in extension -quadriceps tonus (difficult/impossible to flex stifle to 90°) noted during fracture fixation -flex the knee and tarsal joints to approximately 90° -prevent weight bearing on the pelvic limb (digital pad injuries etc)

What are some indications for the 90°-90° flexion sling

-Aloe Vera -Honey -Surgar

What are some natural topical agents that can be used to to treat topical wound infection?

1) Adherent 2) Non-Adherent 3) Occlusive 4) Non-Occlusive

What are the 4 main categories of primary bandage layer? This is dependent of the phase of wound healing and the amount of exudate present

1) Staged surgical debridement 2) En Bloc Excision 3) Enzymatic 4) Mechanical 5) Biological

What are the 5 main types of wound debridement?

1) Prevent further contamination 2) Remove foreign debris and contamination 3) Debride non-viable tissue 4) Manage wound drainage 5) Protect the wound through the inflammatory and proliferative phases 6) Select the appropriate wound closure

What are the 6 main steps in the wound management process?

*Advantages* -custom fit -can be remolded/reshaped as often as needed *Disadvantages* -added effort and time

What are the advantages and disadvantages of using a custom slab splint?

*Advantages* -economy of time and effort -less expensive *Disadvantages* -cannot be re-molded or re-shaped

What are the advantages and disadvantages of using half of a bi-valved cast as a splint?

*Advantages* -economy of time and effort *Disadvantages* -may not fit properly and cannot be reshaped

What are the advantages and disadvantages of using pre-fabricated splints?

*Cranio-Dorsal Hip Luxations* -closed (non-surgical) reduction/stabilization -augment stability of open (surgical) reconstructions

What are the indications for an Ehmer sling?

1) lateral recumbency (treated leg up) 2) tape stirrups 3) interdigital and bony prominence padding 4) wound care 5) stockinette liner (useful for long term application) 6) cotton cast padding (applied to minimize the irregular/funnel shape of the leg 7) roll gauze layer (conform is commonly used) and a thin rim (5mm) of padding shoulf be visible at the distal and proximal ends 8) splint selection 9) secure the splint to the underlying bandage using porous white tape and/or roll gauze 10) secure the stirrups 11) outer protective layer of vetrap or elastikon

What are the steps for applying a splint?

True

T or F Bite wounds should always be considered contaminated

False It is best to apply a cast with the horse under general anesthesia

T or F Casts can easily be applied to a horse under standing sedation

Bulky Cotton Padding

What bandage material is shown here?

Cling Gauze

What bandage material is shown here?

Conform

What bandage material is shown here?

Elastic Wrap (Elastikon™)

What bandage material is shown here?

Non-Adherent Elastic Wrap (Vetrap™)

What bandage material is shown here?

pink due to the abundance of capillaries (unhealthy granulation tissue is pale)

What does healthy granulation tissue look like?

a) an artifact is any unwanted density in the form of a blemish due to improper handling, exposure, processing, or housekeeping

(T1) Which statement best describes radiographic artifacts? a) an artifact is any unwanted density in the form of a blemish due to improper handling, exposure, processing, or housekeeping b) artifactual issues are not a concern when using digital radiology machines c) artifacts from "dirty cassettes" result in blemishes or scratches that appear white or light on the developed film d) scratches will appear as white lines on the developed film due to the intensifying screens inability to fluoresce

d) metal

(T1) Which substance absorbs the most x-rays? a) bone b) fat c) water d) metal

d) isoechoic

(T1) Which term best describes an area with the same echotexture as surrounding tissues? a) hyperechoic b) hypoechoic c) anechoic d) isoechoic

c) rem

(T1) Which term describes a unit of absorbed dose of x-radiation? a) rad b) Roentgen c) rem d) radon

b) James Blundell

(T1) Who is the "father of blood transfusions"? a) Karl Landsteiner b) James Blundell c) Jean-Baptiste Denis d) Richard Lower

to cause light exposure to the film

(T1) Why are intensifying screens added to an x-ray cassette?

