1356 AEMT
A gastric tube is MOST useful for: A) decompressing the stomach and decreasing pressure on the diaphragm B) blocking off the esophagus so that an ET tube can be more easily placed. C) removing blood from the esophagus in patients with esophageal varices D) performing prehospital gastric lavage in patients with toxic ingestion
A
A morbidly obsess man called 911 because of difficulty breathing. When you arrive, you find the 39 year old patient lying supine in his bed. He is in marked respiratory distress and is only able to speak in two word sentences. He has a history of hypertension, but denies any respiratory conditions. What should do you first? A. Sit him up and place him on his side B. Begin assisting his ventilations C. Administer a beta 2 agonist drug D. Access his oxygen saturation level
A
A patient in shock due to internal bleeding with benefit MOST from: A. limited scene time and rapid transport B. a comprehensive physical examination C. oxygen and thermal management D. two large bore IV lines of normal saline.
A
A receives a weak signal and retransmits it at a higher power on another frequency A. repeater B. base station C. multiplex system D. duplex system
A
All of the following are adventitious breath sounds, EXCEPT: A. vesicular sounds B. rales C. wheezes D. rhonchi
A
An unresponsive patient who over dosed on a central nervous system depressant drug would be expected to have respirations. A. bradypneic B. Kussmal C.eupneic D.hyperpneic
A
If you make an error when completing a written patient care report, you should: A. use different colored ink when drawing a single line through the error B. leave the error, but write the correct information in parentheses next to it C. not alter the original PCR and write the correct information on an addendum D. circle the error, initial it, and write the correct information next to it
A
If you want reliable answers to personal questions, you should? A. Manage the scene so you can ask such questions quietly and privately. B. tell the PT that his or her responses to your questions are confidential C. request law enforcement presence when asking personal questions D. tell the PT that personal questions are a routine part of your exam
A
Many believe that touching the head may put their souls in jeopardy: A. Asians B. Somalis C. Muslims D. Thais
A
Negative pressure ventilation occurs when: A) air is drawn into the lungs when intrathoracic pressure decreases. B) the diaphragm ascends and the intercostal muscles retract. C) pressure within the chest decreases and air is forced from the lungs D) the phrenic nerves stop sending message to the diaphragm
A
Pts with pneumonia often experience a coughing fit when they roll from one side to the other because: A. pneumonia often occurs in the lung bases, typically on only one side B. the secretions in their lungs suddenly disperse and impair breathing C. movement loosens pulmonary secretions and stimulated coughing D. most cases of pneumonia occur in conjunction with bronchospasm
A
S1, the first heart, represents A. closure of the mitral and tricuspid valves B. the sound heard at the end of systole C. closure of the aortic and pulmonic valves D. the sound heard at the end of diastole
A
The King LT airway can be used to: A) maintain a patent airway in spontaneously breathing patients B) administer certain cardiac medications directly into the trachea C) establish a patient airway in patients of any age and body size D) suction pulmonary secretions from the tracheobronchial tree.
A
The MOST effective way for the paramedic to avoid tunnel vision to: A. keep an open mind to all of the possible causes of the patients problem B. reassess all patients at least every 15 minutes until patient care is transferred C. possess a detailed knowledge of anatomy, physiology, and pathophysiology D. perform a secondary assessment on every patient he or she encounters
A
The MOST significant problem associated with making up your own medical abbreviations and documenting them on the patient care report is: A. an error in patient care B. potential lawsuit C. insurance denial D. confusion at the hospital
A
The nasal cannula is of MOST benefit to patients: A) with mild hypoxemia and claustrophobia B) with an acute exacerbation of emphysema C) who are hypoxic and are mouth breathers D) who require high oxygen concentrations
A
The purpose of a closed-ended question is to: A) elicit a specific response from the patient. B) enable the paramedic to gauge the patient's mentation. C) obtain reliable information about a patient's complaint. D) allow the patient to describe what he or she is feeling.
