620 Adult - Dermatology - AG and FNP Certification Exam 4th ed. Winland-Brown and Dunphy

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a. if the dog was a domestic pet that had been vaccinated, the wound should be cleaned and irrigated

J., age 6 was bitten by a dog. Her mother asks you if the child needs antirabies tx. You tell her: a. if the dog was a domestic pet that had been vaccinated, the wound should be cleaned and irrigated b. antirabies tx must be started immediately c. rabies can be contracted only through the bites of wild animals d. wait until you have observed the animal for 2 wks to determine if it is rabid

b. cellulitis

J., an obese 42 y/o, cut his rt leg 3 days ago while climbing a ladder. Today his rt lower leg is warm, reddened, and painful without a sharply demarcated border. What do you suspect? a. diabetic neuropathy b. cellulitis c. peripheral vascular disease d. a beginning stasis ulcer

c. this is a mongolian spot. It is common in Asians and black, and no tx is necessary because it will fade with age.

J., is the 26 y.o Asian mother of Alysia, age 2 months. She is concerned about the large blue spot covering her infant's entire rt lower leg. J. tells you that Alysia was born with the spot. You tell her: a. when the infant reaches her adult height, the macule can be surgically removed b. she should take the infant immediately to a plastic surgeon because this is a rare cancerous lesion c. this is a mongolian spot. It is common in Asians and black, and no tx is necessary because it will fade with age. d. she should always keep the spot covered because sunlight will aggravate it

a. although measles, mumps, rubella, and influenza vaccines contain a minute amt of egg, most egg-allergic individuals can tolerate these vaccines without any problems

J., states that her son is allergic to eggs, and she heard that he should not receive the flu vaccine. How do you respond? a. although measles, mumps, rubella, and influenza vaccines contain a minute amt of egg, most egg-allergic individuals can tolerate these vaccines without any problems b. most of the allergic reactions are caused by the actual vaccinations, therefore, a skin test should be done fist c. you are right. we should not give this vaccination to your son d. he should not have a skin test done if he has this allergy because a serious cellulitis may occur at the testing site

d. don't let her share hats, combs, or brushes with anyone

S., has a 7 y/o daughter who has had 2 recent infestations of lice. She asks you what she can do to prevent this. You respond: a. after 2 days of no head lice, her bedding is lice free b. boys are more susceptible, so watch out for her brother also c. after several infestation, she is now immune and is no longer susceptible d. don't let her share hats, combs, or brushes with anyone

a. bulla

S., has a blister filled with clear fluid on her arm. It is the result of contact with a hot iron. How do you document this? a. bulla b. wheal c. cyst d. pustule

a. an epithelial tumor that originates from either the basal layer of the epidermis or cells in the surrounding dermal structures

a basal cell carcinoma is: a. an epithelial tumor that originates from either the basal layer of the epidermis or cells in the surrounding dermal structures b. a malignant tumor of the squamous epithelium of the skin or mucous membranes c. an overgrowth and thickening of the cornified epithelium d. lined with epithelium and contains fluid or a semisolid material

c. lipid-laden cells

a biopsy of a small, yellow-orange papulonodule on the eyelid will probably show: a. fragmented, calcified elastic tissue b. mature sebaceous glands c. lipid-laden cells d. endothelial swelling and an infiltrate rich in plasma cells

a. bacterial infection of the scalp

a differential dx of scarring alopecia may be: a. bacterial infection of the scalp b. Addison's disease c. drug-induced hair loss d. androgenetic baldness

b. zosteriform

a linear arrangement along a nerve distribution is a description of which type of skin lesion? a. annular b. zosteriform c. keratotic d. linear

c. harlequin sign

a mother c/o that her newborn infant lying on his/her side may appear red on the dependent side of the body while appearing pale on the upper side. When she picks up the baby, this coloring disappears. You explain to her: a. a temporary hemangioma b. hyperbilirubinemia c. harlequin sign d. mongolian spots

a. penicillin

an eczematous skin reaction may result from: a. penicillin b. allopurinol (zyloprim) c. an oral contraceptive d. phenytoin (dilantin)

