1000 MCQ's Dental ADC Waysem

807. The percentage of malocclusion after early loss of deciduous teeth is: A. 60%

...

178. The first step in the treatment of erosion is: A. Pumice and water B. Spray with Na-bicarbonate C. GIC

.First: polish with pumice & water Second:

513. While giving CPR which of the following is correct: A. It achieves 30% of cardiac output with 60 compressions per minute B. It achieves normal blood oxygen levels with 12 reseparations per minuteC. You have to check compression point by thumping before starting compression D. Cardiac output has to be monitored regularly by checking radial pulse.

30 compressions : 2 breaths

91 Wrong answer, Please check 91. Following extraction of the molar teeth **(wrong answer) A. The ridge height is lost more from the maxilla than from the mandible B. The maxillary ridge will get more bone lost from the palatal aspect than the buccal C. The mandibular arch is relatively narrower than the maxillary arch D. Compared with the pre-resorption state, the mandibular ridge will lose more bone from the lingual aspect than the buccal one.

91 Wrong answer, Please check D. Compared with the pre-resorption state, the mandibular ridge will lose more bone from the lingual aspect than the buccal one Explanation Max --> more lab/buc resorption Mand --> more ling. resorption Zarb prosthodontics

735. What is TRUE about water fluoridation: A. Will have no effects after the eruption of permanent teeth

???? Actually it is TURE that water fluoridation will have effect after eruption (through providing Fluoride in salivary secretion)

818. The MOST common cause for midline fracture is: A. Impact B. Fatigue

???????? UNCLEAR

159. Ante's Law: Dr. Ante in 1926 stated that, A. "The combined pericemental area of the abutment teeth should be equal to or greater than pericemental area than tooth or teeth to be replaced

A. "The combined pericemental area of the abutment teeth should be equal to or greater than pericemental area than tooth or teeth to be replaced Explanation Not very much applicable nowadays

426. The width of the normal periodontal ligament space is: (Width = 0.25(+-) 0.1mm) A. 0.25 to 0.5mm B. 1mm

A. 0.25 to 0.5mm

902. 27 years old female shows sudden oedematous rash and collapses after an injection of barbiturates. Your management is: A. 1 mg of adrenaline in a 1:1000 solution with oxygen administration

A. 1 mg of adrenaline in a 1:1000 solution with oxygen administration

309. How many ppm (Parts Per Million) of fluoride are present in water supply in case of temperate climate:** A. 1 ppm B. 2 ppm C. 8 ppm D. 1.2 ppm

A. 1 ppm 0.7 ppm in hot weather 1.2 ppm in cold weather

889. How long should acrylic self-cure special trays been made prior to taking impression: A. 12 hrs B. Immediately after fabricating it C. After been left in water for an hour D. Wait for an hour before pouring

A. 12 hrs

244. What are the commonest congenitally missing teeth: A. 12, 22 B. 35, 45 C. 15, 25 D. 33, 43

A. 12, 22 while in impactions: 8s>U3>L5>U2

930. The OPTIMUM crown to root ratio for abutment tooth is:** A. 2:3 B. 1:1

A. 2:3

944. When you apply a pressure of 0.25N to measure pocket depth: A. 4 mm indicates periodontitis

A. 4 mm indicates periodontitis

427. The incision angle in Gingivectomy is: A. 45° to the tooth in an apical direction

A. 45° to the tooth in an apical direction 45° to the tooth in CORONAL direction

856. The developing time for dental x ray should be: A. 5 minutes at 20ºC B. At least 10 minutes C. Until it clears up D. 2 minutes at 40ºC

A. 5 minutes at 20ºC

245. What is the percentage of leukoplakia turning into cancer:** A. 5%-6% B. 10% C. 25%

A. 5%-6% 1-17% with most papers saying 7% for Candidal Leukoplakia.

898. How long would it take to notice significant reduction in radiolucency after finishing a root filling in a tooth with a periapical lesion: A. 6 months B. 1 month C. 3 months

A. 6 months Initial reduction in at least 6 months. Significant reduction in 12 months

742. The flow of the following percentage is allowable for impression compound (type I) at the oral temp of 37º ? A. 6% B. 10% C. 2% D. 20% E. None of the above

A. 6% Fow rate for impression compound at 37 Celsius mouth temp.: -for type I is less than 6% -for type II less than 2%

929. How long would it take to see the dentinal bridge after direct pulp capping by using Calcium hydroxide:** A. 6-8 weeks B. 4 weeks C. 6-8 months D. 4 months

A. 6-8 weeks

360. Posterior superior alveolar nerve supplies:** A. 8, 7 and 6 except the mesio buccal root of 6 B. 8, 7 and 6

A. 8, 7 and 6 except the mesio buccal root of 6 Middle sup. alv. nerve supplies upper 4 + 5 + 6 (in 28% of population). This supply is for: Pulp, Investing str. & buccal mucoperosteum. While palatal mucoperosteum is sup. by greater palatine nerve for those teeth.

827. What kind of tissues is a frenum consisted of: A. A fold of mucous membrane

A. A fold of mucous membrane

878. An irregular shaped void on the surface of a gold cast would indicate that: A. A fragment of investment had been carried into the mould B. Air carried into mould C. Burning out of wax was inadequate D. The powder/water ratio for the investment was too high

A. A fragment of investment had been carried into the mould

689. What does "DOUBLE BLIND" mean: A. A kind of clinical study in which neither the participants nor the person administering treatment know which treatment any particular subject is receiving. Usually the comparison is between an experimental drug and a placebo or standard comparison treatment. This method is believed to achieve the most accuracy because neither the doctor nor the patient can affect the observed results with their psychological bias.

A. A kind of clinical study in which neither the participants nor the person administering treatment know which treatment any particular subject is receiving. Usually the comparison is between an experimental drug and a placebo or standard comparison treatment. This method is believed to achieve the most accuracy because neither the doctor nor the patient can affect the observed results with their psychological bias. Discussed before (Blind, Double & Triple Blind study + Placebo)

728. The silver bromide crystals in x rays films after being expressed to radiation form: A. A latent image

A. A latent image

979. The MOST common staphylococcal infections is: A. A localised purulent infection of the skin B. Diffuse purulent infection of the skin C. Staphylococcal osteomyelitis D. Impetigo

A. A localised purulent infection of the skin Carbuncle & Boil

483. The use of nickel chromium in base plate should be judiciously considered because: A. A significant number of females are allergic to nickel B. A significant number of female are allergic to chromium C. A significant number of males are allergic to nickel

A. A significant number of females are allergic to nickel

303. The articular surface of the normal temporomandibular joint are lined with, A. A specially adapted, highly fibrous tissue B. Hyaline cartilage C. Chondroitin-6-phosphate D. Highly vesiculated tissues

A. A specially adapted, highly fibrous tissue

696. What is ESR? "erythrocyte sedimentation rate" A. A test that measures the rate at which red blood cells settle through a column of liquid. A non-specific index of inflammation

A. A test that measures the rate at which red blood cells settle through a column of liquid. A non-specific index of inflammation

411. How can you improve the adhesion of a fissure sealant: A. Acid etching technique

A. Acid etching technique that's after pumice

302. Glass Ionomer Cement sets because of,** A. Acid-Base reaction B. Addition polymerisation reaction C. Growth of glass crystals D. Slip plane locking E. Solvent evaporation

A. Acid-Base reaction

101. What is Miller's theory about A. Acidogenic micro-organism B. Proteolytic

A. Acidogenic micro-organism

425. Calculus attaches to teeth surfaces by: A. Acquired pellicle B. Interlocking to the crystals of the tooth C. Penetrated into enamel and dentine D. Mechanical interlocking E. All of the above

A. Acquired pellicle B & C 100% wrong D is correct A is the commonest

385. The presence of sulphur granules is diagnostic of:** A. Actinomycosis B. Candidosis C. Viral infection D. Keratocyte

A. Actinomycosis

613. What is true in treating a patient with secondary herpes simplex:** A. Acyclovir inhibits viral transcription when applied in the prodromal phase B. Idoxuridine is better than acyclovir when applied topically C. Antivirals are contra indicated in immuno-compromised patient

A. Acyclovir inhibits viral transcription when applied in the prodromal phase During the first 1-2 days. Steroids are C/I in immunocomp. pts.

285. Which of the following is true regarding preparation of custom tray for elastomeric impression: A. Adhesive is preferred over perforation B. Perforation provides adequate retention C. Adhesive is applied immediately before procedure D. Perforations are not made in the area over the prepared tooth

A. Adhesive is preferred over perforation if perforations are to be utilized --> avoid the area of prepared teeth.

882. What control tooth or teeth should be used when testing a suspected pulpally involved tooth: A. Adjacent tooth and contralateral teeth B. Contralateral and opposing teeth C. Opposing and adjacent teeth D. Test only suspected tooth/teeth E. All of the above

A. Adjacent tooth and contralateral teeth contralateral>Adjacent>Opposing

514. A patient has developed a sever chest pain and difficulties in breathing while in the dental chair. Your initial response is: A. Administer glycerine trinitrate and monitor patient in upright position B. Patient has an acute episode of angina as demonstrated by curve in ECG C. No treatment is required until confirmed as MI by ECG D. Patient has myocardial infarction as confirmed by ECG

A. Administer glycerine trinitrate and monitor patient in upright position ANGINA PECTORIS (AVOID SUPINE POSITION AS IT INCREASES THE PAIN)

645. Patient under treatment with corticosteroids may develop: A. Adrenal suppression

A. Adrenal suppression Secondary Adrenal Insufficiency (with no melanin pigmentation)

563. The first forming microbial elements of plaque are: A. Aerobic gram positive G+ B. Aerobic gram negative G- C. Anaerobic gram negative G- D. Spirochetes E. Anaerobic gram positive G+

A. Aerobic gram positive G+ non-pathogenic

160. Why would you decide to replace the anterior missing teeth for partial denture using bridge: A. Aesthetic B. Overjet C. Overbite

A. Aesthetic Explanation Main adv. of fixed restorations: 1-esthetics 2-function 3-less damage on perio status

991. When restoring with composite resins, why do we do the cavo surface bevelling: A. Aesthetic

A. Aesthetic Increase surf. area for retention also esthetics for ant teeth

17. The nerve supply of the pulp is composed of which type of nerve fibres? A. Afferent & sympathetic

A. Afferent & sympathetic Explanation 1-Autonomic nerve fibers (sympathetic only): They innervate the smooth muscle cells of the arterioles and therefore function in regulation of blood flow in the capillary network. 2-Afferent (sensory) fibers: These arise from trigeminal n. Dentin sensitivity is explained by the 'hydrodynamic theory' = Movement of fluid in DT à activation of small, myelinated Aδ fibers causing sharp pain. Injury and inflammation later lead to the activation of unmyelinated C fibers (dull ache sensation), which are found in the Sub-odontoblastic layer and the deep pulp.

299. Rank the following impressions materials according to their flexibility A. Alginate> Polysulphide> Silicone> Zinc Oxide Eugenol B. Silicone> Alginate> Polysulphide> Zinc Oxide Eugenol C. Alginate> Polysulphide> Zinc Oxide Eugenol>Silicone D. Alginate> Silicone> Polysulfide> Zinc Oxide Eugenol E. Alginate> Zinc Oxide Eugenol> Silicone> Polysulphide

A. Alginate> Polysulphide> Silicone> Zinc Oxide Eugenol Alginate> Polysulphide> Silicone> Polyether> ZnO/E

395. If a child's teeth do not form; this would MOSTLY affect the growth of:** A. Alveolar bone B. Whole face C. Mandible D. Maxilla

A. Alveolar bone mostly alv. bone. Also might affect the facial growth

423. The vertical incision of a mucoperiostal flap should: A. Always extend to the alveolar mucoperiostal B. Bisect the middle of gingival papillae C. Be at the right angle of the tooth

A. Always extend to the alveolar mucoperiostal to release the flap you need to reach mobile tissues (alv. mucosa)

28. When preparing a class III cavity for composite restoration; in which situation should acid itching be used: A. Always should be performed to minimise marginal leakage B. Should not be performed because it might damage the adjacent tooth C. When extra retention is required D. Only in situations where cavity is shallow to avoid pulp irritation

A. Always should be performed to minimise marginal leakage Explanation No composite without etch, even if using all-in-one bonding --> it is preferable to etch & rinse separately.

464. Pin Restoration with which material has the best retention: A. Amalgam B. Gold inlay C. Composite D. Glass Ionomer

A. Amalgam

987. In a posterior vital molar with a core the best material to restore is: A. Amalgam B. Composite resin C. GIC

A. Amalgam

374. An adult patient with a history of bacterial endocarditis requires prophylactic administration of antibiotics prior to removal of teeth. Indicate the pre-operative regimen:t** A. Amoxicillin 2 gram one hour before operation orally B. Penicillin 250 mg orally six hours before operation C. Tetracycline 250-500 mg orally 2 hours before treatment

A. Amoxicillin 2 gram one hour before operation orally if allergic --> 600 mg (15 mg/kg for children) Clindamycin oral 1 hr before procedure.

601. In minor oral surgery, what is TRUE in regard to antibiotics: A. Amoxil is satisfactory against most oral infections B. Metronidazole and Amoxil have the same penetrating power C. It is evident that it will reduce post operative swelling

A. Amoxil is satisfactory against most oral infections

363. Denture stomatitis is treated with, A. Amphotencin B. Tetracycline lozenges C. Mycostatin

A. Amphotencin ttt. of candidosis: THE MOST IMPORTANT AND THE FIRST THING TO DO IT DENTURE HYGIENE, THEN MIGHT NEED: -Amphotericin: 10 mg lozenge sucked, 4 times daily for 7-14 days. -Miconazole 2% gel, 2.5 mL (half dose in infants) topically (then swallowed), 4 times daily, after meals, for7-14 days. -Nystatin (Mycostatin) 100 000 u/mL suspension, 1 mL topically (then swallowed), 4 times 7-14 days. Amphotericin loz. preferred in denture candidosis.

526. Which of the following is not a side effect of lignocaine: A. Angioneurotic oedema B. Nervousness

A. Angioneurotic oedema it is actually a "possible" but rare allergic reaction

949. What is NOT a result of toxic dosage of local anaesthetic: A. Angioneurotic oedema B. Hypotension C. Respiratory depression D. Hypertension

A. Angioneurotic oedema It is a result of ALLERGIC REACTION

54. The tonsillar lymph node is situated at the level of, A. Angle of the mandible B. C6 vertebrae C. Jugulodigastric crossing D. Clavicle E. Jugulo-omohyoid crossing

A. Angle of the mandible Explanation Palatine tonsils are present at Sides of Oropharynx, between palatoglossaland palatopharyngeal arches; AT THE LEVEL OF MANDIBULAR ANGLE.

826. What do you expect after successful pulpectomy in the periapical area: A. Apical foramen is closed by cementum and calcified tissues

A. Apical foramen is closed by cementum and calcified tissues

994. The GREATEST reliable finding to confirm a necrotic pulp is: A. Area of radiolucency surrounding the apex of tooth

A. Area of radiolucency surrounding the apex of tooth

494. The path of the condyles during mandibular movements depends on: A. Articular eminence, meniscus/capsule of TMJ and muscle attachments

A. Articular eminence, meniscus/capsule of TMJ and muscle attachments

576. In patients with exposed root surfaces: A. Ask to use low abrasive dentifrices B. It is because of dental hypersensitivity

A. Ask to use low abrasive dentifrices

195. Internal resorption of RC usually is A. Asymptomatic B. Painful

A. Asymptomatic

238. The nerve supplying the TMJ is, A. Auriculo Temporal Nerve B. Nerve to masseter C. Facial nerve

A. Auriculo Temporal Nerve A branch of post. div. of Manbibular nerve NB: After parotidectomy, the nerves from the Auriculotemporal Nerve that previously innervated the parotid gland can reattach to the sweat glands in the same region. The result is sweating along the cheek with the consumption of foods "Frey syndrome"

1. For lower premolars, the purpose of inclining the handpiece lingually is to, A. Avoid buccal pulp horn B. Avoid lingual pulp horn C. Remove unsupported enamel D. Conserve lingual dentine

A. Avoid buccal pulp horn Explanation 1- avoid BUCCAL pulp horn 2- conserve ling. dentine So take A and B if available

564. Extracellular polysaccharides in plaque are formed by: A. Bacteria from sucrose B. Precipitated from carbohydrate C. Precipitated from glycoproteins

A. Bacteria from sucrose

681. Which drug may cause respiratory depression: A. Barbiturate

A. Barbiturate CNS & Resp. depressors This is why they are now replaced with Benzodiazepines

568. It is desirable for major connectors of upper partial dentures to:** A. Be at least 5 mm away from the gingival margin B. Cover the anterior palate

A. Be at least 5 mm away from the gingival margin

963. Why don't we use porcelain in long span bridge works: A. Because of the high casting shrinkage of porcelain

A. Because of the high casting shrinkage of porcelain Cracking & breakage

321. Where is the retentive position on teeth according to the survey line: A. Below the height of contour B. Next to gingival margins

A. Below the height of contour

192. Retentive part of clasp position is, A. Below the survey line. B. Above survey line C. As close as possible to the gingival margins

A. Below the survey line. Explanation should cross the survey line and enter the undercut area --> to provide retention.

779. The Initiation of the curing process in self cure acrylic resins is achieved by:** A. Benzyl peroxide

A. Benzyl peroxide

776. Reversible hydrocolloid impression materiasl in comparison to alginate are: A. Better for undercuts areas

A. Better for undercuts areas more flexible

701. The expected age of patients with rapid progressive periodontitis: A. Between 15 and 25 years of age

A. Between 15 and 25 years of age Aggressive periodontitis: LAP: usually around puberty. GAP: generally before 30 yrs.

52. The patient whom you are about to treat states that he has Von Willebrand's disease. Which one of the following preoperative haematological analyses may reflect this disease: A. Bleeding time and factor VIII level B. Bleeding time and factor IX level C. Bleeding time and factor X level D. Platelet count E. Thromboplastin generation time

A. Bleeding time and factor VIII level Explanation Hemophilia A = Fac. VIII Hemophilia B = Fac. IX Hemophilia C = Fac. XI Pseudohemophilia = vWF Fac. VIII = VIIIc + vWF vWF disease affects platelets adhesion [BT] & clotting (VIIIc) [APTT]

830. What is TRUE: A. Boiling point of acrylic acid > boiling point of water B. Boiling point of acrylic acid is similar to that of water C. Boiling point of acrylic acid < boiling point of water

A. Boiling point of acrylic acid > boiling point of water

158. The maxillary canine is missing. The best way for making Cantilever bridge is on: A. Both premolars B. Incisors and premolars

A. Both premolars Explanation -Incisors and premolars --> will not be a cantilever. -still not recommended to use cantilever for missing canine.

460. To extract upper deciduous molars, the movement should be: A. Buccal first to move tooth B. Palatal first to move tooth C. Distal first to move tooth D. Rotation movement E. Fraction of the tooth

A. Buccal first to move tooth B --> P --> BBBBB

488. The muscle responsible for maintaining the bolus of food while chewing is: A. Buccinator B. Orbicularis oris

A. Buccinator

82. In the inferior alveolar block the needle goes through or close to which muscles: ????? A. Buccinator and superior constrictor B. Medial and lateral pterygoid C. Medial pterygoid and superior instructor D. Temporal and lateral pterygoid E. Temporal and medial pterygoid

A. Buccinator and superior constrictor Explanation Malamed handbook of LA

433. What is the MOST important role of saliva in preventing dental caries: A. Buffering action

A. Buffering action

1012. Attrition in elderly, why do teeth maintain contact: A. Building bone around the fundus of alveolar bone and deposition of cementum B. Increased interocclusal distance C. Formation of dentine

A. Building bone around the fundus of alveolar bone and deposition of cementum

605. Loss of the gingival attachment is measured between: A. CEJ to base of pocket B. Top of the gingiva to the base

A. CEJ to base of pocket

530. A middle aged woman gives a history of intermittent unilateral pain in the sub mandibular region, most probable cause is, A. Calculus in the salivary duct resulting in sialolithiasis. B. Ranula C. Cyst D. Mucocele

A. Calculus in the salivary duct resulting in sialolithiasis. pain around meal time

624. What would you do if the systole is elevated:** A. Calm down the patient

A. Calm down the patient Unclear Q ! Systolic = Bl. pr. when the heart beats (so if high in a pt. who is not diagnosed with hypertension, it might indicate anxiety --> need to calm the pt, i.e. stress reduction).

926. Protrusive movement in wax: A. Can not be perforated

A. Can not be perforated

352. Why can Class IV gold not be used in cavity as a filling material: A. Can not be polished "burnished" B. The corrosive properties

A. Can not be polished "burnished"

990. Zincoxide-eugenol impression paste: A. Can not be used in areas with undercuts

A. Can not be used in areas with undercuts

704. Rhomboid glossitis is: A. Candidal infection

A. Candidal infection Was thought to be developmental defect due to failure of tuberculum impar to descend

189. Overdentures are best used for, A. Canines and premolars B. Posterior teeth

A. Canines and premolars Explanation Overdentures: -tooth supported --> canine-premolar -implant supported --> 3-4 area advised

964. You have patient with Class II division 2; which of the following is contraindicated: A. Cantilever bridge B. Maryland bridge

A. Cantilever bridge also A in ant area

993. The MOST unfavourable root fracture: A. Cervical third

A. Cervical third

452. A patient is complaining of an open sore on the buccal mucosa. The lesion is painless, ulcerated, has indurated margins, 1.5 cm in diameter, covered by greyish-white exudate, enlarged lymph nodes and tender, negative tuberculin test and positive serology. The diagnosis is:** A. Chancre /Primary lesion of syphilis

A. Chancre /Primary lesion of syphilis +ve STS

308. A child with rampant caries taking medicine with high quantity of sugar; the best way to help preventing caries is, A. Change sugar to sorbitol sweetener B. Report the patient is having expectorant C. Give him the syrup during sleep time D. Give him inverted sugar

A. Change sugar to sorbitol sweetener

933. A patient has been coming to your clinic for several times complaining about soreness under the denture, what would you do: A. Check occlusion of lower buccal cusps

A. Check occlusion of lower buccal cusps

685. Green stain on tooth surface is due to:** A. Chromogenic bacteria

A. Chromogenic bacteria Chromogenic Bacteria: -Penicillium--> Green -Serratia marcescens--> Orange -Bacteroids melaninogenicus --> Black

687. Sinusitis is an indication of: A. Chronic lesion

A. Chronic lesion ?

500. You may suspect poor reaction to bleeding if there is a history of: A. Cirrhosis of liver B. Hypertension

A. Cirrhosis of liver

899. The major cause of mentalis muscle hyperactivity is: A. Class II Division I B. Tongue thrust

A. Class II Division I

3. Before filling a class V abrasion cavity with GIC you should, A. Clean with pumice, rubber cup, water and weak acid B. Dry the cavity thoroughly before doing anything C. Acid itch cavity then dry thoroughly

A. Clean with pumice, rubber cup, water and weak acid Explanation also scraping with actual cavity prep.

650. Steam under pressure sterilisation is the best method to kill microorganisms. How does it work: A. Coagulation of plasma protein B. Dehydration of DNA

A. Coagulation of plasma protein Denaturation.

446. The first thing to do after surgical removal of an impacted 3 molar in the mandible is:** A. Cold application from the outside

A. Cold application from the outside if they mean pt instructions.

682. What is Hutchinsonian triad: A. Combination of Hutchinson's teeth, interstitial keratitis and nerve deafness in children with congenital syphilis

A. Combination of Hutchinson's teeth, interstitial keratitis and nerve deafness in children with congenital syphilis Hutchinson's Triad: 1- Hutchinson's teeth (notched incisors + Mulberry molars) 2- Interstitial keratitis 3- Nerve deafness (C.N. VIII)

975. What is TRUE about Oral mucosal pigmentation;: A. Commonly seen in ethnic groups B. Commonly an amalgam tattoo C. Commonly oral melanoma D. Commonly melanotic naevus

A. Commonly seen in ethnic groups

422. What does CPITN stand for: A. Community Periodontal Index of Treatment needs

A. Community Periodontal Index of Treatment needs also called BPE (basic period. exam.)

177. How do you treat dentine before applying GIC A. Conditioner B. Pumice & water

A. Conditioner Easy

211. Hybrid composite resin is used in posterior teeth because it: A. Contains micro filled B. Better colour matching

A. Contains micro filled High wear resistance & acceptable polish-ability as it incorporates more microfillers & less resin matrix.

157. Prolonged GIC setting time can be achieved by, A. Cool down the slab B. Increase the amount of distilled water

A. Cool down the slab Explanation -Mix first half of powder to liquid to obtain the maximum length of working time. -The reaction is thixotropic -->The viscosity decreases when the shear rate increases. working time. -Also putting the powder (not the liquid) in fridge --> prolong setting time.

753. High copper amalgams are superior if: A. Copper is available for a secondary reaction B. Copper is not available for a secondary reaction C. Copper is burnished D. Copper is fractured E. None of the above

A. Copper is available for a secondary reaction to eliminate Gamma-2 phase

887. What interferes with a maxillary denture in the posterior vestibular fold: A. Coronoid process B. Condyle C. Masseter muscle

A. Coronoid process

640. Herpangina is caused by: A. Coxsackie virus

A. Coxsackie virus

814. The outcome of rapid wax burn out is: A. Cracking of the investment B. Back pressure porosity

A. Cracking of the investment

171. The cause of development of lateral canals is: A. Cracks in Hertwig's epithelial root sheath

A. Cracks in Hertwig's epithelial root sheath Explanation during tooth development

409. All of the following are keratinised EXCEPT of: A. Crevicular epithelium B. Palatal epithelium C. Alveolar mucosa D. Free gingiva E. Attached gingiva

A. Crevicular epithelium Crevicular = sulcular epith. NB: Alveolar mucosa is also non-ker.

956. The roughest surface on cut tooth structure: A. Cross cut fissures at ultra speed

A. Cross cut fissures at ultra speed

430. When the incisive foramen is superimposed over the apex on a radiograph it may be mistaken to be a: A. Cyst B. Cementoma C. Odontoma

A. Cyst or granuloma ( i.e. RL lesion)

23. What is the main function of EDTA in endodontics? A. Decalcification of dentine B. Cleaning debris from root cana

A. Decalcification of dentine Explanation The currently used regime in RC obturation is utilising resin-based SEALER (AH26) which is best used after ETDA 17% irrigation (as a chelating/decalcifying agent) to remove inorganic materials.

721. The tissue response to oral hygiene after periodontal treatment is BEST assessed by: A. Decrease in the tendency to bleed on probing

A. Decrease in the tendency to bleed on probing

714. Periodontitis is usually severe in patients with: A. Defective neutrophils

A. Defective neutrophils Defects in Number (neutropenia & agranulocytosis). Defects in function (adhesion, chemotaxis, phagocytosis,...

995. When preparing a class II cavity, you notice a hard dark brown spot on the adjacent tooth just below the contact point. This is MOST LIKELY A. Demineralised enamel

A. Demineralised enamel

596. Moist heat sterilization is achieved by: A. Denaturation of protein

A. Denaturation of protein Steam under pressure (Autoclave)

910. The best reading on radiographs to diagnose ankylosis in deciduous molars is: A. Density of lamina dura

A. Density of lamina dura

911. What is NOT CHARCTERISTIC of dentinogenesis imperfecta: A. Dentinal tubules are more than usual

A. Dentinal tubules are more than usual

716. Sedation in children can be achieved by: A. Diazepam

A. Diazepam Midazolam If not present in answers --> Diazepam

381. Nitrous Oxide (N2O) is not used alone as a general anaesthetic agent because of:** A. Difficulties in maintaining an adequate O2 concentration B. Adverse affects on liver concentration C. Poor analgesics affects

A. Difficulties in maintaining an adequate O2 concentration

825. In a fixed moveable bridge where should the moveable (non rigid) connectors be placed: A. Distal to anterior retainers B. Mesial to posterior retainers

A. Distal to anterior retainers

184. Wax patterns ARE NOT to be left on the bench for long time because of, A. Distortion B. Lost of elasticity

A. Distortion Easy

554. Splinting the adjacent teeth in fixed bridge is primarily done to: A. Distribute the occlusal load B. Achieve better retention

A. Distribute the occlusal load

936. Elevators are not used in: A. Dividing third lower molar roots

A. Dividing third lower molar roots

585. Gemination is:** A. Division of single tooth, twining B. Fusion of two or more crowns of teeth C. Fusion of two or more roots

A. Division of single tooth, twining one tooth attempted to divide with resultant notched crown

813. Turner's tooth is:** A. Due to infection of primary tooth

A. Due to infection of primary tooth

992. In regard to denture stomatitis: A. Due to overgrowth of some normal commensal of oral cavity

A. Due to overgrowth of some normal commensal of oral cavity Cand. albicans

811. Helical spring is used for: A. Ectopically erupting permanent molars

A. Ectopically erupting permanent molars

706. The beam that goes from cathode to anode consists of: A. Electrons

A. Electrons -ve electron cloud attracted to the +ve (anode)

693. In hairy tongue you will find: A. Elongated filiform papillae

A. Elongated filiform papillae Keratin buildups on filiform papillae Remember! Geographic tongue --> patchy atrophy of filiform papillae

487. Which is the only dental tissue that loses its formative cells as it matures: A. Enamel B. Dentine C. Pulp D. Cementum

A. Enamel

119. The BEST treatment for alveolar abscess: A. Endontic treatment or extraction B. Incision and drainage alone C. Extraction D. Endodontic

A. Endontic treatment or extraction Explanation If I & D through RCT or exo --> correct If it has the word "alone" --> mostly they mean soft tissue incision --> so TAKE A

176. Swelling after RCT is mainly caused by (Being asked as: What is the most frequent cause of pain which occurs several days after obturation?, too): ==comments == is this answer goes to both conditions, i.e. after obturation and after the visits?? === A. Entrapped Bacteria, or the presence of bacteria in the periapical region. B. Underfilling the root canal system C. Overfilled root canal

A. Entrapped Bacteria, or the presence of bacteria in the periapical region. Explanation -If between visits --> A (commonly due to over-instrumentation). -If ass. with swelling immed. after a RCT visit --> NaOCl accident. -If some days after obturation --> C

113. The MOST common carcinoma in the mouth is, A. Epidermoid carcinoma /Squamous Cell Carcinoma/ B. Carcinoma of the lips

A. Epidermoid carcinoma /Squamous Cell Carcinoma/

200. In periodontal membrane, what epithelial cells you can find: A. Epithelial rests of Malaise

A. Epithelial rests of Malaise Explanation Those can initiate Cysts

591. What is characteristic feature seen in pyloric stenosis:** A. Erosion of maxillary central incisors B. Vomiting of undigested food C. Loss of appetite D. Weakness

A. Erosion of maxillary central incisors Pyloric Stenosis --> a condition that may affect GIT (esp. during infancy) and can cause projectile vomit forcefully (digested food) and other problems such as dehydration and salt and fluid imbalances. Pyloric stenosis is a narrowing of the pylorus, the lower part of the stomach through which food and other stomach contents pass to enter the small intestine --> where food is prevented from emptying out of the stomach. ATUALLY IT CAN ONLY CAUSE TOOTH EROSION IF EXTENDED TO THE TIME OF TEETH ERUPTION!

629. How do treat the cause of airway obstruction: A. Extension of the neck B. Flexion of the neck

A. Extension of the neck Head tilt - Chin Lift

174. After replantation of an avulsed tooth 2 ½ hours after incident; the most likely diagnosis is, A. External resorption B. Internal resorption C. Pulp stones

A. External resorption Explanation replacement resorption and ankylosis.

986. Common cause of failure in avulsion replantation: A. External resorptive defects

A. External resorptive defects

18. Which direction does the palatal root of the upper first molar usually curve towards? A. Facial / buccal/ B. Lingual C. Mesial D. Distal

A. Facial / buccal/ Explanation This is why exo movement should be more BUCCALLY to avoid fracturing P root.

413. After prophylactic treatment, you decide to change the flora to a non-acidogenic by changing the diet. How long does it take to achieve this change: A. Few weeks B. Several months or longer

A. Few weeks

219. The commonest cells which are found in periodontal membrane are:** A. Fibroblast B. Epithelial cells C. Erythrocytes D. Vest cells of malaise E. Inflammatory plasma cells and lymphocytes

A. Fibroblast 60-65%

312. With dentin bonding agent, you apply: A. First acid etching to dentine and then bonding agent B. Bonding agent directly to dentine C. Chelating agent (EDTA) and bonding agent

A. First acid etching to dentine and then bonding agent But less etching time compared to Enamel

892. When lateral incisor is lost a patient has Class II Division II type with deep bite. Which of the following is contra indicated: A. Fixed bridge with canine and central incisor as abutment B. Non-rigid connector with central incisor as abutment

A. Fixed bridge with canine and central incisor as abutment

523. A patient presents with caries in many teeth. You will advise that: A. Fluoride toothpaste does not effectively prevent caries and topical fluoride is required.

