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After issuing a show run command, an analyst notices the following command: crypto ipsec transform-set MYSET esp-aes 256 esp-md5-hmac What is the purpose of this command? A. It establishes the set of encryption and hashing algorithms used to secure the data sent through an IPsec tunnel. B. It defines the default ISAKMP policy list used to establish the IKE Phase 1 tunnel. C. It establishes the criteria to force the IKE Phase 1 negotiations to begin. D. It indicates that IKE will be used to establish the IPsec tunnel for protecting the traffic.

A. It establishes the set of encryption and hashing algorithms used to secure the data sent through an IPsec tunnel.

Which statement describes an important characteristic of a site-to-site VPN? A. It must be statically set up. B. It is ideally suited for use by mobile workers. C. It requires using a VPN client on the host PC. D. After the initial connection is established, it can dynamically change connection information. E. It is commonly implemented over dialup and cable modem networks.

A. It must be statically set up.

Which statement describes a characteristic of the IKE protocol? A. It uses UDP port 500 to exchange IKE information between the security gateways. B. IKE Phase 1 can be implemented in three different modes: main, aggressive, or quick. C. It allows for the transmission of keys directly across a network. D. The purpose of IKE Phase 2 is to negotiate a security association between two IKE peers.

A. It uses UDP port 500 to exchange IKE information between the security gateways.

What are two hashing algorithms used with IPsec AH to guarantee authenticity? (Choose two.) A. SHA B. RSA C. DH D. MD5 E. AES

A. SHA D. MD5

What network security testing tool has the ability to provide details on the source of suspicious network activity? A. SIEM B. SuperScan C. Zenmap D. Tripwire

A. SIEM

What are two disadvantages of using an IDS? (Choose two.) A. The IDS does not stop malicious traffic. B. The IDS works offline using copies of network traffic. C. The IDS has no impact on traffic. D. The IDS analyzes actual forwarded packets. E. The IDS requires other devices to respond to attacks.

A. The IDS does not stop malicious traffic. E. The IDS requires other devices to respond to attacks.

ACLs are used primarily to filter traffic. What are two additional uses of ACLs? (Choose two.): A. specifying internal hosts for NAT B. identifying traffic for QoS C. specifying source addresses for authentication D. reorganizing traffic into VLANs E. filtering VTP packets

A. specifying internal hosts for NAT B. identifying traffic for QoS

A network analyst is configuring a site-to-site IPsec VPN. The analyst has configured both the ISAKMP and IPsec policies. What is the next step? A. Configure the hash as SHA and the authentication as pre-shared. B. Apply the crypto map to the appropriate outbound interfaces. C. Issue the show crypto ipsec sa command to verify the tunnel. D. Verify that the security feature is enabled in the IOS.

B. Apply the crypto map to the appropriate outbound interfaces.

What network testing tool can be used to identify network layer protocols running on a host? A. SIEM B. Nmap C. L0phtcrack D. Tripwire

B. Nmap

Which algorithm can ensure data integrity? A. RSA B. AES C. MD5 D. PKI

C. MD5

What is the main factor that ensures the security of encryption of modern algorithms? A. complexity of the hashing algorithm B. the use of 3DES over AES C. secrecy of the keys D. secrecy of the algorithm

C. secrecy of the keys

Which zone-based policy firewall zone is system-defined and applies to traffic destined for the router or originating from the router? A. local zone B. inside zone C. self zone D. system zone F. outside zone

C. self zone

Which network monitoring technology uses VLANs to monitor traffic on remote switches? A. IPS B. IDS C. TAP D. RSPAN

D. RSPAN

Which two protocols generate connection information within a state table and are supported for stateful filtering? (Choose two.) A. ICMP B. UDP C. DHCP D. TCP E. HTTP

D. TCP E. HTTP

Which protocol is an IETF standard that defines the PKI digital certificate format? A. SSL/TLS B. X.500 C. LDAP D. X.509

D. X.509

What network testing tool would an administrator use to assess and validate system configurations against security policies and compliance standards? A. Tripwire B. L0phtcrack C. Nessus D. Metasploit

A. Tripwire

Which two types of hackers are typically classified as grey hat hackers? (Choose two.) A. hacktivists B. cyber criminals C. vulnerability brokers D. script kiddies E. state-sponsored hackers