d. easy bruising

adverse effects from prolonged or high-potency topical corticosteroid use on an open lesion may include: a. epidermal proliferation b. striae c. vitilgo d. easy bruising

b. minoxidil (rogaine)

all of the following medications may cause alopecia except: a. warfarin (cumadin) b. minoxidil (rogaine) c. levonorgestrol (norplant) d. acetalsalicylic acid (aspirin)

b. melanocytes

nevi arise from: a. plugged follicles b. melanocytes c. capillary occlusion d. epithelium

c. NSAIDs

psoriasis may occur after months of using: a. vitamin b. hormone replacement therapy c. NSAIDs d. antihistamine nasal sprays

b. lichen planus

the five Ps, purple, polygonal, planar, pruritic papules - are present in: a. ichthyosis b. lichen planus c. atopic dermatitis d. seborrheic dermatitis

b. prevent skin breakdown and the entrance of moisture and bacteria but allow permeability of )2 and moisture vapor

the purpose of a transparent dressing such as Tegaderm applied over a pressure ulcer is to: a. toughen intact skin and preserve skin integrity b. prevent skin breakdown and the entrance of moisture and bacteria but allow permeability of )2 and moisture vapor c. allow necrotic material to soften d. use the proteolytic enzymes in the dressing to serve as a debriding agent

a. topical antifungals

which agent is ineffective against psoriasis? a. topical antifungals b. systemic medications c. phototherapy d. topical corticosteroids

b. Breslow's

which assessment system for a malignant melanoma is used to determine the thickness of a lesion and help in determining prognosis? a. Clark's b. Breslow's c. Brown's d. Dermatoscope's

a. erythema infectiosum (fifth disease)

which disease usually starts on the cheeks and spreads to the arms and trunk? a. erythema infectiosum (fifth disease) b. rocky mountain spotted fever c. rubeola d. rubella

b. acne rosacea

which form of acne is more common in the middle-aged to older adult and causes changes in skin color, enlarged pores, and thickening of the soft tissues of the nose? a. acne vulagaris b. acne rosacea c. acne conglobata d. nodulocystic acne

b. oral griseofulvin (grisactin)

which is the drug of choice for tinea capitis? a. a topical corticosteroid b. oral griseofulvin (grisactin) c. a topic antifungal d. an antibiotic

c. psoriasis

which lesion results in scales or shedding flakes of greasy, keratinized skin tissue? a. eczema b. impetigop c. psoriasis d. herpes

a. diabetes mellitus

which of the following is a predisposing condition for furunculosis? a. diabetes mellitus b. HTN c. peripheral vascular disease d. chronic fatigue sundrome

c. seborrheic dermatitis

which of the following is a secondary skin lesion? a. acne nodule b. neoplasm c. seborrheic dermatitis d. herpes simplex

c. lichenification

which of the following secondary skin lesions usually results from chronic scratching or rubbing? a. crusts b. scales c. lichenification d. atrophy

a. sunscreen

which of the following should be used with all acne medications? a. sunscreen b. oily makeup c. plain soap d. nothing should be used with acne medication

c. ultraviolet light

which of the following therapeutic modalities is useful for severe uncontrollable atopic dermatitis? a. emollients b. compresses c. ultraviolet light d. tars

b. necrotizing fasciitis

which of the following types of cellulitis is referred to as "flesh eating bacteria"? a. erysipelas b. necrotizing fasciitis c. periorbital cellulitis d. peripheral vascular cellulitis

c. condyloma acuminata

which of the following warts (human papillomavirus (HPV) looks like a caulifower and is usually found in the anogenital region? a. plantar warts b. filiform and digitate warts c. condyloma acuminata d. verruca plana

d. the prognosis is directly r/t to the thickness of the lesions

which of the statements about malignant melanomas is true? a. they usually occur in older adult males b. the clt has no family hx of melanoma c. they are common in blacks d. the prognosis is directly r/t to the thickness of the lesions

d. acne rosacea

which skin lesion is morphologically classified as pustular? a. wart b. impetigo c. herpes simplex d. acne rosacea