A
The use of specialized computer terminals and networks that permit secure two way transmission of sound, video, ECG tracings, and other diagnostic data is called A. telemedicine B. trunking C. telemetry D. interoperability
A
What does a pulse oximeter measure? A. the percentage of hemoglobin saturation B. the percentage of red blood cells in the blood C. the percentage of oxygen that reaches the cells D. the percentage of ratio of red blood cells to plasma
A
When a competent adult patient refuses medical care, it is MOST important for the paramedic to: A. ensure that the PT is well informed about the situation at hand B. obtain a signed refusal from the PTs as well as a witness signature C. perform a detailed physical exam before allowing the PT to refuse D. contact medical control and request permission to obtain the refusal
A
When reading the scene, the paramedic must remember that: A. scene information becomes unavailable once transport is initiated B. safety issues must be addressed while you are caring for the patient C. noting the mechanism of injury is the first element to evaluate. D. bystanders are a reliable source of information regarding an incident
A
When ventilating an apneic adult patient with a bag-mask device, you should: A) deliver each breath over 1 second at a rate of 10 to 12 breaths/min B) squeeze the bag once every 3 seconds until the chest expands widely C) make the chest rise visibly and deliver one breath every 8 seconds D) deliver 10 breaths/min and make the chest wall rise visibly.
A
Which of the following actions has the LEAST impact on the paramedics ability to think under pressure? A. memorizing all patient care algorithms B. Taking a moment to stop and think C. taking a moment to scan the situation D. staying calm and maintaining mental control
A
Which of the following data would a state EMS office be the LEAST likely to require an EMS agency to report? A. Pt gender B. call volume C. types of call D. PT outome
A
Which of the following incident times is not commonly documented on the PCR? A. time of primary assessment B. time of arrival at hospital C. time of medication administration D. time of departure from the scene
A
Which of the following is a subjective finding? A. a complaint of chest pressure B. blood pressure of 110/60 mm hg C. obvious respiratory distress D. pale, cool, clammy skin
A
Which of the following statements regarding 12 lead ECG telemetry is correct? A. most newer systems use facsimile technology to allow transmission of 12 lead ECGs B. telemetry has never proven to increase diagnosis times for PTs with cardiac event C. telemetry over UHF frequencies enables transmission and analysis of all 12 leads D. a decoder is required to ensure that voice communication does not filter out of the ECG
A
You would NOT expect to encounter decreased breath sounds in a patient with: A. cardiac tamponade B. pulmonary edema C. status asthmaticus D. opiate intoxication
A
An artificial airway adjunct: A) does not obviate the need for proper head positioning. B) is a suitable substitute for manual head positioning C) should be inserted in any patient who is semiconscious D) effectively protects the airway from aspiration
A)
Under the instructions of a good emergency medical dispatcher (EMD), a layperson should be able to: A. perform chest compressions B. assess a PTs pupils C. immobilize a persons spine D. Obtain a blood pressure
A`
A full (2,000 psi) D cylinder will last approximately ________ minutes if you are administering oxygen at 12 L/min: A) 22 B) 24 C) 26 D) 28
B
A pathological fracture occurs when: A. abnormal forces are applied to normal bone structures. B. normal forces are applied to abnormal bone structures C. abnormal forces are applied to abnormal bone structures D. normal forces are applied to normal bone structures
B
A poorly written PT care report: A. often indicates that the paramedic was too busy providing PT care B. may raise questions by others as to the paramedics quality of PT care C. is unavoidable during a mass casualty incident and is generally acceptable D. generally results in a lawsuit, even if the PT outcomes was favorable
B
Additions or notations added to a completed patient care report by someone other than the original author: A. must be initialed by the original author or the patient care report will be deemed null and void. B. may raise questions about the confidentiality practices of the EMS agency C. are not legal and may result in criminal action against the original author D. are generally acceptable, provided the additions are made by a paramedic
B
All of the following are subjective findings, EXCEPT A. a feeling of impending doom B. visible blood in the ear canal C. persistent dull headache D. acute and severe nausea
B
Atelectasis occurs when: A) the alveoli are overinflated and rupture. B) a deficiency of surfactant causes alveolar collapse. C) deoxygenated blood diffuses across the alveoli. D) surface tension on the alveolar walls is decreased.