A. hacktivists C. vulnerability brokers

Which rule action will cause Snort IPS to block and log a packet? A. log B. drop C. alert D. Sdrop

B. drop

What are three attributes of IPS signatures? (Choose three.) A. action B. length C. trigger D. type E. depth F. function

A. action C. trigger D. type

When the CLI is used to configure an ISR for a site-to-site VPN connection, which two items must be specified to enable a crypto map policy? (Choose two.) A. the hash B. the peer C. encryption D. the ISAKMP policy E. a valid access list F. IP addresses on all active interfaces G. the IKE Phase 1 policy

B. the peer E. a valid access list

What is the function of the pass action on a Cisco IOS Zone-Based Policy Firewall? A. logging of rejected or dropped packets B. inspecting traffic between zones for traffic control C. tracking the state of connections between zones D. forwarding traffic from one zone to another

D. forwarding traffic from one zone to another

A client connects to a Web server. Which component of this HTTP connection A. is not examined by a stateful firewall? B. the source IP address of the client traffic C. the destination port number of the client traffic D. the actual contents of the HTTP connection E. the source port number of the client traffic

D. the actual contents of the HTTP connection

What is needed to allow specific traffic that is sourced on the outside network of an ASA firewall to reach an internal network? A. ACL B. NAT C. dynamic routing protocols D. outside security zone level 0

A. ACL

What will be the result of failed login attempts if the following command is entered into a router? login block-for 150 attempts 4 within 90 A. All login attempts will be blocked for 150 seconds if there are 4 failed attempts within 90 seconds. B. All login attempts will be blocked for 90 seconds if there are 4 failed attempts within 150 seconds. C. All login attempts will be blocked for 1.5 hours if there are 4 failed attempts within 150 seconds. D. All login attempts will be blocked for 4 hours if there are 90 failed attempts within 150 seconds.

A. All login attempts will be blocked for 150 seconds if there are 4 failed attempts within 90 seconds.

Which three types of traffic are allowed when the authentication port-control auto command has been issued and the client has not yet been authenticated? (Choose three.) A. CDP B. 802.1Q C. IPsec D. TACACS+ E. STP F. EAPOL

A. CDP E. STP F. EAPOL

A recently created ACL is not working as expected. The admin determined that the ACL had been applied inbound on the interface and that was the incorrect direction. How should the admin fix this issue? A. Delete the original ACL and create a new ACL, applying it outbound on the interface. B. Add an association of the ACL outbound on the same interface. C. Fix the ACE statements so that it works as desired inbound on the interface. D. Remove the inbound association of the ACL on the interface and reapply it outbound.

A. Delete the original ACL and create a new ACL, applying it outbound on the interface.

What is the best way to prevent a VLAN hopping attack? A. Disable trunk negotiation for trunk ports and statically set nontrunk ports as access ports. B. Disable STP on all nontrunk ports. C. Use VLAN 1 as the native VLAN on trunk ports. D. Use ISL encapsulation on all trunk links.

A. Disable trunk negotiation for trunk ports and statically set nontrunk ports as access ports.

What is typically used to create a security trap in the data center facility? A. IDs, biometrics, and two access doors B. high resolution monitors C. redundant authentication servers D. a server without all security patches applied

A. IDs, biometrics, and two access doors

A researcher is comparing the differences between a stateless firewall and a proxy firewall. Which two additional layers of the OSI model are inspected by a proxy firewall? (Choose two.) A. Layer 3 B. Layer 4 C. Layer 5 D. Layer 6 E. Layer 7

A. Layer 3 B. Layer 4

How does a Caesar cipher work on a message? A. Letters of the message are replaced by another letter that is a set number of places away in the alphabet. B. Letters of the message are rearranged randomly. C. Letters of the message are rearranged based on a predetermined pattern. D. Words of the message are substituted based on a predetermined pattern.

A. Letters of the message are replaced by another letter that is a set number of places away in the alphabet.

Which two statements describe the characteristics of symmetric algorithms? (Choose two.) A. They are commonly used with VPN traffic. B. They use a pair of a public key and a private key. C. They are commonly implemented in the SSL and SSH protocols. D. They provide confidentiality, integrity, and availability. E. They are referred to as a pre-shared key or secret key.