c. actinic keratoses

which skin lesions are directly related to chronic sun exposure and photodamage? a. skin tags b. seborrheic kertatoses c. actinic keratoses d. angiomas

a. epidermis

which structure of the skin is responsible for storing melanin? a. epidermis b. dermis c. sebaceous glands d. eccrine sweat glands

d. Mohs' micrographic surgery

which tx is considered the gold standard in tissue-conservative skin cancer removal? a. cryosurgery b. simple excision c. photodynamic tx d. Mohs' micrographic surgery

c. a high-fiber diet for constipation

which tx would you order for anogenital pruritus? a. suppositories for pain b. antifungal cream for itching c. a high-fiber diet for constipation d. zinc-oxide ointment

b. Stork's beak mark

which type of hemangioma in a newborn occurs on the nape of the neck and is usually not noticeable when it becomes covered by hair? a. nevus flammeus (port-wine stain) b. Stork's beak mark c. strawbetty hemangioma d. cavernous hemangioma

c. filiform warts

which type of wart has fingerlike, flesh colored projections emanating from a narrow or broad base? a. common warts b. flat warts (verruca plana) c. filiform warts d. plantar warts

c. to decrease the growth rate of epidermal cells

why is ultraviolet light therapy used to tx psoriasis? a. to dry the lesions b. to kill the bacteria c. to decrease the growth rate of epidermal cells d. to kill the fungi

c. warts are caused by the human papillomavirus

you are teaching H. about the warts on his hands. What is included in your teaching? a. tx is usually effective, and most warts will not recur afterward. b. because warts have roots, it is difficult to remove them surgically c. warts are caused by the human papillomavirus d. shaving the wart may prevent its recurrence

a. once all the vesicles are crusted over

your 24 y/o clt, whose varicella rash just erupted yesterday, ask you when she can go back to work. What do you tell her? a. once all the vesicles are crusted over b. when the rash is entirely gone c. once you have been on medication for at least 48 hrs d. now, as long as you stay away from children and pregnant women

c. 6-8 wks

your clt had a colostomy several wks ago and is having difficulty finding a permanent appliance that fits. How long do you tell him to wait for the stoma to shrink before buying a permanent appliance? a. 2-4 wks b. 4-6 wks c. 6-8 wks d. just over 2 months

b. physical sunscreens

zinc oxide, magnesium silicate, ferric chloride, and kaolin are examples of: a. chemical sunscreens b. physical sunscreens c. agents used in tanning booths d. emollients

c. podagra

gouty pain in the great toe is: a. toe gout b. hyperuricemia of the toe c. podagra d. tophus

b. I should rub the area with snow

A., age 36, is planning to go skiing with her fiance. He has warned her about frostbite, and she is wondering what to do if frostbite should occur. You know she's misunderstood the directions when she tells you which of the following? a. I should remove wet footwear if my feet are frostbitten b. I should rub the area with snow c. I should apply firm pressure with a warm hand to the area d. I should place my hands in my axillae if my hands are frostbitten

b. he should stay away from children and pregnant women who have not had chickenpox

A., age, 57, has just been given a dx of herpes zoster. He asks you about exposure to others. You tell him that: a. once he has been on the medication for a full 24 hrs, he is no longer contagious b. he should stay away from children and pregnant women who have not had chickenpox c. he should wait until the rash is completely gone before going out in crowds d. he should be isolated from all persons except his wife

c. tinea corporis

B., age 12, presents with annular lesions with a scaly border and central clearing on his trunk. What do you suspect? a. psoriasis b. erythema multiforme c. tinea corporis d. syphilis

c. systemic antibiotics

D., age 29 has a high fever and red, warm, sharply marginated plaques on the right side of her face that are indurated and painful. You dx erysipelas. What tx do you begin? a. systemic steroids b. topical steroid c. systemic antibiotics d. NSAIDs

b. herpes zoster

E., age 83 presents with a 3 day hx of pain and burning in the left forehead. This am, she noticed a rash with erythematous papules in that site. What do you suspect? a. varicella b. herpes zoster c. syphilis d. rubella