b) delayed absorption of the drug or fluid due to dehydration

(T1) Why should subcutaneous injections be avoided in severely dehydrated animals? a) difficulty finding subcutaneous space b) delayed absorption of the drug or fluid due to dehydration c) dehydrated patients will absorb the fluid or drug too rapidly d) subcutaneous injections will alter the patient's temperature

c) the pill may get lodged in the esophagus and cause inflammation and stricture

(T1) You should not dry pill cats because: a) pills always make cats vomit b) cats are more effectively medicated by intravenous route rather than oral c) the pill may get lodged in the esophagus and cause inflammation and stricture d) the pill may get lodged in the trachea and cause the cat to choke

b) decrease

(T1) in a dehydrated animal with normal renal function, the urine specific gravity following rehydration should: a) increase b) decrease c) remain unchanged d) return to 1.010

c) increase mAs

(T1) to get more density on a film, you should make what adjustment? a) decrease mAs b) decrease mAs and kVp c) increase mAs d) decrease kVp

b) 30-50% less

(T1) Compared with the abdomen, how much mA does a quality view of the pelvis require? a) 50-75% less b) 30-50% less c) 30-50% more d) 50-75% more

d) CPCR

(T1) Intracardiac drug administration is typically only used for: a) cardiac medications b) epinephrine c) contrast and imaging drug agents d) CPCR

a) are used for substances that would be otherwise irritating or insufficiently absorbed

(T1) Intravenous injections: a) are used for substances that would be otherwise irritating or insufficiently absorbed b) are only used for small volumes of medication c) are simple enough for owners to do at home d) are the most common route for vaccine administration

c) the fluid loss via urine output

(T1) Sensible fluid losses are roughly equivalent to: a) fluid losses via respiration b) half the fluid loss via urine output c) the fluid loss via urine output d) fluid loss via diarrhea or vomitng

cast sores

Application of excessive padding under cast will result in-

Exudative Wounds: 1-2 times a day Support Bandages: once a week

Bandages covering wounds with a lot of exudate should be replaced how often? How often should support bandages be replaced?

3-5 days

Because of poor wound strength during the inflammatory (lag) phase, surgical wound edges depend entirely on the material used to close them. This is why dehiscence is usually seen within the first ___-___ days

Primary Layer: non-adherant semi-occlusive

Bioclusive polyurethane film would be considered what type of primary bandaging layer?

Granulation Tissue Formation: 3-5 days Epithelialization Begins: 4-5 days Contraction Begins: 7 days

Concerning the proliferative phase of wound healing: -granulation tissue begins to form approximately how many days after the injury? -epithelialization begins approximately how many days after the injury? -contraction of the wound begins approximately how many days after the injury?

Secondary Layer

Cotton sheets would be appropriate for use as this bandage layer

Primary Layer: non-adherant semi-occlusive

Curagel Hydrogel would be an example of this type of primary bandaging layer

dead space

Depending on the quantity of wound exudate and disruption of soft tissues causing __________, passive or active wound drains may be used in conjunction with wound closure

1) lateral recumbency (treated leg up) 2) apply several layers of cast padding to the metatarsus 3) apply roll gauze around the cast padding (not too tightly!) 4) anchor the sling to the metatarsus- with the adhesive side of the tape against the medial surface of the crus, loosely apply 2" porous white tape around the metatarsus in a 'clam shell' pattern to avoid 360° tight encircling of the limb 5) form the sling- flex the knee and tarsal joints slightly past 90° of flexion and pass the 2" sling tape along the medial surface of the crus, then over the distal end of the femur (pulling the skin distally off of the femur will help retain the tape up on the thigh when the skin is released), then across the lateral surface of the distal thigh, then around the medial side of the metatarsus. several layers of this figure-8 encircling tape should be used to add strength to the sling 6) apply 2" white tape around the abdomen as a "belly band" 7) form a "traditional ehmer sling" by passing a 2" porous white tape from the metatarsus (distally) up around the belly band (proximally) 8) form an *abduction roll*- use tape to secure a clean towel into a wide toll 9) place an *abduction roll*- directly over the hip joint 10) improve the hip abduction by placing ehmer sling straps from the metatarsus, across the abduction roll, and around the belly band 11) secure the abduction roll by 'sandwiching' it between the traditional ehmer sling and the improved sling strap

Describe the procedure for a 90°-90° sling

collagen

During the proliferative phase fibroblasts deposit this which increases wound strength

and Extracellular Matrix

During the proliferative phase of wound healing growth factors released into the wound stimulate the proliferation and recruitment of fibroblasts and endothelial cells, as well as the production of this-

d) B and M modes

Echocardiography uses which types of ultrasound display? a) A-mode b) B and C modes c) C-mode d) B and M modes

tap water

Effective wound lavage requires copious amounts of fluid and in highly contaminated wounds this can be used initially to remove debris

Tertiary Layer

Elastikon elastic adhesive tape should be used as this layer of a bandage

Primary Layer: hypertonic/hyperosmolar

Honey would be considered what type of primary bandaging layer?

how deep into the tissues the injury is and how large the effected area is

How are burns classified?

increased production of wound exudate (seen with inflammation) leads to fluid accumulation within tissues and separation of tissue planes, further hindering wound healing

How can increased production of wound exudate (seen with inflammation) impact wound healing?