A. They are commonly used with VPN traffic. E. They are referred to as a pre-shared key or secret key.

What are three characteristics of ASA transparent mode? (Choose three.) A. This mode does not support VPNs, QoS, or DHCP Relay. B. It is the traditional firewall deployment mode. C. This mode is referred to as a "bump in the wire." D. NAT can be implemented between connected networks. E. In this mode the ASA is invisible to an attacker. F. The interfaces of the ASA separate Layer 3 networks and require IP addresses in different subnets.

A. This mode does not support VPNs, QoS, or DHCP Relay. C. This mode is referred to as a "bump in the wire." E. In this mode the ASA is invisible to an attacker.

How does a firewall handle traffic when it is originating from the public network and traveling to the DMZ network? A. Traffic that is originating from the public network is inspected and selectively permitted when traveling to the DMZ network. B. Traffic that is originating from the public network is usually permitted with little or no restriction when traveling to the DMZ network. C. Traffic that is originating from the public network is usually forwarded without inspection when traveling to the DMZ network. D. Traffic that is originating from the public network is usually blocked when traveling to the DMZ network.

A. Traffic that is originating from the public network is inspected and selectively permitted when traveling to the DMZ network.

A user complains about being locked out of a device after too many unsuccessful AAA login attempts. What could be used by the network administrator to provide a secure authentication access method without locking a user out of a device? A. Use the login delay command for authentication attempts. B. Use the login local command for authenticating user access. C. Use the aaa local authentication attempts max-fail global configuration mode command with a higher number of acceptable failures. D. Use the none keyword when configuring the authentication method list.

A. Use the login delay command for authentication attempts.

What two features are added in SNMPv3 to address the weaknesses of previous versions of SNMP? (Choose two.) A. authentication B. authorization with community string priority C. bulk MIB objects retrieval D. ACL management filtering E. encryption

A. authentication E. encryption

In an AAA-enabled network, a user issues the configure terminal command from the privileged executive mode of operation. What AAA function is at work if this command is rejected? A. authorization B. authentication C. auditing D. accounting

A. authorization

Upon completion of a network security course, a student decides to pursue a career in cryptanalysis. What job would the student be doing as a cryptanalyst? A. cracking code without access to the shared secret key B. creating hashing codes to authenticate data C. making and breaking secret codes D. creating transposition and substitution ciphers

A. cracking code without access to the shared secret key

What are two security measures used to protect endpoints in the borderless network? (Choose two.) A. denylisting B. Snort IPS C. DLP D. DMZ E. rootkit

A. denylisting C. DLP

What command is used on a switch to set the port access entity type so the interface acts only as an authenticator and will not respond to any messages meant for a supplicant? A. dot1x pae authenticator B. authentication port-control auto C. aaa authentication dot1x default group radius D. dot1x system-auth-control

A. dot1x pae authenticator

Which three functions are provided by the syslog logging service? (Choose three.) A. gathering logging information B. authenticating and encrypting data sent over the network C. retaining captured messages on the router when a router is rebooted D. specifying where captured information is stored E. distinguishing between information to be captured and information to be ignored F. setting the size of the logging buffer

A. gathering logging information D. specifying where captured information is stored E. distinguishing between information to be captured and information to be ignored

Which two options can limit the information discovered from port scanning? (Choose two.) A. intrusion prevention system B. firewall C. authentication D. passwords E. encryption

A. intrusion prevention system B. firewall

A network administrator is configuring DAI on a switch. Which command should be used on the uplink interface that connects to a router? A. ip arp inspection trust B. ip dhcp snooping C. ip arp inspection vlan D. spanning-tree portfast

A. ip arp inspection trust

What two ICMPv6 message types must be permitted through IPv6 access control lists to allow resolution of Layer 3 addresses to Layer 2 MAC addresses? (Choose two.) A. neighbor solicitations B. echo requests C. neighbor advertisements D. echo replies E. router solicitations F. router advertisements

A. neighbor solicitations C. neighbor advertisements

What are the three signature levels provided by Snort IPS on the 4000 Series ISR? (Choose three.) A. security B. drop C. reject D. connectivity E. inspect F. balanced