c. it may exacerbate your concurrent condition of tinea corporis

H., uses a high potency corticosteroid cream for his dermatoses. You tell him the following: a. you must use this for an extended period of time for it to be effective b. it will work better if you occlude the lesion c. it may exacerbate your concurrent condition of tinea corporis b. be sure to use it daily

b. limiting consumption of purine-rich foods

J., age 52 has gout. what do you suggest? a. using salicylates for an acute attack b. limiting consumption of purine-rich foods c. testing his uric acid level q 6 months d. decreasing fluid intake

a. uremia from chronic renal disease

J., age 52, presents with pruritus with no rash present. He has HTN, diabetes, and end-stage renal disease. One of the differential dx would be: a. uremia from chronic renal disease b. contact dermatitis c. lichen planus d. psoriasis

a. sheep and goats

J., age 58 is a farmer. He presents with a painful finger ulcer and a palpable olecranal lymph node. Suspecting an oft skin ulcer., you ask him if he works with: a. sheep and goats b. horses c. metals d. tile

a. have an excisional biopsy

J., age 59 has a nevus on his shoulder that has recently changed from brown to bluish black. You advise him to: a. have an excisional biopsy b. monitor the nevus for a change at the end of 1 month c. apply benzoyl peroxide solution d. apply hydrocortisone 1% cream

c. psoriasis

J., age 59, presents with recurrent, sharply circumscribed red papules and plaques with a powdery white scale on the extensor aspect of his elbows and knees. What do you suspect? a. actinic keratosis b. eczema c. psoriasis d. seborrheic dermatitis

c. stop the amoxicillin

J., age 12, just started taking amoxicillin for otitis media. His mother said that he woke up this am with a rash on his trunk. What is your first action? a. prescribe systemic antihistamines b. prescribe a short course of systemic steroids c. stop the amoxicillin d. cont the drug, this rx on the first day is normal

d. antihistamines

J., age 29 has numerous transient lesions that come and go. and she is dx with urticaria. What do you order? a. aspirin b. NSAIDs c. opioids d. antihistamines

c. trichloracetic acid

J., age 32 is pregnant and has genital warts (condylomata) and would like to have them txed. What should you order? a. benzoyl peroxide b. podophyllin c. trichloracetic acid d. corticosteroids

b. determine the need for 0.5ml 1:1,000 epinephrine SQ

L., age 50 is c/o an itchy rash that occurred about a half hr after putting on his leather jacket. He recalls a slightly similar rash last yr when he wore his jacket. The annular lesions are on his neck and both arms. They are erythematous, sharply circumscribed, and both flat and elevated. His voice seems a little raspy, although he states that his breathing is normal. What is your first action? a. order a short course of systemic corticosteroids b. determine the need for 0.5ml 1:1,000 epinephrine SQ c. start daily antihistamines d. tell L. to get rid of his leather jacket

c. systemic lupus erythematosus

M., age 32 comes into the clinic. She has painful joints and a distinctive rash in a butterfly distribution on her face. The rash has red papules and plaques with a fine scale. What do you suspect? a. lymphocytoma cutis b. relapsing polychondritis c. systemic lupus erythematosus d. an allergic rx

c. your mother does not need a bath every day

M., asks what she can do for S., her 90 y/o mother, who has extremely dry skin. You respond: a. after bathing every day, use a generous supply of moisturizers b. use a special moisturizing soap every day c. your mother does not need a bath every day d. increase your mother's intake of fluids

b. beefy red

M., just came from visiting her husband, Sam, age 82, who recently had an ileostomy resulting in a stoma. She did not think that Sam's stoma looked right. You tell her that the color of the stoma should be: a. pale pink b. beefy red c. dark red or purple d. flesh colored

c. stage III

S., brings in her husband, N., age 72 who is in a wheelchair. On his sacral area he has a deep crater with full-thickness skin loss involving necrosis of subcutaneous tissue that extends down to the underlying fascia. Which pressure ulcer stage is this? a. stage I b. stage II c. stage III d. stage IV

a. open comedones

S., ask you about the blackheads on her face. You tell her these are referred to as: a. open comedones b. closed comedones c. papules d. pustules

d. infarction and necrosis of the affected tissue can happen with repeated frostbite