B
Before you begin to transmit over the radio, you should check the volume and then: A. key the microphone two or three times to reach the repeater. B. listen to make sure that the channel is clear of traffic C. turn the squelch setting to zero to ensure a good signal D. press the transmit key for 1 second before talking
B
Components of a thorough patient refusal document include: A. documentation of a complete assessment, even if the PT refused assessment B. willingness of EMS to return to the scene if the PT changes his or her mind. C. assurance by the paramedic that the PT's ability to pay is of no concern D. notification of the PT's physician to apprise him or her of the situation
B
Gathering a patient's medical history and performing a secondary assessment should occur: A. immediately after you form your visual general impression of the patient. B. after life threats have been identified and corrected in the primary assessment. C. after initial treatment has been rendered and you are en route to the hospital. D. Shortly after making patient contact and determining his or her complaint.
B
If a PT is reluctant to share personal information with you, you should: A. ask a law enforcement officer to obtain the information B. explain why you need his or her name and date of birth C. advise the patient that treatment cannot begin without it D. defer all questions and simply transport to the hospital
B
If you suspect that an unconscious patient has experienced a spinal injury, you should open his or her airway by: A) carefully grasping the tongue and jaw and slowly lifting the jaw forward. B) placing your fingers behind the angle of the jaw and lifting the jaw forward. C) Lifting up on the jaw while placing the head in a slightly extended position. D) applying firm pressure to the Patient's forehead and tilting the head back.
B
In order to be a competent and effective paramedic, it is MOST important for you to: A. possess the knowledge to diagnose a patient definitively B. think and perform quickly and effectively under pressure C. have a high success rate of IV insertions and intubations D. be familiar with patient care algorithms and guidelines
B
Maintaining eye contact with a PT enables the paramedic to: A. defuse a potentially violent situation B. evaluate the patients neurologic status C. relay the seriousness of the situation D. rapidly gain any patients trust
B
Normally, an adult at rest should have respirations that: A) are 20 to 24 breaths/min with adequate chest rise B) follow a regular pattern of inhalation and exhalation C) have a slightly reduced tidal volume and normal rate. D) are adequate to sustain a heart rate of 80 beats/ min+
B
Notification of EMS usually occurs when: A) EMTs contact an emergency medical dispatcher. B) a bystander notifies the dispatcher via telephone. C) a sick or injured patient presents to your EMS station. D) law enforcement requests assistance via two-way radio.
B
Once you determine that your patient is sick, you must next: A. provide aggressive care B. quantify how sick he or she is C. contact online medical control D. transport him or her immediately
B
Polycythemia is a condition in which: A. fewer red blood cells are produced, resulting in decreased oxygenation B. excess of red blood cells are produced in response to chronic hypoxia C. increased platelet production causes the blood to become abnormally thick D. an abundance of red blood cells
B
The ability of multiple agencies or systems to share the same radio frequency is called: A. patching B. trunking C. duplex D telemetry
B
The fraction of inspired oxygen (FIO2) increases with: A) increased tidal volume B) supplemental oxygen C) an increase in respirations D) forceful inhalation
B
The main disadvantage of patient care algorithms is that they: A. are often overridden by medical control B. only address classic patient presentations C. are revised or updated too frequently D. discourage contact with direct medical control
B
The use of telemetry to confirm cardiac rhythms before treatment: A. is required in most modern EMS systems because a cardiologist must confirm the cardiac rhythm before treatment begins. B. is less common as most EMS systems rely on paramedics to assess the cardiac rhythm and make independent treatment decisions C. is no longer the standard of care because treatment algorithms exist that assist the paramedic in identifying the cardiac rhythm D. is not used for a 12 lead ECG transmission because interference and artifact makes identification of a STEMI difficult
B
The use of ten codes over the radios: A. should be carried out whenever possible to ensure effective communication B. is not recommended by the National Incident Management System (NIMS) C. is prohibited by the Federal Communications Commission (FCC) and should be avoided D. increases the likelihood of miscommunication during the radio transmission
B
What is the GCS score of a patient who opens her eyes when you all her name, is confused when she speaks, and points to her area of pain: A. 10 B. 12 C. 13 D. 11
B
What is the benefit of communication over an assigned tactical channel? A. it enables you to transmit personally identifiable information. B. it leaves the main dispatch channel open for other radio traffic C. it ensures that no outside party can monitor your communication D. it ensures that communication is only with law enforcement