A. security D. connectivity F. balanced

In the implementation of security on multiple devices, how do ASA ACLs differ from Cisco IOS ACLs? A. Cisco IOS routers utilize both named and numbered ACLs and Cisco ASA devices utilize only numbered ACLs. B. Cisco IOS ACLs are configured with a wildcard mask and Cisco ASA ACLs are configured with a subnet mask. C. Cisco IOS ACLs are processed sequentially from the top down and Cisco ASA ACLs are not processed sequentially. D. Cisco IOS ACLs utilize an implicit deny all and Cisco ASA ACLs end with an implicit permit all

B. Cisco IOS ACLs are configured with a wildcard mask and Cisco ASA ACLs are configured with a subnet mask

A security analyst is configuring Snort IPS. The analyst has just downloaded and installed the Snort OVA file. What is the next step? A. Verify Snort IPS. B. Configure Virtual Port Group interfaces. C. Enable IPS globally or on desired interfaces. D. Activate the virtual services.

B. Configure Virtual Port Group interfaces.

Which two options are security best practices that help mitigate BYOD risks? (Choose two.) A. Use paint that reflects wireless signals and glass that prevents the signals from going outside the building. B. Keep the device OS and software updated. C. Only allow devices that have been approved by the corporate IT team. D. Only turn on Wi-Fi when using the wireless network. E. Decrease the wireless antenna gain level. F. Use wireless MAC address filtering.

B. Keep the device OS and software updated. D. Only turn on Wi-Fi when using the wireless network.

What are two methods to maintain certificate revocation status? (Choose two.) A. subordinate CA B. OCSP C.DNS D. LDAP E. CRL

B. OCSP E. CRL

What are two benefits of using a ZPF rather than a Classic Firewall? (Choose two.) A. ZPF allows interfaces to be placed into zones for IP inspection. B. The ZPF is not dependent on ACLs. C. Multiple inspection actions are used with ZPF. D. ZPF policies are easy to read and troubleshoot. E. With ZPF, the router will allow packets unless they are explicitly blocked.

B. The ZPF is not dependent on ACLs. D. ZPF policies are easy to read and troubleshoot.

What is a characteristic of a DMZ zone? A. Traffic originating from the inside network going to the DMZ network is not permitted. B. Traffic originating from the outside network going to the DMZ network is selectively permitted. C. Traffic originating from the DMZ network going to the inside network is permitted. D. Traffic originating from the inside network going to the DMZ network is selectively permitte

B. Traffic originating from the outside network going to the DMZ network is selectively permitted.

How do modern cryptographers defend against brute-force attacks? A. Use statistical analysis to eliminate the most common encryption keys. B. Use a keyspace large enough that it takes too much money and too much time to conduct a successful attack. C. Use an algorithm that requires the attacker to have both ciphertext and plaintext to conduct a successful attack. D. Use frequency analysis to ensure that the most popular letters used in the language are not used in the cipher message

B. Use a keyspace large enough that it takes too much money and too much time to conduct a successful attack.

What are two drawbacks to using HIPS? (Choose two.) A. With HIPS, the success or failure of an attack cannot be readily determined. B. With HIPS, the network administrator must verify support for all the different operating systems used in the network. C. HIPS has difficulty constructing an accurate network picture or coordinating events that occur across the entire network. D. If the network traffic stream is encrypted, HIPS is unable to access unencrypted forms of the traffic. E. HIPS installations are vulnerable to fragmentation attacks or variable TTL attacks.

B. With HIPS, the network administrator must verify support for all the different operating systems used in the network. C. HIPS has difficulty constructing an accurate network picture or coordinating events that occur across the entire network.

Which method is used to identify interesting traffic needed to create an IKE phase 1 tunnel? A. transform sets B. a permit access list entry C. hashing algorithms D. a security association

B. a permit access list entry

Which three services are provided through digital signatures? (Choose three.) A. accounting B. authenticity C. compression D. nonrepudiation E. integrity F. encryption

B. authenticity D. nonrepudiation E. integrity

Which two tasks are associated with router hardening? (Choose two.) A. placing the router in a secure room B. disabling unused ports and interfaces C. installing the maximum amount of memory possible D. securing administrative access E. using uninterruptible power supplies

B. disabling unused ports and interfaces D. securing administrative access

Which privilege level has the most access to the Cisco IOS? A. level 0 B. level 15 C. level 7 D. level 16 E. level 1

B. level 15

Which action do IPsec peers take during the IKE Phase 2 exchange? A. exchange of DH keys B. negotiation of IPsec policy C. negotiation of IKE policy sets D. verification of peer identity