S. states that her fiance has been frostbitten on the nose while skiing and is fearful that is will happen again. What do you tell her? a. don't worry, as long as he gets medical help in the first few hrs after being frostbitten again, he will recover b. once frostbitten, he should not go out skiing again c. if it should happen again, massage the nose with a dry hand d. infarction and necrosis of the affected tissue can happen with repeated frostbite

a. craniotabes

S., a new mother, states that when she pushes her index finger on one of the baby's skull bones, it presses in and then returns to normal when she removes her finger. She is concerned about this. You tell her that is is common and is called? a. craniotabes b. molding c. caput succedaneum d. cephalhematoma

b. tinea versicolor

S., age 18, presents with a pruritic rash on his upper trunk and shoulders. You observe flat to slightly elevated brown papules and plaques that scale when they are rubbed. You also note areas of hypopigmentation. What is you initial dx? a. lentigo syndrome b. tinea versicolor c. localized brown macules d. ochronosis

c. staphylococcus aureus

S., age 29 has a carbuncle on his neck. After an I&D, an antibiotic is ordered. What is the most common organism involved? a. streptococcus b. Moraxella catarrhalis c. staphylococcus aureus d. Klebsiella

b. skin tag

S., age 52 has an acrochordon on her neck. She refers to it as a: a. nevus b. skin tag c. lipoma d. wart

b. keep the area as dry as possible

S., age 6 months, has a candida infection in the diaper area. What do you suggest to the mother? a. use rubber or plastic pants to contain the infection and prevent it from getting to the thighs b. keep the area as dry as possible c. use baby power with cornstarch d. keep S. away from other babies until the infection is cleared up

b. use tepid water and a mild cleansing cream

S., age 69 is c/o dry skin. What do you advise her to do? a. bathe every day b. use tepid water and a mild cleansing cream c. use a dehumidifier d. decrease the oral intake of fluids

a. systemic corticosteroids

S., age 72, has just been dx with temporal arteritis. What do you prescribe? a. systemic corticosteroids b. topical corticosteroids c. antibiotics d. antifungal preparations

a. a fungal infection, usually Candida albicans

S., age 82, comes to your office with a fairly new colostomy. Around the stoma he has a papular rash with satellite lesions. What does this indicate? a. a fungal infection, usually Candida albicans b. an allergic rx to the appliance c. a normal rx to fecal drainage d. a fluid volume deficit

c. acyclovir (zovirax)

T., a 24 y/o African American mother of 4 young children, presents in the clinic today with varicella. She states that 3 of her children also have it and that her eruption started < than 24 hrs ago. Which action may shorten the course of the disease in T.? a. calamine lotion b. cool baths c. acyclovir (zovirax) d. corticosteroids

a. asymmetry: one half does not match the other half

The ABCDEs of melanoma identification include which of the following? a. asymmetry: one half does not match the other half b. border: the borders are regular; they are not ragged, notched, or blurred c. color (pigmentation) is uniform d. diameter: the diameter is 5mm

a. nystatis oral suspension for 2 wks, 2-3ml in each side of the mouth, held for as long as possible

What is the tx for thrush? a. nystatis oral suspension for 2 wks, 2-3ml in each side of the mouth, held for as long as possible b. clotrimazole oral troches (10mg) 2x per day for 7 days c. fluconazole (100mg) twice a day for one wk d. antiseptic mouth rinses after each meal

a. syphilis

a darkfield exam is used to cutaneous dx which disease? a. syphilis b. viral blisters c. scabies d. candidiasis

c. syphilis

a darkfield microscopic exam is used to dx: a. scabies b. leprosy c. syphilis d. infections

d. I should wear rubber shoes in the shower to prevent transmission to others

You are teaching M., age 18, about his tinea pedis. You know he doesn't understand your directions when he tells you which of the following? a. I should dry between my toes every day b. I should wash my socks with bleach c. I should use an antifungal powder twice a day d. I should wear rubber shoes in the shower to prevent transmission to others