A. Fluoride toothpaste does not effectively prevent caries and topical fluoride is required. Rampant caries management: -behavioral change -instruction of teeth brushing -diet analysis -OH maintenance -extraction of the carious teeth then temporary restoration -pulp therapy started first if needed

626. Which are non-calcified areas in the child's cranium: A. Fontanelles

A. Fontanelles Remember: Ant. & Post. Fontanelles show delayed closure in Cleido-cranial dysplasia.

247. Which of the following conditions is not classified as a white lesion: A. Fordyce's granules B. Smoker's keratosis C. Leukoplakia D. Lichen planus

A. Fordyce's granules Yellowish granules (ECTOPIC SEBACIOUS GLANDS) on Buccal mucosa, RMA & vermilion border

894. What is the Bilaminar Zone:** A. Formed of, or having, two laminae, or thin plates. Which is the distal attachment of superior hard lateral plate B. A vascular, innervated tissue that plays an important role in allowing the condyle to move foreward

A. Formed of, or having, two laminae, or thin plates. Which is the distal attachment of superior hard lateral plate In TMJ

959. Retention in precision attachment is achieved by: A. Frictional resistance

A. Frictional resistance

201. On applying hypertonic fluid on the dentine, the transmission of fluid through tubules will be: A. From inside to outside B. From outside to inside

A. From inside to outside Hypertonic means highly conc. solution --> tends to attracts fluids.

851. After you have successfully treated an Angle's class II division I malocclusion, the ideal class I incisor relationship has been produced and 14, 24 were extracted. The arches are now well aligned. What molar occlusion will there be at the end of treatment when all spaces are closed: A. Full unit Class II B. ½ unit class II C. Class I D. ½ unit Class III E. Full unit Class II

A. Full unit Class II

131. Reconstructing the occlusal anatomy is based on: A. Functional factors B. Depth of restoration on a tooth C. Necessity to restore normal anatomy

A. Functional factors Explanation Functional & Physiologic factors

678. In full dentures porosity in the most thickest area is due to:** A. Gaseous porosity B. Shrinkage porosity

A. Gaseous porosity

43. Which of the following have a tendency to recur if not treated? A. Giant cell granuloma B. Lipoma C. Fibrous epulis D. Haematoma E. Pulp polyps

A. Giant cell granuloma Explanation Also LIPOMA but less recurrence & rare in oral cavity (tongue is the most common site).

556. What is the relationship of the retentive portion of the partial dentures retainers to the survey line of abutment: A. Gingival /Below/ B. Occlusal /Above/ C. No relation

A. Gingival /Below/

577. Which of the following is the best index to evaluate gingival health: A. Gingival index by Loe and Silness B. Periodontal index C. Periodontal disease index D. OHI-S

A. Gingival index by Loe and Silness Silness-Löe plaque index --> measurement of the state of oral hygiene is based on recording both soft debris and mineralized deposits on teeth (16,12,24,36,32,44). Simplified Oral Hygiene Index (OHI-S) by Greene & Vermilion --> differs from the original OHI (The Oral Hygiene Index) in the number of the tooth surfaces scored (6 rather than 12), the method of selecting the surfaces to be scored, and the scores, which can be obtained. The criteria used for assigning scores to the tooth surfaces are the same as those use for the OHI (The Oral Hygiene Index).

970. A Patient with prosthetic heart valves, with INR value of 3.0; requires surgery, what is your management: A. Give Amoxicillin or Vancomycin and suture carefully B. Stop warfarin, start heparin, carefully suture and give Amoxicillin or Vancomycin C. Stop warfarin, carefully suture and give Amoxicillin or Vancomycin

A. Give Amoxicillin or Vancomycin and suture carefully

252. A diabetic patient with moist skin, moist mouth and weak pulse; what would you do: A. Give glucose B. Administer O2 C. Administer adrenaline D. Inject insulin

A. Give glucose That's HYPOglycemia

572. Glycerine trinitrate given to an angina patient acts by: A. Giving relief of pain by decreasing venous return B. Decreasing blood pressure and causes headache

A. Giving relief of pain by decreasing venous return

580. Cariogenicity of Streptococcus mutans is because of the production of: A. Glucans B. Levans C. Fructans D. Sucrose

A. Glucans

840. Which of the following does not carry a risk of infection from hepatitis B patient: A. HBs Ag antigens B. HBs Ag C. HBe Ag

A. HBs Ag antigens Anti-HBs Ag

734. Black hairy tongue is MOSTLY seen in: A. HIV patient

A. HIV patient

935. Purplish lesions on the buccal mucosa that have been there since birth; the diagnosis is: A. Haemangioma B. Erythema C. Naevus

A. Haemangioma

135. Von Willebrand disease is, A. Haemophilic disease B. Bacterial Endocarditis C. Congenital cardiac disease D. Rheumatic fever

A. Haemophilic disease Explanation It's a bleeding disorder that can also be associated with clotting disorder (due to defect in factor VIIIc).

161. In regard to Gold casting alloys which one is available for bridge A. Hard alloy "Type III" B. Type II C. Type I D. Type IV

A. Hard alloy "Type III" Explanation TypeI: inlays TypeII: onlays TypeIII: Cr/short Br TypeIV: Cr/long Br (extra strength required) + Post/core + RPD.

76. A curette may be inserted to the level of the attached gingiva with minimal trauma to the tissues because of: A. Has a round base B. Is easy to sharpen C. Has rounded cutting edges D. Provides good tactile sensitivity E. Has two cutting edges

A. Has a round base Explanation D is correct for detecting calculus and also for minimizing trauma to pocket wall.

962. Bone is characterised by:** A. Haversian canal around bony canals B. Irregularly arraigned tubulae

A. Haversian canal around bony canals

697. The first thing to do when syncope occurs in apprehensive patient: A. Head should be lowered

A. Head should be lowered -Supine position (except for pregnant women or pulmonary/heart failure). -Legs raised slightly -Head tilt - chin lift

715. Halothane anaesthetic by: A. Hepatotoxic reaction

A. Hepatotoxic reaction Inhalational GA agent causing severe liver damage.

107. A 10 years-old boy presents with small greyish white lesion surrounded by a red halos on the soft palate and tonsillar pillars, small vesicles are found. He hasfever and pain in the ear. The MOST probable diagnosis is? A. Herpangina

A. Herpangina Explanation But fever is rare with Coxsackie Virus

415. A 6 years-old child who has a history of primary herpes simplex has got a recurrent infection. What is the likely cause: A. Herpes labialis

A. Herpes labialis

361. A patient complains of itching and vesicalis on the upper labium (Vermillion region) every year, your diagnosis would be: A. Herpes simplex B. Recurrent ulceration aphthae C. Impetigo

A. Herpes simplex Recurrent herpes labialis, a recurrent infection with HSV-1. PRODROME: itching & tingling 1-2 days before vesicles actually appear.

667. Exfoliative cytology will not help in the diagnosis of: A. Herpes simplex infection

A. Herpes simplex infection

179. A kinematic face bow is used for recording (to locate) A. Hinge movement (position) axis

A. Hinge movement (position) axis Explanation -KINEMATIC FACE BOW --> determine and locate the exact hinge axis points (ACTUAL VALUE/ HINGE AXIS) -Arbitrary Face bow --> locate approximately the hinge axis is (within a range of 5 mm)

654. How do you diagnose trigeminal neuralgia MOST accurately: A. History

A. History Pt. Hx of pain episodes

988. The function of the incisor pin of an articulator: A. Horizontal and vertical overlap

A. Horizontal and vertical overlap

216. In periodontitis, the most common finding is, (Main feature of suprabony pocket) A. Horizontal bone resorption B. Vertical bone resorption C. Angular bone loss

A. Horizontal bone resorption B. Vertical bone resorption Explanation A Horizontal Bone Loss: -common in advanced gen. periodontitis -ass. with suprabony pockets B.Vertical Bone Loss: -most common in periodontitis -ass. with infrabony pockets So the answer depends on the question (needs clarification).

711. The pregnancy enlargement of gingivae is a result of: A. Hormonal disturbance

A. Hormonal disturbance

723. The mode of act of drug may be defined as: A. How it produces its action

A. How it produces its action

822. Which composite is used in load bearing areas:** A. Hybrid composite B. Micro filled composite

A. Hybrid composite

202. Transmission of fluid in dentinal tubules is by: A. Hydrodynamic pressure (Osmotic) B. Mechanical

A. Hydrodynamic pressure (Osmotic)

761. A patient indicates that he takes methyldopa (Aldomet), he is probably being treated for: A. Hypertension B. Angina pectoris C. Myocardial infection

A. Hypertension Alpha adrenergic agonist used as an antihypertensive drug

618. Anhidrotic ectodermal dysplasia is characteristic by:** A. Hypodontia or anodontia

A. Hypodontia or anodontia teeth are conical/pointed (Dracula like)

493. During manual palpation, the mucosa is thin in: I. Midline of the palate II. Mylohyoid region III. Over torus palatinus A. I, II and III B. None of the above C. I and II D. II and III

A. I, II and III

133. When do you finish composite resin restorations: A. Immediately after curing B. After 24 hours C. A week after placement

A. Immediately after curing Explanation GIC --> immediate Amalgam --> in 24 hrs to to polish

156. The most common failure in constructing porcelain to metal is: A. Improper metal framework B. Rapid heating

A. Improper metal framework Explanation Usually leading to thin porcelain or chemical bond defect (metal contamination).

748. The elastic properties of rubber impression materials: A. Improves with time B. Deteriorates with time C. Deteriorates when exposed to temperature D. Improves when exposed to temperature E. None of the above

A. Improves with time

934. What is the difference between arcon and non arcon articulator: A. In arcon the condylar element is in the lower compartment

A. In arcon the condylar element is in the lower compartment

831. Porcelain bonded to metal is strongest: A. In compression B. In tension

A. In compression weakest under tension

227. The palatal pulp horn of maxillary molars is located: A. In the pulpchamber under mesiolingual cusp B. In the pulpchamber opposite the mesio distal fissure of the buccal cusp C. Under the disto lingual cusp

A. In the pulpchamber under mesiolingual cusp

915. Tongue thrust with tongue to lip swallow is seen in: A. Incompetent lips

A. Incompetent lips

777. You can increase the retention of a Maryland bridge by: A. Incorporating mesh work in wax pattern B. Perforation techniques in the metal cast

A. Incorporating mesh work in wax pattern B is for Rochette resin bonded Br

927. LEAST use of blood count: A. Infectious mononuclears

A. Infectious mononuclears

996. When opening the mouth, in TMJ area: A. Initial rotation followed by translation of condyle

A. Initial rotation followed by translation of condyle

65. Which is the right sequence of the histological stages of tooth development? A. Initiation, proliferation, histodifferentiation, morphodifferentiation, mineralization B. Proliferation, initiation, histodifferentiation, morphodifferentiation, mineralization C. Proliferation, morphodifferentiation, histodifferentiation, mineralization D. Initiation, proliferation, morphodifferentiation, histodifferentiation, mineralization

A. Initiation, proliferation, histodifferentiation, morphodifferentiation, mineralization Explanation Refer to my presentation No. 7 (Q. 12)

394. Which of the following is the LEAST to cause toxicity from local anaesthetic injection: A. Injecting in supine position B. Injecting in vascular area C. Injecting without a vasoconstrictor D. Intravenous injections

A. Injecting in supine position

6. The most common cause of failure of the IDN "Inferior Dental Nerve" block is, A. Injecting too low B. Injecting too high

A. Injecting too low Explanation Failure of inferior alveolar nerve block: 1- Anatomical: -accessory nerve supply (MH nerve, cervical cutaneous nerve C1, C2) -variable, variation in course of nerve OR foramen position, -bifid alveolar nerve or mandibular canal 2- Pathological: infection, inflammation, previous surgery; trismus 3- Pharmacological: chronic alcohol abuse, chronic narcotic drug abuse; 4- Psychological: fear, anxiety, apprehension; 5- Poor technique: this is the most common reason for failure. There are three most commonly occurring problems with this technique: -Inadequate mouth opening. -Improper needle placement: a) too low. b) too far forward (laterally) or backward (medially) of the target area (need to insert the needle just medial to the pterygomandibular raphe à depth of 20 to 25 mm) -Haste: Waiting three to five minutes after the injection before starting the procedure.

428. The MOST common place for initiation of gingivitis is: A. Interdental papillae B. The free gingival ridge C. The attached gingiva D. The marginal gingiva

A. Interdental papillae specifically the INTERDENTAL COL (thin & non-ker.)

407. Where is the MOST probable place of bone resorption after a deciduous molar has a pulpal gangrene: A. Interradicular septum B. The periapical area

A. Interradicular septum furcation

41. The MOST common side effects of local anaesthetic are a result of: A. Intravascular injection B. Hypersensitivity

A. Intravascular injection toxicity

625. What would you do if the diastole is elevated: A. Investigate systemic cause

A. Investigate systemic cause Unclear Q ! Diastolic = Bl. pr. when the heart rests between beats (so if high in a pt. who is not diagnosed with hypertension, it might indicate an underlying systemic condition making the pt. as risk of developing hypertension).

451. A 30 years-old male complains of painless swelling in the buccal mucosa. It has been present for about six months. He admits "playing with it". He is concerned because this might represent cancer. The base is narrow; the most likely diagnosis is: A. Irritation fibroma

A. Irritation fibroma

139. What is the most common fracture of Class II amalgam restorations: A. Isthmus because of insufficient depth B. Internal fracture C. Marginal ridge site

A. Isthmus because of insufficient depth Explanation due to: 1-insuffecient material bolk 2-no bevel/roundation of Axiopulpal angle

958. The advantage of using a lingual plate over a lingual bar is: A. It acts as indirect retention

A. It acts as indirect retention to support the periodontally involved teeth to increase the coverage area in case of minimum space from the gingival margin to the floor of the mouth

437. What is TRUE about topical fluoride:** A. It cooperates into plaque and resits acid demineralisation B. Fluoride prophylaxis paste has been clinically proven to be more effective preventing caries

A. It cooperates into plaque and resits acid demineralisation

722. In regard to Metronidazole:** A. It is effective for the treatment of ANUG

A. It is effective for the treatment of ANUG

775. When a probe penetrates between tooth and amalgam: A. It is not always an indication of caries

A. It is not always an indication of caries

598. What is NOT CORRECT in regard to the lingual nerve: A. It is posterior and medial to the inferior alveolar nerve B. It passes close to the mandibular 3 rd C. It may be anaesthetised by the mandibular nerve block molar D. It provides supply to the lingual gingiva E. Supplies anterior 2/3 of the tongue

A. It is posterior and medial to the inferior alveolar nerve -Branch of post. div. of mand. nerve -Also carries fibers from the facial nerve (chorda tympani) supply the taste buds -It lies beneath the lateral pterygoid muscle antero-medial to the inferior alveolar nerve. Relation to Submand. Duct --> LOVE MARRIAGE RELATIONSHIP -posteriorly: ling. Nerve is Lat. to the duct -anteriorly: ling. Nerve is Med. to the duct

673. The definition of Leeway space is: A. It is the difference in mandibular width between teeth C, D, E and 3, 4, 5

A. It is the difference in mandibular width between teeth C, D, E and 3, 4, 5

578. In surveying; calibration of examiners data is important because: A. It reduces the errors in gathered data.

A. It reduces the errors in gathered data.

543. Which is correct in regard to shade selection of crowns: A. It should be selected before starting preparation B. Chroma is the lightness/darkness of colours C. Value is the colour itself D. Hue is the concentration of colours

A. It should be selected before starting preparation -Before eye fatigue (from prep) -Should be 5 sec. glance (if fatigued --> relieve eye by looking at blue surface) B = Value (most important parameter) C = Hue D = Chroma

802. The oral epithelium fuses with the reduced enamel epithelium to form: A. Junctional enamel epithelium

A. Junctional enamel epithelium

864. The cervical finish line of a full veneer crown preparation should be placed: A. Just supragingival whenever is possible B. According to the depth of gingival crevice C. Subgingival to reduce ability of recurrent caries D. At the junction of tooth and amalgam core

A. Just supragingival whenever is possible

419. What is the most important function of periodontal ligament: A. Keep teeth in the socket B. Protect alveolar bone C. Provide nutrition

A. Keep teeth in the socket Shock absorbing function.

155. Rough surface/Porosity of porcelain is a result of: A. Lack of compression B. Sudden high temperature

A. Lack of compression Explanation American Decks

623. What causes a reduce of pulmonary ventilation: A. Laryngeal muscle paralysis B. Air way obstruction

A. Laryngeal muscle paralysis

199. The technique of placing guttapercha cones against the root canal walls providing space for additional guttapercha is termed: A. Lateral Condensation B. One major Gutta Percha point C. Laterally above condensed

A. Lateral Condensation Explanation The most commonly used tech. till now.

969. When the neck of the condyle is fractured; what muscle determines the movement of the superior segment: A. Lateral pterygoid B. Medial pterygoid C. Temporalis D. Mylohyoid

A. Lateral pterygoid

736. When there is a fracture of condyle, the muscle responsible for elevation of condyle is: A. Lateral pterygoid muscle B. Medial pterygoid muscle C. Masseter muscle

A. Lateral pterygoid muscle The one functioning will be the one on the unaffected side --> deviation towards the affected side.

264. In regard to carbide burs; the more number of cutting blades and low speed will result in: A. Less efficient cutting and a smoother surface B. Less efficient cutting and a rougher surface C. More efficient cutting and a smoother surface D. More efficient cutting and a rougher surface

A. Less efficient cutting and a smoother surface finishing burs (10-12 flutes).

928. The FIRST advantage of using 100000 rpm and over rotors is: A. Less vibration on patient

A. Less vibration on patient

242. Keratotic lesion surrounded by cold web like lines /Wickham's Striae/ appears as lace-like network on the buccal mucosa; you diagnosis is** A. Lichen Planus B. Keratosis follicularis C. White sponge nevus

A. Lichen Planus -It is the Clinical pathognomonic feature. -The Histo. pathognomonic feature = dense subepith. T-lymphocytic band

439. What is CORRECT about the Lingual Nerve: A. Lingual nerve is anterior and medial to inferior alveolar nerve

A. Lingual nerve is anterior and medial to inferior alveolar nerve

680. The definition of incompetent lips is: A. Lips can not close in rest position

A. Lips can not close in rest position causes ant. teeth proclination

931. What does contraindicate bridge works: A. Long edentulous span which will lead to damage of abutments

A. Long edentulous span which will lead to damage of abutments

653. When comparing the mesio-distal length of the second deciduous molar with the length of the 2 A. Longer B. Shorter C. Near the same size

A. Longer Longer (meaning wider M-D)

396. The MOST common consequence arising from premature extraction of deciduous molar is: A. Loss of arch length B. Loss of speech sound C. Loss of facial contour

A. Loss of arch length

794. The MOST common consequence arising from premature extraction of deciduous molars is: A. Loss of arch length B. Loss of speech sound C. Loss of facial contour D. Loss of vertical height E. Loss of free way space

A. Loss of arch length

758. Creep in amalgam is the greatest in: A. Low copper lathe cut alloy

A. Low copper lathe cut alloy

881. In regard to connectors on dentures; which of the following is correct: A. Major connector should be as rigid as possible B. Minor connector should engage undercuts

A. Major connector should be as rigid as possible

670. Most congenitally missing teeth are: A. Mandibular 3 rd molar B. Mandibular 2 nd premolars C. Maxillary lateral incisor

A. Mandibular 3 rd molar

602. In regard to third molar surgery: A. Maximum swelling is seen after 24-48 hours B. Prophylactic antibiotic will reduce swelling C. Antibiotic cover is compulsory

A. Maximum swelling is seen after 24-48 hours

868. Zinc oxide impression material: A. May cause irritation to mucosa B. Is a thermoplastic material

A. May cause irritation to mucosa

527. A physician refers a nine years-old boy to you to confirm diagnosis. The boy has a fever of 40°C and coughing. When you focus your light into his eyes he turns away. Intra-orally there are white spots surrounded by red margins. The disease and lesions are: A. Measles and Koplik's spots B. AHGS vesicles

A. Measles and Koplik's spots

306. The incisal guidance on the articulator is the:** A. Mechanical equivalent of horizontal and vertical overlap of upper and lower incisors B. Mechanical equivalent of the compensating curve C. Same as condylar guidance D. Estimated by the equation: Incisal guidance = 1/8 of condylar guidance

A. Mechanical equivalent of horizontal and vertical overlap of upper and lower incisors HANAU Formula --> L = H/8 + 12 is used for adjusting the lateral condylar guidance. In this formula, "H" is the Horizontal Condylar (Protrusive) Inclination and "L" is the calculated lateral Condylar Guidance (Bennett Angle).

566. Sensitivity to hot and cold foods soon after cavity preparation and placement of GIC and composite resin in an upper incisor tooth is due to: A. Mechanical trauma due to cavity preparation B. Chemical C. Heat from GIC settings

A. Mechanical trauma due to cavity preparation

369. Diagnosis of oral candidiasis (candidosis) is BEST confirmed by: A. Microscopic examination of smears B. Biopsy C. Blood count D. Serological exam

A. Microscopic examination of smears Periodic acid-Schiff stain can be used

1019. What is NOT TRUE about gingivitis: A. Mobility

A. Mobility

918. What is TRUE in regard to primary occlusal trauma: A. Mobility is caused by excessive forces on normal periodontal ligame

A. Mobility is caused by excessive forces on normal periodontal ligame 2ry occ. truama --> periodontally weakened teeth

453. An old male presents complaining of having numerous white lesions in the oral cavity within past few days. Prior to this the family physician prescribed chlorite tetracycline for an upper respiratory infection, the patient is taking this antibiotic for the past two weeks; lesions are relatively non-painful, slightly elevated, adhered plaques on the lip mucosa, buccal mucosa and the tongue. MOST LIKELY to be: A. Moniliasis (Which is candidiasis)

A. Moniliasis (Which is candidiasis) Antibiotic Stomatitis (acute atrophic cand.)

660. Paget's disease under microscope shows: A. Mosaic pattern

A. Mosaic pattern area of resorption (osteoclastic activity)with adj. areas of deposition (osteoblastic activity)

53. A 22 years-old woman has acute gingival hypertrophy, spontaneous bleeding from the gingiva and complains of weakness and anorexia. Her blood analysis was as follows: HB=12gm, Neutrophils=90%, Monocytes=1%, Platelets=250000, WBC=100000, Lymphocytes=9%, Eosinophils=0% The most likely diagnosis is: A. Myelogenous leukaemia B. Infectious mononucleosis /glandular fever/ C. Thrombocytopenic purpura D. Gingivitis of local aetiological origin E. Pernicious anaemia /Vitamin B12 deficiency/

A. Myelogenous leukaemia Explanation Types of leukemia: acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL) acute myelogenous leukemia (AML) chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) chronic myeloid leukemia (CML) Acute types more in children & more serious.

420. The periodontal ligament in a tooth without use appears to be: A. Narrow B. Wide

A. Narrow disuse atrophy

99. What are the points that determine the facial line in cephalometric points, (The angle of the convex facial line): A. Nasion, subnasale, pogonion. B. Sella, nasion, pogonion

A. Nasion, subnasale, pogonion. Explanation S = Sella: the midpoint of Sella Turcica N = Nasion: the extreme anterior point on the frontonasal suture SNA = Spina nasalis anterior: extreme anterior point on maxilla SNP = Spina nasalis posterior: extreme posterior point on maxilla Point A: the deepest point in the curvature of the maxillary alveolar process Point B: the deepest point in the curvature of the mandibular alveolar process Pg = Pogonion: the extreme anterior point of the chin Me = Menton: the extreme inferior point of the chin Gn = Gnathion: the midpoint between pogonion and menton Go = Gonion: the midpoint of the mandibular angle between ramus and corpus mandibulae

732. Which of the following is not considered in the estimation of gingival index: A. Nasmyth's membrane

A. Nasmyth's membrane = primary enamel cuticle

371. Ameloblastoma occurs MOST frequently: A. Near the angle of the mandible B. In the maxilla C. At the mandibular symphysis

A. Near the angle of the mandible molar ramus area in 86% of cases

664. A blow to the mandible resulted in deviation to the left on opening; x-rays show unilateral fracture, where would you expect the fracture:** A. Neck of the left condyle B. Neck of the right condyle C. Body of the left condyle D. Body or the right condyle

A. Neck of the left condyle

998. A pulp with multiple microabscesses will cause eventually: A. Necrosis

A. Necrosis

628. What is Recklinghausen disease: A. Neurofibroma B. Necrosis of bone produced by ionizing radiation

A. Neurofibroma

778. Maryland bridges are made of: A. Nickel chrome

A. Nickel chrome

699. What is TRUE about Chrome-Cobalt partial denture: A. No immersion of dentures in hypochlorite

A. No immersion of dentures in hypochlorite

707. In the mouth of new born baby; what sort of bacteria you expect to find: A. None

A. None -1st few hrs (6-10) no MO -then Aerobes -then anaerobes by teeth eruption (6 months)

187. What statement is false: A. Not to survey when making the crown

A. Not to survey when making the crown Explanation ????????

22. What is the main purpose of performing pulp test on a recently traumatised tooth? A. Obtain baseline response B. Obtain accurate indication about pulp vitality

A. Obtain baseline response Explanation For future comparison

163. The first thing to check when patient comes complaining of pain under denture is: A. Occlusion B. Soft tissues changes

A. Occlusion

532. Damage/injury to which nerve causes dilation of pupils: A. Oculomotor B. Ansa cervicalis C. Abducens

A. Oculomotor The oculomotor nerve (C.N. III) controls the constriction of the Pupil and thickening of the lens of the eye.

705. The image of x ray is too pale, the MAIN cause is: A. Old expired film

A. Old expired film Pale image: -Underdeveloping -Expired film

203. Gate theory about pain control is: A. One hypothesis of pain modulation is based upon the inhibitory-excitatory interaction of afferent fibre synapses

A. One hypothesis of pain modulation is based upon the inhibitory-excitatory interaction of afferent fibre synapses Gate Control Pain Theory: -Pain depends on the relative amount of traffic in 2 different sensory pathways which carry the information from the sensing organ to the brain.

999. An endodontic therapy was completed on a tooth with a periapical radiolucency. Marked reduction in size of radiolucency is expected in approximately: A. One year B. 6 months C. 3 months

A. One year first evidence in RL will be at at least 6 months

841. What is the MOST conservative treatment for periodontal disease: A. Oral hygiene, sub-gingival debridement, regular review and maintenance B. Surgery, sub-gingival debridement, regular review and maintenance C. Oral hygiene, sub-gingival debridement

A. Oral hygiene, sub-gingival debridement, regular review and maintenance

615. A 13 years-old boy has enlarged gingivae; gives a history of Dilantin sodium what is you treatment:** A. Oral prophylaxis and gingivoplasty B. Oral prophylaxis, scaling, root planning C. Stop medication

A. Oral prophylaxis and gingivoplasty

587. A raised dot on X ray films is to: A. Orient exposure side B. Differentiate between left and right side C. Dip during developing

A. Orient exposure side And in BW --> it's always posterior.

819. The function of a face bow is to: A. Orient maxilla to TMJ

A. Orient maxilla to TMJ

656. The zygomatic process serves as: A. Origin of masseter muscle B. Origin of temporalis C. Protects parotid gland D. Insertion of lateral pterygoid

A. Origin of masseter muscle and inferior order of zyg. arch

767. Widening of perio membrane can be seen in: A. Osteosarcoma B. Scleroderma

A. Osteosarcoma Loc. widening Also in Chondrosarcoma I am not making up stuff, it was really there..Are you getting goose bumps!

549. The contraction (Gaseous) porosity in inlays is related to:** A. Overheating of the alloy B. Molten gases C. Diameter of the sprue D. Overheating of investment

A. Overheating of the alloy TYPES of POROSITY: -Gas porosity: usually caused either by overheating the alloy or exposing the molten alloy to air. -Shrinkage porosity (most common) occurs when hot molten alloy is not allowed to feed the casting as it cools and shrinks. -Shrinkage porosity: related to sprue size --> Make sure the sprue is at least as heavy as the heaviest section of the casting. Metal shrinks as it solidifies, if additional molten metal is not allowed to fill in, a void will result. If the sprue is too thin, it will solidify before the casting cutting off the supply of molten metal to the still molten inner sections of the casting.

68. Which of the following is a typical consequence of dental crowding, assuming no primary tooth has been lost prematurely? (in this question we take into considration the time of eruption) A. Overlapping of lower incisors B. Palatal displacement of upper canines C. Impaction of 15 and 25 between first premolars and first molars D. Mesial tipping of 16 and 26 E. Rotation of 16 and 26

A. Overlapping of lower incisors Explanation B- canine usually in Buccal displacement C, D & E --> if premature loss of 55 & 65

251. How would you diagnose a periapical abscess: A. Pain on percussion B. Pain when eating hot food C. Pain when eating cold food D. The thickness of periodontal ligament on X-Ray

A. Pain on percussion

275. An advantage of metal-ceramic crowns, compared wit full ceramic crowns for restoring anterior teeth is, A. Palatal reduction may be of minimal thickness B. Overall conservative for tooth structure C. Ability to watch the appearance of adjacent natural teeth D. Less laboratory time

A. Palatal reduction may be of minimal thickness

5. The retention pin in an amalgam restoration should be placed, A. Parallel to the outer wall B. Parallel to the long axis of tooth

A. Parallel to the outer wall Explanation RULE OF "2" ???

713. Pathogenic means: A. Pathological conditions of the disease

A. Pathological conditions of the disease ability to produce disease

24. What is NOT TRUE in relation to the prescription of 5mg or 10mg of diazepam for sedation? A. Patient commonly complain of post operative headache B. An acceptable level of anxiolytic action is obtained when the drug is given one hour preoperatively C. There is a profound amnesic action and no side affects D. Active metabolites can give a level of sedation up to 8 hours post operatively E. As Benzodiazepine the action can be reversed with Flumazepil

A. Patient commonly complain of post operative headache Explanation C is also correct, but not PROFOUND AMNESIA!

974. A patient has painful lesions on her buccal mucosa. Biopsy report shows acantholysis and supra basilare, your diagnosis is: A. Pemphigus vulgaris B. Bulla lichen planus C. Erythema multiform D. Systemic lupus erythematosus

A. Pemphigus vulgaris acantholysis + suprabasilar clefts/bullae + Honey comb appearance IF test

19. What is the common appearance of vertical tooth fracture? A. Perio abscess like appearance B. Displacement of fragments

A. Perio abscess like appearance Explanation J-shaped lesion = endo-perio lesion.

492. The principal factor involved in oral para-function is related to: A. Periods of stress B. Occlusal pre-maturities during mandibular closure

A. Periods of stress Bruxism is mainly related to stress during sleep (REM stage)

9. The most mineralised part of dentine is, A. Peritubular dentine

A. Peritubular dentine Explanation NOT intertubular & NOT interglobular dentine.

759. The surface of enamel rod prisms in permanent teeth is: A. Perpendicular to the outer surface of the tooth B. Parallel to the outer surface of the tooth C. Parallel to enamel contour D. Parallel to enamel-dentine contour

A. Perpendicular to the outer surface of the tooth

1015. Good oral hygiene and fluoridation is LEAST useful in preventing caries of: A. Pit and fissure B. Smooth surface C. Inaccessible areas

A. Pit and fissure

688. The MOST common tumour of the parotid is: A. Pleomorphic adenoma

A. Pleomorphic adenoma Benign with no facial nerve paralysis

468. Which impression material should NOT be kept in water within on hour: (in another paper it was: 30 mins before pouring) A. Polyether B. Condensation silicone C. Polyvinyl silicone

A. Polyether

478. Which of the following is a frequent cause of opaqueness in a porcelain jacket crown: A. Porcelain layer is too thin over the opaque layer. B. Porcelain layer is too thick

A. Porcelain layer is too thin over the opaque layer.

164. The fovea palatini is a landmark to determine the posterior bonds of upper denture in which regard: A. Post dam B. Flanges

A. Post dam

955. Which nerve supplies the upper first molars: A. Posterior and mid superior alveolar nerve:

A. Posterior and mid superior alveolar nerve:

809. Crowding of anterior permanent teeth is directly affected by: A. Premature loss of deciduous molars

A. Premature loss of deciduous molars

237. A Patient with lower denture complaining of paresthesia of the lower lip, the most common cause is, A. Pressure on mental foramen B. Pressure on the genioglossi Mylohyoid muscles

A. Pressure on mental foramen

932. Elasticity of impression material will lead to ideally: A. Prevent distortion when impression is removed out of the mouth

A. Prevent distortion when impression is removed out of the mouth

801. The final deposition of ameloblasts occurs in:** A. Primary enamel cuticle B. Secondary enamel cuticle C. Acquired enamel cuticle D. Cementum

A. Primary enamel cuticle

165. Attrition is, A. Process of normal wear of teeth B. Lost of teeth substance as a result of chemical exposure

A. Process of normal wear of teeth

326. All dental plaques:** A. Produce acid B. Produce caries C. Produce chelation D. Not necessarily produce acid

A. Produce acid but not necessarily produce caries

501. Maxillary central incisor located palatally causes : A. Prolonged stay of primary central incisor B. Supernumerary teeth

A. Prolonged stay of primary central incisor the Question should be --> max. central incisor located palatally is caused by ...

