3664 Exam 5 Review Questions

NCLEX pre-test question The nurse instructs a 50-year-old woman about cholestyramine to reduce pruritis caused by gallbladder disease. Which statement by the patient to the nurse indicates she understands the instructions?

"The medication is a powder and needs to be mixed with milk or juice. Rationale: For treatment of pruritus, cholestyramine may provide relief. This is a resin that binds bile salts in the intestine, increasing their excretion in the feces. Cholestyramine is in powder form and should be mixed with milk or juice before oral administration.

A patient is scheduled for a bilateral adrenalectomy. During the postoperative period, what should the nurse expect related to the administration of corticosteroids? a. Reduced to promote wound healing b. Withheld until symptoms of hypocortisolism appear c. Increased to promote an adequate response to the stress of surgery d. Reduced with excessive hormone release during surgical manipulation of adrenal glands

. c. Although the patient with Cushing syndrome has excess corticosteroids, removal of the glands and the stress of surgery require that high doses of corticosteroids (cortisone) be administered postoperatively for several days before weaning the dose. The nurse should monitor the patient's vital signs postoperatively to detect whether large amounts of hormones were released during surgical manipulation, obtain morning urine specimens for cortisol measurement to evaluate the effectiveness of the surgery, and provide dressing changes with aseptic technique to avoid infection as usual inflammatory responses are suppressed.

1. A patient arrives to the ER and is unable to give you a health history due to altered mental status. The family reports the patient has gained over 10 lbs in 1 week and says it is mainly "water" weight. In addition, they report the patient hasn't been able to urinate or eat within the past week as well and was recently diagnosed with small cell lung cancer. On assessment, you note the patient's HR is 115 and BP 180/92. Patient sodium level is 90. Which of the following conditions do you suspect the patient is most likely presenting with? A. SIADH B. Diabetes Insipidus C. Addison's Disease D. Fluid Volume Deficient 2. in the scenario above what drug do you anticipate the patient will be started on per doctor's order? A. Desmopressin (DDAVP) IV B. Declomycin C. Diabinese D. Stimate

1. The answer is A: SIADH 2.The answer is B: Declomycin

Which patient is most at risk for developing Syndrome of Inappropriate Anti-diuretic Hormone (SIADH)? A. A patient diagnosed with small cell lung cancer. B. A patient whose kidney tubules are failing to reabsorb water. C. A patient with a tumor on the anterior pituitary gland. D. A patient taking Declomycin.

A

You are developing a care plan for a patient with SIADH. Which of the following would be a potential nursing diagnosis for this patient? A. Fluid volume overload B. Fluid volume deficient C. Acute pain D. Impaired skin integrity

A

NCLEX review question When providing discharge teaching for the patient after a laparoscopic cholecystectomy, what information should the nurse include?

A lower-fat diet may be better tolerated for several weeks Rationale: Although the usual diet can be resumed, a low-fat diet is usually better tolerated for several weeks following surgery. Normal activities can be gradually resumed as the patient tolerates. Bile-colored drainage or pus, redness, swelling, severe pain, and fever may all indicate infection. The bandage may be removed the day after surgery, and the patient can shower.

Which finding indicates to the nurse that the current therapies are effective for a patient with acute adrenal insufficiency? a. Increasing serum sodium levels b. Decreasing blood glucose levels c. Decreasing serum chloride levels d. Increasing serum potassium levels

ANS: A Clinical manifestations of Addisons disease include hyponatremia and an increase in sodium level indicates improvement. The other values indicate that treatment has not been effective.

The nurse determines that additional instruction is needed for a 60-year-old patient with chronic syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) when the patient says which of the following? a. I need to shop for foods low in sodium and avoid adding salt to food. b. I should weigh myself daily and report any sudden weight loss or gain. c. I need to limit my fluid intake to no more than 1 quart of liquids a day. d. I will eat foods high in potassium because diuretics cause potassium loss.

ANS: A Patients with SIADH are at risk for hyponatremia, and a sodium supplement may be prescribed. The other patient statements are correct and indicate successful teaching has occurred.

he nurse is planning care for a 48-year-old woman with acute severe pancreatitis. The highest priority patient outcome is a. maintaining normal respiratory function. b. expressing satisfaction with pain control. c. developing no ongoing pancreatic disease. d. having adequate fluid and electrolyte balance.

ANS: A Respiratory failure can occur as a complication of acute pancreatitis, and maintenance of adequate respiratory function is the priority goal. The other outcomes would also be appropriate for the patient.

The nurse is caring for a patient admitted with diabetes insipidus (DI). Which information is most important to report to the health care provider? a. The patient is confused and lethargic. b. The patient reports a recent head injury. c. The patient has a urine output of 400 mL/hr. d. The patients urine specific gravity is 1.003.

ANS: A The patients confusion and lethargy may indicate hypernatremia and should be addressed quickly. In addition, patients with DI compensate for fluid losses by drinking copious amounts of fluids, but a patient who is lethargic will be unable to drink enough fluids and will become hypovolemic. A high urine output, low urine specific gravity, and history of a recent head injury are consistent with diabetes insipidus, but they do not require immediate nursing action to avoid life-threatening complications.

A 23-year-old has been admitted with acute liver failure. Which assessment data are most important for the nurse to communicate to the health care provider? a. Asterixis and lethargy b. Jaundiced sclera and skin c. Elevated total bilirubin level d. Liver 3 cm below costal margin

ANS: A The patients findings of asterixis and lethargy are consistent with grade 2 hepatic encephalopathy. Patients with acute liver failure can deteriorate rapidly from grade 1 or 2 to grade 3 or 4 hepatic encephalopathy and need early transfer to a transplant center. The other findings are typical of patients with hepatic failure and would be reported but would not indicate a need for an immediate change in the therapeutic plan.

Which finding indicates to the nurse that lactulose (Cephulac) is effective for a 72-year-old man who has advanced cirrhosis? a. The patient is alert and oriented. b. The patient denies nausea or anorexia. c. The patients bilirubin level decreases. d. The patient has at least one stool daily.

ANS: A The purpose of lactulose in the patient with cirrhosis is to lower ammonia levels and prevent encephalopathy. Although lactulose may be used to treat constipation, that is not the purpose for this patient. Lactulose will not decrease nausea and vomiting or lower bilirubin levels.

The nurse recognizes that teaching a 44-year-old woman following a laparoscopic cholecystectomy has been effective when the patient states which of the following? a. I can expect yellow-green drainage from the incision for a few days. b. I can remove the bandages on my incisions tomorrow and take a shower. c. I should plan to limit my activities and not return to work for 4 to 6 weeks. d. I will always need to maintain a low-fat diet since I no longer have a gallbladder.

ANS: B After a laparoscopic cholecystectomy, the patient will have Band-Aids in place over the incisions. Patients are discharged the same (or next) day and have few restrictions on activities of daily living. Drainage from the incisions would be abnormal, and the patient should be instructed to call the health care provider if this occurs. A low-fat diet may be recommended for a few weeks after surgery but will not be a life-long requirement.

The nurse is planning postoperative care for a patient who is being admitted to the surgical unit form the recovery room after transsphenoidal resection of a pituitary tumor. Which nursing action should be included? a. Palpate extremities for edema. b. Measure urine volume every hour. c. Check hematocrit every 2 hours for 8 hours. d. Monitor continuous pulse oximetry for 24 hours.

ANS: B After pituitary surgery, the patient is at risk for diabetes insipidus caused by cerebral edema. Monitoring of urine output and urine specific gravity is essential. Hemorrhage is not a common problem. There is no need to check the hematocrit hourly. The patient is at risk for dehydration, not volume overload. The patient is not at high risk for problems with oxygenation, and continuous pulse oximetry is not needed.