a. ophthalmic zoster

a 70 y/o clt with herpes zoster has a vesicle on the tip of the nose. This may indicate: a. ophthalmic zoster b. herpes simplex c. Kaposi's sarcoma d. orf and milker's nodules

d. anthrax

a Gram stain of which lesion reveals large, square-ended, gram + rods that grow easily on blood agar? a. dermatophyte infection b. tuberculosis (scrofuloderma_ c. sarcoidosis d. anthrax

a. tinea versicolor

a Wood's light is especially useful in dxing which of the following: a. tinea versicolor b. herpes zoster c. a decubitus ulcer d. a melanoma

d. bleeding gums and delayed wound healing

a clt with a nutritional deficiency of vitamin C may have: a. dry skin and loss of skin color b. thickened skin that is dry or rough c. flaky skin, sores in the mouth, and cracks at the corners of the mouth d. bleeding gums and delayed wound healing

d. red, flat, nonblanchable petechia

a clt with a platelet abnormality may present with: a. red to blue macular plaques b. multiple freckle-like macular lesions in sun-exposed areas c. numerous small brown nonscaly macules that become more prominent with sun exposure d. red, flat, nonblanchable petechia

d. atrophy

a thinning of skin that appears white or translucent is defined as: a. a scale b. a cyst c. a fissure d. atrophy

c. Candida infection of the penis

balanitis is associated with: a. diabetes b. macular degeneration c. Candida infection of the penis d. measles

a. balanitis

candidiasis may occur in many parts of the body. J., age 29, has it in the the glans of his penis. What is your dx? a. balanitis b. thrush c. candidal paronychia d. subungual

c. itching may continue after successful tx for up to a wk

clt teaching is an integral part of successfully txing pediculosis. Which of the following statements would you incorporate in your teaching plan? a. it's ok to resume sharing combs, headsets, and so on, after being lice free for 1 month b. soak your combs and brushes in rubbing alcohol for 8 hrs c. itching may continue after successful tx for up to a wk d. spraying of pesticides in the immediate environment is essential to prevent recurrence

d. a thickening and broadening of the ends of the fingers

clubbing is defined as: a. elongation of the toes b. broadening of each thumb c. a birth deformity of the feet d. a thickening and broadening of the ends of the fingers

a. the reduction of sweat and oil glands

dry, itchy skin in older adults results from: a. the reduction of sweat and oil glands b. loss of subcutaneous tissue c. dermal thinning d. decreased elasticity

c. hct

in a burn trauma, which blood measurement rises as a secondary result of hemoconcentration when fluid shifts from the intravascular compartment? a. hgb b. sodium c. hct d. blood urea nitrogen (BUN)

c. it is a bactericidal agent that acts on the cell membrane and cell wall of susceptible bacteria and binds to cellular DNA

in burn trauma, silver sulfadiazine (silvadene), a sulfonamide, is the most commonly used topical agent. What is its mechanism of action? a. it is a synthetic antibiotic that appears to interfere with the metabolism of bacterial cells b. it is a bacteriostatic agent that inhibits a wide variety of gram+ and gram -organisms by altering the microbial cell wall and membrane c. it is a bactericidal agent that acts on the cell membrane and cell wall of susceptible bacteria and binds to cellular DNA d. it is a protective covering that prevents light, air, and invading organisms from penetrating its surface

d. impetigo

large flaccid bullae, with honey-colored crusts around the mouth and nose are characteristic of: a burn b. rocky mountain spotted fever c. measles d. impetigo

c. scarlet fever

pastia lines are present in which disease? a. toxic shock syndrome b. rocky mountain spotted fever c. scarlet fever d. meningococcemia

a. scabies

permethrim (elimite) applied over the body overnight from the neck down is the preferred tx for: a. scabies b. eczema c. herpes simplex d. psoriasis

a. nystatis oral suspension for 2 wks, 2-3ml in each side of the mouth, held for as long as possible