B
What type of medication is montelukast (Singulair) A. selective beta 2 agonist B. leukotriene blocker C. conrticosteroid D. glucocorticoid
B
When a patient with two seemingly unrelated complaints, it is MOST important for the paramedic to determine: A. the patients past medical history B. which complaint has a higher priority C. if the two complaints are related D. when each of the complaints began
B
When relaying critical information using the situation, background, assessment, and recommendation (SBAR) technique, which component would address the question, "What got us to this point?" A. recommendation B. background C. situation D. assessment
B
Which of the following conditions or situations is the BEST example of critical life threat that needs immediate care? A. an early onset of renal insufficiency B. Acute presentation of a chronic condition C. partial thickness burns on an extremity D. a patient with multiple disease etiologies
B
Which of the following is an example of a closed ended question? A. how do you feel when you awoke today B. does the pain radiate to your arm or jaw C. can you tell me how this all started D can you describe the pain you are feeling
B
While treating a patient with chest pain, you administer Fentanyl. Shortly after, you ask him if his pain has improved. This is an example of: A. reflection on action B. data interpretation C. reflection in action D. application of principle
B
When asking a man a question about his chest pain, he responds in a disorganized manner. What should you do? A. rephrase your question using medical terminology to elicit a reliable response B. put his responses into simply terms and asks if he agrees with your synopsis C. proceed under the assumption that he is impaired by drugs or alcohol D. defer that particular question until the patient is delivered to the hospital
B.
A critical when using a CPAP unit to treat at PT with severe respiratory distress is: A. holding the mask to the noncompliant PTs face B. starting with CPAP levels above 10-15 cm of water C. ensuring an adequate mask seal with minimal leakage D. setting the oxygen flow rate to at least 6 L/m
C
A person who experiences sharp chest pain followed by increasing dyspnea after he or she coughs MOST likely has A. a pleural effusion B. pleurisy C. a pneumothorax D acute pneumonia
C
A surgical opening into the trachea is called a: A) laryngectomy B) stoma C) tracheostomy D) laryngectomee
C
After gathering information from the patient, scene, and any bystanders, you must next: A. synthesize the information to form a thought process B. formulate a care plan based on the information C. determine which information is valid and which may be invalid. D. determine the most likely cause of the patient's problem
C
Anatomically, the ________ is directly anterior to the glottic opening: A) thyroid gland B) vallecular space C) thyroid cartilage D) cricoid cartilage
C
Bruising in the periumbilical area is indicative of: A. ruptured ectopic pregnancy B. a leaking aortic aneurysm C. intraperitoneal hemorrhage D. a ruptured urinary bladder
C
Cor polmonale is defined as: A. rupture of the alveoli due to increased surface tension B. increased preload caused by severe hypertension C. right sided heart failure secondary to chronic lung disease D left sided heart failure secondary to mitral valve damage
C
If a mechanical means is required to keep a patient's airway open, you should initially: A. intubate the trachea B. insert an airway adjunct C. suction the oropharynx D. ventilate with a bag mask device
C
In contrast to negative-pressure ventilation, positive-pressure ventilation: A) moves air into the esophagus and trachea B) is the act of normal, unassisted breathing C) may impair blood return to the heart D) causes decreased intrathoracic pressure
C
In order for the paramedic to talk and transmit an ECG simultaneously on one frequency, a ___ system is required. A. low band B. simplex C. multiplex D. duplex
C
In urban settings, radio dead spots MOST often occur in areas with: A. a lot of trees B. high cell phone use C. tall buildings D. bodies of water
C
Most EMS agencies require a double signature system any time a: A. PT is given more than one dose of any medication B. PTs condition warrants diversion to a closer hospital C. controlled substance is checked, used, discarded, or replaced D. Medication that alters a PTs physiology is given
C
Other than overall patient appearance, the patient's __________ is/are the MOST objective data for determining his or her status. A. medications B. chief complaints C. vital signs D. medical history
C
Prior to submitting a patient care report to the receiving hospital, it is MOST important for: A. your partner to review the report to ensure accuracy B. the quality assurance team to review the report for accuracy C. the paramedic who authored the report to review it carefully D. the EMS medical director to review the report briefly
C
Pulse oximetry is used to measure the: A) percentage of carbon dioxide that is eliminated from the body. B) amount of oxygen dissolved in the plasma portion of the blood C) percentage of hemoglobin that is saturated with oxygen D) exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide at the cellular level.