The nurse is planning postoperative care for a patient who is being admitted to the surgical unit form the recovery room after transsphenoidal resection of a pituitary tumor. Which nursing action should be included? a.Palpate extremities for edema. b.Measure urine volume every hour. c.Check hematocrit every 2 hours for 8 hours. d.Monitor continuous pulse oximetry for 24 hours.

ANS: B After pituitary surgery, the patient is at risk for diabetes insipidus caused by cerebral edema. Monitoring of urine output and urine specific gravity is essential. Hemorrhage is not a common problem. There is no need to check the hematocrit hourly. The patient is at risk for dehydration, not volume overload. The patient is not at high risk for problems with oxygenation, and continuous pulse oximetry is not needed.

he nurse is caring for a 73-year-old man who has cirrhosis. Which data obtained by the nurse during the assessment will be of most concern? a. The patient complains of right upper-quadrant pain with palpation. b. The patients hands flap back and forth when the arms are extended. c. The patient has ascites and a 2-kg weight gain from the previous day. d. The patients skin has multiple spider-shaped blood vessels on the abdomen

ANS: B Asterixis indicates that the patient has hepatic encephalopathy, and hepatic coma may occur. The spider angiomas and right upper quadrant abdominal pain are not unusual for the patient with cirrhosis and do not require a change in treatment. The ascites and weight gain indicate the need for treatment but not as urgently as the changes in neurologic status.

The nurse is assessing a 41-year-old African American male patient diagnosed with a pituitary tumor causing panhypopituitarism. Assessment findings consistent with panhypopituitarism include a. high blood pressure. b. decreased facial hair. c. elevated blood glucose. d. tachycardia and cardiac palpitations.

ANS: B Changes in male secondary sex characteristics such as decreased facial hair, testicular atrophy, diminished spermatogenesis, loss of libido, impotence, and decreased muscle mass are associated with decreases in follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH). Fasting hypoglycemia and hypotension occur in panhypopituitarism as a result of decreases in adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) and cortisol. Bradycardia is likely due to the decrease in thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) and thyroid hormones associated with panhypopituitarism.

The nurse determines that demeclocycline (Declomycin) is effective for a patient with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) based on finding that the patients a. weight has increased. b. urinary output is increased. c. peripheral edema is decreased. d. urine specific gravity is increased.

ANS: B Demeclocycline blocks the action of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) on the renal tubules and increases urine output. An increase in weight or an increase in urine specific gravity indicates that the SIADH is not corrected. Peripheral edema does not occur with SIADH. A sudden weight gain without edema is a common clinical manifestation of this disorder.

The cardiac telemetry unit charge nurse receives status reports from other nursing units about four patients who need cardiac monitoring. Which patient should be transferred to the cardiac unit first? a. Patient with Hashimotos thyroiditis and a heart rate of 102 b. Patient with tetany who has a new order for IV calcium chloride c. Patient with Cushing syndrome and a blood glucose of 140 mg/dL d. Patient with Addisons disease who takes hydrocortisone twice daily

ANS: B Emergency treatment of tetany requires IV administration of calcium; ECG monitoring will be required because cardiac arrest may occur if high calcium levels result from too-rapid administration. The information about the other patients indicates that they are more stable than the patient with tetany.

hich action should the nurse take to evaluate treatment effectiveness for a patient who has hepatic encephalopathy? a. Request that the patient stand on one foot. b. Ask the patient to extend both arms forward. c. Request that the patient walk with eyes closed. d. Ask the patient to perform the Valsalva maneuver.

ANS: B Extending the arms allows the nurse to check for asterixis, a classic sign of hepatic encephalopathy. The other tests might also be done as part of the neurologic assessment but would not be diagnostic for hepatic encephalopathy.

For a patient with cirrhosis, which of the following nursing actions can the registered nurse (RN) delegate to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? a. Assessing the patient for jaundice b. Providing oral hygiene after a meal c. Palpating the abdomen for distention d. Assisting the patient to choose the diet

ANS: B Providing oral hygiene is within the scope of UAP. Assessments and assisting patients to choose therapeutic diets are nursing actions that require higher-level nursing education and scope of practice and would be delegated to licensed practical/vocational nurses (LPNs/LVNs) or RNs.

A serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L (3.2 mmol/L) is reported for a patient with cirrhosis who has scheduled doses of spironolactone (Aldactone) and furosemide (Lasix). due. Which action should the nurse take? a. Administer both drugs. b. Administer the spironolactone. c. Withhold the spironolactone and administer the furosemide. d. Withhold both drugs until discussed with the health care provider.

ANS: B Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic and will help increase the patients potassium level. The nurse does not need to talk with the doctor before giving the spironolactone, although the health care provider should be notified about the low potassium value. The furosemide will further decrease the patients potassium level and should be held until the nurse talks with the health care provider.

Which intervention will the nurse include in the plan of care for a 52-year-old male patient with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH)? a. Monitor for peripheral edema. b. Offer patient hard candies to suck on. c. Encourage fluids to 2 to 3 liters per day. d. Keep head of bed elevated to 30 degrees.

ANS: B Sucking on hard candies decreases thirst for a patient on fluid restriction. Patients with SIADH are on fluid restrictions of 800 to 1000 mL/day. Peripheral edema is not seen with SIADH. The head of the bed is elevated no more than 10 degrees to increase left atrial filling pressure and decrease antidiuretic hormone (ADH) release.

Which assessment information will be most important for the nurse to report to the health care provider about a patient with acute cholecystitis? a. The patients urine is bright yellow. b. The patients stools are tan colored. c. The patient has increased pain after eating. d. The patient complains of chronic heartburn.

ANS: B Tan or grey stools indicate biliary obstruction, which requires rapid intervention to resolve. The other data are not unusual for a patient with this diagnosis, although the nurse would also report the other assessment information to the health care provider.

Which topic is most important to include in patient teaching for a 41-year-old patient diagnosed with early alcoholic cirrhosis? a. Maintaining good nutrition b. Avoiding alcohol ingestion c. Taking lactulose (Cephulac) d. Using vitamin B supplements

ANS: B The disease progression can be stopped or reversed by alcohol abstinence. The other interventions may be used when cirrhosis becomes more severe to decrease symptoms or complications, but the priority for this patient is to stop the progression of the disease.

Which goal has the highest priority in the plan of care for a 26-year-old homeless patient admitted with viral hepatitis who has severe anorexia and fatigue? a. Increase activity level. b. Maintain adequate nutrition. c. Establish a stable environment. d. Identify sources of hepatitis exposure.

ANS: B The highest priority outcome is to maintain nutrition because adequate nutrition is needed for hepatocyte regeneration. Finding a home for the patient and identifying the source of the infection would be appropriate activities, but they do not have as high a priority as ensuring adequate nutrition. Although the patients activity level will be gradually increased, rest is indicated during the acute phase of hepatitis.

A 53-year-old patient is being treated for bleeding esophageal varices with balloon tamponade. Which nursing action will be included in the plan of care? a. Instruct the patient to cough every hour. b. Monitor the patient for shortness of breath. c. Verify the position of the balloon every 4 hours. d. Deflate the gastric balloon if the patient reports nausea.

ANS: B The most common complication of balloon tamponade is aspiration pneumonia. In addition, if the gastric balloon ruptures, the esophageal balloon may slip upward and occlude the airway. Coughing increases the pressure on the varices and increases the risk for bleeding. Balloon position is verified after insertion and does not require further verification. The esophageal balloon is deflated every 8 to 12 hours to avoid necrosis, but if the gastric balloon is deflated, the esophageal balloon may occlude the airway.