B. negotiation of IPsec policy

What is the next step in the establishment of an IPsec VPN after IKE Phase 1 is complete? A. negotiation of the ISAKMP policy B. negotiation of the IPsec SA policy C. detection of interesting traffic D. authentication of peers

B. negotiation of the IPsec SA policy

Which type of firewall makes use of a server to connect to destination devices on behalf of clients? A. packet filtering firewall B. proxy firewall C. stateless firewall D. stateful firewall

B. proxy firewall

What are the three core components of the Cisco Secure Data Center solution? (Choose three.) A. mesh network B. secure segmentation C. visibility D. threat defense E. servers F. infrastructure

B. secure segmentation C. visibility D. threat defense

A network technician has been asked to design a virtual private network between two branch routers. Which type of cryptographic key should be used in this scenario? A. hash key B. symmetric key C. asymmetric key D. digital signature

B. symmetric key

What are three characteristics of the RADIUS protocol? (Choose three.) A. utilizes TCP port 49 B. uses UDP ports for authentication and accounting C. supports 802.1X and SIP D. separates the authentication and authorization processes E. encrypts the entire body of the packet F. is an open RFC standard AAA protocol

B. uses UDP ports for authentication and accounting C. supports 802.1X and SIP F. is an open RFC standard AAA protocol

A company implements a security policy that ensures that a file sent from the headquarters office to the branch office can only be opened with a predetermined code. This code is changed every day. Which two algorithms can be used to achieve this task? (Choose two.) A. HMAC B. MD5 C. 3DES E. SHA-1 F. AES

C. 3DES F. AES

What is a characteristic of a role-based CLI view of router configuration? A. A CLI view has a command hierarchy, with higher and lower views. B. When a superview is deleted, the associated CLI views are deleted. C. A single CLI view can be shared within multiple superviews. D. Only a superview user can configure a new view and add or remove commands from the existing views.

C. A single CLI view can be shared within multiple superviews.

What provides both secure segmentation and threat defense in a Secure Data Center solution? A. Cisco Security Manager software B. AAA server C. Adaptive Security Appliance D. intrusion prevention system

C. Adaptive Security Appliance

What is the main difference between the implementation of IDS and IPS devices? A. An IDS can negatively impact the packet flow, whereas an IPS can not. B. An IDS needs to be deployed together with a firewall device, whereas an IPS can replace a firewall. C. An IDS would allow malicious traffic to pass before it is addressed, whereas an IPS stops it immediately. D. An IDS uses signature-based technology to detect malicious packets, whereas an IPS uses profile-based technology.

C. An IDS would allow malicious traffic to pass before it is addressed, whereas an IPS stops it immediately.

What are two drawbacks in assigning user privilege levels on a Cisco router? (Choose two.) A. Only a root user can add or remove commands. B. Privilege levels must be set to permit access control to specific device interfaces, ports, or slots. C. Assigning a command with multiple keywords allows access to all commands using those keywords. D. Commands from a lower level are always executable at a higher level. E. AAA must be enabled.

C. Assigning a command with multiple keywords allows access to all commands using those keywords. D. Commands from a lower level are always executable at a higher level.

Consider the access list command applied outbound on a router serial interface. access-list 100 deny icmp 192.168.10.0 0.0.0.255 any echo reply What is the effect of applying this access list command? A. The only traffic denied is echo-replies sourced from the 192.168.10.0/24 network. All other traffic is allowed. B. The only traffic denied is ICMP-based traffic. All other traffic is allowed. C. No traffic will be allowed outbound on the serial interface. D. Users on the 192.168.10.0/24 network are not allowed to transmit traffic to any other destination.

C. No traffic will be allowed outbound on the serial interface.

What technology has a function of using trusted third-party protocols to issue credentials that are accepted as an authoritative identity? A. digital signatures B. hashing algorithms C. PKI certificates D. symmetric keys

C. PKI certificates

What function is provided by the RADIUS protocol? A. RADIUS provides encryption of the complete packet during transfer. B. RADIUS provides separate AAA services. C. RADIUS provides separate ports for authorization and accounting. D. RADIUS provides secure communication using TCP port 49.