C
Repeating the key parts of a patient's responses to your questions demonstrates: A. An exchange of information B. sympathy C. active listening D. passive communication
C
Serial vital signs: A) are of no value unless they are repeated every 5 minutes. B) provide definitive information about the patient's problem. C) provide comparative data regarding the patient's condition. D) establish a baseline to which further vital signs are compared.
C
The National Emergency Medical Services Information System (NEMSIS) A, defines the scope of practice for all levels of EMS provider B. defines the minimum data that must be collected on each call C. collects relevant data from each state and uses it for research D. is a nationwide billing system that any EMS provider can use
C
The accuracy of your patient care report depends on all of the following factors, EXCEPT: A. including all pertinent event times B. the thoroughness of the narrative section C. the severity of the PTs condition D. documenting any extenuating circumstances
C
The exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the alveoli and the blood in pulmonary capillaries is called: A) pulmonary ventilation B) internal respiration C) external respiration D) intrapulmonary shunting
C
The general type of illness a patient is experiencing is called the: A. general impression B. chief complaint C. nature of illness D. differential diagnosis
C
The mainstem bronchus ends at the level of the A. lobar brochi B. subsegmental bronchi C. bronchioles D segmental bronchi
C
The term "frequency", as it applies to radio communications, is MOST accurately defined as: A. a relatively long wavelength that produces audible sound. B. the number of megahertz per cycle that the radio transmits C. the number of oscillations per second of the carrier wave D. a predefined station designed for emergency use only
C
Upper airway of an adult consists of all the structures above the: A) bronchus B) cricoid ring C) glottis D) carina
C
What is the purpose of a universal timeout? A. it enables the paramedic to contact medical control and request permission to perform a high risk procedure B. it enables the paramedic in charge to do his or her job by ensuring that all other personal at the scene remain silent C. it allows time for all providers to silently review important aspects of a procedure with minimal distractions D. It allows the paramedic to provide better care by removing all bystanders and unnecessary personnel from the scene
C
What type of medication can cause thick sputum A. antibiotic B. diuretic C antihistamine D. antipyretic
C
When communicating medical information via radio, you should be: A. an expeditious as possible B. thorough yet rapid C. simple, brief, and direct D. comprehensive but brief
C
When providing PT care, it is MOST important that you maintain effective communication with: A. bystanders B. medical control C. your partner D. the dispatcher
C
When ventilating a patient with a bag-mask device, you note increased compliance. This means that: A) a lower airway obstruction should be suspected B) the patient likely has an upper airway obstruction C) Air can be forced into the lungs with relative ease D) you are meeting resistance when ventilating.
C
When you introduce yourself to your patient and ask why 9-1-1 was called, the patient looks at you, shakes your hand, and answers your questions appropriately. From these findings, you can gather that the patient: A. does no have a life threatening condition B. will likely not require medication therapy C. has a GCS of 15 D. has not experienced a traumatic injury
C
Which of the following reassessment findings is MOST significant in a Patient with penetrating chest trauma? A. loud heart tones to auscultation B. heart rate of 78 beats per minute C. Blood pressure 90/76 mm HG D. Symmetrical chest rise and fall
C
Which of the following statements includes a pertinent negative? A. the rapid head to toe exam revealed abrasions to the chest B. the possible smell of ETOH was noted on the PT C. the PT complains of nausea but denies vomiting D. the PT rates his pain as an 8 on a scale of 0-10
C
Which of the following statements is LEAST descriptive when documenting the events of a cardiac arrest call on your PCR? A. inserted 18G IV in right forearm B. intubated with a 7.5mm ET tube C. Followed ACLS protocols D. gave1 mg of epinephrine at 1002
C
You arrive at the scene of a motor vehicle crash in which a small passenger car struck a bridge pillar. The patient, a conscious young woman, is still seated in her car. The scene is safe and law enforcement is directing traffic. Upon initial contact with the patient, you should. A. Assess her respiratory quality and then apply oxygen via nonrebreathing mask. B. open her airway with the jaw thrust maneuver and assess respiratory quality C. Have your partner manually stabilize her head as you assess her mental status D. apply a rigid cervical collar and obtain an initial GCS score.