. A 38-year-old male patient is admitted to the hospital in Addisonian crisis. Which patient statement supports a nursing diagnosis of ineffective self-health management related to lack of knowledge about management of Addisons disease? a. I frequently eat at restaurants, and my food has a lot of added salt. b. I had the stomach flu earlier this week, so I couldnt take the hydrocortisone. c. I always double my dose of hydrocortisone on the days that I go for a long run. d. I take twice as much hydrocortisone in the morning dose as I do in the afternoon.

ANS: B The need for hydrocortisone replacement is increased with stressors such as illness, and the patient needs to be taught to call the health care provider because medication and IV fluids and electrolytes may need to be given. The other patient statements indicate appropriate management of the Addisons disease.

A patient who had a subtotal thyroidectomy earlier today develops laryngeal stridor and a cramp in the right hand upon returning to the surgical nursing unit. Which collaborative action will the nurse anticipate next? a. Suction the patients airway. b. Administer IV calcium gluconate. c. Plan for emergency tracheostomy. d. Prepare for endotracheal intubation.

ANS: B The patients clinical manifestations of stridor and cramping are consistent with tetany caused by hypocalcemia resulting from damage to the parathyroid glands during surgery. Endotracheal intubation or tracheostomy may be needed if the calcium does not resolve the stridor. Suctioning will not correct the stridor.

To detect possible complications in a patient with severe cirrhosis who has bleeding esophageal varices, it is most important for the nurse to monitor a. bilirubin levels. b. ammonia levels. c. potassium levels. d. prothrombin time

ANS: B The protein in the blood in the gastrointestinal (GI) tract will be absorbed and may result in an increase in the ammonia level because the liver cannot metabolize protein very well. The prothrombin time, bilirubin, and potassium levels should also be monitored, but they will not be affected by the bleeding episode.

A 56-year-old patient who is disoriented and reports a headache and muscle cramps is hospitalized with possible syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). The nurse would expect the initial laboratory results to include a(n) a. elevated hematocrit. b. decreased serum sodium. c. low urine specific gravity. d. increased serum chloride.

ANS: B When water is retained, the serum sodium level will drop below normal, causing the clinical manifestations reported by the patient. The hematocrit will decrease because of the dilution caused by water retention. Urine will be more concentrated with a higher specific gravity. The serum chloride level will usually decrease along with the sodium level.

A 29-year-old woman with systemic lupus erythematosus has been prescribed 2 weeks of high-dose prednisone therapy. Which information about the prednisone is most important for the nurse to include? a. Weigh yourself daily to monitor for weight gain caused by increased appetite. b. A weight-bearing exercise program will help minimize the risk for osteoporosis. c. The prednisone dose should be decreased gradually rather than stopped suddenly. d. Call the health care provider if you experience mood alterations with the prednisone.

ANS: C Acute adrenal insufficiency may occur if exogenous corticosteroids are suddenly stopped. Mood alterations and weight gain are possible adverse effects of corticosteroid use, but these are not life-threatening effects. Osteoporosis occurs when patients take corticosteroids for longer periods.

he nurse is caring for a patient following an adrenalectomy. The highest priority in the immediate postoperative period is to a. protect the patients skin. b. monitor for signs of infection. c. balance fluids and electrolytes. d. prevent emotional disturbances.

ANS: C After adrenalectomy, the patient is at risk for circulatory instability caused by fluctuating hormone levels, and the focus of care is to assess and maintain fluid and electrolyte status through the use of IV fluids and corticosteroids. The other goals are also important for the patient but are not as immediately life threatening as the circulatory collapse that can occur with fluid and electrolyte disturbances.

Which laboratory test result will the nurse monitor when evaluating the effects of therapy for a 62-year-old female patient who has acute pancreatitis? a. Calcium b. Bilirubin c. Amylase d. Potassium

ANS: C Amylase is elevated in acute pancreatitis. Although changes in the other values may occur, they would not be useful in evaluating whether the prescribed therapies have been effective.

49-year-old female patient with cirrhosis and esophageal varices has a new prescription for propranolol (Inderal). Which finding is the best indicator that the medication has been effective? a. The patient reports no chest pain. b. Blood pressure is 140/90 mm Hg. c. Stools test negative for occult blood. d. The apical pulse rate is 68 beats/minute.

ANS: C Because the purpose of b-blocker therapy for patients with esophageal varices is to decrease the risk for bleeding from esophageal varices, the best indicator of the effectiveness for propranolol is the lack of blood in the stools. Although propranolol is used to treat hypertension, angina, and tachycardia, the purpose for use in this patient is to decrease the risk for bleeding from esophageal varices.

Which response by the nurse best explains the purpose of ranitidine (Zantac) for a patient admitted with bleeding esophageal varices? a. The medication will reduce the risk for aspiration. b. The medication will inhibit development of gastric ulcers. c. The medication will prevent irritation of the enlarged veins. d. The medication will decrease nausea and improve the appetite.

ANS: C Esophageal varices are dilated submucosal veins. The therapeutic action of H2-receptor blockers in patients with esophageal varices is to prevent irritation and bleeding from the varices caused by reflux of acid gastric contents. Although ranitidine does decrease the risk for peptic ulcers, reduce nausea, and help prevent aspiration pneumonia, these are not the primary purposes for H2-receptor blockade in this patient.

An expected nursing diagnosis for a 30-year-old patient admitted to the hospital with symptoms of diabetes insipidus is a. excess fluid volume related to intake greater than output. b. impaired gas exchange related to fluid retention in lungs. c. sleep pattern disturbance related to frequent waking to void. d. risk for impaired skin integrity related to generalized edema.

ANS: C Nocturia occurs as a result of the polyuria caused by diabetes insipidus. Edema, excess fluid volume, and fluid retention are not expected.

The nurse will teach a patient with chronic pancreatitis to take the prescribed pancrelipase (Viokase) a. at bedtime. b. in the morning. c. with each meal. d. for abdominal pain.

ANS: C Pancreatic enzymes are used to help with digestion of nutrients and should be taken with every meal.

A 37-year-old patient is being admitted with a diagnosis of Cushing syndrome. Which findings will the nurse expect during the assessment? a. Chronically low blood pressure b. Bronzed appearance of the skin c. Purplish streaks on the abdomen d. Decreased axillary and pubic hair

ANS: C Purplish-red striae on the abdomen are a common clinical manifestation of Cushing syndrome. Hypotension and bronzed-appearing skin are manifestations of Addisons disease. Decreased axillary and pubic hair occur with androgen deficiency.

Which information obtained by the nurse in the endocrine clinic about a patient who has been taking prednisone (Deltasone) 40 mg daily for 3 weeks is most important to report to the health care provider? a. Patients blood pressure is 148/94 mm Hg. b. Patient has bilateral 2+ pitting ankle edema. c. Patient stopped taking the medication 2 days ago. d. Patient has not been taking the prescribed vitamin D.

ANS: C Sudden cessation of corticosteroids after taking the medication for a week or more can lead to adrenal insufficiency, with problems such as severe hypotension and hypoglycemia. The patient will need immediate evaluation by the health care provider to prevent and/or treat adrenal insufficiency. The other information will also be reported, but does not require rapid treatment.

Which assessment finding of a 42-year-old patient who had a bilateral adrenalectomy requires the most rapid action by the nurse? a. The blood glucose is 176 mg/dL. b. The lungs have bibasilar crackles. c. The blood pressure (BP) is 88/50 mm Hg. d. The patient reports 5/10 incisional pain.

ANS: C The decreased BP indicates possible adrenal insufficiency. The nurse should immediately notify the health care provider so that corticosteroid medications can be administered. The nurse should also address the elevated glucose, incisional pain, and crackles with appropriate collaborative or nursing actions, but prevention and treatment of acute adrenal insufficiency is the priority after adrenalectomy.

Which action should the nurse in the emergency department take first for a new patient who is vomiting blood? a. Insert a large-gauge IV catheter. b. Draw blood for coagulation studies. c. Check blood pressure (BP), heart rate, and respirations. d. Place the patient in the supine position.