C. RADIUS provides separate ports for authorization and accounting.

Which measure can a security analyst take to perform effective security monitoring against network traffic encrypted by SSL technology? A. Use a Syslog server to capture network traffic. B. Deploy a Cisco SSL Appliance. C. Require remote access connections through IPsec VPN. D. Deploy a Cisco ASA.

C. Require remote access connections through IPsec VPN.

An administrator discovers that a user is accessing a newly established website that may be detrimental to company security. What action should the administrator take first in terms of the security policy? A. Ask the user to stop immediately and inform the user that this constitutes grounds for dismissal. B. Create a firewall rule blocking the respective website. C. Revise the AUP immediately and get all users to sign the updated AUP. D. Immediately suspend the network privileges of the use

C. Revise the AUP immediately and get all users to sign the updated AUP.

An administrator is trying to develop a BYOD security policy for employees that are bringing a wide range of devices to connect to the company network. Which three objectives must the BYOD security policy address? (Choose three.) A. All devices must be insured against liability if used to compromise the corporate network. B. All devices must have open authentication with the corporate network. C. Rights and activities permitted on the corporate network must be defined. D. Safeguards must be put in place for any personal device being compromised. E. The level of access of employees when connecting to the corporate network must be defined. F. All devices should be allowed to attach to the corporate network flawlessly.

C. Rights and activities permitted on the corporate network must be defined. D. Safeguards must be put in place for any personal device being compromised. E. The level of access of employees when connecting to the corporate network must be defined

A technician is to document the current configurations of all network devices in a college, including those in off-site buildings. Which protocol would be best to use to securely access the network devices? A. FTP B. HTTP C. SSH D. Telnet

C. SSH

How does a firewall handle traffic when it is originating from the private network and traveling to the DMZ network? A. The traffic is selectively denied based on service requirements. B. The traffic is usually permitted with little or no restrictions. C. The traffic is selectively permitted and inspected. D. The traffic is usually blocked.

C. The traffic is selectively permitted and inspected.

What type of network security test can detect and report changes made to network systems? A. vulnerability scanning B. network scanning C. integrity checking D. penetration testing

C. integrity checking

Which command is used to activate an IPv6 ACL named ENG_ACL on an interface so that the router filters traffic prior to accessing the routing table? A. ipv6 access-class ENG_ACL in B. ipv6 traffic-filter ENG_ACL out C. ipv6 traffic-filter ENG_ACL in D. ipv6 access-class ENG_ACL ou

C. ipv6 traffic-filter ENG_ACL in

What are two examples of DoS attacks? (Choose two.) A. port scanning B. SQL injection C. ping of death D. phishing E. buffer overflow

C. ping of death E. buffer overflow

What would be the primary reason an attacker would launch a MAC address overflow attack? A. so that the switch stops forwarding traffic B. so that legitimate hosts cannot obtain a MAC address C.so that the attacker can see frames that are destined for other hosts D. so that the attacker can execute arbitrary code on the switch

C.so that the attacker can see frames that are destined for other hosts

What characteristic of the Snort term-based subscriptions is true for both the community and the subscriber rule sets? A. Both have a 30-day delayed access to updated signatures. B. Both use Cisco Talos to provide coverage in advance of exploits. C. Both are fully supported by Cisco and include Cisco customer support. D. Both offer threat protection against security threats.

D. Both offer threat protection against security threats.

If AAA is already enabled, which three CLI steps are required to configure a router with a specific view? (Choose three.) A. Create a superview using the parser view view-name command. B. Associate the view with the root view. C. Assign users who can use the view. D. Create a view using the parser view view-name command. E. Assign a secret password to the view. F. Assign commands to the view.

D. Create a view using the parser view view-name command. E. Assign a secret password to the view. F. Assign commands to the view

The security policy in a company specifies that employee workstations can initiate HTTP and HTTPS connections to outside websites and the return traffic is allowed. However, connections initiated from outside hosts are not allowed. Which parameter can be used in extended ACLs to meet this requirement? A. dscp B. precedence C. eq D. established

D. established

What security countermeasure is effective for preventing CAM table overflow attacks? A. DHCP snooping B. Dynamic ARP Inspection C. IP source guard D. port security

D. port security

Which command raises the privilege level of the ping command to 7? A. user exec ping level 7 B. authorization exec ping level 7 C. accounting exec level 7 ping D. privilege exec level 7 ping