C
You would MOST likely encounter bilateral dependent edema in a patient with: A. deep vein occlusion B. arterial occlusion C. heart failure D. diabetes mellitus
C
A foreign body airway obstruction should be suspected in a child who presents with: A) diffuse wheezing and nasal flaring B) a productive cough and flushed skin C) progressive respiratory distress and hoarseness D) acute respiratory distress without fever
D
A patient with orthopnea: A. prefers to lie flat in order facilitate breathing B. generally has a slow, shallow respiratory pattern C is awakened from sleep with severe dyspnea D seeks a sitting position when short of breath
D
A working diagnosis is MOST accurately defined as: A. your interpretation of the patients vital sign values B. a firm explanation for the patients symptomatology C. a reliable yet unofficial diagnosis of the patient D. what you feel is the cause of your patients problem
D
After addressing any life threats in the order in which you find them, you should next: A. provide symptomatic care and promptly transport the patient to an appropriate medical treatment facility. B. determine that most common and statistically probable cause for the patients current signs and symptoms C. formulate a working field diagnosis on the basis of what you discovered in the initial assessment of the patient. D. consider the worse case scenario that could be causing the patients symptoms and either rule it our or rule it in.
D
An unresponsive patient who has been breathing slowly for an extended period of time would MOST likely have________skin A. Pale B. Flushed C. Mottled D. Cyanotic
D
At 3:00 a.m. you receive a call for a "man down". While en route to the scene, you ask the dispatched to provide additional information, but the dispatcher advises you the caller was abrupt on the phone and then hung up. You should: A. assume the caller was panicked because the PT is crucially ill. B. stage in a safe area until contact with the caller can be reestablished. C. advise the dispatcher to send a second paramedic crew to the scene D. ask the dispatcher if law enforcement is en route to the scene.
D
Comments such as "I can't believe you called EMS for this!" A. show a lack of compassion and interest in providing the best possible care. B. demonstrate an illegal act for which the paramedic will be held accountable C. are commonly made by paramedics with less than 5 years of field experience D. the gradual result of the provider constantly striving to improve his or her practice
D
Data collected from the state EMS office for the purpose of research would likely NOT include: A. the nature of calls B. call volume per month C. PT outcomes D. average cost per call
D
Difficulty with exhalation is MOST characteristic of A. mild asthma attack B. supraglottic swelling C upper airway obstruction D obstructive lung disease
D
If the paramedic is unable to complete his or her PT care report before departing the emergency department, he or she would: A. obtain the emergency department fax number and transmit the completed PCR within 12 hours after delivering the PT. B. leave, at a minimum, the PTs name and age but recognize that the physician will perform his or her own exam C. advice the receiving provider that he or she will return to the emergency department with the completed PCR within 24 hours D. leave an abbreviated form with pertinent data with the receiving provider and complete the PCR as soon as possible.
D
In EMS, the process of concept formation involves: A. Knowing which treatment algorithm to use B. interpreting a patients signs and symptoms C. Determining the validity of obtained data D. Gathering information about your patient
D
In order to ensure that all recorded times associated with an incident are accurate, the paramedic should: A. document the time that each even occurs B. get a copy of the dispatch log after the call C. frequently glance at his or her watch D. radio the dispatcher after an even occurs
D
Paramedics respond to a dimly lit bar for a woman with chest pain. The jukebox is playing and several patrons are present. What should they do? A. assess the PT only after moving her to the ambulance B. ask the bartender to turn on the lights and turn off the music C. order the patrons to leave the scene and begin their assessment D. move the Pt to the restroom and begin their assessment
D
Protocols, or standing orders, specify the paramedic's performance parameters, which: A, outline the care that is provided after contacting online medical control B. limit the skills that the paramedic can perform in his or her EMS system C. allow the paramedic to function autonomously on every EMS call D define what the paramedic can or cant do without direct medical control
D
The MOST reliable means of attempting to determine an unresponsive medical patient's problem is: A. pulse oximetry, capnography, and serial vital signs. B. cardiac monitoring and blood glucose assessment C. information provided by the patient's family members D. a thorough head to toe physical examination
D
The care plan that you implement based on your working field diagnosis of a patient is almost always defined by: A. direct orders from the physician at the receiving medical facility B. your previous experience with patients who had a similar condition C. a combination of your and your partners knowledge and experience D. your EMS systems patient care protocols or standing orders.