Obesity is associated with increased risk of infection and dehiscence due to decreased vascularization of fatty tissue leads to a decreased capacity for healing

How can obesity impact wound healing?

they may cause prolonged periods of recumbency with increased pressure on certain body parts causing decreased wound healing

How can orthopedic and neurological problems impact wound healing?

they can delay wound healing and alter wound strength

How can poor nutritional status such as emaciation or diseases that cause low protein and albumin levels (certain liver diseases) impact wound healing?

it should "thump" like a ripe melon

How can we tell if a Robert-Jones bandage has been wrapped appropriately?

alters tissue perfusion and release of oxygen

How does diabetes impact wound healing?

interferes with defense against infection

How does hyperglycemia impact wound healing?

1-3 days post-operatively (for longer term used the sling should be changed every 3-5 days so that passive range of motion exercises can be performed on the stifle and tarsus to prevent joint contractures from forming

How long is a 90°-90° flexion sling kept on?

a thin rim- approximately 5 mm

How much of the underlying cotton layer should be visible at the distal and proximal ends of the Robert-Jones bandage beneath the cling gauze?

-Moderate-highly exudative: 1-2 times a day -Once granulation/epithelialization has begun: every 2-3 days -No wound/Fractures: once a week

How often should the bandages on moderate-highly exudative wounds be changed? Once granulation tissue or epithelialization has begun? When no wound is evident (i.e. a fracture)?

Primary Layer: non-adherant semi-occlusive

Hydrosorb Plus Foam would be an example of this type of primary bandaging layer

b) decrease

In a dehydrated animal with normal renal function, the urine specific gravity following rehydration should: a) increase b) decrease c) remain unchanged d) return to 1.010

Modified Robert-Jones Bandage

In small animals, the most commonly used device for treatment of the distal limb is the-

Biological

In this type of debridement, maggots can be used to ingest necrotic tissues. This is used for chronic wounds with poor tissue health

Staged Surgical Debridement

In this type of wound debridement obviously compromised tissue is removed while tissue of questionable health is preserved and removed at a later stage if needed. This is used for larger wounds with substantial trauma

Mechanical

In this type of wound debridement, an adherent primary bandage layer is used to non-selectively debride heavily contaminated wounds. This technique should only be used in the *inflammatory phase*

Enzymatic

In this type of wound debridement, enzymes are allowed to slowly digest necrotic tissue. This technique is not a substitute for surgical debridement

En Bloc Excision

In this type of wound debridement, if surrounding skin allows, small wounds can be excised completely and closed primarily

Secondary Closure aka Third Intention Wound Healing

In wounds requiring longer periods of open wound care such as heavily contaminated wounds, this type of closure is used. These wounds are allowed to form a healthy bed of granulation tissue which is then folded onto itself with closure of the skin

d) decreased GI function

Severely dehydrated animals have ______ and cannot absorb fluids readily through the GI tract a) severe nausea b) aversion to water c) increased GI function d) decreased GI function

c) every 72 hrs

Short peripheral catheters are usually replaced: a) every 24-36 hrs b) every 48 hrs c) every 72 hrs d) only as needed

2-3 days

Signs of infection should resolve within how many days if the correct antimicrobial was chosen?

wound drainage

Signs of wound incisional infection include swelling, heat, and redness of surrounding tissues. However this symptom by itself is not a sign of infection and should not be used by itself as the determining factor for treatment

used for topically for superficial infections

Silver Sulfadiazine is often used for this-

elbow and stifle

Splints, casts, and slings can only be used to immobilize injures below the-

False It is important to limit exercise to short leash walks only for the purpose of elimination until the device is removed

T or F As long as the device has been applied correctly, dogs with bandages, slings, and casts can be permitted to play in a fenced in yard

True

T or F Basic wound management in horses is very similar to that of small companion animals

False Bite wounds often cause injury to deep tissues that is not apparent by looking at the skin

T or F Bite wounds are usually relatively easy to assess because the extent of the damage is visually apparent