D. privilege exec level 7 ping

Which type of packet is unable to be filtered by an outbound ACL? A. multicast packet B. ICMP packet C. broadcast packet D. router-generated packet

D. router-generated packet

What network testing tool is used for password auditing and recovery? A. Nessus B. Metasploit C. L0phtcrack D. SuperScan

C. L0phtcrack

What function is provided by Snort as part of the Security Onion? A. to generate network intrusion alerts by the use of rules and signatures B. to normalize logs from various NSM data logs so they can be represented, stored, and accessed through a common schema C. to display full-packet captures for analysis D. to view pcap transcripts generated by intrusion detection tools

A. to generate network intrusion alerts by the use of rules and signatures

What are two reasons to enable OSPF routing protocol authentication on a network? (Choose two.) A. to prevent data traffic from being redirected and then discarded B. to ensure faster network convergence C. to provide data security through encryption D. to prevent redirection of data traffic to an insecure link E. to ensure more efficient routing

A. to prevent data traffic from being redirected and then discarded D. to prevent redirection of data traffic to an insecure link

Which attack is defined as an attempt to exploit software vulnerabilities that are unknown or undisclosed by the vendor? A. zero-day B. Trojan horse C. brute-force D. man-in-the-middle

A. zero-day

When describing malware, what is a difference between a virus and a worm? A. A virus focuses on gaining privileged access to a device, whereas a worm does not. B. A virus replicates itself by attaching to another file, whereas a worm can replicate itself independently. C. A virus can be used to launch a DoS attack (but not a DDoS), but a worm can be used to launch both DoS and DDoS attacks. D. A virus can be used to deliver advertisements without user consent, whereas a worm cannot.

B. A virus replicates itself by attaching to another file, whereas a worm can replicate itself independently.

What ports can receive forwarded traffic from an isolated port that is part of a PVLAN? A. other isolated ports and community ports B. only promiscuous ports C. all other ports within the same community D. only isolated ports

B. only promiscuous ports

Which two features are included by both TACACS+ and RADIUS protocols? (Choose two.) A. SIP support B. password encryption C. 802.1X support D. separate authentication and authorization processes E. utilization of transport layer protocols

B. password encryption E. utilization of transport layer protocols

Which type of firewall is supported by most routers and is the easiest to implement? A. next generation firewall B. stateless firewall C. stateful firewall D. proxy firewall

B. stateless firewall

A company is concerned with leaked and stolen corporate data on hard copies. Which data loss mitigation technique could help with this situation? A. strong PC security settings B. strong passwords C. shredding D. encryption

C. shredding

Which threat protection capability is provided by Cisco ESA? A. web filtering B. cloud access security C. spam protection D. Layer 4 traffic monitoring

C. spam protection

What is a limitation to using OOB management on a large enterprise network? A. Production traffic shares the network with management traffic. B. Terminal servers can have direct console connections to user devices needing management. C. OOB management requires the creation of VPNs. D. All devices appear to be attached to a single management network.

D. All devices appear to be attached to a single management network.

A company has a file server that shares a folder named Public. The network security policy specifies that the Public folder is assigned Read-Only rights to anyone who can log into the server while the Edit rights are assigned only to the network admin group. Which component is addressed in the AAA network service framework? A. automation B. accounting D. authentication D. authorization

D. authorization

A web server administrator is configuring access settings to require users to authenticate first before accessing certain web pages. Which requirement of information security is addressed through the configuration? A. availability B. integrity C. scalability D. confidentiality

D. confidentiality

The use of 3DES within the IPsec framework is an example of which of the five IPsec building blocks? A. authentication B. nonrepudiation C. integrity D. Diffie-Hellman E. confidentiality

E. confidentiality

Which statement describes a difference between the Cisco ASA IOS CLI feature and the router IOS CLI feature? A. ASA uses the ? command whereas a router uses the help command to receive help on a brief description and the syntax of a command. B. To use a show command in a general configuration mode, ASA can use the command directly whereas a router will need to enter the do command before issuing the show command. C. To complete a partially typed command, ASA uses the Ctrl+Tab key combination whereas a router uses the Tab key. D. To indicate the CLI EXEC mode, ASA uses the % symbol whereas a router uses the # symbol.

To use a show command in a general configuration mode, ASA can use the command directly whereas a router will need to enter the do command before issuing the show command.