209. Overdenture advantage is,** A. Proprioceptors

A. Proprioceptors Also: - Decrease bone resorption. - Maintain the alveolar bone height

756. Acid conditioning of enamel and eroded dentine: A. Provides an none traumatic, conservative clinical approach to the bonding of restorative material B. Is a traumatic approach to bonding materials C. Is not a safe and simple method of bonding D. Bonding fails to produce a highly significant retention and good marginal integrity and clinical durability E. None of the above

A. Provides an none traumatic, conservative clinical approach to the bonding of restorative material

724. Class III cavity is : A. Proximal cavity slightly gingival to the contact area

A. Proximal cavity slightly gingival to the contact area

204. What is true about Angioneurotic oedema, A. Puffiness around the eyes, oedema of the upper lip with redness and dryness B. Caused by several deep restorations in the anterior teeth C. There is no caries, negative thermal tests, negative percussion and negative response to palpation

A. Puffiness around the eyes, oedema of the upper lip with redness and dryness BUT with NO HOTNESS (no temp. change)

880. What effect do fissure sealants have on caries progression: A. Reduce new caries and hamper the progress of freshly established caries B. Reduce new caries and hamper the progress of existing caries

A. Reduce new caries and hamper the progress of freshly established caries

434. A patient comes with a lactobacillus of more than 100,000 - what is your advice: A. Reduce sugar in diet

A. Reduce sugar in diet this indicate high caries activity

559. In complete dentures, cheek biting is most likely a result of: A. Reduced Overjet of posterior teeth B. Increased vertical dimension C. Teeth have large cusp inclines

A. Reduced Overjet of posterior teeth

205. In melting gold, which part of flame willl you use, A. Reduced zone B. Oxidizing zone

A. Reduced zone The Blue Reducing Zone

548. The advantage of firing porcelain in vacuum:** A. Reduces size of air-bubbles incorporated thus decreasing porosity B. Removes water before firing, increasing the hardness of porcelain C. Significantly lowers firing temperature

A. Reduces size of air-bubbles incorporated thus decreasing porosity

797. As a general practitioner; you decide at an initial appointment that you can not handle a child due to lack of co-operation. Which of the following approaches would seem to be your alternative: A. Refer child to pedodontist B. Send child home until he/she cooperates C. Schedule child for General Anaesthetic session

A. Refer child to pedodontist

1001. To prevent cervical resorption defects following internal bleaching: A. Remove Gutta Percha at least 2mm below CEJ or above the crest of alveolar bone and isolate

A. Remove Gutta Percha at least 2mm below CEJ or above the crest of alveolar bone and isolate

583. In X rays filtration is used to:** A. Remove low energy X rays B. Reduce exposure time C. Reduce size of the beam

A. Remove low energy X rays

412. The advantage of using dental floss over rubber point interdentally: A. Remove plaque and debris in interproximal surfaces B. Polish C. Massage of the interdental papillae D. Aid and recognise subgingivally

A. Remove plaque and debris in interproximal surfaces

62. 8 years old child who has sustained a fracture of maxillary permanent central incisor in which 2mm of the pulp is exposed; presents for treatment three hours after injury. Which of the following should be considered? A. Remove the surface 1-2 mm of pulp tissue and place calcium hydroxide B. Place calcium hydroxide directly on the exposed pulp C. Pulpotomy using formocresol D. Pulpectomy and immediate root filling E. Pulpectomy and apexification

A. Remove the surface 1-2 mm of pulp tissue and place calcium hydroxide Explanation Cvek "partial" pulpotomy using Ca(OH)2 or MTA --> for APEXOGENESIS.

588. What does the fixing solution in developing X rays do: A. Removes unexposed silver halide crystals B. Removes exposed silver halide C. Fixes the developed film

A. Removes unexposed silver halide crystals Fixer contains clearing agent which is sodium/ammonium thiosulfite to remove the underdeveloped/unexposed halide crystals. -Fixing is twice than that of developing -Improper fixation --> brown film (under-fixation).

1006. On examination of a composite restoration you find a dark attain: A. Replace the composite B. Repair with unfilled resin C. Apply topical fluoride at the margin

A. Replace the composite

738. Compared to dental plaster all die stones: A. Require less gauging water B. Require more gauging water C. Require the same quantity of gauging water D. Are beta-hemihydrate E. None of the above

A. Require less gauging water

319. Where do Maryland bridges lose retention often: A. Resin-metal B. Resin enamel C. Resin layer

A. Resin-metal

609. The places for newly erupted mandibular molars are created by: A. Resorption of anterior ramus and apposition posteriorly B. Apposition of alveolar process C. Apposition of inferior boarder of mandible

A. Resorption of anterior ramus and apposition posteriorly

485. During mouth preparation for RPD on tooth adjacent to edentulous area. There is dentine exposure: A. Restoration is required B. Proceed with rest seat preparation and fabrication if involved area is not more than 2mm

A. Restoration is required

21. Following trauma to tooth, the next day there was no response to pulp tests you should? A. Review again later B. Start endodontic treatment C. Extraction of tooth

A. Review again later Explanation Follow up as it can be false negative following trauma.

316. How would you extract 35? A. Rotation B. Lingually C. Labially

A. Rotation Rotation Exo: -upper centrals -lower 2nd premolars -supernumerary teeth

447. A primary molar has relatively un-resorbed roots encompassing the permanent tooth bud. What extraction technique would you use to avoid the inadvertent removal of a developing bicuspid A. Section the tooth vertically and remove each root separately

A. Section the tooth vertically and remove each root separately

130. Which pin system has proven to be the most retentive A. Self tapping threaded pin B. Friction peak pin C. Cemented pin

A. Self tapping threaded pin Explanation Functional & Physiologic factors

313. What is the best way to apply aspiration before injection: A. Short, sharp pressure backwards B. Pressure for 2 to 3 seconds C. Long pressure D. Turning the needle 90° between two aspirations

A. Short, sharp pressure backwards

774. When adhesive is used with a polysulphide impression material: A. Should be thin and dry

A. Should be thin and dry Polusulphide needs special tray and adhesive but to prevent distortion mechanical retention is preferred (unlike other elastomers)

150. When correction preparation for re contouring of occlusal surface is to be applied, grinding only of the adjusted surface: A. Should not be felt flat B. Requires a flat crown C. Requires no contact with adjacent teeth D. Should be felt flat E. None of the above

A. Should not be felt flat

1009. The MOST common occurrence after direct pulp capping is: A. Signs of reversible pulpitis

A. Signs of reversible pulpitis

531. What is TRUE in regard to branchial cyst: A. Situated on the anterior border of ternocleidomastoid muscle

A. Situated on the anterior border of ternocleidomastoid muscle = cervical lymphoepithelial cyst (most common cyst in lateral neck). more in females

621. What is the MOST common consequence of an allergic response to medication: A. Skin rash "dermatitis" with swelling of lips and eyes

A. Skin rash "dermatitis" with swelling of lips and eyes Urticaria or angioedema (Type I)

228. The most characteristic allergic reaction to drugs is, A. Skin rush with swollen of lips and eyes

A. Skin rush with swollen of lips and eyes

181. The contact between artificial and natural teeth in partial dentures: A. Slight touch in the balancing side B. Should not be in touch at all

A. Slight touch in the balancing side in CD --> Bilateral balanced

763. Proximal caries on x-rays appears: A. Smaller than clinically seen B. Larger than clinically seen C. The same

A. Smaller than clinically seen

122. Clinical /Proximal in some papers/ caries on radiographs are seen: A. Smaller than the real one B. Larger than the real one C. The same size

A. Smaller than the real one Explanation usually the clinical caries is larger and deeper than it appears in the x-ray

661. Ameloblastoma on x-rays shows as: A. Soap bubbles

A. Soap bubbles Honey comb

455. How can you differentiate between a benign epithelial tumour and a carcinoma: A. Soft papillomatous mass, not indurated or not fixed /Moves freely/ and pedunculated.

A. Soft papillomatous mass, not indurated or not fixed /Moves freely/ and pedunculated. those are chara. of benign epith tumors (esp. papilloma)

70. Which of the following organisms are pathognomonic of acute necrotic ulcerative gingivitis? A. Spirochaetes and fusobacterium SP B. Spirochaetes and eikenella corrodes C. Polymorphs and lymphocytes D. Actinobacillus actinomycetes comitans oral capnocytophaga E. Porphyromonas gingivalis and prevotella intermedia

A. Spirochaetes and fusobacterium SP

1017. What is the shape of an occlusal rest: A. Spoon shape with rounded margin

A. Spoon shape with rounded margin

727. Alveolar bone resorption is not seen in: A. Steven-Johnson syndrome (Erythema multiforme)

A. Steven-Johnson syndrome (Erythema multiforme)

198. In infected root canals, the two most common micro-organisms are: A. Streptococcus and Staphylococcus

A. Streptococcus and Staphylococcus Explanation Endodontic microbiology: Intact teeth with necrotic pulp: --> strict anaerobes more than 90% of the bacteria Endodontic infections: --> Gram-negative bacteria, especially species of Porphyromonas and Prevotella that are dark (black) pigmented. Failed RCT/persistent infection: --> Enterococcus faecalis In general Endo. Infections have: -Aerobes: Streptococcus & some staphylocossi -Anaerobes: Peptostreptococcus Enterococci (E. faecalis) Bacteroides (Porphyromonas, Prevotella) Actinomyces

717. Which lymph node is involved in carcinoma of the lips: A. Submental node B. Submandibular node

A. Submental node Lower lip SCC metastases initially to submental and submandibular nodes, then jugular lymph nodes. Usually lesions close to midline --> submental LNs first

435. The MOST cariogenic sugar is: A. Sucrose

A. Sucrose

579. A patient is resistant to caries but has a periodontal disease. In this case, sucrose in diet is important because: A. Sucrose is greatly involved in plaque development B. S. mutans produces Levans frictions which are used by periodontal pathogens C. The streptococcus mutans cannot survive with a continual supply of sucrose D. Existing plaque must continue to get sucrose in order to grow

A. Sucrose is greatly involved in plaque development

859. Corrosion and discolouration of amalgam restorations is usually caused by: A. Sulphur oxides B. Oxygen C. Chlorides D. Over trituration

A. Sulphur oxides

694. Which muscle has insertion in the pterygoid raphe:** A. Superior constrictor of the pharynx B. Middle constrictor of the pharynx C. Inferior constrictor of the pharynx

A. Superior constrictor of the pharynx Bucinator and Superior Constrictor muscle

132. How do you prepare the floor of pulp chamber in molars: A. Swab and dry with cotton wool and excavate B. Use round bur to flatten the floor C. Under cut walls D. Use flat end fissure bur to make it levelled

A. Swab and dry with cotton wool and excavate Explanation Critical area ... don't use burs to avoid perforations.

657. Treatment of patient with herpes simplex:** A. Symptomatic treatment and acyclovir B. Idoxuridine

A. Symptomatic treatment and acyclovir Usually symptomatic ttt. only (including analgesics, antipyretic, fluids, bed rest,...)

49. A patient who has been taking quantities of aspirin might show increased post operative bleeding because aspirin inhibits:** A. Synthesis of thromboxane A2 and prevents platelet aggregation B. Synthesis of prostacyclin and prevents platelet aggregation C. Synthesis of prostaglandin and prevents production of blood platelets D. Thrombin and prevents formation of the fibrin network E. Increase the absorption of vitamin K and prevents synthesis of blood clotting factors

A. Synthesis of thromboxane A2 and prevents platelet aggregation Explanation In small doses aspirin inactivates "irreversibly" platelet enzyme cyclooxygenase, hence thromboxane A2 is not synthesised. The effect of enzyme inactivation lasts till the life of platelet (8-10 days), so new platelets required to control bleeding (i.e. if aspirin is to be stopped --> min. 7 days. N.B. Aspirin can affect clotting if taken in high doses.

800. A patient who has lost several teeth in an otherwise healthy mouth, can get: A. TMJ dysfunction B. Changes in the vertical dimension C. Change in the interocclusal dimension

A. TMJ dysfunction

525. Which of the following is true in regard to periapical cementoma: A. Teeth are vital. B. Teeth are not vital

A. Teeth are vital.

367. The most prominent feature of acute apical periodontitis is: A. Tenderness of tooth to pressure B. Extra oral swelling C. Intermittent pain

A. Tenderness of tooth to pressure Also: -ass. tooth is USUALLY non-vital -no swelling nor significant tenderness to palpation of lab./buccal sulcus (unlike acute apical abscess) -no radiog. changes (or widened PMS)

989. Which of the following is an important consideration when deciding whether to design an upper partial denture without anterior flang: A. The amount of labial alveolar bone resorption

A. The amount of labial alveolar bone resorption

149. What is Path of Removal: A. The appliances movement from the rest position to the last contacts of its rigid parts with the supporting teeth B. The movement of the appliance from the points of initial contacts to path of final rest position

A. The appliances movement from the rest position to the last contacts of its rigid parts with the supporting teeth Explanation Easy

168. The most common cause of RCT "Root Canal Treatment" failure is: A. The canal not filled completely (Short obturation) B. Over filled canals

A. The canal not filled completely (Short obturation) Explanation due to: -incomplete debridement -lack of apical seal

745. Dental impression materials are hydrocolloids of: A. The emulsoid type B. The suspension type C. The sol type D. The gel type

A. The emulsoid type Text Book of Dental Materials (page 70)

677. Healthy dental pulps respond to injury by: A. The formation of reparative dentine at the pulpal surface corresponding to area of irritation

A. The formation of reparative dentine at the pulpal surface corresponding to area of irritation Tertiary dentin (reparative dentin or sclerotic dentin) - pathologic

861. What is the reason that a pulp calcifies after trauma: A. The intensity of the blow was too low to cause pulp death

A. The intensity of the blow was too low to cause pulp death

86. The main factor controlling a decision to increase the occlusal height of teeth for extensive oral reconstruction is whether, A. The inter occlusal distance will be physiologically acceptable after treatment B. There will be sufficient tooth bulk in the abutment teeth for proper retention of the crowns C. At least two third of the original alveolar process will remain for adequate periodontal support D. The aesthetic appearance of the patient will improve sufficiently to warrant the planned reconstruction

A. The inter occlusal distance will be physiologically acceptable after treatment Explanation Zarb prosthodontics

4. Which of the following statement about the defective margins of amalgam restorations is true? A. The larger the breakdown, the greater the chance of decay.

A. The larger the breakdown, the greater the chance of decay. Explanation the larger the gap between the restoration and the tooth, the more the chance for rec. decay --> replace don't repair.

852. The tensile nodes are located at: A. The mandible angle B. The jugular-digastric interaction C. Mylohyoideus intersection D. Internal carotid level

A. The mandible angle Tonsillar LNs

391. Chronic inflammatory periodontal diseases originate in: A. The marginal gingiva B. The crystal alveolar bone C. The cervical cementum

A. The marginal gingiva Plaque induced gingivitis --> periodontitis

298. The elastic limit may be defined as the **, A. The maximum stress under tension that can be induced without failure B. The maximum elongation under tension that can be measured before failure C. The minimum stress required to induce permanent deformation of a structure D. Minimum stress in structure E. Maximum strain that can be measured.

A. The maximum stress under tension that can be induced without failure Elastic limit (Yield Point): the maximum amount of stress a material can feel and still recover to its original shape (without permanent deformation

347. Upper first premolar with MO cavity; what is important about the application of the matrix band (the question has also shown too as ....What is complicated by): A. The mesial concavity of the root surface B. Small lingual pulp C. High buccal pulp horn D. High lingual pulp horn E. Concavity of distal root surface

A. The mesial concavity of the root surface Double wedging between (H&V)

182. Polyvinyl impression material are, A. The most stable B. The most resistant to heat

A. The most stable Explanation followed by Polyether

148. What is Path of Insertion A. The movement of the appliance from the points of initial contacts to path of final rest position B. The movement of the appliance from the points of rest position until it is not in contact with teeth

A. The movement of the appliance from the points of initial contacts to path of final rest position Explanation Easy

206. To increase the stability of the lower denture, A. The occlusal plane should be below the tongue B. The occlusal plane should be above the tongue C. The lingual flanges should be concave

A. The occlusal plane should be below the tongue Tongue just above occ. plane

710. To obtain the MOST accurate X rays of teeth; the tooth film distance should be as close as anatomical restriction will permit. What is TRUE in this regard: A. The paralleling technique favours the bisecting technique.

A. The paralleling technique favours the bisecting technique.

533. After an inferior alveolar nerve block the patient develops paralysis of eyelid, upper lip and lower lip on that side. This means that the L.A was deposited in: A. The parotid gland

A. The parotid gland

295. Which one of the following statement is correct, A. The remnants of Ameloblast contribute to the primary enamel cuticle B. the last secretion of the odontoblast is cementum X C. The last secretion of the ameloblast is the acquired of enamel cuticle D. The remnants of odontoblast form the primary enamel cuticle

A. The remnants of Ameloblast contribute to the primary enamel cuticle Q. 96 for details

718. Which of the following could cause the overall cellular damage to be greater: A. The specified dose delivered all at once B. The same fatal dose given in divided smaller doses over a period of time

A. The specified dose delivered all at once That's concerning radiation

752. The less mercury remaining in condensed amalgam: A. The stronger the restoration which contains fewer matrix alloys and fewer voids B. The weaker the restoration C. The more matrix alloys D. The more voids E. None of the above

A. The stronger the restoration which contains fewer matrix alloys and fewer voids

885. In regard to marginal leakage in amalgam: A. The wider the gap the better the chance of secondary caries B. Seal the margin with fissure sealant would prevent further breakdown C. Secondary caries may develop

A. The wider the gap the better the chance of secondary caries Also C is correct

652. Why are streptococci resistant to penicillin:** A. They produce penicillinase.

A. They produce penicillinase. -Which is a type of Beta-lactamase. -Augmentin has Clavulanate which is a Beta-lactamase INHIBITOR.

416. A newly placed restoration interferes with occlusion. What will be the periodontal response: A. Thickening of the periodontal membrane

A. Thickening of the periodontal membrane

214. Where do you use the floss as a guide to the rubber dam: A. Through the contacts.

A. Through the contacts. To minimized leakage. N.B. wedgets are used to retain RD

186. When surveying: A. Tilt the cast

A. Tilt the cast tripodization??????????? Survey hints

474. Why would you cast gold in hot mould:** A. To compensate for the expansion of investment.

A. To compensate for the expansion of investmen

190. What is the main reason of ordering another periapical radiograph of the same tooth: A. To disclose the other roots B. To observe tooth from different angle

A. To disclose the other roots Explanation to see what you couldn't see yet you need to see!

919. In advanced periodontitis with marked mobility; teeth should be splinted: A. To improve comfort and function

A. To improve comfort and function

865. Why do you itch enamel for composite restorations: A. To increase surface area B. To decrease surface area C. Does not really change the surface area D. Increase the chemical bonding capability E. Decrease the chemical bonding capability

A. To increase surface area

829. What is the function of flux: A. To protect alloy from oxidation, and distribute metallic oxides as they are formed

A. To protect alloy from oxidation, and distribute metallic oxides as they are formed

812. The function of varnish: A. To reduce initial marginal leakage "Short-term leakage" B. To prevent long term leakage

A. To reduce initial marginal leakage "Short-term leakage

712. Why do you give atropine in general:** A. To reduce the salivary secretion

A. To reduce the salivary secretion It is muscarinic acetylcholine receptor antagonist. It affects the parasympathetic nerve supply to exocrine glands

708. The transmission of RNA into DNA called: A. Transcription

A. Transcription

896. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate related to hardness: A. Tungsten carbide>Porcelain>Human enamel>acrylic B. Porcelain>Enamel>Tungsten carbide>amalgam>acrylic C. Porcelain>Enamel>Tungsten Carbide>Amalgam>Acrylic

A. Tungsten carbide>Porcelain>Human enamel>acrylic

901. To increase the setting time of phosphate cements you would: A. Use a cold glass slab

A. Use a cold glass slab

909. The best method to radiate a specific area of the head is: A. Use lead collimator

A. Use lead collimator

193. To minimize the load on a free-end saddle partial denture: A. Use teeth with narrow Buccal-Lingual dimension B. Use mucco-compressive impression

A. Use teeth with narrow Buccal-Lingual dimension Explanation And to minimize tipping forces on abutment tooth (RPD): -maximize tissue support -use stress breaker

675. Which vitamin is not produced and stored in organisms: A. Vitamin C

A. Vitamin C Ascorbic acid

641. The main vitamin to synthesis prothrombin is: A. Vitamin K

A. Vitamin K

224. A child with a fracture of a tooth at the apical third of the root, what would be your first decision: A. Wait and recall after one month and observe for any necrotic or radiolucency B. Root canal treatment C. Extraction D. Apiectomy

A. Wait and recall after one month and observe for any necrotic or radiolucency apical 1/3 fracture usually requires no ttt.

265. For an onlay preparation, which of the following is the MOST EFFECTIVE means for verifying adequate occlusal clearance A. Wax bite chew in B. Proper depth cuts C. Visual inspection D. Articulating paper

A. Wax bite chew in SHILLINBURG

354. In regard to partial dentures, how do you establish reliable vertical dimension, A. Wax if the remaining teeth occlude

A. Wax if the remaining teeth occlude as long as there are posterior stoppers

208. What is the DISADVANTAGE of gypsum dies:** A. Weak edge strength and lack of surface details B. Dimensional inaccuracy

A. Weak edge strength and lack of surface details

20. Which of the following would be ONE possible indication for indirect pulp capping? A. Where any further excavation of dentine would result in pulp exposure. B. Removal of caries has exposed the pulp C. When carious lesion has just penetrated DEJ

A. Where any further excavation of dentine would result in pulp exposure. Explanation B may indicate DIRECT pulp capping.

784. What indicates for a periapical surgery: A. Where performing an endodontic treatment on existing root canal filling may lead to fracture of the root B. When root canal treatment is faulty C. When there is danger of involving other structures D. When the bony defect is so extensive that the edges of the incisors will collapse E. None of the above

A. Where performing an endodontic treatment on existing root canal filling however it's not indicated anymore

322. In regard to distal free end saddles; what is TRUE: A. Will require relining more often than a denture supported with teeth

A. Will require relining more often than a denture supported with teeth due to more bone resorption in alveolar ridges

939. A patient comes to you complaining of pain in a tooth, the tooth was filled with composite long time ago; what would you do: A. X ray, remove filling and restore with temporary filling

A. X ray, remove filling and restore with temporary filling

475. If temporary cementation is required, which cement will you use: A. ZOE B. Zinc Polycarboxylate C. GIC

A. ZOE Avoid it if the final cement will be resin (Eugenol interfers with its polymer.)

938. How would you treat hyperaemia (hyperaemic tooth):** A. Zinc Oxide and eugenol cement B. Calcium hydroxide C. Corticosteroid paste

A. Zinc Oxide and eugenol cement

328. Which material is not compatible with composite resin: A. Zinc Oxide eugenol (ZOE) B. Ca(OH)2 C. Carboxylate D. Zinc phosphate cement

A. Zinc Oxide eugenol (ZOE)

16. What is the sequence from superficial to the deepest in dentine caries? A. Zone of bacterial penetration, demineralisation, sclerosis, reparative dentine B. Zone of bacterial penetration, reparative dentine, demineralisation, sclerosis. C. Zone of bacterial penetration, sclerosis, reparative dentine, demineralisation.

A. Zone of bacterial penetration, demineralisation, sclerosis, reparative dentine Explanation Zones of Dentine Caries (from superficial to deep): Decomposed dentine (V) Bacterial penetration (IV) Demineralisation (III) Dentinal sclerosis (II) Fatty degeneration (I) --> Reparative dentine (in pulp)

16. What is the sequence from superficial to the deepest in dentine caries? A. Zone of bacterial penetration, demineralisation, sclerosis, reparative dentine B. Zone of bacterial penetration, reparative dentine, demineralisation, sclerosis. C. Zone of bacterial penetration, sclerosis, reparative dentine, demineralisation.

A. Zone of bacterial penetration, demineralisation, sclerosis, reparative dentine Explanation Zones of Dentine Caries (from superficial to deep): Decomposed dentine (V) Bacterial penetration (IV) Demineralisation (III) Dentinal sclerosis (II) Fatty degeneration (I) --> Reparative dentine (in pulp)

167. Tissue conditioning materials: (Silicon lining materials) A. are more resilient than plastic acrylic B. can minimise any bacterial colonies

A. are more resilient than plastic acrylic Explanation no antibacterial action, actually can provide a medium for candidal overgrowth

87. In planning and construction of a cast metal partial denture the study cast, A. facilitate the construction of custom/special trays B. minimize the need for articulating C. provide only limited information about inter ridge distance, which is best assessed clinically D. can be used as a working cast when duplicating facilities are not available

A. facilitate the construction of custom/special trays Explanation Zarb prosthodontics

348. Etching techniques are used always to: A. minimise the leakage of restorations B. for aesthetic considerations

A. minimise the leakage of restorations

274. The main factor controlling a decision to increase the occlusal height of teeth for extensive oral reconstruction is whether, A. the inter occlusal distance will be physiologically acceptable after treatment B. there will be sufficient tooth bulk in the abutment teeth for proper retention of the crowns C. at least two third of the original alveolar process will remain for adequate periodontal support D. the aesthetic appearance of the patient will improve sufficiently to warrant the planned reconstruction

A. the inter occlusal distance will be physiologically acceptable after treatment

983. The role of Guided Tissue Regeneration (GTR) is: A. to prevent apical migration of junctional epithelium B. to allow the growth of connective tissue in contact with surface

A. to prevent apical migration of junctional epithelium preven apical migration of the rapid epith cells, prevent CT cells of ging from populating the perio defect & GIVE CHANCE BFOR THE CT CELLS OF PDL.

808. A tooth is expected to erupt when root development is: A. ¾ of its full development

A. ¾ of its full development 2/3 to 3/4 root

700. Patient with eruption cyst; your treatment would be: A.Observation, mostly it bursts spontaneously

A.Observation, mostly it bursts spontaneously a type of dentigerous cyst but not preventing tooth eruption, however might delay the eruption (here requires surgical deroofing)

639. In which condition do you have to prescribe antibiotics prior to dental treatment: A. Rheumatic fever B. Sub-acute bacterial endocarditis C. By pass D. Valve replacement E. Uncontrolled diabetes F. All of the above

AB prophy : -Hx of infective endocarditis -Prosthetic valves -Rheum. Fever in indig. Austr. -Untreated cardiac defects or those treated with remaining questionables -Tetralogy of Fallot -Immunocomp. pt. (e.g. uncontr. DM)

796. Essential for the diagnosis and treatment plan of orthodontics is: A. Classification B. X rays C. Plaster models

ALL of the above if not available --> X-rays > Models > Classification

221. What DOES NOT prevent the calculus formation: A. Mastication B. Tooth shape C. Tooth inclination and crowding D. Salivary flow E. Oral flora

Actually ALL of those do not prevent calculus formation (esp. BCDE, as they actually take part in calculus formation). If the Questions is "Which of the following can prevent calculus formation" --> It is "A"

229. Antibiotic prophylaxis should be used for patient with, A. Diabetics B. Rheumatic fever

Actually shouldn't be used with any of those unless: -DM uncontrolled (for infection prophy) -Rheum. fever in ingig. Australians (for inf. endocarditis prophy). There should be a correct option as mentioned above or other correct options.

668. Treatment of Anaphylactic shock: A. Adrenalin 1mg IV

Adr. 0.3-0.5 mg IM ( NOT IV)

399. When injecting without vasoconstrictor, the maximum safe dose of 2% lignocaine solution for 70Kg adult is:** A. 2.2 ml B. 22 ml C. 30 ml

All answers are wrong for some reason apparently 2% Ligno (WITH VC) --> 7 mg/kg 2% Ligno (WITHOUT VC) --> 4 mg/kg SO: 4 mg X 70 Kg = 280 mg (max.) 2% = 20 mg/ml, So 2.2 ml (cartirdge volume) contains 44 mg Ligno. * 280/44 = 6.36 cartridges (max) * 6.36 X 2.2 ml = 14-15 ml MAXIMUM

226. Electrical pulp testing is least useful in /or 'does not detect vitality' in some papers/ , A. Traumatised teeth B. Just erupted teeth C. Multi-rooted teeth D. Capped teeth E. Necrotic pulp

Also in multirooted teeth.

733. When examining intra orally between the side of the tongue and the lateral border of the mandible, you expect to: A. Palpate the lymph nodes B. Palpate the borders of the tongue

Apparently the question is not clear :* LNs are not palpated Introrally. This description is more close to the SUBMAND. S.Gs. palpation

218. The normal range of gingival depth "Epithelial attachment" in healthy mouth is: A. 1-2 mm B. 0-3 mm C. 2-3 mm D. 0-5 mm

B. 0-3 mm In healthy individual: -Histologic sulcus depth = 1.8 mm -Probing depth = 2-3 mm -sulcus depth generally ranges 0-3 mm Junc. epith. attachment = 0.97 mm C.T. attachment = 1.07 mm

141. The setting expansion of casting investment is approximately A. 0 to 0.1% B. 0.1 to 0.5% C. 0.5 to 1% D. 1.1 to 1.6%

B. 0.1 to 0.5% American Decks

25. Which of the following is TRUE in regard to high risk patient? A. 0.1ml of blood from Hepatitis B carrier is less infective than 0.1ml of blood from HIV patient B. 0.1ml of blood from Hepatitis B carrier is more infective than 0.1ml of blood from HIV patient C. Level of virus are similar in the blood and saliva of HIV patient D. Level of virus in the saliva is not significant for Hepatitis B patient E. The presence of Hepatitis B core Antigen in the blood means that active disease is not present

B. 0.1ml of blood from Hepatitis B carrier is more infective than 0.1ml of blood from Explanation D is also true, but HERE IT'S LESS IMPORTANT

544. How many mg of fluoride ions are obtained from 2.2 mg tablet of NaF A. 0.5mg B. 1 mg C. 1.5mg D. 10mg

B. 1 mg NaF tablets: = 0.25 mg Fluoride from 0.55 mg Sodium Fluoride. = 0.5 mg Fluoride from 1.1 mg Sodium Fluoride. = 1 mg Fluoride from 2.2 mg Sodium Fluoride.

57. The inverse Square Law is concerned with intensity of radiation using type D film of 200mm target to film distance, the exposure time was 0.25s. What would be the exposure for the same situation with 400mm target to film distance? A. 0.5s B. 1.0s C. 2.0s D. 0.25s E. 0.125s

B. 1.0s Explanation Inverse square law: I1/I2 = D22/D12 -If you double the distance of the target --> exposure = X4 -If you triple the distance of the target --> exposure = X9

828. What is the minimal labial reduction for porcelain metal crowns: A. 1mm B. 1.5mm C. 0.5mm

B. 1.5mm

318. What the maximum dose of 2% lignocaine without vasoconstrictors:** A. 5 ml B. 10 ml C. 50 ml D. 100 ml

B. 10 ml 5 cartridges

691. A young patient has all incisors, some premolars and some canines erupted but no 2 nd molars are showing: What is his age? A. 8 years B. 11 years C. 13 years D. 14 years

B. 11 years

261. When restoring weakened cusps with dental amalgam you should consider: A. 2mm reduction while forming a flattened surface B. 2mm reduction while following the original contour of the cusps C. 4mm reduction while forming a flattened surface D. 4mm reduction while following the original contour of the surface

B. 2mm reduction while following the original contour of the cusps

897. How much would you reduce a cusp to be replaced with amalgam onlay: A. 2 mm to achieve a good retention form B. 2mm to achieve a good resistance form C. 1mm

B. 2mm to achieve a good resistance form

622. How many times do you breath in mouth to mouth resuscitation: A. 10-12 times a minute B. 4-6 times a minute

B. 4-6 times a minute 30 comp. : 2 breaths aiming for: -60-100 COMPRESSIONS/MIN -NO MORE THAN 8 BREATHS/MIN

984. The critical plaque PH is: A. 6 B. 5.5 C. 4 D. 4.5

B. 5.5

334. Which of the following statement is correct for a periodontal disease:** A. The finger pressure is enough for mobility diagnosis B. A communicable disease C. X ray after intra alveolar surgery is sufficient for diagnosis healing D. Systemic diseases have no effects on it E. ZoE paste will accelerate healing

B. A communicable disease Not very sure, but Only D can be correct. However I beleive "E" says ZnO/E pack will NOT accelerate the healing ---> if that's the case, then E is the answer.

561. Ala-Tragal line is:** A. The line running from the tragus of the nose to ala of the ear B. A guide used to orient the occlusal plane C. Parallel to Frankfurt horizontal plane D. A guide to the occluding face height in complete denture.