persons with which skin phototype (SPT) sunburn easily after 30 minutes in the sun, but never tan? a. nystatin oral suspension for 2 wks, 2-3ml in each side of the mouth, held for as long as possible b. SPT II c. SPT III d. SPT IV

a. pityriasis rosea

the "herald patch" is present in almost all cases of: a. pityriasis rosea b. psoriasis c. impetigo d. rubella

a. superficially spreading

the majority of malignant melanomas are: a. superficially spreading b. lentigo maligna c. acra-lentiginous d. nodular

c. anthrax

the morphology of which lesion begins as an inflammatory papule that develops within several days into a painless, hemorrhagic, nad necrotic abscess, eventually with a dense, black, necrotic eschar forming over the initial lesion? a. furuncle-carbuncle b. hidradenitis suppurativa c. anthrax d. cellulitis

c. alopecia universalis

the total loss of hair on all parts of the female body is referred to as: a. female pattern alopecia b. alopecia areata c. alopecia totalis c. alopecia universalis

a. rubeola

the viral exanthem of Koplik's spots is present in: a. rubeola b. rubella c. fifth disease d. varicella

c. anemia

thin, spoon-shaped nails are usually seen in: a. trauma b. fungal infection c. anemia d. psoriasis

d. onchomycosis

tinea unguium is also known as: a. tinea capitis b. pityriasis versicolor c. tinea manuum d. onchomycosis

d. a transparent, semipermeable membrane dressing

tx for a stage I pressure ulcer may include: a. an enzymatic preparation b. systemic antibiotics c. surgical tx with muscle flaps d. a transparent, semipermeable membrane dressing

d. cryosurgery

what is a noninvasive method of txing skin cancer (other than melanoma) that uses liquid nitrogen? a. Moh's micrographic surgery b. curettage and electyrodessication c. radiation therapy d. cryosurgery

a. coal tar preparations

what is a safe and effective tx for mild psoriasis? a. coal tar preparations b. systemic steroids c. topical antibiotics d. systemic antihistamines

a. keloid

what is an excessive amt of collagen that develops during scar formation called? a. keloid b. skin tag c. angioma d. keratosis

b. a sinus

what is the connection between the surface of the skin and an underlying structure called? a. an ulcer b. a sinus c. an erosion d. an abscess

b. epinephrine 1:1,000 sq (0.3-0.5ml) for adults

what is the drug of choice for acute anaphylaxis? a. benadryl 25-100mg PO qid for adults b. epinephrine 1:1,000 sq (0.3-0.5ml) for adults c. prednisone (2mg/kg q 24 hrs) PO in one initial daily dose, tapered off over 1-2 wks d. amlodipine besylate (norvasc) 5mg qid for 4 wks

d. eliminate the heart source

what is the initial emergency measure to limit burn severity? a. stabilzie the clt's condition b. identify the type of burn c. prevent heat loss d. eliminate the heart source

d. sun exposure

what is the most common rosacea trigger? a. alcohol b. cold weather c. skin care products d. sun exposure

c. avoidance of the offending agent

what is the most effective tx for urticaria? a. an oral antihistamine b. dietary management c. avoidance of the offending agent d. a glucocorticosteroid

c. avoid smoking

what is the most important thing a woman can do to have youthful, attractive skin? a. keep well hydrated. b. use sunscreen with an SPF of at least 45 c. avoid smoking d. use mild defatted or glycerin soaps

b. vitiligo

what is the name of the acquired disorder characterized by complete loss of pigment of the involved skin? a. tinea versicolor b. vitiligo c. tuberous sclerosis d. pityriasis alba

b. common in thin older adults

when palpating the skin over the clavicle of J., age 84, you notice tenting which is: a. indicative of dehydration b. common in thin older adults c. a sign of edema d. indicative of scleroderma

d. in the inner condyle of the humerus

where is the epitroclear lymph node located? a. in front of the ear b. halfway between the angle and the tip of the mandible c. in the posterior triangle along the edge of the trapezius muscle d. in the inner condyle of the humerus


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