ANS: C The nurses first action should be to determine the patients hemodynamic status by assessing vital signs. Drawing blood for coagulation studies and inserting an IV catheter are also appropriate. However, the vital signs may indicate the need for more urgent actions. Because aspiration is a concern for this patient, the nurse will need to assess the patients vital signs and neurologic status before placing the patient in a supine position.

To prepare a 56-year-old male patient with ascites for paracentesis, the nurse a. places the patient on NPO status. b. assists the patient to lie flat in bed. c. asks the patient to empty the bladder. d. positions the patient on the right side.

ANS: C The patient should empty the bladder to decrease the risk of bladder perforation during the procedure. The patient would be positioned in Fowlers position and would not be able to lie flat without compromising breathing. Because no sedation is required for paracentesis, the patient does not need to be NPO.

When taking the blood pressure (BP) on the right arm of a patient with severe acute pancreatitis, the nurse notices carpal spasms of the patients right hand. Which action should the nurse take next? a. Ask the patient about any arm pain. b. Retake the patients blood pressure. c. Check the calcium level in the chart. d. Notify the health care provider immediately.

ANS: C The patient with acute pancreatitis is at risk for hypocalcemia, and the assessment data indicate a positive Trousseaus sign. The health care provider should be notified after the nurse checks the patients calcium level. There is no indication that the patient needs to have the BP rechecked or that there is any arm pain.

After obtaining the information shown in the accompanying figure regarding a patient with Addisons disease, which prescribed action will the nurse take first? a. Give 4 oz of fruit juice orally. b. Recheck the blood glucose level. c. Infuse 5% dextrose and 0.9% saline. d. Administer oxygen therapy as needed.

ANS: C The patients poor skin turgor, hypotension, and hyponatremia indicate an Addisonian crisis. Immediate correction of the hypovolemia and hyponatremia is needed. The other actions may also be needed but are not the initial action for the patient.

A 38-year-old patient with cirrhosis has ascites and 4+ edema of the feet and legs. Which nursing action will be included in the plan of care? a. Restrict daily dietary protein intake. b. Reposition the patient every 4 hours. c. Place the patient on a pressure-relieving mattress. d. Perform passive range of motion daily.

ANS: C The pressure-relieving mattress will decrease the risk for skin breakdown for this patient. Adequate dietary protein intake is necessary in patients with ascites to improve oncotic pressure. Repositioning the patient every 4 hours will not be adequate to maintain skin integrity. Passive range of motion will not take the pressure off areas such as the sacrum that are vulnerable to breakdown.

Which finding is most important for the nurse to communicate to the health care provider about a patient who received a liver transplant 1 week ago? a. Dry palpebral and oral mucosa b. Crackles at bilateral lung bases c. Temperature 100.8 F (38.2 C) d. No bowel movement for 4 days

ANS: C The risk of infection is high in the first few months after liver transplant and fever is frequently the only sign of infection. The other patient data indicate the need for further assessment or nursing actions and might be communicated to the health care provider, but they do not indicate a need for urgent action.

During change-of-shift report, the nurse learns about the following four patients. Which patient requires assessment first? a. 40-year-old with chronic pancreatitis who has gnawing abdominal pain b. 58-year-old who has compensated cirrhosis and is complaining of anorexia c. 55-year-old with cirrhosis and ascites who has an oral temperature of 102 F (38.8 C) d. 36-year-old recovering from a laparoscopic cholecystectomy who has severe shoulder pain

ANS: C This patients history and fever suggest possible spontaneous bacterial peritonitis, which would require rapid assessment and interventions such as antibiotic therapy. The clinical manifestations for the other patients are consistent with their diagnoses and do not indicate complications are occurring.

Which assessment finding is of most concern for a 46-year-old woman with acute pancreatitis? a. Absent bowel sounds b. Abdominal tenderness c. Left upper quadrant pain d. Palpable abdominal mass

ANS: D A palpable abdominal mass may indicate the presence of a pancreatic abscess, which will require rapid surgical drainage to prevent sepsis. Absent bowel sounds, abdominal tenderness, and left upper quadrant pain are common in acute pancreatitis and do not require rapid action to prevent further complications.

Which information is most important for the nurse to communicate rapidly to the health care provider about a patient admitted with possible syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH)? a. The patient has a recent weight gain of 9 lb. b. The patient complains of dyspnea with activity. c. The patient has a urine specific gravity of 1.025. d. The patient has a serum sodium level of 118 mEq/L.

ANS: D A serum sodium of less than 120 mEq/L increases the risk for complications such as seizures and needs rapid correction. The other data are not unusual for a patient with SIADH and do not indicate the need for rapid action.

A 23-year-old patient is admitted with diabetes insipidus. Which action will be most appropriate for the registered nurse (RN) to delegate to an experienced licensed practical/vocational nurse (LPN/LVN)? a. Titrate the infusion of 5% dextrose in water. b. Teach the patient how to use desmopressin (DDAVP) nasal spray. c. Assess the patients hydration status every 8 hours. d. Administer subcutaneous DDAVP.

ANS: D Administration of medications is included in LPN/LVN education and scope of practice. Assessments, patient teaching, and titrating fluid infusions are more complex skills and should be done by the RN.

The nurse will ask a 64-year-old patient being admitted with acute pancreatitis specifically about a history of a. diabetes mellitus. b. high-protein diet. c. cigarette smoking. d. alcohol consumption.

ANS: D Alcohol use is one of the most common risk factors for pancreatitis in the United States. Cigarette smoking, diabetes, and high-protein diets are not risk factors.

Which assessment finding would the nurse need to report most quickly to the health care provider regarding a patient with acute pancreatitis? a. Nausea and vomiting b. Hypotonic bowel sounds c. Abdominal tenderness and guarding d. Muscle twitching and finger numbness

ANS: D Muscle twitching and finger numbness indicate hypocalcemia, which may lead to tetany unless calcium gluconate is administered. Although the other findings should also be reported to the health care provider, they do not indicate complications that require rapid action.

A 67-year-old male patient with acute pancreatitis has a nasogastric (NG) tube to suction and is NPO. Which information obtained by the nurse indicates that these therapies have been effective? a. Bowel sounds are present. b. Grey Turner sign resolves. c. Electrolyte levels are normal. d. Abdominal pain is decreased.

ANS: D NG suction and NPO status will decrease the release of pancreatic enzymes into the pancreas and decrease pain. Although bowel sounds may be hypotonic with acute pancreatitis, the presence of bowel sounds does not indicate that treatment with NG suction and NPO status has been effective. Electrolyte levels may be abnormal with NG suction and must be replaced by appropriate IV infusion. Although Grey Turner sign will eventually resolve, it would not be appropriate to wait for this to occur to determine whether treatment was effective.

Which finding by the nurse when assessing a patient with a large pituitary adenoma is most important to report to the health care provider? a. Changes in visual field b. Milk leaking from breasts c. Blood glucose 150 mg/dL d. Nausea and projectile vomiting

ANS: D Nausea and projectile vomiting may indicate increased intracranial pressure, which will require rapid actions for diagnosis and treatment. Changes in the visual field, elevated blood glucose, and galactorrhea are common with pituitary adenoma, but these do not require rapid action to prevent life-threatening complications.

A 51-year-old woman had an incisional cholecystectomy 6 hours ago. The nurse will place the highest priority on assisting the patient to a. choose low-fat foods from the menu. b. perform leg exercises hourly while awake. c. ambulate the evening of the operative day. d. turn, cough, and deep breathe every 2 hours.

ANS: D Postoperative nursing care after a cholecystectomy focuses on prevention of respiratory complications because the surgical incision is high in the abdomen and impairs coughing and deep breathing. The other nursing actions are also important to implement but are not as high a priority as ensuring adequate ventilation.