B. A guide used to orient the occlusal plane for upper teeth

296. In regard to the glass of quartz particles of filling restorative resin; the microfill resins tend to have, A. A higher coefficient of thermal expansion and a higher crashing strength B. A higher coefficient of thermal expansion and a lower crashing strength C. A lower coefficient of thermal expansion and a higher crashing strength D. A lower coefficient of thermal expansion and a lower crashing strength

B. A higher coefficient of thermal expansion and a lower crashing strength Also: -lower modulus -more flow/wetting -less fracture strength -less physical properties (strength) -better optical properties -don't use in stress bearing areas

90. Jaw relation of an edentulous patient has been established. The maxillary cast has been mounted on an articulator without a face bow. You decide to increase the occlusal vertical dimension by 4mm this will necessitate, A. Opening the articulator 4mm B. A new centric relation to be recorded C. A change in the condylar guide settings D. An increase in the rest vertical dimension

B. A new centric relation to be recorded Explanation A correct if face bow is used. Zarb prosthodontics

741. Fusion temperature of impression compound should occur: A. Below mouth temperature B. Above mouth temperature C. As of the skin temperature D. At the room temperature E. None of the above

B. Above mouth temperature

634. Oral mucosa and skin pigmentation occurs in patient with:** A. Diabetes mellitus B. Addison's disease C. Multiple myeloma D. Squamous cell carcinoma E. Bright's disease F. Cushing's disease

B. Addison's disease "PRIMARY ADRENALINSUFFECIENCY" = ADDISON'S DISEASE: due to Increased ACTH --> Increase MSH

695. Which micro-organisms in periapical lesion would you find microscopically: A. Aerobes B. Aerobes to mainly anaerobes

B. Aerobes to mainly anaerobes Mainly ANAEROBES

454. Characteristic of Squamous Cell Carcinoma:** A. White skinned people B. Alcoholic and smokers C. It reacts far simply to radiotherapy

B. Alcoholic and smokers commonest causative factors A --> basal cell car.

771. At the age of four years, the x rays reveal calcification of: A. All deciduous and first permanent molars B. All permanent except of 3 rd molars C. All deciduous D. All permanent

B. All permanent except of 3 rd molars Check my SBQ no. 7

10. A 45 years-old patient awoke with swollen face, puffiness around the eyes, and oedema of the upper lip with redness and dryness. When he went to bed he had no swelling, pain or dental complaints. Examination shows several deep silicate restorations in the anterior teeth but examination is negative for caries, thermal tests, percussion, palpation, pain, and periapical area of ramififaction. The patient's temperature is normal. The day before he had a series of gastrointestinal x-rays at the local hospital and was given a clean bill of health. The condition is: A. Acute periapical abscess B. Angioneurotic oedema C. Infectious mononucleosis D. Acute maxillary sinusitis E. Acute apical periodontitis

B. Angioneurotic oedema Angioedma (Type I Allergy) reaction to contrast media.

81. Biopsy is least useful in the diagnosis of, A. Geographic tongue B. Aphthous ulcer C. Cysts D. Granuloma E. Myeloma

B. Aphthous ulcer Explanation least useful in RAU Can be useful in Geographic tongue.

875. In a vital pulp therapy, what is the optimum depth for a pin hole in a tooth: A. 4-5mm B. Approximately 2mm C. Less than 2mm D. 1-1.5mm

B. Approximately 2mm

42. Which one of the following is true about oral hairy leukoplakia? A. Associated with HIV virus infection and is commonly seen on the dorsal of the tongue B. Associated with HIV virus infection and is commonly seen on the lateral side of the tongue C. Usually caused by Candida species D. Always associated with trauma to the lateral side of the tongue E. Always associated with pernicious anaemia

B. Associated with HIV virus infection and is commonly seen on the lateral side of the tongue Explanation Caused by EBV Histo.: KOILOCYTES

154. In partial dentures the guidelines "Guiding Planes" serve to: A. Aid in balancing occlusion B. Assure predictable clasp retention C. Form right angle with the occlusal plane D. Eliminate the necessity for precision attachment E. Eliminate the necessity for a posterior clasp

B. Assure predictable clasp retention Explanation Guide removal and insertion of the clasp

855. The fixing time for dental x ray should be: A. 5 minutes at 20ºC B. At least 10 minutes C. Until it clears up D. 2 minutes at 40ºC

B. At least 10 minutes

459. Where does the bone resorption show in a pulp necrosis of a deciduous molar: A. At the root apex B. At the bifurcation C. On the buccal side of the tooth D. On the lingual side of the tooth

B. At the bifurcation

582. Collimation is done to: A. Reduce the size of the beam, so it is easy to visualise the central X ray. B. Avoid unnecessary exposure to radiation of surrounding tissues of the patient

B. Avoid unnecessary exposure to radiation of surrounding tissues of the patient

362. What is the typical feature of Lichen planus:** A. Smooth rete pegs B. Band of lymphocytes inflammation and hyper parakeratosis C. Immunofluorescence of liquefied layer

B. Band of lymphocytes inflammation and hyper parakeratosis Clinical --> Wickham's striae Hist. --> -subepith. T-lymphocytic infiltration -haperkeratosis -saw-tooth rete pegs appearance

798. The most common reason to refer a child to a pedodontist is problems with: A. Rampant caries B. Behaviour management C. Endodontic treatments in primary teeth D. Space maintainers

B. Behaviour management

948. A vital tooth has a crown cemented to a pin-retained amalgam core; where does a failure occur: A. Between crown and cement B. Between core and cement C. In the crown and the root D. In the core and the margin preparation

B. Between core and cement

1010. When should metallic framework not be contaminated during the fabrication of a porcelain fused to metal crown: A. Between bisque stage and glazing stage B. Between preheat and opaque stages C. Between opaque and bisque stages D. Between one opaque and two opaque stages

B. Between preheat and opaque stages

903. Which of the following procedures will not achieve sterilization: A. Hot air at 160ºC for 90mins B. Boiling water at 100ºC for 2 hours C. Autoclave at 121ºC under 15psi for 20 mins D. Dry heat at 177ºC for 60mins E. All of the above will achieve sterilisation

B. Boiling water at 100ºC for 2 hours

188. A Gold clasp is more elastic than Cobalt Chrome, but Co-Chrome has high modulus of elasticity. A. The first statement is false the second is true B. Both are true C. The first is true the second is false D. Both are false

B. Both are true Explanation Cobalt Chrome is more RIGID (high modulus of elasticity).

254. In which direction you would extract a deciduous upper molar: A. Rotation B. Buccally C. Lingually

B. Buccally

429. Which is the MOST common local factor in the aetiology of periodontal disease: A. Occlusal trauma B. Calculus C. Brushing habits D. Coarse food

B. Calculus

392. Which is the most important local factor in the aetiology of periodontal disease: A. Occlusal trauma B. Calculus C. Brushing habits D. Coarse food

B. Calculus important plaque-retentive factor

481. A gingivally extended chrome cobalt cast clasp: A. Can extend 0.5 under the surveyor line B. Can extend 0.25 under the surveyor line C. Will resist deforming forces better compared to cast gold

B. Can extend 0.25 under the surveyor line

961. What is characteristic of fibrotic gingivitis: A. Is phenytoin induced gingivitis and only seen on intra lateral papilla B. Can only be treated surgically

B. Can only be treated surgically

350. Long use of Tetracycline is characterised by:** A. Agranulocytosis B. Candida Albicans

B. Candida Albicans acute atrophic cand. (AB stomatitis)

330. Which drug is specific for Trigeminal Neuralgia: A. Diazepam B. Carbamazepine (Tegretol) C. Ergotamine D. Phenytoin

B. Carbamazepine (Tegretol)

610. A patient comes with a firm, painless swelling of lower lobe of parotid which has grown progressively for the past year. He complains of paresthesia for the past 2 weeks. This is most likely to be: A. Pleomorphic adenoma B. Carcinoma of the parotid C. Lymphoma of parotid

B. Carcinoma of the parotid usually Adenoid cystic or mucoepideroid carcinoma

850. Formcresol fixation is used in deciduous dentition in: A. Necrotic pulp B. Carious exposure C. Mechanical exposure D. Periapical disease

B. Carious exposure

365. The most serious complications which may occur from abscess of max canine is: A. Cellulitis B. Cavernous sinus thrombosis C. Lacrimal duct stenosis D. Damage to infra orbital nerves

B. Cavernous sinus thrombosis THROUGH INFRAORBITAL VEIN OR INFERIOR OPHTHALMIC VEIN. Can also be caused by upper first premolar infection.

846. Which one of the following is an expansile lesion of the jaw bone:** A. Odontogenic keratocyst B. Central haemangioma C. Radicular cyst D. Osteomyelitis

B. Central haemangioma

127. In regard to Electrical Vitalometer: A. To test recently erupted teeth B. Check response for an electrical stimulant C. Reveal potential necrosis

B. Check response for an electrical stimulant Explanation EPT

473. The sterilisation of Gutta Percha is achieved by: A. Heat B. Chemical sterilisation C. Flame D. Boiling E. Autoclave

B. Chemical sterilisation Sodium hypochlorite

669. The treatment of angioneurotic oedema: A. Anti histamine 10mg IV B. Chlorphenamine maleate as Piriton by Allen C. Hydrochloride 25 mg IM D. Corticosteroid drugs or with adrenaline.

B. Chlorphenamine maleate as Piriton by Allen Pirition (Chlorphenamine) is an oral antihistamine medication. ttt. of Angioedema: -Antihistamine (mainstay ttt.) & corticosteroid orally -Adr. may be considered in severe cases (laryngeal --> fatal)

593. The papillae that are few in numbers, associated with MOST taste buds, associated with Von Ebner's glands are:** A. Fungiform B. Circumvallate C. Foliate D. Filiform

B. Circumvallate Tongue Papillae: 1) Filiform Papillae : -Slender C.T. papillae with heavily keratinized epith. & carry no taste buds. -Concentration " 500/cm3 (more concentrated in center). -Function primarily to convey food distally. 2) Fungiform Papillae : -Mushroom-shaped with rich capillary network (found only on ant. 2/3 of tongue). -Appear as Red Dots scattered bet. the numerous filiform papillae. -More concentrated on the tip & carry taste buds. 3) Circumvallate Papillae : -V-shaped row of 10-12 papillae at junction of ant. 2/3 & post. 1/3 of the tongue. -Non-keratinized & contain large number of taste buds ass. with Von Ebner S.Gs. 4) Fungiform Papillae : -Terminate on lateral margins with a cluster of leaflets. -Non-keratinized & contain large number of taste buds. -Can be large & misdiagnosed with SCC

194. Retentive Clasps: A. Alloy with high modulus of elasticity B. Clasp arm is gingivally located

B. Clasp arm is gingivally located Explanation Comparison of occlusally and gingivally approaching clasps: -An occlusally-approaching clasp à only the terminal third should cross the survey line and enter the undercut area. -A gingivally approaching clasp à contacts the tooth surface only at its tip while the remainder of the clasp arm is free of contact with the mucosa of the sulcus and the gingival margin. So, the length of the gingivally approaching clasp arm can therefore be increased to give greater flexibility which can be a positive advantage when it is necessary to clasp a premolar tooth or a tooth whose periodontal attachment has been reduced by periodontal disease.

607. A 37 years-old patient presents with paroxysmal pain on the left eye that he thinks is related to his maxillary posterior teeth. The pain comes in recurrent bursts and is aggravated by stress and alcohol. Oral exam is negative. The probable diagnosis is: A. Migraine B. Cluster headache C. Trigeminal neuralgia D. Temporal neuritis

B. Cluster headache

145. Treatment of fibrous dysplasia consists of, A. Resection B. Complete excision if it affects small area; if it is large lesion, limited excision surgery because of the cosmetic considerations. C. Irradiation D. Excision and removal of adjacent teeth E. None of the above

B. Complete excision if it affects small area; if it is large lesion, limited Explanation Usually non-locally invasive lesion (so no resection).

289. Which of the following restoration material's strength is not effected by pins: A. Amalgam B. Composite resin

B. Composite resin

719. Which of the following conditions would be considered for antibiotic prophylaxes: A. Malignancy recently removed B. Congenital valve heart disease C. Functional heart murmur

B. Congenital valve heart disease Actually none of the above But B is the best available

816. What happens to etched composite resins after setting: A. Expand B. Contract C. Contract and expand D. Expand and contract

B. Contract

895. Which of the following DOES NOT cause depression of the mandible: A. Contraction of lateral pterygoid B. Contraction of temporalis C. Contraction of the suprahyoid muscles D. Contraction of the infrahyoid muscles E. Relaxation of all muscles so that the only forces on the mandible are the forces of gravity

B. Contraction of temporalis

386. Immediate aim of dry socket treatment is to:** A. Avoid Osteomyelitis B. Control pain

B. Control pain Eugenol in Alvogyl

456. What is the characteristic feature of gingivitis in AIDS patient:** A. Red band on the free gingiva associated with platelet. B. Correlating with other pathogenesic lesions of AIDS and does not resolve to periodontal conventional treatment. C. Sever pain

B. Correlating with other pathogenesic lesions of AIDS and does not resolve to periodontal conventional treatment. also A is correct

197. Ledermix is used in RCT to relieve pain because of, A. Antibiotics B. Corticosteroid

B. Corticosteroid Explanation Ledermix is a CS/AB preparation consists of: -Triamcinalone acetonide -Ca chlor-tetracycline It's an intra-canal med. (water soluble) Uses: -relief the pain after pulp extirpation & apical periodontitis -internal resorption Do not use in case of infection (abscess) --> flareups.

965. How will you cover a lower premolar when making a metallic porcelain crown: A. Cover the occlusal and buccal cusp by porcelain B. Cover just buccal cusp by porcelain

B. Cover just buccal cusp by porcelain function & esthetics

207. If the investment is burned out rapidly, what will happen: A. Back pressure porosity B. Cracking of the investment

B. Cracking of the investment

869. The adhering of tissues on the surgical electrode usually means: A. Current intensity is too high B. Current intensity is too low C. Dispersion plate not applied to patient D. None of the above

B. Current intensity is too low

368. Marsupialisation is a technique used in the treatment of: A. Pericoronitis B. Cysts C. Abscesses

B. Cysts large cysts: -close to vital structure -weakening the jaw -need to allow eruption of ass. tooth

432. Following a periodontal surgery periodontal dressing will: A. Help in tissue adoption B. Decrease the patient's discomfort C. Enhance the rate of healing D. Control bleeding and maintain blood clot C. Enhance the rate of healing D. Control bleeding and maintain blood clot

B. Decrease the patient's discomfort Also D is 100% correct A is acceptable C is totally wrong SO --> if the question means all are correct t except --> take C

162. Using fluoride in the root surface caries is to protect, A. Enamel B. Dentine and cementum C. Cuticle

B. Dentine and cementum

558. Denture hyperplasia is generally attributed to: A. Poor oral hygiene B. Denture movement

B. Denture movement

838. Hypodontia can be seen in: A. Cleidocranial dysplasia "dysostosis" B. Down's syndrome C. Papillon fever syndrome D. Rickets

B. Down's syndrome

739. The MOST effective manner to produce a hard surface on a cast is by: A. Employ as much water as possible on mixing B. Employ as little water as possible on mixing C. Adding 2% of borax to the mix D. Adding calcium tetraborate E. None of the above

B. Employ as little water as possible on mixing

406. An upper deciduous molar has a caries exposure and on X ray the corresponding 2 nd permanent premolar is absent. What treatment would you do to the deciduous tooth: A. Pulpotomy B. Endodontic treatment C. Pulp capping

B. Endodontic treatment and obturated with GP

358. Which is not a malignant lesion: A. Leukoplakia B. Erythema migrans /Geographic tongue/

B. Erythema migrans /Geographic tongue/ The Q is which is not a PREMALIGNANT LESION. Premalignant lesions include: -Leukoplakia. -Erythroplakia. -Smokeless tobacco lesion. -Actinic cheilitis. Premalignant conditions include: -Oral submucous fibrosis. -Plummer Vinson synd. -Lichen planus. -Discoid L.E.

647. Esophagitis, herpes simplex, colitis during 5 weeks. You will find the same signs in: A. Multiple myeloma B. Erythema multiforme C. AIDS

B. Erythema multiforme Not very clear, but EM shows: - HSV etiologic factor (Herpes ass. EM). - sore throat. - might be ass. with Colitis & Crohn's dis.

844. The loss of the first deciduous molar in 10 years-old children requires: A. Band and loop to maintain space B. Evaluate the case radiographically and then decide whether space maintainer is needed or not C. No treatment

B. Evaluate the case radiographically and then decide whether space maintainer is needed or not May need a space maintainer if root of the 4 is not adequately developed (developmental age).

709. How often should a bitewing be taken for children: A. Every visit routinely B. Every year after parent's permission

B. Every year after parent's permission -New patient --> do BW if closed contact (if contact open no BW needed) -Recall patient --> every 18-24 months (if contact open no BW needed) -High caries rate --> every 6-12 months till risk decrease

286. When a removable partial denture is terminally seated ; the retentive clasps tips should: A. Apply retentive force into the body of the teeth B. Exert no force C. Be invisible D. Resist torque through the long axis of the teeth

B. Exert no force

250. Which is usually found when a systemic infection is present: A. Regional lymph node B. Fever C. Cellulitis

B. Fever

954. What is the main purpose of using corticosteroids in pulpal obturation material: A. For their antibiotic action B. For their antiinflammatory action C. To relief pulp pressure

B. For their antiinflammatory action

325. What factor do you consider the most important when restoring the occlusal part of a tooth: A. Occlusal anatomy B. Function

B. Function

489. Which muscle contracts during the tongue protrudes: A. Mylohyoid B. Genioglossus C. Digastric

B. Genioglossus as tongue moves toward genial tubercles

467. Gagging reflex is caused by: A. Trigeminal nerve B. Glossopharyngeal C. Facial nerve D. Recurrent laryngeal

B. Glossopharyngeal

981. In severe periodontitis the probe: A. Gets stopped by calculus B. Goes beyond connective tissues of junctional epithelium C. Touches coronal end of junctional epithelium D. Touches the middle of junctional epithelium E. Touches sulculuar epithelium

B. Goes beyond connective tissues of junctional epithelium due to AApical migration of J.E. & microulceration of J.E. & C.T. attachments

269. The prognosis of teeth with apical resorption is : A. Poor B. Good if apex can be sealed C. Dependant upon periapical surgery D. Contingent upon systemic antibiotic therapy combined with treatment of the canal

B. Good if apex can be sealed

364. What type of features does Paget's disease show in the early stages in the oral mucosa: A. Cotton wool B. Ground glass C. Orange peel D. Beaten copped

B. Ground glass Radiog. (not MUCOSAL) Features of Paget's Disease: Early stage: decreased Radio-density of bone & alteration of trabecular pattern e' large circumscribed RL areas "Osteoporosis Circumscripta" Osteoblastic stage: patchy areas of sclerotic stage "Cotton-Wool" Final stage: usually the most sclerosing stage. So, answer is non of the above. If no other options available --> go for B. Ground Glass appearance is chara. of FIBROUS DYSPLASIA & HYPERPARATHYROIDISM.

636. Thrombo cytopenic purpura would complicate surgery by: A. Oedema B. Haemorrhage C. Acute infection

B. Haemorrhage Severe bleeding if Platelet count below 50,000/mm3

58. You wish to purchase a dental X ray machine and have the choice between 60kVp and 70kVp machines. With single change from 60kVp to 70kVp what would the approximate affects on exposure time? A. No effect B. Half the time C. Double D. Quarter E. Triple the time

B. Half the time Explanation Half value layer

496. The area of the posterior palatal seal includes which of the following: A. [left][right] B. Hamular notch

B. Hamular notch on both sides

967. What sort of alloys do you use for bridges: A. Ductile B. Hard C. High sensitivity

B. Hard with high sag resistance

355. In regard to indirect compared to direct wax technique, what characteristics must the wax have:** A. Low temperature solidifying point B. Hard in room temperature C. Higher flow in room temperature

B. Hard in room temperature

597. In regard to Benzodiazepines: A. Increases R.E.M. sleep B. Has a hangover effects because of active metabolism C. Includes carbamazepine D. Can be used safely on children as it achieves reliable effects

B. Has a hangover effects because of active metabolism Benzodiazepine: -Psychoactive drug with hypnotic, anxiolytic and sedative actions. -Diazepam has least side effects among the family -Action based on inhibition of the endogenous neurotransmitter GABA (Gamma Amino-Butyric Acid) in the brain -C/I: psychosis, angular glucomma, allergy, respiratory/cardiac dysfunction

726. Incisal colour differs from gingival colour in that the gingival part: A. Is thicker that the incisal part B. Has dentine background

B. Has dentine background

67. To produce a stable correction of an upper labial segment in lingual crossbite; it is essential to: A. Use fixed appliances B. Have adequate overbite C. Treat during growth D. Use posterior capping E. Increase vertical dimension

B. Have adequate overbite Explanation Self-retaining; usually no relapse.

524. What is the primary consideration in providing nutrition/dietary counselling to a patient: A. Secure details of patient's eating habits B. Have the patient to fill in a diet survey C. Eliminate sugar from diet

B. Have the patient to fill in a diet survey for 4-7 days (including weekend)

914. A 7 years-old child has class I malocclusion, slight version of maxillary class III, adequate arch length. What is your management: A. Oral screen B. Head cap therapy C. Inclined plane on mandibular anterior teeth D. Hawley plate E. Expansion screw plate

B. Head cap therapy

555. Porcelain must not be contaminated by handling between which two stages: A. Pre-soldering and heat treatment B. Heat treatment and opaque /bake/ stages C. Opaque and bisque stages D. Bisque and glazing stages E. First opaque bake and second opaque bake

B. Heat treatment and opaque /bake/ stages to avoid affecting the chem. bond

376. The causative micro organism for Herpetic gingivostomatitis is: A. Herpes simplex bacteria B. Herpes simplex virus C. Herpes zoster virus D. Borrelia vincentii

B. Herpes simplex virus

547. Self polymerising acrylic resins differ from heat cured resins because they exhibit: A. Higher molecules weight B. Higher content of residual monomers

B. Higher content of residual monomers

499. Periapical abscess is differentiated from periodontal abscess by: A. Pulpal radiology B. History and vitality test C. X-ray and history

B. History and vitality test in perio abscess: -history --> pain is less severe & also less pain on biting. -vital tooth (commonly)

486. After making an impression to reline an RPD the dentist notes that the indirect retainers are not resting on the tooth. To avoid this, what process should have undertaken initially: A. Ask patient to bite firmly while impression is setting B. Hold the metal base frame against the abutment tooth while setting C. Fabricate new denture D. Add impression material and close the gap

B. Hold the metal base frame against the abutment tooth while setting. to make sure it's properly seated while taking the impression

491. A patient has a small incisal fracture of the maxillary incisor. Which is the best material to resist fracture at the acid etched tooth composite interface: A. Micro-filled composite B. Hybrid composite C. GIC D. Silicate

B. Hybrid composite

557. Which of the following liquids is not suitable for prolonged immersion of cobalt chrome partial dentures: A. Alkaline peroxidase B. Hypochlorite solutions C. Soap solutions D. Water

B. Hypochlorite solutions can cause corrosion

110. 8 years old child presents with all permanent incisors erupted, but yet only three permanent first molars are erupted. Oral examination reveals a large gingival bulge in the un-erupted permanent area. A panoramic radiograph shows the alveolar emergence of the un-erupted permanent first molar crown and three fourth tooth developments, there are no other radiographic abnormalities. The most appropriate diagnosis and treatment plan in such situation would be:** A. Dentigerous cyst; surgical enucleation. B. Idiopathic failure of eruption, surgical soft tissues exposure C. Ankylosis of the molar, removal of the first molar to allow the second one to erupt into its place. D. Ankylosis of the molar, surgical soft tissues exposure and luxation of the molar E. Idiopathic failure of eruption, surgical soft tissues exposure and orthodontic traction

B. Idiopathic failure of eruption, surgical soft tissues exposure Explanation Berkovitz

340. Class V composite resin restorations can be polished, A. 24 hours after application B. Immediately after application C. 3 to 4 days D. 3 to 4 weeks E. Not at all

B. Immediately after application

676. The initial priority in treatment of horizontal fractures is: A. Preservation of pulp B. Immobilisation C. Root canal treatment D. Calcium hydroxide treatment

B. Immobilisation the more apical the location, the better the prognosis

750. The principle cause of failure of amalgam restoration is: A. Improperly prepared amalgam B. Improper cavity preparation C. Perio involvement D. Particles of amalgam E. None of the above

B. Improper cavity preparation in the form of rec. caries

679. The most common cause of fracture at the isthmus of class II dental amalgam restoration is: A. Delayed expansion B. Inadequate depth at the isthmus area C. Inadequate width at the isthmus area D. Moisture contamination of the amalgam during placement

B. Inadequate depth at the isthmus area need 3 mm at least + bevelling axio-pulpal angle.

770. A periapical x ray of 11 and 12 region shows the vimen, floor of the nasal fossa and the median palatine suture. The other feature that can be seen is: A. Maxillary sinus B. Incisive foramen C. Zygomatic process D. Wall of maxillary sinus

B. Incisive foramen

400. Several applications have been suggested to increase the effectiveness of prophylactic application of topical fluoride which include all EXCEPT: A. Increase Fluoride ions in solution "increase concentration" B. Increase PH of fluoride C. Increase exposure time to topical fluoride D. Pre-treat enamel with 0.5% phosphoric acid E. Use NH4F instead of NaF

B. Increase PH of fluoride can't be alkaline

469. High copper amalgam lasts longer than low copper amalgam because of:** A. Increased compressive strength B. Increased corrosion resistance C. High creep D. Increased tensile strength E. Decreased setting expansion

B. Increased corrosion resistance

560. Resting face height in edentulous patients: A. Decreases when head is tilted back B. Increases when lower denture is inserted C. Does not change over time

B. Increases when lower denture is inserted

117. Plaque is considered as an infection because: A. Antibiotic therapy prevents or stop its formation B. Indication of bacterial activity C. It is common to both animal and human

B. Indication of bacterial activity Explanation ???? more options?

924. In regard to topically applied fluoride : A. Effectively incorporated into dental plaque B. Inhibits acid demineralisation of enamel

B. Inhibits acid demineralisation of enamel if there is an option of A & B take it

832. What is the MOST adverse reaction to lignocaine: A. Drug interaction with patient's medicines B. Injecting into vein C. Hypersensitivity D. Toxicity

B. Injecting into vein leading to toxicity

470. Porosity in acrylic dentures is caused by, A. Contraction porosity in thickest point of the denture B. Insufficient pressure during flasking

B. Insufficient pressure during flasking

586. In primary teeth, failure of Ca(OH)2 pulpotomy is MOST likely to produce:** A. External resorption B. Internal resorption C. Necrosis of the pulp D. Ankylosis

B. Internal resorption

534. By which of the following mechanism reduces Aspirin pain: A. It is anti inflammatory by the release of histamine B. It blocks the cyclo-oxygenase pathway.

B. It blocks the cyclo-oxygenase pathway.

755. In regard to the enamel surface: A. It is a perfect substance for bonding B. It does not conform to the bonding requirements C. It is the most inorganic, rough part D. It is free from contamination and roughness E. None of the above

B. It does not conform to the bonding requirements unless treated with acid etching

404. An ankylotic primary second molar in the mandible is not always a good space maintainer because of: A. Mesial inclination of the 1 st permanent molar B. It does not keep up with the rest of occlusion

B. It does not keep up with the rest of occlusion permanent molar infraoccluded & improper prox. contacts

951. What is NOT true about tobacco smoking: A. Redox potential favours growth of anaerobic bacteria B. It is caries immuno-suppressive C. It is adrenergic D. Affects neutrophils and chemotactic factors

B. It is caries immuno-suppressive

725. Terminal Hinge Axis can be obtained by: A. Face bow B. Kinematic face bow C. Articulator

B. Kinematic face bow

528. In periodontal scalers and curettes the blade is formed by which two surfaces: A. Two lateral surfaces B. Lateral surface and face C. Lateral surface, face and shank D. Lateral surface, face, back and shank

B. Lateral surface and face

314. The method you will use to fill root canal of maxillary lateral incisor is: A. One major Gutta Percha cone B. Laterally condensed C. Laterally above condensed

B. Laterally condensed

619. During extraction of a maxillary third molar the tuberosity is fractured; however, it remains in place attached to the mucoperiosteum. Which of the following procedures should be employed:** A. Remove the tuberosity and suture B. Leave the tuberosity and stabilize if required C. Remove the tuberosity and fill the defect with Gelfoam then suture. D. If fractured tuberosity is greater than 2 cm, leave in place and suture

B. Leave the tuberosity and stabilize if required

343. The main advantage of amalgam with high content of Cu is: A. Better marginal sealing B. Less corrosion C. Better tensile strength D. Higher and immediate compressive strength

B. Less corrosion Less gamma-2 phase

751. Reduced occlusal area means: A. More fracture potential for amalgam B. Less fracture potential for amalgam C. Pulpal involvement D. Perio involvement E. None of the above

B. Less fracture potential for amalgam

637. A patient who has WBC count of just over 100000 is most likely suffering from:** A. Leucopoenia B. Leukaemia C. Polycythemia

B. Leukaemia

873. Which of the following cusps is more prone to crack: A. Buccal of lower molars B. Lingual of lower molars C. Lingual of upper molars D. Buccal of upper molars

B. Lingual of lower molars

44. Basal cell carcinoma is characterised by, A. Rapid growth and metastasis B. Local cutaneous invasion C. Inability to invade bone D. Poor prognosis E. Radiation resistance F. Can not metastasise to the bone

B. Local cutaneous invasion Explanation Rarely metastasize (Best Prognosis). But can invade bone.

331. Which nerve is anesthesised in anterior border of ramus and 1 cm above occlusal plane of lower posterior teeth: A. Lingual nerve B. Long buccal nerve

B. Long buccal nerve in long buccal nerve block

359. Anaesthesia 1 mm above last lower molars will anesthetise: A. Lingual Nerve B. Long buccal nerve

B. Long buccal nerve 1 cm above lower occ. plane = long buccal nerve block

1018. What kind of regeneration is found after periodontal surgery: A. Regeneration of cementum B. Long junctional epithelium

B. Long junctional epithelium Healing not regeneration

212. The best way of getting good retention in full veneer crown is by, A. Tapering B. Long path of insertion

B. Long path of insertion Crown retention depends on: 1) Path of insertion (long = 4mm min.) 2) Taper (parallel walls best)

1004. The reason that endodontically treated teeth are weak is: A. Loss of blood supply B. Loss of coronal tissues

B. Loss of coronal tissues A is a 2ry weakening factor

248. Angular cheilitis in edentulous patient with complete denture is a result of: A. Deficiency of .. vitamin B. Low vertical dimension

B. Low vertical dimension Also hypovitaminosis, BUT NOT NECESSARILY in pts. with CD.

506. N2O excretes through: A. Urine B. Lungs

B. Lungs

603. A 65 years-old patient needs extraction of 44; he has taken insulin in the morning. What preoperative advice you should give: A. Take more sugar B. Maintain normal diet C. Antibiotic 2 hours before D. Medication increases preoperatively

B. Maintain normal diet

550. Where would you expect to find the Mylohyoid in relation to periphery of complete denture: A. Mandibular buccal in the midline B. Mandibular lingual in the midline C. Mandibular disto buccal area

B. Mandibular lingual in the midline premolar-molar area (they mean mid of lingual aspect of mandible)

594. In class II preparation it is difficult to place the gingival seat when preparation is extended too gingivally because the: A. Enamel rods are directed occlusally B. Marked cervical constriction

B. Marked cervical constriction

108. The SNA angle on cephalogram, best signifies the relationship of, A. Mandible to cranial base B. Maxilla to cranial base C. Maxilla to mandible D. Mandible to porion E. Maxilla to Frankfort plane

B. Maxilla to cranial base Explanation Angles : SNA--> max. to cranial base relation SNB--> mand. to cranial base relation ANB--> max. to mand. relation

976. What is TRUE in regard to osteogenesis imperfecta: A. Manifests with blue sclera B. May be associated with deafness C. Sex linked disorder of bones that develop in cartilage

B. May be associated with deafness

786. The concomitant perio-periapical lesion as the cause of endodontic failure: A. Cannot be discovered prior to endo treatment B. May be discovered prior to endo treatment C. Is most commonly found in maxillary teeth D. Is most commonly found in mandibular teeth E. None of the above

B. May be discovered prior to endo treatment and the endo component has better prognosis

77. Tetracycline hydrochloride conditioning of root surfaces in periodontal surgery is to: A. Sterilise the root surface B. May enhance binding of fibronectin and fibroblast C. Aids in re-mineralising the root surface D. Assist the binding of lamina dura E. Prevents post operative infections

B. May enhance binding of fibronectin and fibroblast Explanation root conditioning materials: 1- citric acid (commonest) 2- tetracycline 3- EDTA

817. Which of the following muscles elevates the lower lip: A. Orbicularis oris B. Mentalis C. A + B

B. Mentalis

440. Which local anaesthetic agent is preferred for a confirmed hypersensitive patient: A. 3% prilocaine with felypressin B. Mepivacaine 3% without vasoconstrictor *

B. Mepivacaine 3% without vasoconstrictor *

891. What of the following is TRUE regarding the placement of the movable component of the non-rigid connector in a fixed bridge: A. Should be placed on the longer retainer B. Mesial drift causes unseating of the distally placed connector

B. Mesial drift causes unseating of the distally placed connector

169. The position of the lingual cusp of a maxillary first premolar during setting of teeth and on occlusal view is positioned:** A. Distally B. Mesially C. Central buccolingually

B. Mesially

823. The palatal canal of maxillary molars is found under: A. Disto lingual cusp B. Mesio lingual cusp

B. Mesio lingual cusp MP cusp

85. the pulp horn most likely to be exposed in the preparation of large cavity in permanent molar tooth is, A. Mesio-Lingual in upper first molars B. Mesio-Buccal in upper first molars C. Disto-buccal in lower first molars D. Mesio-Lingual in lower first molars E. Mesio- Buccal in lower first molar

B. Mesio-Buccal in upper first molars Explanation it's B dental anatomy books E in American decks!

853. In herpangina the MOST reliable diagnosis is by:** A. Immunofluorescence B. Microscopy C. Serology

B. Microscopy Microscopy (viral isolation). However Hx & Clinical feature are the best in general. Serology is done when need to confirm Dx

333. Which of the following is false in regard to Cleft-Palate? A. May be submucous B. More common in males than females C. Predispose to speech defects, orthodontics problem and hearing loss D. Patients are more likely to have cardiovascular defect than the general population.

