A+

transfer belt

Roller, corona wire, or belt assembly on a laser print device that applies a charge to the media (paper) so that it attracts toner from the photoconductor. A detac strip then removes the charge to prevent paper curl. On a color laser printer, the transfer unit is usually a belt.

backlight

LED or fluorescent lamp that illuminates the image on a flat-panel (TFT) screen. If the backlight component fails, only a dim image will be shown.

Wi-Fi channels in the 2.4 GHz frequency US EU Japan Canda

The Wi-Fi frequency band for 2.4 GHz is split into 14 channels of 5 MHz each. In the United States and Canada, only channels 1 through 11 may be used. In Europe, channels 1 through 13 may be used. In Japan, channels 1 through 14 may be used.

open circuit

an incomplete electrical circuit in which no current flows

Emulator requirements

bdffd

******troubleshooting methodology

1) Identify the problem. (2) Establish a theory of probable cause (question the obvious). (3) Test the theory to determine the cause. (4) Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and then implement the solution. (5) Implement the solution or escalate as necessary (6) Verify full system functionality and, if applicable, implement preventative measures. (7) Document findings, actions, and outcomes.

USB 2.0 supports three data transfer rates

1.5 Mbps, 12 Mbps, and 480 Mbps.

Ethernet Standards

100BaseTX/UTP Cat 5 and above/100 Mbps/100 meters 100BaseFX/Multi-mode fiber/100 Mbps/2,000 meters 1000BaseT/UTP Cat 5e and above/1 Gbps (1000Mbs)/100 meters 10GBaseT/UTP Cat 6 and above/10 Gbps 55 meters (Cat 6) or 100 meters (Cat 6a, 7, an 8) Note: The letter T always indicates twisted pair, and F is always fiber.

USB 3.0 - Transfer Rate

5 Gbps

Entry-level Power Supply (EPS)

8-pin +12V connectors. EPS12V PSU can be connected to a ATX motherboard with a 4 pin +12 V port. 4 pairs of blacl/yellow wires 8 pins

DB-9

9 pin D shell connector

terminating serial connections

A DB-9 connector is used to terminate an RS-232 serial cable. A ST, SC, LC, or MTRJ connector is used to terminate a fiber optic cable. An RJ-11 connector is used to terminate cables used for phone lines. An RJ-45 connector is used to terminate a copper twisted-pair Ethernet cable.

IEEE 802 Standards

A family of standards that deal mostly with how data is transferred between hosts in a local area network (LAN).

24-pin motherboard adapter

AKA P1 The main power from the PSU to the motherboard. Some boards have a 20-pin connector. yellow wires +12V red +5V orange 3.3V

docking station

Advanced type of port replicator designed to provide additional ports (such as network or USB) and functionality (such as expansion slots and drives) to a portable computer when used at a desk

Server Message Block (SMB)

Application protocol used for requesting files from Windows servers and delivering them to clients. SMB allows machines to share files and printers, thus making them available for other machines to use. SMB client software is available for UNIX-based systems. Samba software allows UNIX and Linux servers or NAS appliances to run SMB services for Windows clients.

Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP)

Application protocol used to send mail between hosts on the Internet. Messages are sent between servers over TCP port 25 or submitted by a mail client over secure port TCP/587.

fuser

Assembly in a laser print device that fixes toner to media. This is typically a combination of a heat and pressure roller.

Common Internet File System (CIFS)

CIFS was proposed as a means of implementing SMB version 1 as an Internet standard.SMB1 has very serious security vulnerabilities and is now disabled by default on current Windows versions.

channel bonding

Capability to aggregate one or more adjacent wireless channels to increase bandwidth.

print server

Computer configured to share a connected printer with other hosts. The client hosts connect to the printer share rather than directly to the print device.

headers

Connector on the motherboard for internal cabling, such as fan power and front panel ports and buttons.

DDR4

DDR2 SO-DIMMs have 200 pins, DDR DIMMs have 184 pins, and SDR DIMMS use 168 pins.

Sender Policy Framework (SPF)

DNS record identifying hosts authorized to send mail for the domain.

impact printer problems

Damage to stepper motor causes precision lose and moves farther with each step. If damaged badly enough, it won't move; may make grinding or high-pitched noises. If main motor is damaged, lines of print will be unevenly spaced. If print head motor goes bad, characters will be scrunched together.

Domain-Based Message Authentication, Reporting, and Conformance (DMARC)

Framework for ensuring proper application of SPF and DKIM utilizing a policy published as a DNS record.

Spooler

Generic term describing how a print output stream is passed from a client application and stored temporarily at a print server until the print monitor can route the job to the print device.

public switched telephone network (PSTN)

Global network connecting national telecommunications systems.

RFID frequencies

Low frequency (LF)/ 125-134 kHz/ 10 centimeters High frequency (HF)/ 13.56 MHz/ 30 centimeters Ultra-high frequency (UHF)/ 856-960 MHz/ 100 meters Reader The reader's job is to read information from tags. Readers have a power source and antenna. Once they get within 100 meters of an active tag or 25 meters of a passive tag, they can detect its presence.