Which action will be included in the care for a patient who has recently been diagnosed with asymptomatic nonalcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD)? a. Teach symptoms of variceal bleeding. b. Draw blood for hepatitis serology testing. c. Discuss the need to increase caloric intake. d. Review the patients current medication list.

ANS: D Some medications can increase the risk for NAFLD, and they should be eliminated. NAFLD is not associated with hepatitis, weight loss is usually indicated, and variceal bleeding would not be a concern in a patient with asymptomatic NAFLD.

Which finding indicates to the nurse that a patients transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt (TIPS) placed 3 months ago has been effective? a. Increased serum albumin level b. Decreased indirect bilirubin level c. Improved alertness and orientation d. Fewer episodes of bleeding varices

ANS: D TIPS is used to lower pressure in the portal venous system and decrease the risk of bleeding from esophageal varices. Indirect bilirubin level and serum albumin levels are not affected by shunting procedures. TIPS will increase the risk for hepatic encephalopathy.

Which data will the nurse monitor in relation to the 4+ pitting edema assessed in a patient with cirrhosis? a. Hemoglobin b. Temperature c. Activity level d. Albumin level

ANS: D The low oncotic pressure caused by hypoalbuminemia is a major pathophysiologic factor in the development of edema. The other parameters should also be monitored, but they are not directly associated with the patients current symptoms.

A 44-year-old female patient with Cushing syndrome is admitted for adrenalectomy. Which intervention by the nurse will be most helpful for a nursing diagnosis of disturbed body image related to changes in appearance? a. Reassure the patient that the physical changes are very common in patients with Cushing syndrome. b. Discuss the use of diet and exercise in controlling the weight gain associated with Cushing syndrome. c. Teach the patient that the metabolic impact of Cushing syndrome is of more importance than appearance. d. Remind the patient that most of the physical changes caused by Cushing syndrome will resolve after surgery.

ANS: D The most reassuring communication to the patient is that the physical and emotional changes caused by the Cushing syndrome will resolve after hormone levels return to normal postoperatively. Reassurance that the physical changes are expected or that there are more serious physiologic problems associated with Cushing syndrome are not therapeutic responses. The patients physiological changes are caused by the high hormone levels, not by the patients diet or exercise choices.

The nurse determines that further discharge instruction is needed when the patient with acute pancreatitis makes which statement? a. "I should observe for fat in my stools." b. "I must not use alcohol to prevent future attacks of pancreatitis." c. "I shouldn't eat any salty foods or foods with high amounts of sodium." d. "I will need to continue to monitor my blood glucose levels until my pancreas is healed."

Ans: c. Sodium restriction is not indicated for patients recovering from acute pancreatitis but the stools should be observed for steatorrhea, indicating that fat digestion is impaired, and glucose levels may be monitored for indication of impaired β-cell function. Alcohol is a primary cause of pancreatitis and should not be used.

NCLEX review question A patient with cholelithiasis needs to have the gallbladder removed. Which patient assessment is a contraindication for a cholecystectomy?

Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) of 54 seconds Rationale: An aPTT of 54 seconds is above normal and indicates insufficient clotting ability. If the patient had surgery, significant bleeding complications postoperatively are very likely. Fluids can be given to eliminate the dehydration; the abscess can be assessed, and the obstructions in the cystic and common bile duct would be relieved with the cholecystectomy.

Postoperatively, a patient with an incisional cholecystectomy has a nursing diagnosis of ineffective breathing pattern related to splinted respirations secondary to a high abdominal incision. Which action should the nurse take first?

Administer the prescribed analgesic Rationale: Postoperative nursing care for incisional cholecystectomy focuses on adequate ventilation and prevention of respiratory complications. The patient will need adequate pain control for optimum coughing and deep breathing to prevent postoperative atelectasis.

Combined with clinical manifestations, what is the laboratory finding that is most commonly used to diagnose acute pancreatitis? a. Increased serum calcium b. Increased serum amylase c. Increased urinary amylase d. Decreased serum glucose

Ans b. Although serum lipase levels and urinary amylase levels are increased, an increased serum amylase level is the criterion most commonly used to diagnose acute pancreatitis in the first 24 to 72 hours. Serum calcium levels are decreased.

When assessing a patient with acute pancreatitis, the nurse would expect to find a. hyperactive bowel sounds. b. hypertension and tachycardia. c. a temperature greater than 102°F (38.9°C). d. severe midepigastric or left upper quadrant (LUQ) pain.

Ans d. The predominant symptom of acute pancreatitis is severe, deep abdominal pain that is usually located in the left upper quadrant (LUQ) but may be in the midepigastrium. Bowel sounds are decreased or absent, temperature is elevated only slightly, and the patient has hypovolemia and may manifest symptoms of shock.

The nurse is instructing a patient with chronic pancreatitis on measures to prevent further attacks. What information should be provided (select all that apply)? a. Avoid nicotine. b. Eat bland foods. c. Observe stools for steatorrhea. d. Eat high-fat, low-protein, high-carbohydrate meals. e. Take prescribed pancreatic enzymes immediately following meals.

Ans: a, b, c. Measures to prevent attacks of pancreatitis are those that decrease the stimulation of the pancreas. Lower fat intake and foods that are less stimulating and irritating (bland) should be encouraged. Higher carbohydrates are less stimulating. Avoid alcohol and nicotine, since both stimulate the pancreas. Monitor for steatorrhea to determine effectiveness of the enzymes and because it may indicate worsening pancreatic function. Pancreatic enzymes should be taken with, not after, meals.

What is the patient with chronic pancreatitis more likely to have than the patient with acute pancreatitis? a. The need to abstain from alcohol b. Experience acute abdominal pain c. Malabsorption and diabetes mellitus d. Require a high-carbohydrate, high-protein, low-fat diet

Ans: c. Chronic damage to the pancreas causes a deficiency of digestive enzymes and insulin resulting in malabsorption and diabetes mellitus. Abstinence from alcohol is necessary in both types of pancreatitis, as is a high-carbohydrate, high-protein, and low-fat diet. Although abdominal pain is a major manifestation of chronic pancreatitis, more commonly a constant heavy, gnawing feeling occurs.

What treatment measure is used in the management of the patient with acute pancreatitis? a. Surgery to remove the inflamed pancreas b. Pancreatic enzyme supplements administered with meals c. Nasogastric (NG) suction to prevent gastric contents from entering the duodenum d. Endoscopic pancreatic sphincterotomy using endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP)

Ans: c. Pancreatic rest and suppression of secretions are promoted by preventing any gastric contents from entering the duodenum, which would stimulate pancreatic activity. Surgery is not indicated for acute pancreatitis but may be used to drain abscesses or cysts. An endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) pancreatic sphincterotomy may be performed when pancreatitis is related to gallstones. Pancreatic enzyme supplements are necessary in chronic pancreatitis if a deficiency in secretion occurs.

A patient with acute pancreatitis has a nursing diagnosis of pain related to distention of the pancreas and peritoneal irritation. In addition to effective use of analgesics, what should the nurse include in this patient's plan of care? a. Provide diversional activities to distract the patient from the pain. b. Provide small, frequent meals to increase the patient's tolerance to food. c. Position the patient on the side with the head of the bed elevated 45 degrees for pain relief. d. Ambulate the patient every 3 to 4 hours to increase circulation and decrease abdominal congestion.

Ans: c. Positions that flex the trunk and draw the knees up to the abdomen help to relieve the pain of acute pancreatitis and positioning the patient on the side with the head elevated decreases abdominal tension. Diversional techniques are not as helpful as positioning in controlling the pain. The patient is usually NPO because food intake increases the pain and inflammation. Bed rest is indicated during the acute attack because of hypovolemia and pain.