B. More common in males than females That's true for cleft lip

866. All of the following are requirements of mucoperiosteal flap except of: A. Base is wider than free margin B. Mucous membrane is carefully separated from periosteum C. Base has an adequate blood supply D. Flap wider than bony defect that will be present at conclusion of operation E. Mucoperiosteum is carefully separated from bone

B. Mucous membrane is carefully separated from periosteum That's a split thickness perio flap

445. All of the following are requirements of an adequate mucosal periosteal flap except:** A. Base is wider than the free margin B. Mucous membrane is carefully separated from periosteum C. Base containing blood supply

B. Mucous membrane is carefully separated from periosteum this is a requirement of a split thickness flap

239. In cleidocranial dysplasia, which of the following would you expect to find: A. Early lose of primary teeth B. Multiple un-erupted teeth and pseudo anodontia

B. Multiple un-erupted teeth and pseudo anodontia -supernimerary teeth -multiple unerupted teeth -malocclusion -hypoplasia of clavicle(s) -delayed closure of skull sutures

196. When doing pulpotomy with Formocresol you will find: A. Necrosis B. Mummification

B. Mummification Explanations Action of Ca(OH)2: •Liquefaction necrosis of the superficial pulp •Neutralization of toxicity in deeper layers •Coagulative necrosis...Irritation of adjacent pulp •Minor inflammation response... Hard tissue barrier == PULPOTOMY with: -FC --> devitalization/mummification (fixation & progressive FIBROSIS). -FS & MTA --> preservation -BMP --> regeneration Now FS is the most commonly used for primary tooth --> it forms a surface metal-protein clot (coagulation) at pulpal exposure surf --> protect against irritation. REMEMBER: Indirect PC is C/I in primary teeth due to very high failure (int. resorption).

389. Painful salivary glands MOST likely indicate to:** A. Mucocele B. Mumps C. Sjögren's syndrome

B. Mumps acute viral infection with bilat. parotid enlargement

307. When immature permanent molars have been treated with Ledermix pulp capping, the most probable pathology is, A. Chronic inflammation of the pulp B. Necrosis of the pulp

B. Necrosis of the pulp

592. At birth, the oral cavity usually contains: A. S. mutans only B. No micro organism C. S. mutans and S. salivavis D. Lactobacilli and S. mutans

B. No micro organism

61. When primary molars are prepared for stainless steel crowns, should the depth for reduction of the proximal surface be similar to the depth of the buccal and lingual surfaces? A. Yes; reduction of all wall is similar for best retention B. No, proximal reduction is greater to allow the crown to pass the contact area C. No, the buccal surfaces has the greatest reduction to remove the cervical bulge D. Yes, all undercuts are uniformly removed so that the steel crown can be seated E. No, because of lateral constriction, the lingual surface needs greatest reduction

B. No, proximal reduction is greater to allow the crown to pass the contact area Explanation Corrected to B. Buccal reduction is slight to retain cervical bulge for retention (Cameron page 81). Greatest reduction is the occlusal = 1.5 m

175. The emergency treatment for painless necrotic pulp is: A. Drainage through canals B. None

B. None Explanation It's not an emergency unless with pain/swelling.

512. The laboratory findings in Paget's disease show: A. Elevated calcium, elevated phosphate, and elevated alkaline phosphate. B. Normal calcium, normal phosphate and elevated alkaline phosphate C. Decreased calcium, increased phosphate and elevated alkaline phosphate D. Increased calcium, normal phosphate and decreased alkaline phosphate E. Normal calcium, increased phosphate and elevated alkaline phosphat

B. Normal calcium, normal phosphate and elevated alkaline phosphate Hyperparathy.: -Ca level (high in 1ry, low/normal in 2ry) -Ph level (low in 1ry, high in 2ry) -Alk ph. --> high

729. The best radiograph for maxillary sinus is: A. PA skull x ray B. Occipitomental radiograph C. Town's view

B. Occipitomental radiograph Extraoral Radiog. Tech. -Lat. Oblique: view body/ramus of mand. -True lat. (Ceph. Chara. By REPRODUCIBILITY): ortho (growth) & Le Forte I,II fractures. -Submentovertex: base of skull, zyg. arch & sphenoidal sinuses. -Waters (Occipitomental) view: sinuses esp. Max. sinuses, coronoid process. -Reverse Townes view: condylar head/neck fractures. -Towne's view (Skull AP view): not of value in dentistry. -PA: skull vault (paget's?) & frontal sinuses.

538. What is the danger of using air as a cooler during cavity cutting: A. Hypersensitivity B. Odontoblast is drawn into the tubule

B. Odontoblast is drawn into the tubule leading to hypersensitivity later

665. Marble bone disorder is:** A. Osteoporosis B. Osteopetrosis

B. Osteopetrosis

940. Use of inhalation general anaesthesia: A. Halothane should not be less than 5% B. Oxygen must not be less than 30%

B. Oxygen must not be less than 30%

764. The lamina dura is absent in which condition: A. Von Recklinghausen B. Paget's C. Periapical granuloma

B. Paget's Completely absent Due to hypercementosis In PA granuloma --> partially absent

507. Radiopaque lesions are seen in: A. Multiple myeloma B. Paget's disease C. Hyperparathyroidism D. Chronic renal failure

B. Paget's disease cotton wool

686. Spread of infection 12, 22 is MOST LIKELY to be: A. Labial B. Palatal

B. Palatal Due to apex curvature (Disto-palatally)

106. A patient with impacted canine; by moving the X ray tube distally the canine moves distally too; where do you expect the impacted canine: A. Labially impacted B. Palatally impacted

B. Palatally impacted Explanation SLOB principle

476. In the construction of an RPD, guiding planes are created, A. Perpendicular to the occlusal plane B. Parallel towards the path of placement.

B. Parallel towards the path of placement.

236. The most important indication of malignant lesions is: A. Pain B. Paresthesia C. Teeth movement D. Tooth resorption

B. Paresthesia

372. A patient with long standing rheumatoid arthritis and a history of steroid therapy presents for multiple extractions. The dentist should consult the patient's physician because: A. Patient is more susceptible to infection B. Patient may have a suppressed adrenal cortex C. Patient will need haematological evaluation

B. Patient may have a suppressed adrenal cortex -Risk of Adrenal crisis. -Also A is a risk if the pt. is still on steroid therapy.

421. Which radiographic method would you use in assessing periodontal conditions and lesions: A. Bitewing B. Periapical C. Occlusal D. Panoramic

B. Periapical Vertical Bitewings too, But PA is best

448. A young female patient presents with throbbing pain in the left lower posterior jaw with trismus and associated lymphadenopathy. What would be your diagnosis? A. Tumor B. Pericoronitis

B. Pericoronitis

217. Periodontitis occurs in, A. Alveolar bone B. Periodontal membrane C. Alveolar bone and gingiva

B. Periodontal membrane Periodontitis by definition is inflam. of PDL However periodontal diseases are usually preceded with gingivitis (unless of endo origin), and affect the alveolar bone, as well.

424. Apical migration of the epithelial attachment followed by atrophy of marginal gingiva at the same level results in: A. False periodontal pocket B. Periodontal pocket recession C. Gingival cleft D. True pocket

B. Periodontal pocket recession

382. How can a periodontal pocket be recognised:** A. X-Ray B. Periodontal probe / Calibrated probe C. Periodontal marker D. Bitewing radiograph E. Sharp explorer F. Study cast

B. Periodontal probe / Calibrated probe

137. Drugs contraindicated with Monoaminoxidase Inhibitors (MAOI): A. Barbiturates B. Pethidine C. Local Anaesthesia with felypressin D. Narcotic analgetics E. Salicylic acid

B. Pethidine Explanation All are actually C/I with MAOI except C. But to chose from the available options --> B

1016. A patient complains of sensitivity, on examination you find a composite filling restoring a good cavity preparation without any secondary caries; what is your next step: A. Extirpate the pulp that is obviously inflamed B. Place ZOE dressing to sedate the pulp C. Ask patient to come back in six months D. Repeat restoration

B. Place ZOE dressing to sedate the pulp In cracked tooth syndrome: bite test transillumination wedging bite on cotton roll dye copper ring

942. For fissure and sealant treatment to be a part of the primary pretentive care: A. Place sealant on teeth which are at high risk of caries B. Place sealant on newly erupted teeth

B. Place sealant on newly erupted teeth

410. The MOST common cause of gingiva irritation is: A. Calculus B. Plaque C. Caries D. Restorative material

B. Plaque

890. The MAIN CAUSE of gingivitis in partial-denture patients is: A. Placement of dentures B. Plaque accumulation

B. Plaque accumulation

287. Why do you construct a lower removable partial denture with lingual bar: A. It is used when the space between raised floor, mouth and gingival margin is minimal B. Plaque accumulation is less than with lingual plate C. Should be made thicker when short

B. Plaque accumulation is less than with lingual plate RPD NOTES

300. Denture resins are usually available as powder and liquid that are mixed to form a plastic dough; the powder is referred to as,** A. Initiator B. Polymer C. Inhibitor D. Monomer E. Dimer

B. Polymer Liquid = monomer

384. Which type of cells does an abscess contain: A. Mast cells B. Polymorphonuclear leukocytes C. Eosinophils D. Epithelial cells

B. Polymorphonuclear leukocytes PMNs (neutrophils)

235. The most important factor in surgical removal of impacted teeth is, A. Removal of enough bone B. Preoperative assessment C. The flap design D. The use of general anaesthetic

B. Preoperative assessment to assess the risks involved before the actual procedure

37. Suppuration is mainly the result of the combined action of four factors; which of the following is not one of these factors? A. Necrosis B. Presence of lymphocytes C. Collection of neutrophils D. Accumulation of tissue fluid E. Autolysis by proteolytic enzymes

B. Presence of lymphocytes Explanation Lymphocytes present only in the outer fibrous capsule of a chr. abscess (not in the suppuration process).

780. The objective of pulp capping is to: A. Preserve vitality of coronal pulp B. Preserve vitality of entire pulp C. Preserve vitality of radicular pulp D. Regenerate a degenerated and necrotic pulp E. None of the above

B. Preserve vitality of entire pulp Ca(OH)2

436. How to detect the furcation involvement: A. Radiolucent area radiographically B. Probe in mesial distal and mid facial areas of suspected tooth

B. Probe in mesial distal and mid facial areas of suspected tooth -that is true if it's an upper molar -if a lower molar --> probe B & L -if periodontal probing (not furcation probing) --> probe at 6 points (3 F & 3 L)

749. The effect of the temperature rising above 100ºC on heat-cured denture-base acrylic resins is: A. Produces porosity on the external portion of the resin. B. Produces porosity on the internal portion of the resin. C. Produces porosity on the surface of the resin. D. Prevents porosity on the interior of the resin

B. Produces porosity on the internal portion of the resin.

152. The transfer of stress by tensile action employs T. reaction; a process that within limits: A. Fails to promote bone growth B. Promotes bone growth and maintenance C. Fails to promote maintenance D. None of the above

B. Promotes bone growth and maintenance Explanation Remember backward growth of Ramus

444. What is the mode of action of autoclaving "Moist sterilisation": A. Moist heat sterilization B. Protein denaturation

B. Protein denaturation

480. A patient with reasonable oral hygiene has a small proximal caries on the premolar. The patient requests an aesthetic filling. Your preparation will be: A. Same as amalgam with cavo-surface bevels B. Proximal caries removal with occlusal & gingival bevels

B. Proximal caries removal with occlusal & gingival bevels

511. The best space maintainer is: A. Lingual holding arch B. Pulpectomised primary tooth C. Band and loop maintainer

B. Pulpectomised primary tooth PULPOTOMISED or PULPECTOMISED primary tooth is best

461. On examination of an 8 years-old child you find 75 with carious exposure. On X-ray you find 35 missing. Your treatment is: A. Extraction of 75 allowing 36 to move mesially B. Pulpotomy on 75 and wait indefinitely C. Extraction of 75 and place a fixed space retainer to be replaced with fixed bridge. D. Extraction of 65 and 75

B. Pulpotomy on 75 and wait indefinitely if it's carious exposure, the ttt. should be PULPECTOMY and in this case (Endo ttt. --> fill GP)

747. The polysulfide rubber impression materials are: A. Not sensitive to temperature when curing B. Quite sensitive to temperature when curing C. Less sensitive to temperature than silicone rubber D. The same sensitivity to temperature as silicone rubber E. None of the above

B. Quite sensitive to temperature when curing

80. Several approaches have been suggested to increase the fixation of professionally applied topical fluoride, which of the following statements IS INCORRECT regarding increasing the fixation? A. Increase concentration of fluoride in solutions B. Raise the PH of the fluoride solution C. Increase the exposure time to topical fluoride D. Pre-treat the enamel with 0.5% phosphoric acid E. Use NH4F rather than NaF at a lower PH

B. Raise the PH of the fluoride solution Explanation Acidic (low) PH help increasing effectiveness of top. Fl

34. As far as surgical removal of wisdom teeth is concerned, which of the following is true? A. Prophylactic prescription of antibiotic reduces dramatically the chances of infection B. Raising a lingual flap will increases the incidence of neurapraxia but will reduce the incidence of neurotmesis with respect to the lingual nerve C. Prophylactic prescription of dexamethasone will dramatically reduces post operative swelling D. Inferior dental nerve injury is unlikely since the nerve passes medial to the wisdom tooth root E. The use of vasoconstrictors in local anaesthetics will increase the chances of infection.

B. Raising a lingual flap will increases the incidence of neurapraxia but will reduce the incidence of neurotmesis with respect to the lingual nerve Explanation Raising a ling. flap will decrease chances for serious damage to the ling. nerve.

282. The means by which one part of a partial denture framework opposes the action of the retainer in faction is:** A. Tripoding B. Reciprocation C. Stress breaking D. Indirect retention

B. Reciprocation Bracing --> resists the lateral movement

134. Café au lait spots are seen in: A. Von Willebrand's disease B. Recklinghausen C. Neurofibroma

B. Recklinghausen Explanation Von Recklinghausen's disease is a genetic disorder characterized by the growth of tumors on the nerves (multiple Neurofibromatosis). The disease can affect the skin and cause bones deformities. Cafe au lait spots present in: -Albright synd (F.D. of bone). -Von Recklinghausen's disease (multiple neurofibroma).

570. When you try to seat a crown on a tooth you find a discrepancy of 0.3mm at the margin; you will: A. Reduce inner surface of crown B. Remake a new crown C. Smooth the enamel at the margin D. Hand burnish crown margins

B. Remake a new crown

842. A filter is used in x ray machines to: A. Reduce exposure time B. Remove low energy x rays

B. Remove low energy x rays

789. Irrigation in root canal treatment should be undertaken at frequent intervals during instrumentation to:** A. Remove cementum falling from the canal B. Remove noxious material since it may be forced to the apical foramen resulting in periapical infection C. Destroy all micro organism in the canal D. Stop instruments from going beyond the apical foramen E. None of the above

B. Remove noxious material since it may be forced to the apical foramen resulting in periapical infection

617. What is wrong in regard to (water jet spray) hydrotherapy: A. Does not harm gingivae B. Removes plaque C. Removes required pellicle

B. Removes plaque - it remove debris only - also C is wrong

860. When you find ditching in an amalgam filling you would: A. Replace the defective filing B. Repair defect with unfilled resins

B. Repair defect with unfilled resins if associated with rec. decay --> A

495. While doing RCT you gave dressing with a paper point wetted with CHKM (camphorated and mentholated chlorophenol) solution. The patient arrives the next day with severe pain. There is no swelling but the tooth is tender to percussion. You will:** (Camphorated Mentholated para Chloro-Phenol = CMCP) A. Replace with similar dressing and prescribe antibiotic B. Replace with corticosteroid past C. Retrieve paper point surgically D. Remove the dressing and leave for several days before replacing it. E. Provide incision and drainage

B. Replace with corticosteroid past to counteract the inflam. react which is apparently related to CMCP (not used anymore).

311. The most resistant filling materials to fill class IV cavities are: A. Resins with silicone dioxide (SiO2) B. Resins with glass or quartz C. Silico-phosphate D. Silicates

B. Resins with glass or quartz RMGIC

398. What is present in Angle's class II division 2 malocclusion: A. Open bite B. Retrusion of maxillary central incisors C. Reduced Overjet D. Increased overbite

B. Retrusion of maxillary central incisors also C correct.

876. At what angle to the external surface should proximal cavosurface walls in Class II preparation for the reception of an amalgam filling be finished: A. Acute angle B. Right angle C. Obtuse angle D. 45 angle

B. Right angle because it is important for the enamel rods to be supported by the underlying sound dentine to prevent the fracture of the tooth

327. Treatment of gangrenous tooth: A. Pulp capping B. Root canal therapy C. Pulpotomy

B. Root canal therapy

414. Which one of the following is a non-calorie sweetener: A. Mannitol B. Saccharin C. Xylitol

B. Saccharin

888. In regard to shade, chroma is: A. Brightness B. Saturation of hue C. Value

B. Saturation of hue

124. Recession of gingiva of several anterior teeth caused by exposure and softened cementum; what would you do? A. Scrap the soften cementum and apply fluoride B. Scrap the soften cementum and use GIC C. Class V amalgam

B. Scrap the soften cementum and use GI Explanation to avoid pulpal damage, decay & sensitivity

590. Kaposi's sarcoma: A. Seen on buccal mucosa in HIV as purple lesion B. Seen on palate of most HIV patients C. Should be biopsy

B. Seen on palate of most HIV patients Maroon colour

599. The maxillary and mandibular teeth get their blood supply from:** A. Separate branches of S. Palatina artery B. Separate branches of maxillary artery C. Branches of maxillary and mandibular arteries

B. Separate branches of maxillary artery

51. Typical features of Down's syndrome (Mongolism) do not include: A. Multiple immunodeficiencies B. Sever caries but minimal periodontal disease C. Susceptibility to infections D. Multiple missing teeth and malocclusion E. Hepatitis B carriage in institutionalised patients

B. Sever caries but minimal periodontal disease Explanation Reverse is true. Also has: -increased incidence of leukemia -congenital hear disease -microdontia & retrognathism

662. Ankyloglossia is caused by: A. Edentulous ridge B. Short lingual frenulum C. Short labial frenulum

B. Short lingual frenulum

183. To remove the pulp tissue from a narrow canal, you can use: A. Barbed broach B. Small K-Type file C. Smooth broach D. Reame

B. Small K-Type file Explanation -To remove vital pulp (extirpation) from wide canal --> use barbed broach (but avoid using it in narrow canals as the small barbs might break. -To remove necrotic pulp (debridement) --> depend mainly on irrigation.

978. Which of the following will increase sharpness: A. Larger focal spot B. Smaller focal spot C. Increase object-film distance

B. Smaller focal spot

843. A 8 years-old patient has 3 first premolars erupted and a swelling on the ridge of the un-erupted premolar. X ray shows a fully developed crown and ¾ roots development with no other pathology. What is your management: A. Remove the dentigerous cyst B. Soft tissues recision to allow eruption C. Soft tissues recision accompanied with orthodontic appliance to help with eruption

B. Soft tissues recision to allow eruption incise & wait

997. In cavity preparation 1mm below DEJ what is seen: A. More dentinal tubules, some intertubular and peritubular B. Some dentinal tubules, more intertubular and less peritubular C. More peritubular, some intertubular and dentinal tubular D. Equal amount of dentinal tubules, intertubular and peritubular

B. Some dentinal tubules, more intertubular and less peritubular Less no. of DT so more Intertub. dentine & less Peritub. dentine

458. What is the significance of erosive lichen planus:** A. High malignant potential B. Some malignant potential

B. Some malignant potential 1-6 %

173. What is the most common malignant lesion that occurs in the oral cavity: A. Ameloblastoma B. Squamous cell carcinoma C. Osteosarcoma

B. Squamous cell carcinoma Explanation Commonest site: Postrolat. of tongue.

443. What is to be done with instruments after surgically treating a patient with confirmed diagnosis of hepatitis B,** A. Soak them in hypochlorite solution "Milton" B. Sterilize, scrub and sterilize C. Handle them with two pairs of household rubber gloves D. Scrub them with iodine surgical solution

B. Sterilize, scrub and sterilize Actually they require normal sterilization procedure.

575. Which of the following conditions is not associated with periodontal destruction in primary teeth: A. Down's syndrome B. Steven Johnson's syndrome C. Hypophosphatasia D. Papillon-Lefebvre syndrome E. Cyclic neutropenia

B. Steven Johnson's syndrome that's a muco-cutaneous-ocular syndrome

785. In regard to external resorption:** A. Continues after successful endo treatment B. Stops in most cases following successful endodontic treatment C. Continues only in mandibular incisors after successful endo treatment D. Stops in maxillary lateral incisors after successful endodontic treatment E. None of the above

B. Stops in most cases following successful endodontic treatment

320. What is the function of gypsum-binder in the investment:** A. Setting and hydroscopic B. Strength and rigidity

B. Strength and rigidity Calcium phosphate hemihydrate

138. Blow to mandible causing fracture in molar's right side region, you expect a second fracture of: A. Sub condylar of right side B. Sub-condylar of left side C. Fracture of symphysis

B. Sub-condylar of left side Explanation Fractured body of mand. --> suspect a second fracture --> opposite sub-condylar

920. Examination reveals an area of gingival recession, an exposed wide area of dental roots. What is the procedure of choice to obtain coverage of the root surface: A. Free gingival autograft B. Sub-epithelial tissue graft C. Apically positioned graft D. Free gingival graft E. Modified wide flap

B. Sub-epithelial tissue graft Subepith CT graft is the Gold Standard

240. Unilateral swelling in the floor of the mouth occurs frequently with meal; what is the possible diagnosis: A. Ranula B. Sub-mandibular sialolith C. Cyst D. Mucocele

B. Sub-mandibular sialolith Sialoliths are most common with submand. SG due to: -duct is long with 2 right angles -duct opens against gravity (slow flow) -more viscous saliva -more Ca salts

923. Two conditions of enamel facilitate the post eruptive uptake of fluoride: A. Hyper mineralisation and surface dentine B. Surface demineralisation and hypo mineralisation C. Dental fluorosis and enamel opacities

B. Surface demineralisation and hypo mineralisation

222. A Patient presents to you with remarkable resorption of gingiva around the remaining teet,; mainly around the lower bicuspid and anterior teeth. The oral hygiene is not good, some areas of cementum appear to be soft. Which of the following would be your preferred procedure: A. Surface grinding followed by fluoride application B. Surface grinding followed by GIC restorations C. Class V cavity preparation for a GIC preparation D. Cavity preparation for amalgam preparation E. Application of fluoride without surface preparation

B. Surface grinding followed by GIC restorations This will help minimize leakage through DT, therefore decreasing sensitivity & pulpal irritation. Best to use RMGIC (wear resistance).

845. A palatal root displaced into the antrum while extracting; what is your decision to retrieve it: A. Through the alveolar B. Surgical opening of canine fossa C. Nasal antrostomy

B. Surgical opening of canine fossa Caldwell-Luc procedure

562. Decision to employ cusped or without cusps teeth is influenced by:** A. Reverse Overjet B. TMJ problems C. Cranio mandibular skeletal relationship

B. TMJ problems

884. A cast crown fits on the die but not on the tooth, the discrepancy is about 0.3mm, what would you do: A. Relieve cast from the inside B. Take a new impression and make new crown C. Burnish margins D. Use thick mix of cement

B. Take a new impression and make new crown

27. A 65 years-old woman arrived for dental therapy. shows that she is suffering from severe cirrhosis. Tanticipated in the routine dental therapy is: A. Extreme susceptibility to pain B. Tendency towards prolonged haemorrhage C. Recurring oral infection D. Increased tendency to syncope E. Difficulty in achieving adequate local anaesthesia

B. Tendency towards prolonged haemorrhage Explanation LIVER DISEASE = DEFECIENT CLOTTING

370. Which antibiotic administered in childhood may result in tooth discolouration: A. Penicillin B. Tetracycline C. Streptomycin

B. Tetracycline up to age of 8-9 yrs (however 8s can be affected if taken by the age of 12)

788. To achieve optimum cavity preparation, which of the following factors of internal anatomy must be considered in root canal treatment: A. Outline form B. The age and shape of pulp chamber; in addition to the direction of individual root canals. C. Internal external relationship D. Intra-coronal preparation E. None of the above

B. The age and shape of pulp chamber; in addition to the direction of individual root canals. they mean optimum ACCESS cavity

210. In electro surgery, the tissue may stick to the electrode because of , A. The current intensity is too high B. The current intensity is too low

B. The current intensity is too low

957. The number of damaged gingival tissues after placing rubber dam is greater if: A. The distance between holes is too big B. The distance between holes is too small C. The punctured holes are too big in size D. Not using lubricant when placing rubber dams

B. The distance between holes is too small

260. If the sealant of bonding agent is not placed on part of enamel that has been etched by an acid solution; you would expect: A. Arrest of enamel carries by organic sulphides B. The enamel is to return to normal within 7 days C. Continued enamel declassification in the etched area D. Slight attrition of the opposing tooth

B. The enamel is to return to normal within 7 days

584. In calculus formation the epitaxic concept is one of the theories. Which of the following is true: A. Mineralisation occurs when calcium and phosphate content is high B. The presence of matrix would initiate the formation of the nucleus C. The amorphous materials would convert to calcium phosphate and hydroxy phosphate

B. The presence of matrix would initiate the formation of the nucleus Epitactic concept (seeesing theory) --> nucleus/nidus/focus around which minerals can deposit in concentric layers.

166. Modulus of elasticity is defined as: A. The stress at the proportional limit B. The stress-strain ratio within the proportional limit

B. The stress-strain ratio within the proportional limit Explanation Also called Stiffness & Young's modulus

893. What is the neutral zone: A. The zone where displacing forces are neutral B. The zone where buccal and lingual forces are balanced

B. The zone where buccal and lingual forces are balanced

471. The shortest facial height is when: A. Teeth are overlapped B. There is maximum cuspal interdigitation

B. There is maximum cuspal interdigitation

740. When dry cast is immersed in water saturated with calcium sulphate:** A. There is contraction B. There is negligible expansion C. There is definite expansion D. There is no change E. None of the above

B. There is negligible expansion ???? not sure

36. Platelets play an important role in haemostasis; which of the following describes this role? A. They convert fibrinogen to fibrin B. They agglutinate and plug small, ruptured vessels C. They initiate fibrinolysis in thrombosis D. They supply fibrin stabilizing factors E. They supply proconvertin for thromboplastin activation

B. They agglutinate and plug small, ruptured vessels Explanation Platelet AGGREGATION is the 2nd stage of Hemostasis. Platelets aggregate (by TxA2) to form platelet plug which adheres to B.V. wall by VWF.

820. Hypoplasia as seen in x rays:** A. Thick enamel surface B. Thin enamel surface C. Sometimes large pulp chamber D. Can not be detected on X rays

B. Thin enamel surface

317. Why do you extract lower 8's by directing the extraction lingually:** A. Because of the roots direction B. Thinner bone C. Lingual deviation

B. Thinner bone External oblique ridge (buccaly) is thick

950. Swallowing will aid in the diagnosis of: A. Branchial cyst B. Thyroglossal duct cyst C. Ranula D. Retention cyst E. Globulomaxillary cyst

B. Thyroglossal duct cyst

815. The MAIN purpose of burnishing is: A. To help eliminating excess mercury B. To condense margins C. Polishing of filling

B. To condense margins

877. Why are three tripods marked on a cast being surveyed: A. To orient cast to articulator B. To orient cast to surveyor C. To provide guide planes

B. To orient cast to surveyor Tripoding

973. The MOST common sites for squamous carcinoma in the oral cavity are:** A. Palate and gingivae B. Tongue and floor of the mouth C. Tongue and palate

B. Tongue and floor of the mouth

589. When the developing solution is correctly mixed and the x ray film is being developed for normal time but the solution is too warm, the outcoming film will be: A. Too light B. Too dark C. Fogged

B. Too dark

879. The MAJOR disadvantage of Gutta Percha is: A. Soluble in chloroform B. Too weak for narrow canals

B. Too weak for narrow canals

943. Periodontal pocket is measured between: A. CEJ to base of pocket B. Top of the gingiva to the base

B. Top of the gingiva to the base

837. What is the MOST significant clinical feature of periodontal disease:** A. Bleeding B. True pocket formation and apical migration of attached gingiva

B. True pocket formation and apical migration of attached gingiva

The type of gold used for dental bridges is : A. Hard 18% B. Type IV 75%

B. Type IV 75% ADA Dental Gold Classification: (1)Type I 83% Au à inlay (2)Type II 78% Au à inlay, onlay (3)Type III 78% Au --> cr/br 3 u (4)Type IV 75% Au --> br, RPD

11. Internal resorption is, A. Radiolucency over unaltered canal B. Usually in a response to trauma C. Radiopacity over unaltered canal

B. Usually in a response to trauma

541. Which of the following is MOST useful in differentiating between apical abscess and periodontal: A. Percussion B. Vitality tests C. Cold tests D. Heat tests

B. Vitality tests

966. What is the main cause of bilateral cheilosis: A. Short vertical dimension B. Vitamin B deficiency

B. Vitamin B deficiency

292. Brown skin pigmentation does not occur in: A. Hyperparathyroidism B. Von Willebrand's syndrome C. Addison's desease

B. Von Willebrand's syndrome

782. What contraindicates pulp capping: A. Accidental exposure on vital young molars B. When inflammation of radicular pulp is already present C. When roots are greatly curved and tortuous D. When anterior tooth is vital and immature with wide open apicesE. None of the above

B. When inflammation of radicular pulp is already present

849. What is TRUE about Benzodiazepine and diazepam in 5-10mg oral dose used for oral sedation in dentistry: A. Good analgesic effect if given 1 hour prior to dental sessions B. Would be reversed by flumazepil because it is a Benzodiazepam C. Post operative headache D. There is a profound amnesic action and no side affects

B. Would be reversed by flumazepil because it is a Benzodiazepam Also A & D are correct. C is correct but NOT COMMONLY

172. Transillumination is used to detect :** A. intrinsic tooth coloration B. caries C. Pulp-stones D. Hemorrhagic pulp E. Calculus

B. caries Explanation Also cracks and sinus (max. & frontal) examination.

2. For an amalgam restoration of a weakened cusp you should, A. reduce cusp by 2mm on a flat base for more resistance B. reduce cusp by 2mm following the outline of the cusp C. reduce 2mm for retention form

B. reduce cusp by 2mm following the outline of the cusp Explanation F cusp = 0.5-1.5 mm acc. to occlusion. Cracked cusp = FLAT BASE

886. Pit and fissure caries start at: A. bottom of the fissure B. walls of the fissure

B. walls of the fissure The initial lesions develop on the lateral walls of the fissure. Demineralization follows the direction of the enamel rods, spreading laterally as it approaches the DEJ. Soon after the initial enamel lesion occurs, a reaction can be seen in the dentin and pulp. Forceful probing of the lesion at this stage can result in damage to the weakened porous enamel and accelerate the progression of the lesion. Clinical detection at this stage should be based on observation of discoloration and opacification of the enamel adjacent to the fissure. These changes can be observed by careful cleaning and drying of the fissure. Initial cavitation of the opposing walls of the fissure cannot be seen on the occlusal surface. Opacification can be seen that is similar to the previous stage. Remineralization of the enamel because of trace amounts of fluoride in the saliva may make progression of pit-and-fissure lesions more difficult to detect. Extensive cavitation of the dentin and undermining of the covering enamel will darken the occlusal surface

674. If the focal spot to film distance is increased from 20cm to 40cm, the intensity of radiation is reduced by: A. ½ B. ¼ C. 1/3 D. 1/5

B. ¼ Inverse square law: I1/I2 = D22/D12 -If you double the distance of the target --> intensity reduced=X 1/4 -If you triple the distance of the target --> intensity reduced=X 1/9

241. Which two of the following conditions present as complete vesicles A. Pemphigus B. Herpes simplex C. Aphthous ulcer D. ANUG E. Erythema migrans F. Erythema multiforme (A AND B)

Both A & B 100% But vesicles are rarely seen intact (intraepith), unlike MMP

324. Which periodontal pockets are evident on periapical radiographs: A. Buccal pockets B. Lingual pockets C. Mesial pockets D. Distal pockets E. Sinuous

C & D 100%

692. Patient with Class II div I malocclusion has ANB of: A. +2 B. -2 C. +8 D. -8

C. +8 ANB (relationship of max. to mand.: -Class I --> +2 -Class II --> more than +2 -Class III --> +1, 0 or -

185. The undercut for Cobalt Chrome's retentive arm clasp is, A. 0.75mm B. 0.50mm C. 0.25mm

C. 0.25mm Explanation -Depth of undercut depends on the clasp material: 1) 0.25 mm = cast cobalt chrome 2) 0.5 mm = SS clasp 3) 0.75 mm = cast gold. -Position of undercut: high survey line.