D
The condition in which the body's tissues and cells do not receive enough oxygen is called" A) hypoxemia B) asphyxia C) anoxia D) hypoxia
D
The hormonal effects associated with the fight-or-flight response can affect your performance as a paramedic by: A. decreasing your visual acuity B. affecting your reflexes negatively C. enhancing your critical thinking skills D. diminishing your ability to concentrate
D
Uncertainty regarding the specific cause of a patient's problem is called: A. a working diagnosis B. the general impression C. the differential diagnosis D. medical ambiguity
D
What are Korotkoff sounds? A. sounds over an artery that indicate turbulent blood flow B. abnormal sounds heard over the carotid arteries C. sounds that indicate a significant heart murmer D. the sounds heard when taking a blood pressure
D
When a caller requests EMS in an area that uses an enhanced 911 system: A. known hazards at or near the scene will be displayed on the computer B. the callers GPS coordinates will display on the computer C. the fastest route to the scene will be displayed on the computer D. the callers name and address are automatically displayed
D
When caring for critically ill patient, three or more sets of vital signs will allow you to" A. quantify that the patients condition is stabilizing, even if he or she has an altered level of consciousness B. determine what body system is in dysfunction, which will further facilitate the provision of specific care. C. determine how fast the patients condition is deteriorating and whether cardiac arrest is imminent. D. Assess trends and reassess whether the patients condition is stabilizing, getting better, or getting worse.
D
When communicating with a PT whose cultural background differs from the paramedic's, the paramedic should: A. agree with the PTs cultural differences B. use his or her own culture as the sole reference C. know the specifics about the PTs culture D. treat the PT with the utmost respect at all times
D
When transmitting information via radio, you should: A. break long messages into 60 second segments B. keep your mouth 1 inch from the microphone C. speak with your voice slightly elevated D. use a normal conversational tone of voice
D
Which assessment technique usually yields the MOST significant diagnostic information during the abdominal exam? A. percussion B. palpation C. auscultation D. inspection
D
Which of following statements regarding an intoxicated patient is correct? A. The risk of an intoxicated patients behavior turning violent is low because his or her cognitive skills are impaired significantly. B. Although the intoxicated patient is a poor historian, his or her family members usually provide the information that you need. C. You should promptly transport the intoxicated patient, because attempting to obtain a medical history will unsuccessful. D. While the patient is trying to explain things to you, his or her anger can escalate faster than if he or she were not intoxicated.
D
Which of the following is a significant benefit of electronic documentation? A. the use of drop down boxes, which minimizes the possibility for errors B. the ease with which it can be applied during mass casualty incidents C. the elimination of the need to complete a narrative section. D. the ability of the data to be shared between health care facilities
D
Which of the following is an example of a leading question: A. "Does the pain stay in your chest or does it move anywhere else?" B. " Has anything like this ever happened to you before today?" C. "On a scale of 1 to 10, what number would you assign your pain?" D. "Do you think that you are experiencing a cardiac emergency?"
D
Which of the following statements convey empathy? A. based on my assessment, I think you may be having a heart attack. B. I understand exactly how you feel. In time, this will work out. C. so if I understand you correctly, you say that you want to kill yourself D. I understand how difficult this must be. I am here to help you.
D
Why are children more prone to croup when they acquire a viral infection that adults infected with the same virus? A. childrens immune system are not as developed as adults, so they are more prone to infection. B. adults were vaccinated against the virus that causes croup, whereas most children were not C. the virus that causes croup replicates far more aggressively in children than it does in adults D. A childish airway is narrower than an adults, and even minor swelling can result in obstruction
D
You will MOST likely develop your field impression of a patient based on the: A. medications the patient is taking. B. patients perception of his or her problem C. results of your secondary assessment D. chief complaint and patient history
D