Which complication of acute pancreatitis requires prompt surgical drainage to prevent sepsis? a. Tetany b. Pseudocyst c. Pleural effusion d. Pancreatic abscess

Ans: d. A pancreatic abscess is a collection of pus that must be drained to prevent infection of adjacent organs and sepsis. Tetany from hypocalcemia is treated with IV calcium gluconate (10%). Although pseudocysts usually resolve spontaneously, they may be treated with surgical, percutaneous catheter, or endoscopic drainage to prevent perforation. Pleural effusion is treated by treating the cause (pancreatitis) and monitoring for respiratory distress and oxygen saturation.

The surgical treatment of choice for the patient with symptomatic gallbladder disease is a

Laparoscopic cholecystectomy Rationale: Laparoscopic cholecystectomy is the surgical treatment of choice for patients with symptomatic cholelithiasis. The procedure is minimally invasive (puncture sites only), and the patient experiences minimal postoperative pain and is discharged on the day of surgery or on the day after. Most patients are able to resume normal activities and return to work within 1 week

Where is the anti-diuretic hormone SECRETED in the body? A. Hypothalamus B. Thyroid C. Posterior Pituitary gland D. Anterior pituitary gland

C

Which of the following signs and symptoms is NOT expected with Diabetes Insipidus? A. Polyuria B. Polydipsia C. Polyphagia D. Extreme thirst

C

NCLEX review question The patient with right upper quadrant abdominal pain has an abdominal ultrasound that reveals cholelithiasis. What should the nurse expect to do for this patient?

Control abdominal pain Rationale: Patients with cholelithiasis can have severe pain, so controlling pain is important until the problem can be treated. NPO status may be needed if the patient will have surgery but will not be used for all patients with cholelithiasis. Enteral feedings should not be needed, and avoiding dietary cholesterol is not used to treat cholelithiasis.

A patient with SIADH is undergoing IV treatment of a hypertonic IV solution of 3% saline and IV Lasix. Which of the following nursing findings requires intervention? A. Sodium level of 136. B. Patient reports urinating more frequently. C. Potassium level of 5.0. D. Assessment finding of crackles throughout the lung fields

D: Assessment finding of crackles throughout the lung fields. Remember that when administering a hypertonic solution you have to do this very slowly and watch for volume overload. Hypertonic solutions pull fluid from the cell (which is already water intoxicated) and place it back into the vascular system...therefore, crackles in the lungs are a sign there is too much fluid in the body and the heart can not compensate so the fluid is backing up into the lungs. This would require intervention.

A patient with a mild case of diabetes insipidus is started on Diabinese. What would you include in your patient teaching with this patient? A. Signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia B. Restricting foods containing caffeine C. Taking the medication on an empty stomach D. Drinking 16 oz of water when taking the medication

The answer is A: Signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia

Where is the anti-diuretic hormone PRODUCED in the body? A. Anterior pituitary gland B. Posterior pituitary gland C. Hypothalamus D. Medulla

The answer is C: Hypothalamus

The anti-diuretic hormone is __________ in Diabetes Insipidus and _________ in SIADH. A. high, low B. absent, absent C. low, high D. low, low

The answer is C: low, high

A patient with SIADH is undergoing IV treatment of a hypertonic IV solution of 3% saline and IV Lasix. Which of the following nursing findings requires intervention? A. Sodium level of 136. B. Patient reports urinating more frequently. C. Potassium level of 5.0. D. Assessment finding of crackles throughout the lung fields.

The answer is D: Assessment finding of crackles throughout the lung fields. Remember that when administering a hypertonic solution you have to do this very slowly and watch for volume overload. Hypertonic solutions pull fluid from the cell (which is already water intoxicated) and place it back into the vascular system...therefore, crackles in the lungs are a sign there is too much fluid in the body and the heart can not compensate so the fluid is backing up into the lungs. This would require intervention.

NCLEX review question When caring for a patient with a biliary obstruction, the nurse will anticipate administering which vitamin supplements (select all that apply)?

Vitamin A Vitamin D Vitamin E Vitamin K Rationale: Biliary obstruction prevents bile from entering the small intestine and thus prevents the absorption of fat-soluble vitamins. Vitamins A, D, E, and K are all fat-soluble and thus would need to be supplemented in a patient with biliary obstruction.

Patient-Centered Care: An African American woman with a history of breast cancer has panhypopituitarism from radiation therapy for a primary pituitary tumor. Which medications should the nurse teach her about needing for the rest of her life (select all that apply)? a. Cortisol b. Vasopressin c. Sex hormones d. Levothyroxine (Synthroid) e. Growth hormone (somatropin [Omnitrope]) f. Dopamine agonists (bromocriptine [Parlodel])

a, b, d, e. With panhypopituitarism, lifetime hormone replacement is needed for cortisol, vasopressin, thyroid, and GH. Sex hormones will not be replaced, and her GH will be monitored closely because of the patient's history of breast cancer. Dopamine agonists will not be used because they reduce secretion of GH, which has already been achieved with the radiation.

Malnutrition can be a major problem for patients with cirrhosis. Which nursing intervention can help to improve nutrient intake? a. Oral hygiene before meals and snacks c. Improve oral intake by feeding the patient b. Provide all foods the patient likes to eat d. Limit snack offers to when the patient is hungry

a. Oral hygiene may improve the patient's taste sensation. Food preferences are important, but some foods may be restricted if the patient is on a low-sodium or low-fat diet. The patient will feel more independent with self-feeding and will be more likely to increase intake by having someone sit with the patient while the patient eats. Snacks and supplements should be available whenever the patient desires them but should not be forced on the patient

A patient is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of Cushing syndrome. On physical assessment of the patient, what should the nurse expect to find? a. Hypertension, peripheral edema, and petechiae b. Weight loss, buffalo hump, and moon face with acne c. Abdominal and buttock striae, truncal obesity, and hypotension d. Anorexia, signs of dehydration, and hyperpigmentation of the skin

a. The effects of adrenocorticotropic hormone excess, especially glucocorticoid excess, include weight gain from accumulation and redistribution of adipose tissue, sodium and water retention, glucose intolerance, protein wasting, loss of bone structure, loss of collagen, and capillary fragility leading to petechiae. Clinical manifestations of adrenocortical hormone deficiency include hypotension, dehydration, weight loss, and hyperpigmentation of the skin.

During care of the patient with SIADH, what should the nurse do? a. Monitor neurologic status at least every 2 hours. b. Teach the patient receiving treatment with diuretics to restrict sodium intake. c. Keep the head of the bed elevated to prevent antidiuretic hormone (ADH) release. d. Notify the HCP if the patient's blood pressure decreases more than 20 mm Hg from baseline.

a. The patient with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) has marked dilutional hyponatremia and should be monitored for decreased neurologic function and seizures every 2 hours. Sodium intake is supplemented because of the hyponatremia and sodium loss caused by diuretics. ADH release is reduced by keeping the head of the bed flat to increase left atrial filling pressure. A reduction in blood pressure (BP) indicates a reduction in total fluid volume and is an expected outcome of treatment

The patient being treated with diuretics for ascites from cirrhosis must be monitored for (select all that apply)? a. GI bleeding d. body image disturbances b. hypokalemia e. increased clotting tendencies c. renal function

b, c. With diuretic therapy, fluid and electrolyte balance must be monitored; serum levels of sodium, potassium, chloride, and bicarbonate must be monitored, especially hypokalemia. Renal function must be monitored with blood urea nitrogen and serum creatinine. Water excess is manifested by muscle cramping, weakness, lethargy, and confusion. GI bleeding, body image disturbances, and bleeding tendencies seen with cirrhosis are not related to diuretic therapy.