191. The ideal length of RCT is, A. At the apex B. As far as you can obturate C. 0.5 - 1.5 mm before the apex

C. 0.5 - 1.5 mm before the apex Explanation 0.5-1 mm from radiographic apex (i.e. at CDJ which is the anatomic apex ... end of pulpal tissues).

683. For a 5 years-old child who lives in a NON WATER FLUORIDATED area, what is the recommended supplemental intake of fluoride: A. 0.25mg B. 0.10mg C. 0.50mg D. 1.00mg

C. 0.50mg Not used now as water fluoridation has become standard. If Water Fl. < 0.3 ppm: -Age ½-3 yrs : 0.25 mg/d -Age >3-6 yrs : 0.5 mg/d -Age 6-16 yrs : 1 mg/d If Water Fl. 0.3-0.6 ppm: -Age ½-3 yrs : none -Age >3-6 yrs : 0.25 mg/d -Age 6-16 yrs : 0.5 mg/d Water Fl. > 0.6 ppm: NONE

142. The contraction of gold alloys on solidifying is approximately: A. 0.5% B. 2.5% C. 1.40% D. 3%

C. 1.40% American Decks

277. The minimal labial tooth reduction for satisfactory aesthetics with porcelain fused to metal crown is, A. 1mm B. The full thickness of enamel C. 1.5 mm D. 2.5mm E. One third of the dentine thickness

C. 1.5 mm

542. What is the ideal length for a post in post-core in an endodontically treated tooth: A. 2/3 of the tooth length B. ½ of the tooth length C. 1.5 times that of the crown D. Same as the anticipated crown

C. 1.5 times that of the crown ideal = 1.5 anatomical crown (3:2) clinically achievable = 2/3 root minimum = same as anatomical crown

972. Pigmented naevus can undergo malignant: A. Always B. Never C. 10 to 15%

C. 10 to 15%

346. How much space do you need to cap a weakened cusp with amalgam: A. 1mm B. 1.5mm C. 2mm D. 2.5mm

C. 2mm

806. A full x ray is recommended in children by age of:** A. 2 years- first visit B. 2 years for uncooperative kids C. 3-5 years

C. 3-5 years OPG not full set of IOPA

143. The un-polymerized monomer in Self-cured resin is approximately:** A. 0.5% B. 2.5% C. 5% (IT IS 0.5% IN HOT CURE) D. 10%

C. 5% (IT IS 0.5% IN HOT CURE) Explanation American Decks

402. Regarding the amount of fluoride required to reduce caries according to age and level of fluoride in drinking water, which of the following figures is incorrect** A. 1 years-old child requires no fluoride when the fluoride in drinking water is 0.3PPM B. 3 years old child requires no fluoride when the fluoride in drinking water is 0.7PPM C. 6 years old child requires 1mg of fluoride when drinking water containing 0.5mg

C. 6 years old child requires 1mg of fluoride when drinking water containing 0.5mg not valid anymore

147. Oil or water on impression for treatment casts causes: A. An increase of the quality B. No alteration C. A decrease of the quality D. Bubbles on the cast E. None of the above

C. A decrease of the quality Explanation Also D ... but C is inclusive

960. How much undercut area should a clasp arm engage:** A. As much undercut as possible B. Anywhere beyond the survey line C. A predetermined amount of undercut

C. A predetermined amount of undercut by surveyor

267. At which angle to the external surface of proximal cavity walls should a class II preparation for amalgam be finished A. An acute angle B. An obtuse angle C. A right angle D. An angle of 45°

C. A right angle CSA

342. Dental plaque produces: A. Chelation B. Dental caries C. Acids

C. Acids

95. At birth, some calcified dental tissues are presented, A. All deciduous teeth and all permanent incisors B. All deciduous teeth and permanent central incisors C. All deciduous teeth and the first permanent molars D. Deciduous teeth only

C. All deciduous teeth and the first permanent molars and sometimes lower centrals Explanation my presentation No. 7

30. Signs and symptoms that commonly suggest cardiac failure in a patient being assessed for oral surgery are, A. Elevated temperature and nausea B. Palpitations and malaise C. Ankle oedema and dyspnoea D. Erythema and pain E. Pallor and tremor

C. Ankle oedema and dyspnoea Explanation Pitting Oedema due to decreased venous return. Short breath & Pulmonary oedema

215. In young children what is the commonest finding after dental complaint: A. Acute periodontal abscess B. Chronic periodontal abscess C. Apical abscess D. Chronic alveolar abscess

C. Apical abscess Rapid inflam. process & spread of infection. Bone is more cancellous.

234. Which of the following may be caused by a newly placed restoration which interferes with the occlusion A. Apical abscess B. Pulpal necrosis C. Apical periodontitis

C. Apical periodontitis Premature contact --> apical periodontitis which may later cause pulpitis

595. In maxilla fracture, if intra cranial pressure increases:** A. It is normal B. Typically associated with tachycardia C. Associated with blood pressure D. Usually subsides spontaneously E. Typically associated with constricted and un-reactive pupil

C. Associated with blood pressure

305. Which one of the following types of pain is most likely to be associated with craniomandibular disorders: A. Exacerbated pain by hot or cold food B. Keeps patient awake at night C. Associated with muscle tenderness D. Associated with trigger spots related to the trigeminal nerve

C. Associated with muscle tenderness

633. Prophylactic administration of antibiotic is indicated before oral surgery in patients with: A. Herpes simplex B. Whooping cough C. Bacterial endocarditis

C. Bacterial endocarditis Mainly: -Hx of infective endocarditis -Prosthetic valves

336. Pontic replacing upper first molars in a bridge should: A. Slightly compress soft tissues B. Be clear of soft tissues C. Be just in contact with soft tissues

C. Be just in contact with soft tissues

519. A patient suffers a blow to his maxillary central incisor without resulting in fracture. The pulp may: A. Show immediate necrosis B. Become non-vital but only if treatment is delayed too long C. Become non vital irrespective of treatment D. No changes are seen later if fracture does not occur

C. Become non vital irrespective of treatment the blow will severe apical B.Vs.

908. A patient states that for ALMOST a year now she has had a rubbery, firm, painless nodule within the substance of parotid gland. This MOST likely is: A. Mucocele B. Lymph node C. Benign mixed tumour D. Squamous cell carcinoma E. Sialolith with encapsulations

C. Benign mixed tumour Pleomorphic adenoma

366. Granulomas, cysts and chronic periapical abscesses may mostly be differentiated by : A. Radiographs B. Electric pulp test C. Biopsy D. Thermal

C. Biopsy and only by BIOPSY (Histo. exam.)

833. A 29 years-old lady presents with a mandibular second molar associated with radiolucency of 1 cm diameter and paraesthesia of mental nerve. There are no other symptoms: A. Extraction and curettage B. Root canal treatment and antibiotics C. Blood test, extraction and biopsy D. Extract and pack with white head's varnish

C. Blood test, extraction and biopsy

1003. The MOST common curvature of palatal root of maxillary first molar is: A. Distal B. Mesial C. Buccal D. Palatal

C. Buccal

552. Retention for occlusal amalgam cavities in premolars is BEST provided by A. Slightly undercutting of walls with inversed cone bur B. Mesial and distal undercuts C. Buccal and lingual undercuts

C. Buccal and lingual undercuts while M & D should be divergent --> for resistance form (following direction of E. rods so avoiding weakening them)

136. What technique is used in the extraction of permanent 1 A. Rotation movement molars: B. Lingual movement C. Buccal movement

C. Buccal movement Explanation B-L but more Buccal movement to avoid fracturing the buccaly curved palatal root.

450. Which of the following are not supplied by the mandibular division of trigeminal:** A. Anterior part of digastric B. Masseter muscle C. Buccinator

C. Buccinator Buccinator --> buccal branch of facial n. Ant. belly of Digastric --> mylohyoid nerve (of mand. n.)

484. A seven years-old boy fell off his bicycle 2 weeks ago and broke his maxillary central incisor. The pulp horn is visible as a pin point. The tooth is vital. Your treatment will be: A. Pulpectomy B. Place calcium hydroxide and fill with composite resin C. Calcium hydroxide pulpotomy

C. Calcium hydroxide pulpotomy

883. What is CORRECT in regard to the periodontal surface area in mandibular teeth: A. First molar> first premolar> second premolar B. Canine> first premolar> second premolar C. Canine> lateral incisor> central incisor

C. Canine> lateral incisor> central incisor -Canine> lateral incisor> central incisor -First molar> 2nd premolar> first premolar -Canine>2nd premolar> first premolar

937. What is contraindicated to the use of calcium hydroxide for pulp capping: A. Accidental exposure of pulp B. Carious exposure of pulp in otherwise asymptomatic tooth C. Carious exposure of pulp in tooth that has been painful for weeks

C. Carious exposure of pulp in tooth that has been painful for weeks

731. What is NOT TRUE about Hydrotherapy (Water Jet): (Please check the question it seems that the question is which statement is true) A. Removes pellicle from tooth surface B. Removes dental plaque C. Causes no harm to gingiva

C. Causes no harm to gingiva The Q is what's true --> C Waterjet removes debris only & causes no harm to ging.

642. The immediate concern in the management of facial trauma should be: A. Securing a blood unit to replace any loss B. Fixation of fractures C. Checking the breath and insure a free airways D. Neurological consultation

C. Checking the breath and insure a free airways ABCD

463. Longest lasting resin restorations are, A. Class I B. Class II C. Class III D. Class IV

C. Class III

465. Acute apical abscess-emergency treatment: A. Open and drain for two days B. Antibiotic and analgesic C. Clean and Ledermix

C. Clean and Ledermix should be O & D with Ca(OH)2

863. A patient presents with fever of 39ºC, pain, swelling of upper lip and nose. Radiograph shows an enlargement of periodontal ligament space of 11 which has a large restoration without a base. What would your treatment be: A. Recision and antibiotic B. Antibiotic, analgesic followed by root canal treatment after remission of acute phase. C. Complete debridement of root canal, analgesic and antibiotic D. Remove restoration, apply a sedative dressing with corticosteroids

C. Complete debridement of root canal, analgesic and antibiotic

766. Treatment of Osteoradionecrosis is: A. Antibiotic coverage B. Conservative treatment including antibiotic coverage and resection of jaw segment. ( this i taken in sever non responsive cases) C. Conservative treatment with sequestrectomy

C. Conservative treatment with sequestrectomy In severe cases resection might be the ttt, i.e. B Are you getting goose bumps!

294. The gingiva of a child is diagnosed on the basis of all of these except of: A. Contour of gingival papilla B. Sulcus depth C. Contour of Nasmyth membrane D. Tight filling of gingival collar

C. Contour of Nasmyth membrane = primary enamel cuticle

401. Which of the following has the highest sucrose content: A. Ice cream B. Canned juice C. Cough syrups D. Breakfast cereal E. Sweet potato

C. Cough syrups Now most of them contain sorbitol

834. Periodontitis is a disease that has: A. A slow progression B. Rapid progression C. Cyclic or burst progression "active and inactive phases" D. Intermittent progress

C. Cyclic or burst progression "active and inactive phases"

545. Strain is defined as :** A. An external force B. An internal force to oppose external load C. Deformity opposed the applied load

C. Deformity opposed the applied load Strain is defined as "deformation of a solid due to stress"

616. A patient has improperly formed DEJ, reduction in size of pulp chamber, chipping and attrition of enamel that would MOSTLY be: A. Fluorosis B. Amelogenesis imperfecta C. Dentinogenesis imperfecta

C. Dentinogenesis imperfecta

390. A patient with an acetone odour would be suspected suffering from: A. Heart disease B. Liver damage C. Diabetes

C. Diabetes Hyperglycemia

93. For dental caries to progress in dentine, A. The dentine must contain soluble collagen B. Enamel must contain glycoproteins C. Diet must contain simple carbohydrate D. Diet must contain polysaccharides E. Pulp must contain complement

C. Diet must contain simple carbohydrate Explanation for bacteria to utilize it.

397. After the age of 6 years, the greatest increase in the size of the mandible occurs: A. At the symphysis B. Between canines C. Distal to the first molar

C. Distal to the first molar post. backward growth for molars

870. How do you remove the smear layer in root canal treatment: A. Use of 0.5% hypochlorite sodium B. Hedstrom file C. EDTA

C. EDTA

517. Which of the following is a radiographic feature of dentino-genesis imperfecta: A. Small pulp chambers and root canals, normal enamel B. Enamel is missing but dentine formation is normal C. Enamel and dentine show disturbances D. Pulp is normal but dentine is abnormal

C. Enamel and dentine show disturbances -type I & II total obliteration of pulp chamber -type III enormous pulp chamber NB: A is correct but without "NORMAL ENAMEL"

539. In RCT the ideal root filling: A. Ends at the apex B. Extends beyond apex to achieve a good seal C. Ends at the dentino-cemental junction

C. Ends at the dentino-cemental junction Anatomical apex

231. Opioid analgesics reduce pain by the release of which naturally appearing product: A. Serotonin B. Histamine C. Enkephalins

C. Enkephalins Endogenous morphine like substance

672. Odontogenic cysts develop from the following structures except: A. Reduced enamel epithelium of tooth crown B. Dental lamina dura C. Epithelium trapped after sutures D. Hertwig's root sheath

C. Epithelium trapped after sutures Those will be non-odontogenic FISSURAL cysts

105. As far as localised alveolar osteitis is concerned; which one of the following is true? A. The incidence in the mandible and maxilla is similar B. The prophylactic prescription of antibiotics prior to extraction reduces the incidence. C. Excessive fibrinolysis is the likely aetiology D. Purulent exudate must be seen for a diagnosis and irrigation is mandatory E. Zinc oxide eugenol and alvogyl dressing promote a rapid bone growth

C. Excessive fibrinolysis is the likely aetiology Explanation Dry socket

968. What sort of material do you use for the fabrication of Maryland bridges: A. Single phase materials B. Multi phase materials C. Extra hard D. The same as bonding martial

C. Extra hard with high sag resistance

33. The most significant finding in clinical evaluation of parotid mass may be accompanying, A. Lympha adenopathy B. Nodular consistency C. Facial paralysis D. Slow progressive enlargement E. Xerostomia

C. Facial paralysis Explanation -Most common malig. S.G. tumor = MUCOEPIDERMOID CARCINOMA, esp. MINOR S. Gs. -Most common malig. PAROTID tumor = ADENOID CYSTIC CARCINOMA.

73. The treatment of Localised Juvenile Periodontitis is frequently supplemented with tetracycline because the flora involved is predominant: A. Aerobic B. Strictly anaerobic C. Facultative anaerobic or microaerophilic D. Resistant to other antibiotic

C. Facultative anaerobic or microaerophilic

985. When is it acceptable for the patient to hold radiographic film packet in the patient's mouth: A. Patient is very young and cannot understand direction B. Patient is physically handicapped and unable to hold the film C. Film should never be held by the dentist D. There is a lack of time and radiograph is essential

C. Film should never be held by the dentist

125. Patient with class II division II; the lateral incisor is missing. You want to make a fixed bridge which of the following is suitable: A. Rocket bridge using central incisor as abutment B. Cantilever using central incisor C. Fixed bridge using the central incisor and bicuspid

C. Fixed bridge using the central incisor and bicuspid Explanation heavy bite (Class II Div 2) 1 & 3 abut.

912. A child has less than the normal number of teeth, the mandibular lateral incisor is larger than usual, on x rays it shows with two roots and two roots canals; your diagnosis is:** A. Dilaceration B. Gemination C. Fusion D. Concrescence E. Taurodontism

C. Fusion

941. Bilateral symmetrical swelling of the mandible of a child is likely to be caused by: A. Acromegaly B. Paget's disease C. Giant cell lesion D. Primordial cysts E. Dental cysts

C. Giant cell lesion

278. The gingival portion of natural teeth differs in colour from the incisal portion because the : A. Lighting angle is different B. Gingival and incisal portions have different fluorescent qualities C. Gingival area has a dentine background D. Incident light is different

C. Gingival area has a dentine background

848. The MOST frequently synthesized substance by Streptococcus mutans is: A. Liven B. Fructose C. Glucan D. Glycogen

C. Glucan

378. The most potent viricidal properties: (another format of the same question: 'Indicate which of the following has viricidal properties') A. Sodium hypochlorite B. Chlorhexidine C. Glutaraldehyde D. Alcohol 70% E. Quaternary ammonium

C. Glutaraldehyde Also Sod. Hypochlorite, but to a lesser extent.

867. Which of the following will NOT be used in the determination of vertical dimension: A. Aesthetic B. Phonetics C. Gothic arch tracing D. Swallowing

C. Gothic arch tracing For balance occlusion and determination of condylar inclination a 3 arrows on the palate and cheek the protrusive and lateral movement it helps to maintain a balanced occlusion

508. The causative organism in localised juvenile periodontitis is Actinomyces actinomycetem comitans which is:** A. Gram positive facultative aerobic B. Gram positive facultative anaerobic non-motile rod C. Gram negative facultative anaerobic non-motile

C. Gram negative facultative anaerobic non-motile Previously = Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans) Now = Aggregatibacter actinomycetemcomitans

121. Fluoridation is the adjustment of the fluoride content of a community water supply to optimum levels for caries prevention. Which of the following statement is correct? A. Tooth decay declines by 90% to 95% B. Tooth decay declines by 45% to 55% C. Greater reduction in smooth surface caries from in pit and fissures D. Fluoridation increases vulnerability to osteoporosis

C. Greater reduction in smooth surface caries from in pit and fissures Explanation 20-40%

7. Which one of the following is used in water fluoridation: A. SnF B. 1.23% APF C. H2SiF D. CaSiF

C. H2SiF Explanation Water fluoridation: 1- Hydrofluosilicic acid = H2SiF6 (not H2SiF2) 2- Sodium silicofluoride = Na2SiF6 3- Sodium fluoride = NaF

1000. A well constructed complete denture: A. Needs little maintenance B. Needs less than a week for adjustment and total success C. Has adverse effects and decreases taste sensations

C. Has adverse effects and decreases taste sensations

438. Which of the following is correct about Nitrous Oxide N2O: A. N2O has high analgesic and low anaesthetic property at its minimumanaesthetic dose. "Low MAC; Max Anaesthetic Concentration" B. Absolutely contraindicated in pregnancy C. Has low blood diffusibility and result in hypoxia D. It is good anaesthetic and low MAC

C. Has low blood diffusibility and result in hypoxia low analgesic effect & low MAC

276. In cementing Maryland or Roche bridges, the effect is generally to, A. Lighten the colour of the teeth by the opacity of the cement B. Darken the colour of the abutment by the presence of metal on the lingual C. Have no detrimental colour effect D. Darken the abutment teeth by incisal metal coverage

C. Have no detrimental colour effect

600. Haemophilia is characterised by:** A. Daughters are affected from their carrier fathers B. Present on "y" chromosome C. Hemarthrosis is a common finding D. Deficiency of factor VII E. Neutrophil defect

C. Hemarthrosis is a common finding Sons affected Daughters carriers from their affected father. X-chromosome Def. factor VIII No severe bleeding on cutting the umbilical cord

375. A 12 years-old girl complains of sore mouth, she has painful cervical lymphadenitis and a temperature of 39°c, oral examination shows numerous yellow grey lesions. What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis: A. Measles B. Erythema multiform C. Herpetic gingivostomatitis D. Stevens-Johnson syndrome

C. Herpetic gingivostomatitis Can't be measles & of course not B/C Most likely PHGS

490. Which of the following is the most significant factor regarding filler in composite for increased strength: A. Particle size 1-3 micron B. Sub micron sized particles C. High concentration of the filler particles

C. High concentration of the filler particles

565. What is an important requisite for fillers in dental composite restorative resins in load bearing areas: A. Sub micro sized particles B. High coefficient of thermal expansion C. High in content (High filler)

C. High in content (High filler)

737. Dentinogeneses imperfecta develops in: A. Initial stage B. Proliferation stage C. Histodifferentiation stage D. Morphology stage

C. Histodifferentiation stage Dentinogenesis Imperfecta: --> histodifferentiation stage Amelogenesis imperfecta: Type I (Hypoplasia) --> histodifferentiation stage Type II (Hypomaturation) --> apposition stage Type III (I or II with Taurodontism) --> histodifferentiation & apposition stages Type IV (Hypocalcification) --> calcification stage Hyper- & Hypo- dontia: -->initiation/induction stage Dense in dente, G/F, accessory cusp/tubercle: --> proliferation stage Macro- & Micro- dontia: --> histo- & morpho- differentiation stage E. Hypoplasia, Dysplasia, Pearl & Concrescence: --> apposition stage

50. A patient who recently had a calculus removed from the kidney presented with radiolucent area in the left maxilla with clinical evidence of swelling. The disease that you would immediately suggest is, A. Diabetes B. Thyrotoxicosis C. Hyperparathyroidism D. Osteoporosis E. Adrenal insufficiency

C. Hyperparathyroidism Explanation Hypercalcemia due to increased PTH.

220. The term "false pocket" stands for, A. Infra bony pocket B. Loss of periodontal attachment C. Hyperplasia of the gum

C. Hyperplasia of the gum = pseudopocket (i.e. no apical migration of junctional epith) --> gingivitis (reversible condition).

537. Marginal leakage at the proximal gingival cavosurface of a recently restored class II can be caused by: I. Insufficient condensation II. First proximal increment was too large III. Neglecting to wedge the matrix IV. Hand manipulation instead of mechanical V. Debris contamination A. I, II, III B. II, III, IV C. I, II, V D. None of the above E. All of the above

C. I, II, V III is also correct but no option available

262. The bur should be tilted lingually when preparing the occlusal surface of class II cavity on a mandibular first premolar in order to: I. Remove unsupported enamel II. Prevent encroachment on the buccal pulp horn III. Prevent encroachment on the lingual pulp horn IV. Maintain dentinal support of the lingual cusp A. I and II B. I and III C. II and IV D. III and IV E. IV only

C. II and IV

291. Which of the following is a major disadvantage to immediate complete denture therapy: A. Trauma to extraction site B. Increased the potential of infection C. Impossibility for anterior try in D. Excessive resorption of residual ridge

C. Impossibility for anterior try in

92. Which of the following is a major disadvantage to immediate complete denture therapy, A. Trauma to extraction site B. Increased potential of infection C. Impossibility for anterior try in D. Excessive resorption of residual ridge

C. Impossibility for anterior try in Explanation Zarb prosthodontics

323. What are the most common errors when constructing a partial denture: A. Improper survey B. Bad positioning of the occlusal rests C. Incorrect design

C. Incorrect design

1014. The initial condylar guidance of 25 degrees was wrong and is changed to 45 degrees. What changes will you make to achieve balanced occlusion: A. Decrease incisal guidance B. Reduce cusps height C. Increase compensation curve

C. Increase compensation curve the anterposterior and lateral curvature in the alignment of the occluding surfaces and the incisal edges of the teeth to maintain a balanced occlusion and its affected by condylar guidance

535. Patient with haemophilia presents which of the following findings:** A. Increased prothrombin time B. Increased bleeding time C. Increased clotting time

C. Increased clotting time -Factor VIII defects (Intrinsic pathway) --> increased APTT, so increased clotting time. -while in intrinsic pathway defects & warfarin --> increased PT -In platelets disorders & vWF diseases --> increased bleeding time.

472. What is TRUE about vertical dimension: A. Does not change for the whole life B. Decreases when head is tilted back C. Increases when a lower denture is placed in mouth

C. Increases when a lower denture is placed in mouth

611. What is the histopathology of the pathogenesis of the plaque following 21 days of plaque accumulation: A. Primarily infiltrate of plasma cells B. Primarily infiltrate of lymphocytes C. Infiltrate of plasma cells and early bone involvement D. Infiltrate of neutrophils

C. Infiltrate of plasma cells and early bone involvement Stages of Gingivitis: 1-Initial Lesion: Time: 2-4 days of plaque accum. Predominant inflam. Cells: PMNs 2-Early Lesion: Time: 4-7 days of plaque accum. Predominant inflam. Cells: Lymphocytes 3-Established Lesion: Time: 14-21 days of plaque accum. Predominant inflam. Cells: Plasma cells 4-Advanced Lesion/Periodontitis: Time: after 21 d. of plaque accum. Predominant inflam. Cells: Plasma cells. Initiation of alv. bone loss.

457. The characteristic feature of basal cell carcinoma is: A. Blood metastasis B. Does not erode bone C. Intensive involvement / inveterately characteristic/ D. Radio resistant

C. Intensive involvement / inveterately characteristic/ inveterate = unlikely to change

835. In regard to apically displaced flap, what is TRUE: A. Does not preserve attached gingivae B. Does not lengthen crown of tooth C. Is a pocket elimination procedure D. A & C

C. Is a pocket elimination procedure APF: --> eliminate the pocket and widen the zone of the attached gingiva he apically displaced flap *Main purpose reduction or elimination of pocket depth and widening of the zone of attached gingiva. *Improving accessibility for instrumentation. *Eliminates the pocket by apically positioning the soft tissue wall of the pocket, therefore it preserves or increases the width the attached gingiva by transforming the previously unattached keratinized pocket wall into attached tissue. This increase in width of the band of attached gingiva is based on an apical shift of the mucogingival junction, which includes apical displacement of muscle attachment → therefore internal bevel incision should be made as close to the tooth as possible 0.5-1 mm. *Depending on the purpose, is can be a full thickness (mucoperiosteal) or a split thickness (mucosal) flap.

72. Which of the following is true regarding gingivosis (Desquamative gingivitis) A. It is caused by hormononal imbalance B. Is seen only at or after menopause C. Is frequently caused by lichen planus D. Is a variant pregnancy gingivitis E. Is related to nutritional disturbance

C. Is frequently caused by lichen planu Explanation Not a disease entity, but a sign of systemic disease ( 2L & 2 P commonly)

293. Which statement BEST describes plaque: A. It is a soft film composed mainly of food debris and can not be rinsed off teeth B. It is a soft film composed mainly of food debris and can be rinsed off teeth C. It is a soft film composed mainly of none calcified bacteria and can not be rinsed off the teeth D. It is a soft film composed mainly of dextran and can not be rinsed off the teeth E. It is a soft film composed mainly of dextran and can be rinsed off teeth.

C. It is a soft film composed mainly of none calcified bacteria and can not be rinsed off the teeth

792. Which of the following varieties should be made in the proximal occlusal cavity preparation in deciduous teeth compared to permanent ones: A. The occlusal isthmus should be proportionally wider B. The occlusal lingual walls need not to be extended to self cleaning areas C. It is not necessary to include fissures in the occlusal outline D. The lingual angle should be sharper E. The axio pulpal line angle should not be bevelled

C. It is not necessary to include fissures in the occlusal outline No extension for prevention. No bevelling of ging. seat (E. rods occ.)

754. Concerning condensation of restorative gold: A. It may vary widely and has no influence on the final restoration B. The degassing procedure is not important C. It is the Achilles heel of direct gold restoration D. Clinical tech are more important than the physical properties of restorative gold E. All of the above

C. It is the Achilles heel of direct gold restoration which means it's the most important weak point in direct gold rest. Also D is correct.

442. Which is TRUE about disinfectant solutions:** A. It destroys all pathogenic micro organism including high resistant B. It reduces the number of micro organism to a non infective level C. It kills all pathogens but not spores.

C. It kills all pathogens but not spores.

100. What is the main purpose of using Stress breakers: A. To distribute the load between teeth and ridges B. To distribute the load between the clasps and the face end of the saddle C. It relieves the abutment tooth of occlusal loads that may exceed their physiologic strength

C. It relieves the abutment tooth of occlusal loads that may exceed their physiologic strength Explanation Decks

521. Patient on anti-coagulant therapy requires an extraction to be performed. Which of the following is NOT true: A. Minor post operative bleedings can be reduced somehow by using tranexamic acid B. Prothrombin value (INR) of 3 is enough to perform extraction C. It takes at least 8 hours for heparin to take effects D. Heparin should be administered sub-cutaneous

C. It takes at least 8 hours for heparin to take effects effect of heparin lasts 6-8 hrs

953. On an X ray you find the cement of the previous root canal treatment is extending 1mm beyond the apex without any symptoms; what would you do: A. Remove restoration material and retreat B. Apiectomy C. Leave as is until any complications occur

C. Leave as is until any complications occur

952. On an X ray you find the Gutta Percha cone extending 1mm beyond the apex without any symptoms, what would you do: A. Remove restoration material until you are able to withdraw the Gutta Percha cone B. Apiectomy C. Leave as is until any complications occur

C. Leave as is until any complications occur Remember : concussed primary tooth with discoloration and no symptoms leave

29. Patient received heavy blow to the right body of the mandible sustaining a fracture there. You should suspect a second fracture to be present in, A. Symphysis region B. Left body of the mandible C. Left sub-condylar region D. Right sub-condylar region E. sub-condylar region

C. Left sub-condylar region

803. The growth of the mandible at about year 5 and 6 is mainly at: A. Depth B. Width C. Length

C. Length to create room for molars

906. What is TRUE in regard to oral lesions of reticular lichen planus: A. Never accompanied with skin lesions B. Always accompanied with skin lesions C. Lesions may present anywhere D. Lesions may present on legs E. Lesions may present on arms

C. Lesions may present anywhere

632. Acute pyogenic bacteria infection may result in:** A. Leucopoenia B. Neutropenia C. Leukocytosis D. Lymphocytosis E. Eosinophilia

C. Leukocytosis increased TLC > 11000 specifically (NEUTROPHILIA)

655. How do you treat a child with severe Von Willebrand's disease:** A. Like a normal child B. Like a diabetic child C. Like a haemophilic child

C. Like a haemophilic child

288. The Fovea Palatinae are: A. Foramina covering the lesser palatine nerves and vessels B. Morphologically related to the formation of the premaxilla C. Located on either sides of the midline close to the junction of the hard and soft palate D. Closely related to the rugae of the palate

C. Located on either sides of the midline close to the junction of the hard and soft palate

41. Benign migratory glossitis or Geographic Tongue, manifests itself in the oral cavity as, A. Irregularly outlined areas of hyperkeratosis of the dorsal surface of the tongue B. Furrows outlined the dorsal surface radiating out from a central groove in the centre of the tongue C. Loss (atrophy) of filiform papillae in multiple irregularly outlined areas D. Irregularly outlined erythematous area of hyper trophic fungiform E. A fibrinous exudate on the dorsal surface F. Grooves (fissures) radiating from a central fissure G. Irregular area in the midline of the tongue

C. Loss (atrophy) of filiform papillae in multiple irregularly outlined areas Explanation Fungiform p. don't show hypertrophy but they become more prominent when filiform p. degenerate.

112. Which of the following is NOT characteristic of Down's syndrome? A. Decreased neutrophil function B. Macroglossia C. Macrodontia D. An increased susceptibility to periodontal disease E. Congenitally missing teeth

C. Macrodontia Microdontia is present

88. Periodontal damage to abutment teeth of partial denture with distal extension can best be avoided by, A. Applying Stressbreakers B. Employing bar clasps on all abutment teeth C. Maintaining tissue support of the distal extension D. Clasping at least two teeth for each edentulous area E. Maintaining the clasp arms on all abutment teeth at the ideal degree of tension

C. Maintaining tissue support of the distal extension Explanation American decks

63. Which primary teeth are LEAST affected with the nursing bottle syndrome? A. Maxillary molars B. Maxillary and mandibular canines C. Mandibular incisors D. Maxillary incisors E. Mandibular molars

C. Mandibular incisors Explanation Early childhood caries (ECC) lower As & Bs least affected due to being covered by tongue during suckling.