1) lateral recumbency (treated leg up) 2) apply cast padding to the metatarsus (several layers 3) apply roll gauze around the cast padding (take care not to apply too tightly) 4) anchor the sling to the metatarsus by loosely applying 2" of porous white tape around the metatarsus in a "clam shell" pattern to avoid 360° tight circling of the limb 5) prepare a retention strap- lay a second strip of white tape along the axis of the femur (approximately 3x the length of the femur) 6) form the sling- flex the knee and tarsal joints to slightly past 90° of flexion and pass the 2" sling tape around the lateral surface of the crus, then over the distal femur (pulling the skin distally off of the end of the femur will help retain the tape on the thigh as the skin is released) then down the medial side of the limb, and finally around the metatarsus. several layers of encircling tape should be used to strengthen the sling 7) secure the retention strap- secure the strap around the 90-90 sling at the level of the knee. rotate the tape 180° so that the adhesive side is against the skin. pass the retention strap around the abdomen (avoid the prepuce in male dogs)

What are the steps for performing a 90°-90° flexion sling?

1) lateral recumbency (treated leg up) 2) apply tape stirrups 3) pad interdigital area and bony prominences 4) wound care 5) cotton cast padding as far proximally as possible to the elbow/knee. This step should work to remove the funnel shape or irregular contour of the limb 6) roll gauze layer (5mm rim of padding should be visible at the proximal and distal ends) 7) mold the fiberglass Spica splint along the length of the the limb and up over the dorsal midline 8) pad the proximal end of the Spica splint with cast padding 9) secure the splint to the underlying bandage using roll gauze 10) use cotton roll cast padding followed by more roll gauze to secure the proximal end around the patient's trunk 11) secure the stirrups 12) and outer protective layer of vetrap or elastikon is used

What are the steps for performing a Spica Splint?

1) lateral recumbency (treated leg up) or standing 2) apply cast padding to the metatarsus (several layers) 3) hold the limb with the carpus and limb in near full flexion 4) wrap the cast padding across the thoracic limb and around the thorax until the entire limb is covered by about 3 layers 5) apply roll gauze around the cast padding, being sure to support the front of the carpus so that the patient cannot step out of the cranial end of the sling 6) apply outer protective wrap using porous white tape, vetrap, or elastikon

What are the steps for performing a Velpaeu sling?

1) Primary layer (direct contact with the wound) 2) Secondary layer 3) Tertiary or Protective Layer

What are the three distinct layers of most bandages?

b) blood buffers, lungs, and kidneys

What are the three primary systems that control the acid-base balance in the body? a) blood buffers, heart, and kidneys b) blood buffers, lungs, and kidneys c) lungs, liver, and kidneys d) hear, lungs, and liver

cast padding and rolled cotten

What are two examples of materials used for a secondary bandage layer?

-closed reduction of a craniodorsal hip luxation -after surgery associated with the coxofemoral joint (such as open reduction of a craniodorsal luxation or acetabular fractures

What are two indications for an Ehmer Sling?

Primary Layer: hypertonic/hyperosmolar

granulated sugar would be an example of this type of primary bandaging layer

bite wounds

gunshot wounds and wounds created by sticks are often similar to this type of wound-

healthy = pink unhealthy = pale

healthy granulation tissue is characterized by this color, while unhealthy granulation tissue will have this color-

50%

hip luxation may occur in approximately _____% of patients treated by closed (nonsurgical) methods

less than 10 minutes

how long can a plastic bag be used as an "overshoe" on a Robert-Jones bandage when a pet goes outside?

3-5 days

how long on average does the inflammatory phase last?

every 3-7 days

if the Velpeau sling is to be maintained for longer than 2 weeks it is advisable to remove the sling how often to perform passive range of motion of the carpus and elbow?

Primary Layer: Adherant

sterile wide-mesh gauze would be an example of this type of primary bandaging layer

primary intention healing

surgical wounds closed by direct appostion heal by-

Fibroblasts

these are cells recruited into a wound during the proliferative phase that help form granulation tissue

a scalpel blade

this can be used to carefully shave hair from wound edges

Wound exudate

this is the combination of WBC's and fluid leaked from blood vessels and lymphatics

bacteria from the environment can penetrate the bandage and contaminate the wound

what is a concern associated with fluid strike through of the tertiary layer of a bandage?

50% overlap

when creating a Modified Robert Jones Bandage, how much overlap should there be between passes of the different layers of the bandaging material?

inflammatory

wound strength is lowest during the _________ phase of healing