Patient-Centered Care: During discharge teaching for the patient with Addison's disease, which statement by the patient indicates that the nurse needs to do additional teaching? a. "I should always call the doctor if I develop vomiting or diarrhea." b. "If my weight goes down, my dosage of steroid is probably too high." c. "I should double or triple my steroid dose if I undergo rigorous physical exercise." d. "I need to carry an emergency kit with injectable hydrocortisone in case I can't take my medication by mouth."

b. A weight reduction in the patient with Addison's disease may indicate a fluid loss and a dose of replacement therapy that is too low rather than too high. Because vomiting and diarrhea are early signs of crisis and because fluid and electrolytes must be replaced, patients should notify their HCP if these symptoms occur. Patients with Addison's disease are taught to take two to three times their usual dose of steroids if they become ill, have teeth extracted, or engage in rigorous physical activity and should always have injectable hydrocortisone available if oral doses cannot be taken.

Patient-Centered Care: When caring for a patient with primary hyperaldosteronism, the nurse would question an HCP's prescription for which drug? a. Ketoconazole c. Eplerenone (Inspra) b. Furosemide (Lasix) d. Spironolactone (Aldactone)

b. Hyperaldosteronism is an excess of aldosterone, which is manifested by sodium and water retention and potassium excretion. Furosemide is a potassium-wasting diuretic that would increase the potassium deficiency. Ketoconazole decreases adrenal corticosteroid secretion. Eplerenone and spironolactone are potassium-sparing diuretics.

When caring for a patient with nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, what should the nurse expect the treatment to include? a. Fluid restriction b. Thiazide diuretics c. high sodium diet d. metformin

b. In nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, the kidney is unable to respond to ADH, so vasopressin or hormone analogs are not effective. Thiazide diuretics may reduce flow to the ADH-sensitive distal nephrons and produce a decrease in urine output. Fluids are not restricted because the patient could easily become dehydrated. Low-sodium diets (<3 g/day) are also thought to decrease urine output. An antidiabetic drug is not needed

What laboratory test results should the nurse expect to find in a patient with cirrhosis? a. Serum albumin: 7.0 g/dL (70 g/L) b. Total bilirubin: 3.2 mg/dL (54.7 mmol/L) c. Serum cholesterol: 260 mg/dL (6.7 mmol/L) d. Aspartate aminotransferase (AST): 6.0 U/L (0.1 mkat/L)

b. Serum bilirubin, both direct and indirect, would be expected to be increased in cirrhosis. Serum albumin and cholesterol are decreased and liver enzymes, such as aspartate aminotransferase (AST) and a

A patient with SIADH is treated with water restriction. What does the patient experience when the nurse determines that treatment has been effective? a. Increased urine output, decreased serum sodium, and increased urine specific gravity b. Increased urine output, increased serum sodium, and decreased urine specific gravity c. Decreased urine output, increased serum sodium, and decreased urine specific gravity d. Decreased urine output, decreased serum sodium, and increased urine specific gravity

b. The patient with SIADH has water retention with hyponatremia, decreased urine output, and concentrated urine with high specific gravity. Improvement in the patient's condition is reflected by increased urine output, normalization of serum sodium, and more water in the urine, thus decreasing the specific gravity

A patient with advanced cirrhosis has a nursing diagnosis of imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements related to anorexia and inadequate food intake. What would be an appropriate midday snack for the patient? a. Peanut butter and salt-free crackers b. A fresh tomato sandwich with salt-free butter c. Popcorn with salt-free butter and herbal seasoning d. Canned chicken noodle soup with low-protein bread

b. The patient with advanced, complicated cirrhosis requires a high-calorie, high-carbohydrate diet with moderate to low fat. Patients with cirrhosis are at risk for edema and ascites, and their sodium intake may be limited. The tomato sandwich with salt-free butter best meets these requirements. Rough foods, such as popcorn, may irritate the esophagus and stomach and lead to bleeding. Peanut butter is high in sodium and fat, and canned chicken noodle soup is very high in sodium.

A patient with Addison's disease comes to the ED with complaints of nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and fever. What interprofessional care should the nurse expect? a. IV administration of vasopressors b. IV administration of hydrocortisone c. IV administration of D5W with 20 mEq KCl d. Parenteral injections of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)

b. Vomiting and diarrhea are early indicators of Addisonian crisis and fever indicates an infection, which is causing additional stress for the patient. Treatment of a crisis requires immediate IV hydrocortisone replacement. Large volumes of 0.9% saline and 5% dextrose fluids are given to reverse hypotension and electrolyte imbalances until BP returns to normal. Addison's disease is a primary insufficiency of the adrenal gland and adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) is not effective, nor would vasopressors be effective with the fluid deficiency of Addison's disease. Potassium levels are increased in Addison's disease and KCl would be contraindicated.

The patient is diagnosed with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). What manifestation should the nurse expect to find? a. Decreased body weight c. Increased plasma osmolality b. Decreased urinary output d. Increased serum sodium levels

b. With increased antidiuretic hormone (ADH), the permeability of the renal distal tubules is increased, so water is reabsorbed into circulation. Decreased output of concentrated urine with increased urine osmolality and specific gravity occur. In addition, fluid retention with weight gain, serum hypoosmolality, dilutional hyponatremia, and hypochloremia occur.

A patient who is on corticosteroid therapy for treatment of an autoimmune disorder has the following additional drugs ordered. Which one is used to prevent corticosteroid-induced osteoporosis? a. Potassium c. Alendronate (Fosamax) b. Furosemide (Lasix) d. Pantoprazole (Protonix)

c. Alendronate (Fosamax) is used to prevent corticosteroid-induced osteoporosis. Potassium is used to prevent the mineralocorticoid effect of hypokalemia. Furosemide (Lasix) is used to decrease sodium and fluid retention from the mineralocorticoid effect. Pantoprazole (Protonix) is used to prevent gastrointestinal (GI) irritation from an increase in secretion of pepsin and hydrochloric acid.

Patient-Centered Care: To treat a cirrhotic patient with hepatic encephalopathy, lactulose, rifaximin (Xifaxan), and a proton pump inhibitor are ordered. The patient's family wants to know why the laxative is ordered. What is the best explanation the nurse can give to the patient's family? a. It reduces portal venous pressure. b. It eliminates blood from the GI tract. c. It traps ammonia and eliminates it in the feces. d. It decreases bacteria to decrease ammonia formation.

c. Ammonia must be reduced to treat hepatic encephalopathy. The laxative, lactulose, decreases ammonia by trapping the ammonia and eliminating it in the feces. A β-adrenergic blocker will be used to decrease portal venous pressure and decrease variceal bleeding. The proton pump inhibitor will decrease gastric acidity but will not eliminate blood already in the GI tract. Rifaximin will decrease bacterial flora and therefore decrease ammonia formation from protein metabolism.

Priority Decision: During the treatment of the patient with bleeding esophageal varices, what is the most important thing the nurse should do? a. Prepare the patient for immediate portal shunting surgery. b. Perform guaiac testing on all stools to detect occult blood. c. Maintain the patient's airway and prevent aspiration of blood. d. Monitor for the cardiac effects of IV vasopressin and nitroglycerin.

c. Bleeding esophageal varices are a medical emergency. During an episode of bleeding, management of the airway and prevention of aspiration of blood are critical factors. Portal shunting surgery may be performed for esophageal varices but not during an acute hemorrhage. Occult blood as well as fresh blood from the GI tract would be expected. Vasopressin causes vasoconstriction, decreased heart rate, and decreased coronary blood flow. IV nitroglycerin may be given with the vasopressin to counter these side effects

Which etiologic manifestations occur in the patient with cirrhosis related to esophageal varices? a. Jaundice, peripheral edema, and ascites from increased intrahepatic pressure and dysfunction b. Loss of the small bile ducts and cholestasis and cirrhosis in patients with other autoimmune disorders c. Development of collateral channels of circulation in inelastic, fragile esophageal veins as a result of portal hypertension d. Scarring and nodular changes in the liver lead to compression of the veins and sinusoids, causing resistance of blood flow through the liver from the portal vein

c. Esophageal varices occur when collateral channels of circulation develop inelastic fragile veins as a result of portal hypertension. Portal hypertension is from scarring and nodular changes in the liver leading to compression of the veins and sinusoids, causing resistance of blood flow through the liver from the portal vein. It contributes to peripheral edema and ascites. Jaundice is from the inability of the liver to conjugate bilirubin. Biliary cirrhosis causes the loss of small bile ducts and ultimate cholestasis in patients with other autoimmune disorders.