627. Koplik's spots are associated with one of the following: A. Viral infection B. Diabetes C. Measles D. Rubella E. Candidosis

C. Measles

946. Which of the following situations makes a periodontal disease more sever: A. Enough proximal surface B. Too wide bucco lingual embrasure C. Missing proximal contacts

C. Missing proximal contacts

658. Painless bluish lump filled with fluid on the lips; MOST likely is: A. Smoker's keratosis B. Squamous cell carcinoma C. Mucocele D. Fibroma E. Fibro-epithelial polyp

C. Mucocele Esp. lower lip Mucous extravasation (pseudo-cyst) with Hx of trauma

1002. Which muscle acts on the disto-lingual contour of lower denture: A. Mentalis B. Masseter C. Mylohyoid D. Buccinator

C. Mylohyoid and Med. Pterygoid is a better option

337. A labially displaced anterior tooth is restored with a gold core porcelain jacket crown so that it is in line with the arch; the crown will appears: A. Short B. Long C. Narrow D. Wide

C. Narrow

783. Tow successive negative cultures are: A. Absolutely necessary for successful endodontic treatment B. Not always necessary for successful endodontic treatment C. Not questioned today as a dogmatic requirement in endodontics D. Unquestioningly it adhered for successful endodontic treatment E. None of the above

C. Not questioned today as a dogmatic requirement in endodontics B is correct, too

243. How would you treat Denture Stomatitis A. Tetracycline B. Systemic penicillin C. Nystatin

C. Nystatin Also called : -denture sore mouth -chr. atrophic cand.

89. Which of these muscles may affect the borders of mandibular complete denture, A. Mentalis B. Lateral pterygoid C. Orbicularis oris D. Levator angulioris E. Temporal

C. Orbicularis oris Explanation Zarb prosthodontics

466. TMJ dysfunction common symptom is, A. Clicking B. Locking C. Pain in the muscles of mastication

C. Pain in the muscles of mastication

351. The most common characteristic symptom of malignant tumours occurring in lower jaw is, A. Pain B. Bleeding C. Paraesthesia

C. Paraesthesia

78. Of all the factors that increase the resistance of teeth to dental caries, THE MOST EFFECTIVE is, A. The general nutrition of a child during the period of tooth formation B. The intake of fluoride during the period of enamel mineralization and maturation C. Periodic topical fluoride application by dental health care following tooth eruption D. Sufficient intake of calcium and Vitamin D during the period of enamel mineralization and maturation

C. Periodic topical fluoride application by dental health care following tooth eruption Explanation topical Fl is far more effective than systemic Fl (Cameron).

462. Which of the following is true: A. Antibiotics are useful in the treatment of periodontitis B. Trauma from occlusion causes thickening of the marginal gingi C. Periodontitis is the primary cause of teeth lost after the age of 3 D. All periodontal pockets can be identified by x-ray E. Periodontitis is the most common disease in the oral cavity

C. Periodontitis is the primary cause of teeth lost after the age of 3

418. Angular type of bone resorption can be seen more often in:** A. Occlusal traumatism B. Food particles retention C. Periodontosis D. All of the above

C. Periodontosis MORE OFTEN C Also A is correct

503. Children born with cleft palate, microdontia and glossoptosis have: A. Christian disease B. Trenches-Collins Syndrome C. Pierre-Robin Syndrome

C. Pierre-Robin Syndrome Treacher Collins syndrome: 1- Cranio-facial deformities (underdeveloped zyg. & mand.) 2- Cleft palate 3- Micrognathia 4- Ear & Eye abnormalities Christian Scheller Disease -->triad of: Exophthalmos. lytic bone lesions (skull). Diabetes insipidus.

614. The MOST common cause of gingival enlargement is: A. Hereditary B. Drug induced C. Plaque induced D. Leukaemia

C. Plaque induced Plaque-induced gingivitis is ass. with ging. inlargement (inflam.). Drugs are the 2nd most common cause for ging. enlargement (represents FIBROTIC & INFLAM. components)

982. Characteristic of mucogingival involvement: A. A pocket of more than 4 mm depth B. Only 1mm of attached gingiva remains C. Pocket extends to the mucogingival junction

C. Pocket extends to the mucogingival junction = absent attached ging.

8. The best way to clean a cavity before the placement of GIC is, A. H2O2 B. Phosphoric Acid C. Polyacrylic acid

C. Polyacrylic acid Explanation also called: -Polycarboxylic acid -Polyalkenoic acid

551. Class V lesions may originate: A. In lingual pits B. In buccal fissures C. Poor oral hygiene

C. Poor oral hygiene smooth surface caries in the cervical part of tooth (crown-root)

781. The objective of pulpotomy is to: A. Preserve vitality of coronal pulp B. Preserve vitality of entire pulp C. Preserve vitality of radicular pulp D. Regenerate a degenerated and necrotic pulp E. None of the above

C. Preserve vitality of radicular pulp Ca(OH)2 or MTA dOONGAmunda

116. What is the affect of office dental prophylaxis of regular six month intervals on children's oral health? A. Reduce caries incidence by approximately 30% B. Provide a long term improvement in oral hygiene C. Provide a short term improvement in oral hygiene D. Prevent gingivitis E. Reduce the need for patient cooperation

C. Provide a short term improvement in oral hygiene

569. Which of the following statements is true: A. Last secretion of odontoblast forms cementum B. Last secretion of odontoblast forms acquired enamel cuticle C. Remnants of ameloblasts form primary enamel cuticle D. Remnants of odontoblasts form primary enamel cuticle

C. Remnants of ameloblasts form primary enamel cuticle

482. The first molars are extracted in both arches: A. The bone resorption will be the same for both arches B. Resorption is more on the palatal side of maxillary molars C. Resorption is more on lingual side of mandibular molars D. The ridge height resorbs more in maxilla than mandible

C. Resorption is more on lingual side of mandibular molars

810. Hawley appliances are used: A. To close midline diastema B. Maintain the normal relationship of the adjacent teeth until the canine erupts C. Retain teeth after orthodontic treatment

C. Retain teeth after orthodontic treatment

824. An Obturator in cleft palate plate is maintained by: A. Cohesion B. Atmospheric pressure C. Retention in the defect D. Patient support it with the tongue

C. Retention in the defect

516. Delayed eruption of at least part of the dentition is a recognised feature in:** A. Dentino-Genesis imperfecta B. Anhidrotic ectodermal dysplasia C. Rickets

C. Rickets B is associted with conical teeth & partial anadontia or oligodotia

356. If amalgam gets contaminated with moisture, the most uncommon result is:** A. Blister formation B. Post operative pain C. Secondary caries D. Lower compressive strength

C. Secondary caries the most common is pain due to delayed expansion

256. A large amalgam core is to be condensed around several pins in a vital molar tooth; what type of amalgam mix would you prefer: A. A large mix to ensure homogeneity B. A large with extra mercury to give easier manipulative qualities C. Several small mixes, sequentially triturated D. Several small mixes with varying mercury/alloy ratios E. A basic mix to which additional mercury is added as needed

C. Several small mixes, sequentially triturated

921. What contraindicates a distal wedge in molars' area: A. Distal fluting B. Long attached gingiva C. Sharply ascending ramus that limits space distal to molars D. Supra bony pockets distal to molars

C. Sharply ascending ramus that limits space distal to molars Anatomical difficulty

477. When should you pour polyether impression materials: A. Within 24 hours after taking impression B. Within 30 minutes after taking impression C. Should be stored dry and then poured D. Should be stored in a humid place

C. Should be stored dry and then poured -the format is that plyether COULD BE not SHOULD BE stored for 1 week but SHOULD BE stored in dry place not humid or liquid. -polyether is hydrophilic with superior wettability and the stiffest material with excellent recording of details stiff and hard even if it is poured after 24 hours

271. In root canal therapy it is generally accepted that the ideal root filling, A. Should extend to the level of the apex to minimize irritation B. Should extend slightly through the apex to ensure a complete seal C. Should extend to the dento cemental junction for healing D. The extension of the filling is not critical

C. Should extend to the dento cemental junction for healing

46. A patient presents complaining of a stomach upset 48 hours after starting a course of antibiotic for oral infection, this is an example of, A. Type I allergic reaction B. Nervous disorder C. Side effect of the drug D. Type IV hypersensitivity reaction E. Pyloric stenosis

C. Side effect of the drug Explanation Clindamycin is the most common example (causes Pseudo-membranous colitis). Also Metronidazole & Tetracycline.

281. When describing a removable partial denture, the minor connector refers to:** A. Rigid components anterior to the premolar teeth B. Flexible components, in contrast to rigid major connectors C. Smaller connectors which connect denture components to the major connector D. The components of the denture base which provides reciprocation

C. Smaller connectors which connect denture components to the major connector Check my RPD notes for more definitions

213. Wrought metal is to be, A. Marble B. Quenched C. Subjected /undergone/ to cold treatment during processing (annealed)

C. Subjected /undergone/ to cold treatment during processing (annealed) Annealing = controlled cooling of material to enhance ductility & strength Ductility = ability of material to undergo deformation under tensile stresses Malleability = ability of material to deformation of compressive stresses

120. In developing plaque; the adhesive polymer produced by streptococcus mutans is synthesis from: A. Glucose B. Fructose C. Sucrose D. Lactose

C. Sucrose

94. Streptococcus mutans utilises which subtract to form dextran, Refer to Boucher Microbiology A. Glucose B. Fructose C. Sucrose D. Amylopectin E. Dextrans

C. Sucrose most cariogenic Carb

505. What is not correct about Long Buccal Nerve:** A. Passes through two heads of pterygoids muscles (Bet. the 2 heads of Lat Pteryg.) B. Supplies mucosa over lower and upper molars C. Supplies the buccinator muscle D. Supplies skin over buccinator

C. Supplies the buccinator muscle (it is sup. by facial nerve)

515. On inspection of lateral boarder of the tongue at the base, which structure would you expect to find: A. Filiform papillae B. Fungiform papillae C. Taste buds D. Lymph nodes E. Circumvallate papillae

C. Taste buds C (contained within the Foliate papillae)

520. In the case of malignant melanoma occurring intra orally, which of the following is true: A. Uncommon on the palate when occurs intra orally B. Should not biopsied, as this will increase metasis C. The 5 years survival rate is 20% D. The incidence of oral melanoma is the same as those on the skin E. Commonly occurs intra orally

C. The 5 years survival rate is 20%

170. Lateral canals are usually found at: A. The middle of the root B. First third of the root close to the crown C. The apical third

C. The apical third Explanation also furcation area esp. primary molars

757. The effectiveness of the acid etch is dependent on which of the following factors: A. Material must be used to clean the surface of the tooth prior to etching B. The effectiveness of the itchant C. The chemical and physical nature of the tooth D. The area and surface of the enamel to be itched

C. The chemical and physical nature of the tooth

96. which one of the following statement is correct, A. The remnants of Ameloblast contribute to the primary enamel cuticle B. the last secretion of the odontoblast is cementum X C. The last secretion of the ameloblast is the acquired of enamel cuticle D. The remnants of odontoblast form the primary enamel cuticle

C. The last secretion of the ameloblast is the acquired of enamel cuticle Explanation BERKOVITZ Oral Histology: -It's called primary enamel cuticle not acquired. -Also C is correct if having "primary" instead of "acquired"

772. The diagnosis of ortho cases is by: A. Measurement of cranium size B. Recording profile C. The relation of dentition and the jaw to the cranium D. Determination of overbite size E. Determination of jaw size

C. The relation of dentition and the jaw to the cranium

793. 10 years-old boy looses a permanent mandibular molar; what is affected: A. Teeth adjacent to extracted teeth B. Teeth on both arches on same side C. The remaining teeth in the mouth D. Teeth directly opposite to the extracted tooth E. Teeth on the same quadrant

C. The remaining teeth in the mouth

279. In bridge work, which of the followings terms is NOT CORRECT: A. A retainer could be a crown to which a bridge is attached to B. A connector connects a pontic to a retainer or two retainers to each other C. The saddle is the area of the edentulous ridge over which the pontic will lie and comes in contact with pontic D. A pontic is an artificial tooth as part of a bridge

C. The saddle is the area of the edentulous ridge over which the pontic will lie and comes in contact with pontic

301. Which one of the following is the major disadvantage of stone dies used for crown fabrication, A. They lack accurate reproduction of surface details B. Their overall dimensions are slightly smaller than the original impression C. The strength of the stone D. The hazard of aspiration of toxic materials during trimming of the dies.

C. The strength of the stone SHILLINGBURG

900. When treating a non-vital tooth with a fistula presented, the fistula should be treated by: A. Surgical incision B. Antibiotic coverage C. The usual root canal procedures for non-vital teeth and no special procedures for fistula

C. The usual root canal procedures for non-vital teeth and no special procedures for fistula

98. Loss of tooth in mixed dentition affects A. Same quadrant B. The relevant jaw C. The whole mouth D. The relevant quadrant

C. The whole mouth Explanation Cameron

126. When repairing a fracture of a lower complete denture, which statement is correct: A. Self curing will distort the denture B. Cold curing will not be strong enough because of small area of attachment C. There is a possibility of occlusal disharmony

C. There is a possibility of occlusal disharmony

373. A patient whose hands feel warm and moist is MOST likely to be suffering from:** A. Anxiety B. Congestive cardiac failure C. Thyrotoxicosis

C. Thyrotoxicosis -Excessive sweating -Tremors -Exophthalmos -heat intolerance

180. Why do you polish the teeth before seating of a partial denture: A. To smooth the rough surface B. To minimise the retention of plaque C. To increase the adoptability of occlusal rests

C. To increase the adoptability of occlusal rests Explanation 1- increase adaptability of the occ. rests 2- minimize plaque retention

872. A lateral incisor labial to the arch needs to be restored in normal alignment with PFM retraction. How will the tooth appear: A. Too wide B. Too short C. To narrow D. To long

C. To narrow Optical illusion

84. What is the purpose of making a record of protrusive relation and what function does it serve after it is made? A. To register the condylar path and to adjust the inclination of the incisal guidance. B. To aid in determining the freeway space and to adjust the inclination of the incisal guidance. C. To register the condylar path and to adjust the condylar guides of the articulator so that they are equivalent to the condylar paths of the patient. D. To aid in establishing the occlusal vertical dimension and to adjust the condylar guides of the articulator so that they are equivalent to the condylar paths of the patient.

C. To register the condylar path and to adjust the condylar guides of the articulator so that they are equivalent to the condylar paths of the patient. Explanation American Decks II - prosthodontics

332. In an X ray the mesio buccal root of upper first molars is elongated because of: A. Mesio angular horizontal B. Too big vertical angulation C. Too small vertical angulation D. High angulation

C. Too small vertical angulation

449. A patient presents to you with a history of local pain in the lower right posterior region, insisting that you extract his lower teeth. The teeth in question are vital without any pathology. You diagnosis is: A. Odontalgia B. Referred pain C. Trigeminal neuralgia

C. Trigeminal neuralgia Actually all correct: -Atypical odontalgia -Atypical facial pain -Referred pain -Trig. neuralgia

773. Full mouth x ray survey at birth reveals: A. Ten teeth are present B. Twenty teeth are present C. Twenty four teeth are present D. Twelve teeth are present

C. Twenty four teeth are present All Primary teeth + 6s may also show 1s

272. Mesiobuccal root of maxillary first molars MOST COMMONLY have: A. One canal with one foreman B. One or two canals with one foreman C. Two canals with one foreman D. Two canals with two foremen

C. Two canals with one foreman in 96%

571. In regard to Chlorhexidine mouth wash:** A. Is anionic B. Used in 0.02% concentration C. Used in 0.12% concentration D. Penetrates the gingival crevice/pocket

C. Used in 0.12% concentration

498. Herpetic infection is an iatrogenic infection spread by the infected's: A. Serum B. Vesicle C. Vesicle fluid and saliva

C. Vesicle fluid and saliva

497. The best method of cleaning and toilet cavity: A. Alcohol B. Citric acid C. Water D. Organic acid

C. Water no chemical cavity toilet is to be done.

702. Which of the following has proven to be the MOST important in community preventive program: A. Dental awareness of the community B. Institution of oral hygiene measures C. Water fluoridation

C. Water fluoridation

858. When is a gingival groove LEAST required: A. When restoring with GIC for abrasion B. When restoring with GIC for root caries C. When restoring with GIC base and composite lamination D. When restoring with amalgam

C. When restoring with GIC base and composite lamination Retention grooves required with A,B & D

60. The obturating material of choice for primary teeth following complete pulpectomy is, A. Zn phosphate cement and formcresol combination paste B. Quick setting hydroxide cement C. Zinc oxide and eugenol cement D. Gutta-percha E. Polycarboxylate cement

C. Zinc oxide and eugenol cement Explanation Obturation of primary teeth must not interfere with the normal exfoliation of the tooth this requires Resorbable material EXCEPT if there is no permanent successor. Materials used in primary teeth: -ZnO/E -Iodoform paste

690. After 4 to 7 days, what type of cells would you find predominately in gingivitis: A. Leukocytes B. Plasma cells

Correct answer is Lymphocytes. Stages of Gingivitis: 1-Initial Lesion: Time: 2-4 days of plaque accum. Predominant inflam. Cells: PMNs 2-Early Lesion: Time: 4-7 days of plaque accum. Predominant inflam. Cells: Lymphocytes 3-Established Lesion: Time: 14-21 days of plaque accum. Predominant inflam. Cells: Plasma cells 4-Advanced Lesion/Periodontitis: Time: after 21 d. of plaque accum. Predominant inflam. Cells: Plasma cells. Initiation of alv. bone loss.

249. The absence of lamina dura in radiographs is a feature of all of these except for:** A. Paget's disease B. Hyperparathyroidism C. Fibrous dysplasia D. Osteogenesis imperfecta E. Hyperthyroidism

D & E 100%

703. The water fluoridation is 0.5ppm; what is the recommended supplemental fluoride concentrations for 3 years-old child: A. 0.25mg B. 0.50mg C. 1.00mg D. 0 mg

D. 0 mg Not used now as water fluoridation has become standard. If Water Fl. < 0.3 ppm: -Age ½-3 yrs : 0.25 mg/d -Age >3-6 yrs : 0.5 mg/d -Age 6-16 yrs : 1 mg/d If Water Fl. 0.3-0.6 ppm: -Age ½-3 yrs : none -Age >3-6 yrs : 0.25 mg/d -Age 6-16 yrs : 0.5 mg/d Water Fl. > 0.6 ppm: NONE

59. When no radiation shield is available, the operator should stand out of the primary x ray beam and a distance from the patient's head of at LEAST: A. 0.5 metres B. 1 metre C. 1.5 metres D. 2 metres E. 3 metres

D. 2 metres Explanation Ideally 6 feet = 180 cm The operator of the dental unit must stand at least six feet from the useful beam or behind a protective barrier. Stand at an angle of from 90 to135 degrees from the central ray. Do NOT stand in the path of the primary x-ray beam.

144. The volume shrinkage of methyl metacrylate monomer when polymerized is:** A. 12% B. 15% C. 18% D. 21%

D. 21% American Decks

553. What is true in regard to lateral mandibular incisors A. 20% have 2 canals with one foramen B. 20% have 2 canals with two foramina C. 40% have two canals with 10% ending in two foramina D. 40% have two canals with only one ending in two foramina

D. 40% have two canals with only one ending in two foramina 40% have two canals with only ONE THIRD ending in two foramina

857. What is the range of the visible light cure beam: A. 100-120 nm B. 200-300 nm C. 400-430 nm D. 470 nm or 450-500 nm

D. 470 nm or 450-500 nm

408. How many pulp horns are present in a typical mandibular deciduous second molar: A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5

D. 5 up. D 3 horns up. E 4 horns low. D 4 horns low. E 5 horns

380. At what rate should chest cardiac compression be done in an adult:** A. 12 times a minute B. 24 times a minute C. 50 times a minute D. 80 times a minute

D. 80 times a minute

258. The optimum cavosurface angle for occlusal amalgam surface is: A. 45-60° B. 70-85° C. 45-80° D. 95-110° E. 130-150°

D. 95-110° Amalgum is better in compressive strength than in tensile

904. A 50 years old man presents after a full mouth extraction complaining that he "bled all night". Which of the following pre existing conditions could be responsible for the post operative bleeding: A. Blood pressure reading of 180/110 B. Gastric ulcer C. Elevated prothrombin time D. A & C are correct E. None of the above

D. A & C are correct

111. Patient presents with rapidly progressive root caries on many teeth. Which of the following laboratory results would be a possible indicator of this? A. Stimulated salivary secretion rate of 1.5ml/min B. S. mutans concentration of 10 -5 C. A plaque sample containing 5% S. mutans organism/ml D. A lactobacilli concentration of 10 5 E. Salivary buffering PH 5.5

D. A lactobacilli concentration of 10-5 Lactobacillus count test. there's not single test for S mutans. Dento-cult test strip (for both L & S mutans)

1008. Pulp capping in mature tooth may be followed by:** A. Pulpalgia B. Internal resorption C. Hypercalcification within root canals D. All of the above

D. All of the above

1011. "Pop off" of a porcelain veneer from the under the lying gold crown is due to:** A. Too thick application of pure gold surface conditioner B. Contamination at the porcelain metal interface C. Under firing the opaque layer D. All of the above

D. All of the above

349. Sjögren syndrome is characterised by: A. Dryness of the mouth B. Dryness of the eyes C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. All of the above

D. All of the above

431. Which of the following factors can affect the shape and size of the pulp canal: A. Chemical irritation and caries B. Trauma and function C. Attrition, wear and aging of the patient D. All of the above

D. All of the above

546. The size of the pulp chamber within the tooth is influenced by: A. Age B. Parafunctional C. History of the tooth /abrasion, erosion, caries/ D. All of the above

D. All of the above

791. Which of the following Gold casting alloys are available: A. Medium alloy "Type II" B. Hard alloy "Type III" C. Extra Hard alloy "Type IV" D. All of the above

D. All of the above

971. What is your management with a chronic oral antral fistula for some time after the extraction of maxillary first molar: A. Surgical closure B. Anti-biotic and nasal decongestant C. Wash the antrum D. All of the above

D. All of the above starting with A

140. What is the advantage of composite over silicate resin: A. Less shrinkage B. Less surface erosion C. Less water absorption D. All of the above

D. All of the above Explanation Silicate resin is composed of --> -powder sodium alumino Fl and 20 percent glass -liquid phosphoric acid so --> it is acid base reaction Advantages: -anticariogenic -good insulator coz CTE close to that of the tooth Disadvantages: -discoloration -soluble shrinkage -brittle and poor marginal integrity -pulpal irritation due to acidity

310. The difference between deciduous and permanent teeth is: A. Deciduous teeth have a higher pulp horns and larger pulp chambers B. Deciduous teeth have flatter contact areas C. Deciduous teeth have thinner enamel surface D. All of the above

D. All of the above ALSO --> E. rods curved occlusally --> so no beveling in the ging. seat of Class II (unlike permanent).

646. Disorder of steroid will result in: A. Adrenal suppression B. Delayed healing C. Osteoporosis D. All of the above

D. All of the above However A is the most prominent

266. Choose a statement that correctly defines the term AMALGAM: A. Amalgam is a metallic powder composed of silver, tin, copper and zinc B. Amalgam is an alloy of two or more metals that have been dissolved in each other in the molten state. C. Amalgam is an alloy of two or more metals, one of them is mercury D. Amalgam is a metallic substance in powder or tablet from that is mixed with mercury E. Amalgam is an alloy of two or more metals, one of them is tin

D. Amalgam is a metallic substance in powder or tablet from that is mixed

40. Which of the following is NOT CHARACTERISTIC of trigeminal neuralgia?** A. The pain usually last for few seconds up to a minute in the early stages of the disease B. The pain is usually unilateral C. Patient characteristically have sites on the skin that when stimulated precipitate an attack of pain D. An attack of pain is usually preceded by sweating in the region of the forehead E. It is a paroxysmal in nature and may respond to the treatment with Carbamazepine

D. An attack of pain is usually preceded by sweating in the region of the forehead Explanation D = Frey's (Auriculotemporal ) Synd. in which surg. damage to the Auriculotemp. nerve (parasymp. supply to sweat & salicvary glands) --> sweating & salivation when eating or thinking of food. ALL the other options are characteristics of trig. neuralgia.

97. The principle muscle responsible for the opening of the mouth is, A. Mylohyoid B. Anterior temporal C. Posterior temporal D. Anterior belly of digastric

D. Anterior belly of digastric Explanation Lat. pterygoid is also an opener.

862. What is TRUE in regard to the preparation of occlusal rests: A. Use an inverted cone bur B. Use a flat fissure bur C. Parallel to occlusal plane D. At right angle to the long axis of tooth E. None of the above

D. At right angle to the long axis of tooth using cylindrical STONE with round tip

947. The auxiliary occlusal rest on teeth for partial denture should be placed: A. Away from edentulous space B. Adjacent to edentulous space C. Near fulcrum line D. Away from fulcrum line

D. Away from fulcrum line Primary occ. rests adjacent to edentulous areas. Auxillary (indirect retention) away from fulcrum line.

151. To obtain a desired projection of occlusal loads, the floor of the occlusal rest should, A. Be convex B. Slope from the marginal ridge towards contact?? of abutment C. Slope from contact?? of abutment towards the marginal ridge D. Be concave E. Does not slope from the marginal ridge towards contact?? of abutment F. None of the above

D. Be concave McCRACKEN

574. A female patient is diagnosed with Addison's disease. Which of the following does not confirm this: A. Weakness, lassitude B. Anorexia, nauseas, fatigue C. Hypotension D. Bony expansion E. Amenorrhea

D. Bony expansion

341. Caries which is close to the pulp chamber; on x rays you find 'dens in dente'; the right treatment is: A. Zinc oxide eugenol cement and amalgam B. Pulpectomy C. Pulpotomy D. Calcium hydroxide on pulp and amalgam

D. Calcium hydroxide on pulp and amalgam unless pulpal status indicate pulpotomy or pulpectomy (RCT).

980. What is TRUE in regard to Basal Cell Carcinoma A. Metastasis is common B. Erodes bone C. More common in oriental races D. Cannot occur in oral mucosa according to definition

D. Cannot occur in oral mucosa according to definition

698. Which of the following is staphylococcal infection: A. Scarlet fever B. Pericarditis C. Pancreatitis D. Carbuncle

D. Carbuncle -Skin: Carbuncles, Impetigo & Boils -Endocarditis -Pneumonia -Garteroenteritis NB: Scarlet fever is a Streptococcal infection & chara. by Strawberry Tongue.

631. Which is LEAST likely to cause bleeding after surgical operation: A. Antibiotic therapy B. Poor surgical techniques C. Aspirin D. Codeine

D. Codeine Remember: Prolonged AB therapy can affect Vit. K sysnthesis by liver --> clotting problem

606. Absence of clearly defined crystal lamina dura is because: A. Pathognomonic of periodontal disease B. Indicative of attachment loss C. Associated with periodontal pocket D. Commonly related to radiograph angulation

D. Commonly related to radiograph angulation

768. Lamina dura is actually: A. Cortical bone B. Spongy bone C. Immature bone D. Cribriform plate perforated by nutrition canals

D. Cribriform plate perforated by nutrition canals

612. What is INCORRECT in HIV associated periodontitis:** A. Picture of ANUG superimposed with RPP B. Spontaneous bleeding interproximal C. Depression of T4/T8 lymphocytes D. Deep Perio-pockets usually seen in advanced periodontitis

D. Deep Perio-pockets usually seen in advanced periodontitis

71. In testing for mobility, which of the following statement is true: A. Heavy pressure must sometimes be used to test mobility B. Only lateral mobility is significant in diagnosis and treatment of chronic inflammatory periodontal disease C. Hyper mobility indicates that the tooth supporting structures have been weakened D. During the periodontal examination each tooth should be tested individually for hyper mobility E. Reliance on radiograph is essential

D. During the periodontal examination each tooth should be tested individually for hyper mobility Explanation D 100% Also C is correct Take both if available.

671. Which of the following is secondary to immune deficiency: A. Pseudo membrane deficiency B. Herpes simplex C. Squamous cell carcinoma D. Elevated Epstein bar viruses incidence

D. Elevated Epstein bar viruses incidence Hairy leukoplakia in HIV

529. Which of the following is NOT TRUE in regard to lateral periodontal cyst** ( The question should be what is TRUE instead of what is NOT TRUE) A. It is more common in anterior region B. It occurs more in maxilla than mandible C. Probable origin is from dentigerous cyst which develops laterally D. Encountered in the cuspid-premolar region of the mandible, derived from the remnants of the dental lamina

D. Encountered in the cuspid-premolar region of the mandible, derived from the remnants of the dental lamina The quesion is --> which is true in regards to DEVELOPMENTAL LATERAL PERIODONTAL CYST NB: A & B true for lat. period. INFLAM.

644. A patient presents with rheumatic fever and suspected allergy to penicillin. The antibiotic of choice is: A. Chloromycetin B. Sulphonamide C. Buffered penicillin D. Erythromycin E. Achromycin

D. Erythromycin 1- Clindamycin 2- Erythromycin

223. Which of the following is not useful for apical infection: A. Chlorhexidine B. H2O2 C. EDTA D. Ethyl alcohol E. Eugenol

D. Ethyl alcohol

32. A persistent oroantral fistula for a 12 weeks period following the extraction of a maxillary first permanent molar is best treated by, A. Further review and reassurance since it will most probably heal spontaneously B. Antibiotic therapy and nasal decongestants C. Curettage and dressing of the defect D. Excision of the fistula and surgical closure E. Maxillary antral wash out and nasal antrostomy.

D. Excision of the fistula and surgical closure Explanation long standing OAC --> becomes epithelialized --> OAF --> needs surg. correction.

104. What would not cause an airway obstruction A. Laryngeal muscles paralysis B. Flexion of the neck C. Airway obstruction D. Extension of the neck

D. Extension of the neck Explanation Head tilt chin lift maneuverer clears airway

75. Probe pressure at the sulcus of pocket should not be more than enough to: A. Feel the top of the crestal bone B. Balance the pressure between fulcrum and grasp C. Define the location of the apical and the calculus deposit D. Feel the coronal end of the attached tissues E. Limit the lateral pressure

D. Feel the coronal end of the attached tissues Explanation probing pressure = 25 g

270. The term TUGBEN?? is related to ( "When used in connection with a master Gutta Percha cone in endodontics)" : A. Tensile strength of the gutta percha B. Consistency of gutta percha C. Size of the cone D. Fit of the cone in the apical 1 or 2 mm E. Length of the cone

D. Fit of the cone in the apical 1 or 2 mm TUG-BACK Action

79. When the enamel of the tooth is exposed to preparation containing high concentrations of fluoride the major reaction is: A. Sodium fluoride B. Calcium fluoride C. Stannous fluoride D. Fluoroapatite

D. Fluoroapatite Explanation High conc. solution --> Fluoroapatite CPP-ACP --> CaF2

28. Loss of sensation in the lower lip may be produced by, A. Bell's palsy B. Traumatic bone cyst C. Trigeminal neuralgia D. Fracture in the mandible first molar region E. Ludwig's angina

D. Fracture in the mandible first molar region

608. A mandibular permanent first molar has to be extracted, this will affect: A. Adjacent teeth B. Teeth in the same quadrant C. Both arches the same side D. Full mouth

D. Full mouth

720. All of the following should be considered for systemic antibiotic except: A. Extraction of tooth with acute dento alveolar abscess B. Necrotic ulcerative gingivitis (ANUG) unless it is acute. C. Extraction of 38 or 48 with acute pericoronitis D. Full mouth extraction for a patient with perio disease

D. Full mouth extraction for a patient with perio disease The Q should be "COULD BE CONSIDERED" not "SHOULD BE CONSIDERED) --> so the answer is D Otherwise actually all are NOT INDICATIONS for AB

479. Which cement is less soluble in the oral cavity: A. Polycarboxylate B. Zinc phosphate C. Silicate phosphate D. GIC

D. GIC

804. An 8 years-old child has a badly broken deciduous molar. What is the best material to restore it: A. Amalgam B. Gold C. Composite D. GIC

D. GIC Longevity of RMGIC = 2-3 yrs & chem. bond. Comp. requires enough remaining tooth str.

573. Which of the following is NOT a complication of radiation to head and neck area:** A. Xerostomia B. Mucositis C. Increased caries D. Heightened taste sensation E. Increased risk of osteomyelitis

D. Heightened taste sensation

659. The diagnosis of pemphigus vulgaris is confirmed by:** A. Tzanck cells B. Test dose of corticosteroid C. Test of anti body D. Histological immunofluorescence E. Serological test for auto antibody

D. Histological immunofluorescence

345. In which class of cavities do composite restorations show most durability: A. I B. II C. IV D. III E. V

D. III

765. You notice a radiolucent area close to the apex of the central incisor, on a second x ray the radiolucent area moves; it is likely to be: A. Cyst B. Abscess C. Granuloma D. Incisive foramen

D. Incisive foramen

377. To reduce the risk of side effects of local anaesthetic injections; you should follow all of the following EXCEPT: A. Aspirate before injection B. Use the smallest effective volume C. Use the weakest efficient percentage strength D. Inject rapidly

D. Inject rapidly slow injection is always recommended to avoid pain & ballooning

905. Long bone growth happens by: A. Mitosis in osteoblast B. Mitosis of osteoblast C. Appositional growth in cartilage epiphysis D. Interstitial growth in cartilage epiphysis

D. Interstitial growth in cartilage epiphysis Endochondral ossification: CHECK THIS --> http://depts.washington.edu/bonebio/ASBMRed/growth.html

232. Toxicity as a result of anaesthetic solution can be seen more when: A. Injection in supine position B. Injection into vascular area C. Injection without vasoconstrictors D. Intravenous injection

D. Intravenous injection This is why aspiration before injection is needed esp. in IANB

297. Mercury is dangerous when it turns into vapour form because of, A. It is accumulative and causes liver poison B. It is accumulative and causes kidney poison C. It induces neoplasia in the liver D. It is accumulative and causes brain poison E. It induces neoplasia in the brain

D. It is accumulative and causes brain poison

509. Which of the following is NOT a significant factor in determining virulence of AA = Actinomyces actinomycetem comitans? A. It effects chemotaxis B. Produces leukous toxins C. Destroys collagen D. It is immuno-suppressive

D. It is immuno-suppressive It EVADES (overcomes) immune system but doesn't cause immune-suppression

83. The extraction of maxillary deciduous molar in 5 years old child; you should use: A. Mostly towards the apex pressure and some movement B. Rotation C. Distal pressure and movement D. Labial-lingual movement

D. Labial-lingual movement Explanation with more buccal movement to avoid fracturing the buccaly curved palatal root.

45. Carcinoma of the tongue has a predilection for which of the following sites?** A. Lateral border anteriorly B. Anterior dorsal surface C. Posterior dorsal surface D. Lateral border posteriorly E. No preferred location

D. Lateral border posteriorly Explanation L.N. metastasis esp. if involves base of tongue (post. 1/3).

38. Which of the following lesions CANNOT BE classified as an intra-epithelial lesion?** A. Herpes simplex infections B. Pemphigus vulgaris C. Herpangina D. Lichen planus E. Hand, foot and mouth disease

D. Lichen planus Explanation Intra-epith. lesions include: 1- viral infections (Herpes viruses as HSV,VZV and also Coxsackie Virus). 2- PV 3- EM N.B.: ALL CHARACTERISED BY "ACANTHOLYSIS" esp. PV

405. A preschool child has an intruded upper incisor; what would your treatment be** A. X-ray B. Put it back in place and splint C. Control bleeding and check after a month D. Make the patient comfortable without disturbing the tooth.