Patient-Centered Care: A patient with diabetes insipidus is treated with nasal desmopressin acetate (DDAVP). The nurse determines that the drug is not having an adequate therapeutic effect when the patient experiences a. headache and weight gain. c. a urine specific gravity of 1.002. b. nasal irritation and nausea. d. an oral intake greater than urinary output.

c. Normal urine specific gravity is 1.005 to 1.030 and urine with a specific gravity of 1.002 is very dilute, indicating that there continues to be excessive loss of water and that treatment of diabetes insipidus is inadequate. Headache, weight gain, and oral intake greater than urinary output are signs of volume excess that occur with overmedication. Nasal irritation and nausea may also indicate overdosage.

A patient with mild iatrogenic Cushing syndrome is on an alternate-day regimen of corticosteroid therapy. What does the nurse explain to the patient about this regimen? a. It maintains normal adrenal hormone balance. b. It prevents ACTH release from the pituitary gland. c. It minimizes hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal suppression. d. It provides a more effective therapeutic effect of the drug.

c. Taking corticosteroids on an alternate-day schedule for pharmacologic purposes is less likely to suppress ACTH production from the pituitary and prevent adrenal atrophy. This method is not used when corticosteroids are given as hormone therapy. Normal adrenal hormone balance is not maintained nor is it more effective

The patient has hepatic encephalopathy. What is a priority nursing intervention to keep the patient safe? a. Turn the patient every 3 hours. b. Encourage increasing ambulation. c. Assist the patient to the bathroom. d. Prevent constipation to reduce ammonia production.

c. The patient may not be oriented or able to walk to the bathroom alone because of hyperreflexia, asterixis, or decreased motor coordination. Turning should be done every 2 hours to prevent skin breakdown. Activity is limited to decrease ammonia as a by-product of protein metabolism. Although constipation will be prevented, it will not keep the patient safe.

In a patient with central diabetes insipidus, the administration of ADH during a water deprivation test will result in what? a. Decrease in body weight c. Decrease in blood pressure b. Increase in urinary output d. Increase in urine osmolality

d. A patient with central DI has a deficiency of ADH with excessive loss of water from the kidney, hypovolemia, hypernatremia, and dilute urine with a low specific gravity. When desmopressin acetate (DDAVP) is administered, the symptoms are reversed, with water retention, decreased urinary output that increases urine osmolality, and an increase in BP

Which conditions contribute to the formation of abdominal ascites? a. Esophageal varices contribute to 80% of variceal hemorrhages b. Increased colloidal oncotic pressure caused by decreased albumin production c. Hypoaldosteronism causes increased sodium reabsorption by the renal tubules d. Blood flow through the portal system is obstructed, which causes portal hypertension

d. Blood flow through the portal system is obstructed and causes portal hypertension that increases the blood pressure in the portal venous system. Decreased albumin production leads to decreased serum colloidal oncotic pressure that contributes to ascites. Hyperaldosteronism increases sodium and water retention and contributes to increased fluid retention, hypokalemia, and decreased urinary output. The retained fluid has low oncotic colloidal pressure, and it escapes into the interstitial spaces, causing peripheral edema. Portal hypertension also contributes to esophageal varices. Reduced renal blood flow and increased serum levels of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) also contribute to impaired water excretion and ascites. 3.4 to 5.4 g/dL- albumin

A patient with cirrhosis that is refractory to other treatments for esophageal varices undergoes a splenorenal shunt. As a result of this procedure, what should the nurse expect the patient to experience? a. An improved survival rate b. Decreased serum ammonia levels c. Improved metabolism of nutrients d. Improved hemodynamic function and renal perfusion

d. By shunting fluid sequestered in the portal vein into the venous system, pressure on esophageal veins is decreased and more volume is returned to the circulation, improving cardiac output and renal perfusion. However, because ammonia is diverted past the liver, hepatic encephalopathy may occur. These procedures do not prolong life or promote liver function.

What findings are commonly found in a patient with a prolactinoma? a. Gynecomastia in men b. Profuse menstruation in women c. Excess follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH) d. Signs of increased intracranial pressure, including headache, nausea, and vomiting

d. Compression of the optic chiasm can cause visual problems as well as signs of increased intracranial pressure, including headache, nausea, and vomiting. About 30% of prolactinomas will have excess prolactin secretion with manifestations of impotence in men, galactorrhea or amenorrhea in women without relationship to pregnancy, and decreased libido in both men and women. There is decreased follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH).

What manifestation in the patient does the nurse recognize as an early sign of hepatic encephalopathy? a. Manifests asterixis c. Has increasing oliguria b. Becomes unconscious d. Impaired computational skills

d. Early signs (grade 1) of this neurologic condition include impaired computational skills, short attention span, personality change, decreased short-term memory, mild confusion, depression, and incoordination. Loss of consciousness (grade 4) is usually preceded by asterixis, abnormal reflexes, and disoriented to time (grades 2 and 3); inappropriate behavior, deficient executive function, marked confusion, loss of meaningful conversation, and incomprehensible speech. Increasing oliguria is a sign of hepatorenal syndrome

The patient with diabetes insipidus is brought to the emergency department (ED) with confusion and dehydration after excretion of a large volume of urine today even though several liters of fluid were consumed. What is a diagnostic test that the nurse should expect to be done first to help make a diagnosis? a. Blood glucose c. CT scan of the head b. Serum sodium level d. Water deprivation test

d. Patients with diabetes insipidus (DI) excrete large amounts of urine with a specific gravity of less than 1.005. A blood glucose may be tested if acetone breath is present to diagnose diabetes mellitus, but that is not mentioned in this situation. The serum sodium level is expected to be low with DI but is not diagnostic. To diagnose central DI, a water deprivation test is required. Then a CT of the head may be done to determine the cause. Nephrogenic DI is differentiated from central DI with determination of the level of ADH after an analog of ADH is given.

The occurrence of acute liver failure is most common in which situation? a. An individual with hepatitis A c. Antihypertensive medication use b. An individual with hepatitis C d. Use of acetaminophen with alcohol abuse

d. The most common cause of acute liver failure is drugs, usually acetaminophen in combination with alcohol. HBV is the second most common cause. HAV is a less common cause.

The nursing management of the patient with cholecystitis associated with cholelithiasis is based on the knowledge that

laparoscopic cholecystectomy is the treatment of choice in most patients who are symptomatic Rationale: Laparoscopic cholecystectomy is the treatment of choice for symptomatic cholelithiasis.

Teaching in relation to home management after a laparoscopic cholecystectomy should include

reporting any bile-colored drainage or pus from any incision Rationale: The following discharge instructions are taught to the patient and caregiver after a laparoscopic cholecystectomy: First, remove the bandages on the puncture site the day after surgery and shower. Second, notify the surgeon if any of the following signs and symptoms occur: redness, swelling, bile-colored drainage or pus from any incision; and severe abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, fever, or chills. Third, gradually resume normal activities. Fourth, return to work within 1 week of surgery. Fifth, resume a usual diet, but a low-fat diet is usually better tolerated for several weeks after surgery.