D. Make the patient comfortable without disturbing the tooth. Cameroon

31. A cyst at the apex of an upper central incisor measuring 1 cm in diameter is visualized in radiograph and confirmed by aspiration biopsy; which method of treatment would you consider? A. Extraction of the central incisor and retrieving the cyst through the socket B. Exteriorizing the cyst through the buccal bone and mucosa C. Making a mucoperiosteal flap and removing the cyst through an opening made in the alveolar bone, followed by tooth removal. D. Making a mucoperiosteal flap and removing the cyst through an opening made in the alveolar bone, followed by endodontic treatment. E. Routine orthograde endodontic treatment followed by observation.

D. Making a mucoperiosteal flap and removing the cyst through an opening made in the alveolar bone, followed by endodontic treatment. Explanation D is correct, HOWEVER THE RCT SHOULD BE DONE BEFORE THE APICECTOMY.

280. A crown casting with a chamfer margin fits the die; but in the mouth the casting is open approximately 0.3mm. A satisfactory fit and accurate physiological close of the gingival area of the crown can BEST be achieved by: A. Hand burnishing B. Mechanical burnishing C. Using finishing burs and points to remove the enamel margins on the tooth D. Making a new impression and remaking the crown E. Relieving the inside of the occlusal surface of the casting to allow for further seating

D. Making a new impression and remaking the crow

344. The major disadvantage of self-threaded pins is: A. Friction locked B. Too expensive C. Not all sizes available D. May cause tooth cracking

D. May cause tooth cracking

283. In removable partial denture, the principle of an indirect retainer is to: A. Stabilise against lateral movement B. Prevent settling of major connectors C. Restrict tissue movement at the distal extension base of the partial denture D. Minimise movement of the base away from the supporting tissue

D. Minimise movement of the base away from the supporting tissue

379. Antibiotics should be used routinely to prevent infection arising from oral surgery in patients suffering from all the following EXCEPT: A. Agranulocytosis B. Sever uncontrolled diabetes C. Aplastic anaemia D. Mumps E. Leukaemia

D. Mumps It's a viral infection usually of Parotid

651. In patients with morphine coma, what is the medication of choice to reverse its act: A. Bradykinin B. Epinephrine C. Amphetamine D. Naloxone

D. Naloxone Opioid antagonist

799. A very quick and wide separation of teeth causes: A. Gingival inflammation B. Vasodilation C. Wider spaces D. Necrosis of bone

D. Necrosis of bone

518. A 10 years-old boy presents with a non-vital, non-mobile tooth. Treatment is: A. Pulpectomy with calcium hydroxide B. Pulpectomy with Zinc oxide eugenol C. Pulpotomy with formocresol D. No treatment is required if tooth is asymptomatic

D. No treatment is required if tooth is asymptomatic More details needed, esp. the tooth itself (primary or permanent), but generally D looks like the answer. If S/S (clinical or radiog.) show abn. in a permanent incisor --> apexification. If symptomatic primary molar -->B

246. Oral prodromal signs of Rubella are:** A. Fordyce's spots B. Koplik spots C. Geographic tongue D. None of the above

D. None of the above -Koplik's spots are pathognomonic for MEASLES (caused by PMV) -Rubella (German Measles) is caused by Rubella Virus & has no significant oral features.

64. Which of the following anomalies occurs during the initiation and proliferation stages of tooth development A. Amelogenesis imperfecta B. Dentinogenesis imperfecta C. Enamel hypoplasia D. Oligodontia E. Ankylosis

D. Oligodontia Explanation Refer to my presentation No. 7 (Q. 12)

567. After completing pulp extirpation, debridement and placing a dressing; apical periodontitis is because: A. Over instrumentation extending into periapical area B. Irritation from chemicals used C. Entrapped bacteria D. One or any combination of the above

D. One or any combination of the above

69. The lamina dura is seen on periapical radiographs as: A. Usual radiolucency between tooth root and surrounding bone as a thin white line B. Cribriform plate of bone making the tooth socket C. Dense crestal bone consistent with a healthy periodontal status D. Pattern of radiopaque lines in supporting alveolar bone

D. Pattern of radiopaque lines in supporting alveolar bone Explanation A could be correct if not saying RL Otherwise it's D. N.B. "cribriform plate" is a histologic term. SO, Lamina Dura = Thin white (RO) line lining the socket (alv. process). The RL line bet. root & socket is the PDL space.

504. Which of the following penicillins are readily destructed by stomach acid: A. Methicillin B. Cloxacillin C. Phenoxy methyl D. Penicillin G

D. Penicillin G This is why it is given IV or IM

335. The major cause of jacket crown breakage is, A. Inclusion of platinum foil B. Use of weak cementum C. Voids of porcelain D. Porcelain is thinner than 1mm

D. Porcelain is thinner than 1mm

47. Trichloroacetic acid, a strong acid, has been used by dentists for chemical cautery of hypertrophic tissue and aphthous ulcers; its mechanism of action is A. Thermodynamic action B. Activation of tissue enzymes C. Osmotic pressure D. Protein precipitation (PPT) E. Neutralization

D. Protein precipitation (PPT) Explanation Not used anymore

66. A healthy 6 years-old child presents with carious maxillary second primary molar with a necrotic pulp. Which treatment would be preferred? A. Extraction B. Indirect pulp treatment C. Pulpotomy D. Pulpectomy E. Antibiotic coverage

D. Pulpectomy Explanation Unless there's furcation/apical RL or swelling --> extraction. NB: pulpectomy is difficult to acheive in primary molars.

109. A child has sustained a traumatic exposure of primary central incisor, he presents to you for treatment two days after the injury. Which of the following should be considered? ? A. Pulpotomy and Ca(OH)2 ??????????????????????? B. Pulpotomy and formocresol C. Direct pulp capping D. Pulpectomy (RCT)

D. Pulpectomy (RCT) Explanation obturate with ZnO/E

338. What is NOT characteristic of root canal filing materials ("obturation material") A. Tacky adhesive to walls B. Radio opaque C. Not irritating D. Quick in setting

D. Quick in setting

635. Your patient has fainted, the signs are, blanched face, weak pulse, moist skin, shallow respiration; your first management is: A. 1 ml adrenaline subcutaneously B. Mouth to mouth respiration C. Nitro glycerine sub lingually D. Recumbent position; supine

D. Recumbent position; supine Syncope

522. Community water fluoridation MOST effectively achieves is:** A. 90-95% reduction of caries B. 45-55% reduction of caries C. Reduces pit and fissures caries more than smooth surfaces D. Reduces smooth surfaces more than pit and fissures

D. Reduces smooth surfaces more than pit and fissures 20-40% caries reduction

39. In regard to HIV infection, which of the following is the earliest finding? A. Kaposi sarcoma on the palate B. Reduced haemoglobin C. Infection with pneumocystic carinii D. Reduction in white cells count E. B cell lymphoma

D. Reduction in white cells count Explanation Decreased CD4+ (T-helper lymphocytes)

115. twelve years old child presents with symptoms of widespread gingivitis with bleeding and general malaise for several weeks. How would you manage this patient? A. Prescribe Metronidazole 100mg B. Locally debride, give oral hygiene instruction and prescribe H2O2 mouth wash. C. Give a prophylaxis with ultra sonic scaling D. Refer for haematological screening E. Advise for bed rest with supportive and palliative treatment

D. Refer for haematological screening mostly leukemia (acute)

620. An incision biopsy of an ulcerated and intruded clinically suspicious lesion in a 50 years-old female reveals chronic inflammation; you would:** A. Inform the patient and her physician of your findings and instruct the patient to return in six months B. Surgically excise the entire lesion since you know it is not malignant C. Dismiss the patient with instructions for warm saline rinses and re-examination D. Repeat the biopsy

D. Repeat the biopsy Biopsy data sheets might have been mixed up. Ulcerated & INDURATED lesions are mostly Malignant

1020. Why is the frequency of carbohydrate intake more important than the quantity: A. Low number of streptococcus mutans B. Hetero formation is better at low sugar concentration C. Homo formation is better at high sugar intake D. Restricted diffusion of acid through plaque

D. Restricted diffusion of acid through plaque

510. Density of film is decreased by increasing the : A. MA B. Exposure time C. Developing time D. Rinsing time

D. Rinsing time

847. The MOST frequently retained deciduous teeth in permanent dentition are: A. Upper lateral incisors B. Upper central incisors C. Lower central incisors D. Second lower molars E. Second upper molars

D. Second lower molars

259. A major difference between light cured and chemical cured composite is that during setting or in function the light cured material tends to: A. Seal the margins better and completely B. Exhibit less wear on time C. Undergo greater colour change D. Shrink more rapidly E. Posses greater fracture toughness

D. Shrink more rapidly with the light source

684. Nitrous Oxide in contraindicated in: A. Heart disease B. Asthma C. Mental retardant D. Sickle cell anaemia

D. Sickle cell anaemia

56. X-ray films have an emulsion on one or both sides of a support material. The emulsion contains particles of, A. Silver nitrate crystal B. Metallic silver in gelatine C. Silver bromide in gelatine D. Silver nitrate in gelatine E. Potassium bromide in gelatine

D. Silver nitrate in gelatine Explanation Silver halide (usually bromide)

762. A patient with a history of angina suffers an attack while in the dental chair. Prompt relief can be anticipated in MOST instances from: A. Oral administration of short acting barbiturates B. Intra muscular administration of morphine sulphate C. Subcutaneous administration of epinephrine D. Sublingual administration of glyceryl bi-nitrate E. Putting the patient in upright position

D. Sublingual administration of glyceryl bi-nitrate Glycerile Trinitrate not Binitrate If not Trinitrate --> TAKE E

387. Which is the LEAST likely to cause Xerostomia: A. Sjögren's syndrome B. Emotional reaction C. Antidepressants drugs D. Submandibular sialolith

D. Submandibular sialolith other glands are still functioning

253. How would you treat Epidermoid Carcinoma: A. Excision B. Excision and extraction of teeth C. Radiation D. Surgery and radiation

D. Surgery and radiation

146. Treatment of either salivary or multiple Giant Cell lesion is, A. Marsupialization B. In velation and packing ap?? C. Cold well?? D. Surgical curettage E. None of the above

D. Surgical curettage

268. A teenager has swelling involving his upper lip, the corner of his nose and a region under his left eye. The swollen area is soft, fluctuant and pointed on the labial plate under his lips on the left side. His body temperature is 39°. What is the first thing you would do after taking history and temperature: A. Refer him to physician B. Anaesthesise all of the maxillary left anterior teeth to provide instant relief C. Give him an ice pack to be placed on the area to control the swelling D. Take radiograph and test vitality of his teeth E. Write prescription for antibiotics and delay treatment until swelling is reduced

D. Take radiograph and test vitality of his teeth Then initiate RCT

1007. Occasional sensitivity in a shallow class I amalgam restoration after two days would be managed by: A. Replace old filing immediately B. Oxide Zinc and eugenol C. Using thicker mix of cements D. Tell patient the discomfort will disappear after 4 t o6 weeks E. Ledermix

D. Tell patient the discomfort will disappear after 4 t o6 weeks

1013. The MOST likely factor contributing to tooth eruption is:** A. The growing root B. Bone growth C. Vascular pressure D. The developing periodontal ligament

D. The developing periodontal ligament

290. Which one of following statement about Overdenture is not correct: A. Greater occlusal loads can be applied by the patient B. Retention and stability are generally better than with conventional complete denture C. Alveolar bone resorption is reduced D. The retained roots are covered by the denture thus protecting them from caries and periodontal diseases

D. The retained roots are covered by the denture thus protecting them from caries and periodontal diseases

48. Which of the following adverse reaction of oral contraceptives is the most common and the most serious A. Hypotension B. Hepatotoxicity C. Uterine neoplasia D. Thromboembolism disorder E. Decreased resistance to infection

D. Thromboembolism disorder Explanation Thrombosis esp. limbs Less common side effect is Hypertension. rarely cause cancer (Breast & Uterus).

805. When a tooth is twisted along its long axis this is called: A. Mesio version B. Disto version C. Lingo version D. Torsion

D. Torsion Rotation

836. What is NOT TRUE about occlusal trauma: A. Cemental tears B. Bone loss C. Mobility D. True pocket formation E. Bleeding in periodontal ligament

D. True pocket formation

118. Which of the following is true in relation to dental decay? A. Foods that require vigorous mastication will increase salivary flow and reduce PH B. Tooth brushing immediately after meals is most effective because demineralisation has already started C. Food that encourage the mastication will increase the number of lymphocytes in saliva and thus reduce decay D. Vigorous mastication will increase plaque PH and lead to reduce of decays E. The Stephan Curve describes an increase in PH during a meal with resultant of demineralisation 119. The BEST treatment for alveolar abscess:

D. Vigorous mastication will increase plaque PH and lead to reduce of decays Explanation

255. An impression with elastomer in custom tray has been taken for crown preparation; it will be two days before the impression gets to the laboratory for construction of the crown. Which impression material is preferred? A. Polyether B. Thiokol or meraptan rubber C. Condensation silicone D. Vinyl polysiloxane

D. Vinyl polysiloxane Also Polyether is kept sealed.

383. The final material you use for endodontically treated deciduous molars is:** A. Amalgam B. GIC C. Composite resin D. Wrought base metal crown

D. Wrought base metal crown SSC

304. When all other removable partial denture considerations remain unchanged; clasps constructed of which material can engage the deepest undercut: A. Chrome cobalt casts B. Nickel chrome casts C. Wrought stainless steel D. Wrought gold

D. Wrought gold OXFORD

225. What is the first thing to consider when you get a patient with intruded 11 and 12: A. Replace intruded teeth in position B. Advice patient about consequences C. Leave it and observe D. X-ray

D. X-ray -Medico-legal. -Assess damage (root fracture/pathosis)

744. Generally there is ???? zinc oxide eugenol impression pastes between flow are: A. Working time B. Accelerator C. Setting time D. Composition E. None of the above

Don't know what the answer is.. has a X marked next to it.

12. On replantation of an avulsed tooth you could A. Surface resorption, external resorption B. Internal resorption C. Inflammatory resorption D. Replacement resorption E. A, C and D F. All of the above

E. A, C and D Explanation (B) Internal resorption doesn't follow avulsion/replantation.

102. A tooth under occlusal trauma shows A. Bone resorption B. Necrosis of the pulp C. Hypercementosis D. Triangulation E. All of the above

E. All of the above

329. Tooth under occlusal trauma may show: A. Bone resorption B. Necrosis of the pulp C. Hypercementosis D. Triangulation E. All of the above

E. All of the above

357 The effects of tooth removal in healthy individuals can show as, A. Loss of contacts B. Slight tilting C. Pocket formation D. TMJ problem E. All of the above

E. All of the above

649. In regard to Plummer-Vincent syndrome or "Paterson and Kelly syndrome": A. Iron deficiency is a feature B. Atrophic oral and gastric mucosa C. Dysphagia and angular cheilitis D. Predisposing oral cancer E. All of the above

E. All of the above

666. In regard to dentinogenesis imperfecta on x-rays, what is TRUE: A. Short and blunted roots B. The pulp canal is obliterated C. Big pulp chamber, thin dentine and normal enamel D. Type III, characteristic shell teeth E. All of the above

E. All of the above

743. The disadvantage of heating the impression compound in a water bath is: A. It may become brittle B. It may become grainy C. Lower moles with constituents are leached out D. The plasticity of the compound may be altered E. All of the above

E. All of the above

787. X rays are used in endodontic treatment to: A. Aid in the diagnosis of periapical hard tissue lesion B. Determine the number, location, shape, size and direction of roots and root canals C. Confirm the length of root canals D. Evaluate the adequacy of the complete root canal filling E. All of the above

E. All of the above

790. The length of the tooth is established by: A. Good undistorted pre-operative x ray B. Adequate coronal access to all canals C. Adjustable endo millimetre ruler D. Definite repeatable plane of reference to anatomical landmark on tooth E. All of the above

E. All of the above

874. Flexibility of the retentive clasp arm depends on: A. Length B. Cross section C. Material D. Degree of taper E. All of the above

E. All of the above

129. In which situation is the translucency of a tooth lost: A. Death of the pulp B. Complete calcification of pulp chamber C. Hyperaemia D. Pulp stone E. All of the above

E. All of the above Explanation Also after RCT. N.B. in pulp stone, the translucency is not completely lost.

913. The MOST stable area to evaluate the craniofacial growth is: A. Nasal floor B. Cranial vault C. Occlusal plane D. Naso maxillary complex E. Anterior cranial base

E. Anterior cranial base

907. The bone graft method that has shown the greatest osteogenetic potential is: A. Lymphocytic bone graft B. Freeze-dried bone graft C. Marrow graft D. Cortical bone graft E. Cancellous bone graft

E. Cancellous bone graft Autogenous --> E = Containing bone marrow & BMPs. Allogenic --> Deminer. Freeze-dried bone graft

388. Intact vesicles are MOST likely to be seen in:** A. Herpes simplex infection B. Oral lichenoid reaction C. Aphthous ulceration D. Pemphigus vulgaris E. Cicatricial pemphigoid

E. Cicatricial pemphigoid Pemphigoid --> sub-epithelial vesicles (thick-walled so rupture late), No vesicles in B or C at all.

55. Exposure of the patient to ionising radiation when taking a radiograph is NOT REDUCED by: A. The use of fast film B. The addition of filtration C. Collimation of the beam D. The use of an open and lead lined cone E. Decreasing the kilovoltage KvP

E. Decreasing the kilovoltage KvP Explanation Because decreasing KvP will require more exposure time (more radiation).

284. Distortion or change in shape of a cast partial denture clasp during its clinical use probably indicates that the: A. Ductility was too low B. Hardness was too great C. Ultimate tensile strength was too low D. Tension temperature was too high E. Elastic limit was exceeded

E. Elastic limit was exceeded

35. Endogenous morphine like substances which can control pain are known as,** A. Bradykinins B. Peptides C. Prostaglandins D. Serotonins E. Enkephalins

E. Enkephalins Explanation Endogenous Opioids = Enkephalins, Endorphin & Dynorphins

4. The most accurate way to evaluate the effectiveness of root planning is by: A. Inspect the root surface with an instrument for root smoothness B. Use air for visual inspection C. Activate a curette against root surface and listen for a high pitched sound which indicates a smooth, hard surface. D. Evaluate the soft tissue at the end of the appointment for a decrease oedema and bleeding E. Evaluate the soft tissues 10 to 14 days later.

E. Evaluate the soft tissues 10 to 14 days later. Explanation absence of BOP A is correct if asking about how to check SRP tech. was properly done.

977. Increasing which of the following factors will decrease the density of a radiograph: A. Milliampere B. Time C. KvP Kilovoltage D. Object-film distance E. Focal spot-object distance

E. Focal spot-object distance increase kv ma et will increase the density also we have to decrease source, ie focal spot-object (tooth) distance

581. A child consumes a toxic dose of fluoride. You will:** A. Induce vomiting B. Give a lot of fluids C. Give a lot of fluids and sodium bicarbonates D. Ask patient not to eat for 45 minutes E. Give milk, calcium tablets or magnesium tablets

E. Give milk, calcium tablets or magnesium tablet Ca in Milk and Mg. can chelate the F minimizing the absorption, so reducing the side effects.

795. During teeth eruption, the reduced enamel epithelium merges with the oral epithelium. What is the further development? A. Downgrowth of oral epithelium which replaces the reduced enamel epithelium B. Proliferation of inner enamel epithelium C. Proliferation of outer enamel epithelium D. Down growth of oral epithelium which undermines the reduced enamel epithelium E. Gradual transformation of the reduced enamel epithelium

E. Gradual transformation of the reduced enamel epithelium to junctional epith

273. The most common cause of porosity in porcelain jacket crowns is, A. Moisture contamination B. Excessive firing temperature C. Failure to anneal the platinum matrix D. Excessive condensation of the porcelain E. Inadequate condensation of the porcelain

E. Inadequate condensation of the porcelain

945. Which of the following elements is not found in normal periodontal membrane: A. Fibroblast B. Epithelial cells C. Erythrocytes D. Vest cells of malaise E. Inflammatory plasma cells and lymphocytes

E. Inflammatory plasma cells and lymphocytes

769. Bitewing x rays are taken to assist in the detection of caries :** A. Occlusally B. Lingually C. Buccally D. Gingivally E. Interproximally

E. Interproximally

760. All of the following are properties of fluoride except: A. Crosses the placental barrier B. It deposits rapidly in bone C. It is excreted rapidly by kidneys D. It is bacteriostatic E. It produces extrinsic tooth stain

E. It produces extrinsic tooth stain

1005. A 58 years-old male has had a 60 yo WM course of radiation given for carcinoma of tongue. The patient complains of pain associated with poor dentition. The dental management would be: A. Immediate extraction of any poor teeth under local anaesthetic with antibiotic coverage B. Segmental dental clearance and closure to eliminate problems C. No dental treatment may be due to neuronic of neoplasms D. Clearance of poor dentition followed by hyperbaric oxygen treatment plus a primary closure of wounds under antibiotic coverage E. No extraction as radionecrosis is an important sequelae

E. No extraction as radionecrosis is an important sequelae

648. What does not show in Cleidocranial dysplasia:** A. Defective formation of clavicles B. Delayed closure of fontanelles C. Retention of maxilla (it means --> retrusion of the maxilla ( not retention) and its one of the eatures of the disease. ) D. Delayed eruption of permanent teeth E. None of the above

E. None of the above All are features

263. In radiographs, an incipient carious lesion limited to the end of the proximal surface of a posterior tooth appears as: A. Radiopaque area B. Triangle with apex towards the tooth surface C. Larger in radiographs than actual lesion D. All of the above E. None of the above

E. None of the above Enamel smooth surf. caries --> triangular with apex towards DEJ (base towards tooth surface). Dentine caries --> triangular with apex towards pulp (base towards DEJ).

746. Elastomers are:** A. Hydrophilic B. Hydrophobic C. Water-loving impression material D. Potassium alginates E. None of the above

E. None of the above That's a general term (ELASTOMERS) which include Polysulphide, Polyether & Silicons (Addition, Condensation). -Polysulphide --> Hydrophobic -Cond. Silicon --> Hydrophobic -Add. Silicon --> Hydrophobic -Polyether --> Hydrophilic

417. In class II restorations, all of the following are considered to occur as probable causes of periodontal problems except: A. Flat ridge B. Faulty or not proper contour C. Not properly polished restoration D. Cervical wall is too deeply apical E. Overextension of lining in cavity

E. Overextension of lining in cavity NB: A = FLAT marginal ridge i.e. no occ. embrassure --> ID papillae inflam. due to no food deflection & massage

663. What is NOT CHARACTERISTIC in finding a carcinoma of the mouth A. Elevation B. Fixation C. Invasion D. Verrucoid appearance E. Pain

E. Pain Pain is not a prominent feature.

638. Which of the following is TRUE: A. Antibiotics are useful in the treatment of ANUG B. Trauma of occlusal factors causes cleft or fibrous thickening of marginal gingivae C. All Perio pockets can be detected by x rays D. Periodontitis is the most common problem in teenage E. Perio disease is a primary cause of loss of teeth after 35 years of age.

E. Perio disease is a primary cause of loss of teeth after 35 years of age.

922. Which of the following is not a property of Fluoride: A. Crosses placental barrier B. Deposits in bone C. Excretes rapidly by kidney D. Bacteria static E. Produces extrinsic tooth stain

E. Produces extrinsic tooth stain

257. Micro-leakage at the attached enamel-composite resin interface is most likely to be due to: A. Hydrolysis of the filler phase of the composite B. Hydrolysis of the resin phase of the composite C. Bacterial acid formation dissolving the enamel D. Salivary pellicle growth at the interface E. Setting contraction of the composite resin

E. Setting contraction of the composite resin Polymerization shrinkage

403. The major etiological factor responsible for Class II division 2 malocclusion in Angle's classification is:** A. Thumb sucking B. Growth discrepancy C. Tongue thrust habit D. Tooth to jaw size discrepancy E. Skeletal cause (discrepancy)

E. Skeletal cause (discrepancy)

917. To prevent exposure of a ?????? on a permanent root; the dentists BEST approach for elevating a flap is to use: (Alveorlar bone , Avacado bone>??_) A. Double flap B. Stripping procedure C. Full thickness flap D. Apically positioned flap E. Split thickness flap

E. Split thickness flap Leaving the periosteum covering the bone

123. A cusp fracture immediate to Class II inlay can be detected by, A. History B. Visually C. Radiograph D. Percussion E. Touching the tip of the cusp / Pressure on the cusp/

E. Touching the tip of the cusp / Pressure on the cusp/ Explanation biting test

925. Flexibility of the retentive clasp arm does not relate to: A. Length B. Cross section C. Material D. Degree of taper E. Under cut area

E. Under cut area

26. Your employer makes an attempt to update office sterilization procedures; what would you recommend as the BEST method to verify that sterilization has occurred? A. Use spore test daily B. Use indicator strips in each load and colour change tape on each package C. Use indicator strips daily and spore test weekly D. Use colour change tape daily and spore test monthly E. Use colour change tape in each load and spore tests weekly

E. Use colour change tape in each load and spore tests weekly Explanation Chem./Colour indicator EACH LOAD & Biologic (spore test) indicator WEEKLY. -In Spore test --> The preferred test organism for steam sterilization is Geobacillus stearothermophilus. NB: Helix test = Bowie-Dick test must be run each day follow HOLLOW INSTRUMENTS/POTUR LOADS.

393. Which of the following states BEST the morphology of periodontal ligament fibres: A. Elastic B. Striated C. Non striated D. Levity E. Wavy

E. Wavy PDL fibre bundles (COLLAGEN type I) run in a wavy course from Cem. to alv. bone. This plays a role in shock absorption

315. What controls the occlusion:. A. Teeth B. Receptors in periodontal membrane C. Proprioceptors D. Neuromuscular receptors E. TMJ F. All of the above

F. All of the above

821. Function of matrix band: A. Substitute for the missing wall so adequate condensation forces can be applied B. Permit re-establishment of proper contact lines C. Restrict extrusion of amalgam and prevent formation of an "overhang" D. Provide adequate physiological contour for the proximal surface E. Provide an acceptable surface texture to the proximal surface F. All of the above

F. All of the above

916. Clinical indications of pathogenic chronic periodontitis are: A. Mobility B. Dull pain on closing C. Presence of true pocket D. Apical migration of gingival epithelium E. Presence of subgingival calculus F. C, D & E

F. C, D & E

153. Which of the following areas CANNOT be determined by survey analysis of partially edentulous cast? A. Areas to be revealed as blocked out to properly located rigid parts of a frame work B. Areas to be shaped to properly located rigid parts of framework C. Areas used for guideline planes D. Areas used for retention E. Areas used for support F. Depth of rest seats

F. Depth of rest seats Explanation Because it's intra-coronal

643. What is NOT A SIGN of neurological trauma:** A. Excitement B. Shock C. Improper eye sight D. Leaning E. Sever headache F. Vomiting G. Euphonia H. Fixed dilated pupils

G. Euphonia

233. When taking Mono Amino Oxidase Inhibitors (MAOI); which drugs are contra indicated: I. Barbiturate II. Local anaesthetic III. Pethidine IV. Acetyl salicylic acid A. All of the above B. None of the above C. I, II and III D. II, III and IV

I, III, IV are contraindicated.

502. Toxicity of anaesthetic is assessed by: A. Dose which is given B. Percentage of solution C. Vasoconstrictions amount

NO ANSWER

730. Fluoride in water community of 4ppm will result in: A. No mottling B. Mottling in almost all permanent teeth except some molars C. Mottling in permanent premolars only

NO ANSWER GIVEN

854. Metallic plates backing the intra oral films are for:** A. Reducing the flexibility of films B. Reducing patient exposure to x rays C. Increasing the bending capacity of films

NO Answer.... Saar Osthara Osthara rathha rathha rathha ra

536. The pulpal floor of the Class II cavity for a mandibular first premolar should be: A. Parallel to occlusal plane B. Perpendicular to long axis C. Tilted lingually

NO answer marked

871. Why do you overpack amalgam: A. To ensure excess mercury reaches the surface

NO correct answer Overpacking is to ensure all margins are covered and for carving of the amalgam

339. The best location of pin in class II inlay is, (This question has X marked next to it, what ever that means) A. Where the biggest thickness is B. Mesial and distal angle C. Contact area

No answer

630. How do prepare a patient with rheumatic fever before extraction: A. 6000000 units of benzoyl penicillin B. 2g Amoxicillin pre-operatively

None If indigenous Australian --> B

540. Where is the narrowest part of the pulp: A. At the radiographic apex B. At the dentino-enamel junction C. At the orifices

None is correct The correct answer is --> at DCJ (which is the anatomic apex)

604. Patient with prosthetic heart valve taking 7.5 mg warfarin. She has????. Patient needs extraction. What is your management: A. 3g Amoxil, suture after surgical removal B. 3g Amoxil, suture when bleeding has stopped C. Gentamycin/vancomycin cover, stop warfarin, give heparin and suture later D. Ampicillin cover, stop warfarin, give heparin and suture later E. Gentamycin/vancomycin cover, stop warfarin and suture later

Q is not clear --> no answer can be given - A sounds the correct answer if "2" mg Amoxil to be given 1 hr before procedure (providing INR below 4).

Repeat as 110

Repeat as 110

13. The percentage of total dentine surface / dentinal tubules 0.5mm away from pulp is, A. 20% B. 50%

The diameter and density of dentinal tubules (DT) are greatest near the pulp. DT have a diameter of 3 μm near the pulp, 1.2 μm in the middle of the dentin, and 0.8 μm at DEJ. -Total DT = 21% of total coronal dentine volume. -At pulp --> DT = 27% -At DEJ --> DT = 19% *SO, IF ASKING ABOUT DENTINE/DT SURFACE AREA AT THE PULP = 70% *IF ASKING ABOUT DT/DENTINE = 27%

230. What is not an effect of (drug??): I. Sedation II. Excitement III. Analgesia IV. Hypnosis V. General anaesthesia A. none of the above B. All of the above C. I and II D. II and III E. I, IV and V

What's the drug??? If it is Barbiturates --> the answer is III (Analgesia).

103. Which is the more retentive form for an anterior bridge A. ¾ partial veneer crown ?????????????????????????? no accurate answer??????????????????????????? B. Class V inlay C. Pinlay Veneer D. Class III inlay with pins

no accurate answer????????????????????