PostScript

Page description language developed by Adobe that is capable of creating accurate, device-independent output (this means that two different printer models will produce exactly the same output from the same print file).

inkjet printer problems

Paper Jams: A worn pickup roller, wrong type of paper Paper-Feeding Problems: could indicate pickup rollers are worn. If pulling multiple sheets of paper, increase tension. Paper-feed sensor, designed to tell the printer when out of paper. Cleaning the sensor might help, but if not replace the printer. Stepper Motor Problems: lines of print unevenly spaced. If print head motor goes bad, characters will be scrunched together. Damage may cause the stepper motor to not move and possibly make grinding/high-pitched noises. Power Problems: voltages printer can use—typically, 12V and 5V. The device that does this is called the transformer. If transformer fails, printer will not power up. If this happens, get a new printer.

plain old telephone system (POTS)

Parts of a telephone network "local loop" that use voice-grade cabling. Analog data transfer over POTS using dial-up modems is slow (33.3 Kb/s).

Post description Languages (PDL)

PostScript (PS), Printer Control Language (PCL), and Graphics Device Interface (GDI).

F-type connector

Screw down connector used with coaxial cable.

Information Technology Extended

Series of motherboard form factors designed for small form factor (SFF) computers and appliances.

Lucent connector (LC)

Small form factor push-pull fiber optic connector; available in simplex and duplex versions.

A network technician is purchasing a digital subscriber line (DSL) service for a business that transfers large amounts of data back and forth between branches. What is the best connection type for the business?

Symmetric versions of DSL offer the same uplink and downlink speeds and are of more use to businesses and for branch office links, where more data passes upstream than with normal internet use. Asymmetrical DSL (ADSL) provides a fast downlink but a slow uplink, with the latest (ADSL2+) offering downlink rates up to about 24 Mbps and uplink rates of 1.25 Mbps or 2.5 Mbps. Internet service providers (ISPs) establish high-speed links between their networks, using transit and peering arrangements to carry traffic to and from parts of the internet they do not physically own. The public switched telephone network (PSTN) is the national and global telecommunications network that has fiber optic cabling at its core.

Indoor Positioning System (IPS)

Technology that can derive a device's location when indoors by triangulating its proximity to radio sources such as Bluetooth beacons or Wi-Fi access points.

What feature of DHCP means that it must use UDP at the transport layer?

The Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) uses broadcast addressing, which is not supported by the connection-oriented Transmission Control Protocol (TCP). Consequently, DHCP uses the connectionless User Datagram Protocol (UDP).

Which fiber optic connector uses a small form factor design?

The Lucent Connector (LC).

What action should you take FIRST to help solve problem?

The first thing you should do is verify that this problem is not caused by user error.

straight-through cable

The wire pairs in the cable connect to the same pin numbers on each end

decibels isotropic (dBi)

Unit for representing the increase in power gained by the directional design of a wireless antenna.

True or false? Both 4G and 5G cellular can be used for fixed access broadband as well as in mobile devices.

True. These can work as an alternative to wired broadband or as a backup/failover Internet connection type. Many router models now come with a cellular radio. A subscribed identity module (SIM) card from the service provider must also be installed.

*****USB Speeds

USB 1.1 White supports 12 Mbps USB 2.0 Black USB 3.0 (USB 3.2 Gen 1) Blue 4.5 watts per connected device. USB 3.1 (USB 3.2 Gen 2x1) Teal USB 3.2 (USB 3.2 Gen 2x2) Red USB4 n/a 40GBs USB devices are considered hot-swappable and each device can draw up to 2.5 W of power over a USB port. USB 3.0 and 3.1 can deliver up to 4.5 W of power. The maximum cable length for LowSpeed devices is 3 meters, while for FullSpeed and HighSpeed the limit is 5 meters.

****USB Power Standards

USB Battery Charging- 5V, 1.5A (7.5W) USB Battery Charging- 1.2 5V, 5A (20W) USB Power Delivery 1.0- 20V, 5A (100W) USB Power Delivery 2.0 (specified use of Type-C connectors but only up to 15W)- 5V, 3A (15W) USB Power Delivery 3.0- 20V, 5A (100W) USB Power Delivery 3.1- 48V, 5A (240W)

Which network configuration technology can be configured on switches to divide a local network into multiple broadcast domain segments?

Virtual LAN (VLAN)

ITX ATX sizes

mITX (Mini) 6.7" x 6.7" in size mATX (microATX) 9.6" x 9.6" in size (24 cm x 24 cm). The mATX form factor is commonly used in smaller computer systems with a small form factor (SFF) case. ATX 12" x 9.6" in size (305mm x 244mm) mATX motherboard is backward-compatible with larger ATX motherboard since it contains the same mounting point locations as the full-size board. ITX is a series of form factors which began with the mini-ITX, but there is no specific size called ITX.

Molex KK

wiring: black yellow red used to connect fans +5/12V

ISDN (Integrated Services Digital Network)

A digital circuit switching technology that carries both voice and data.

Peripheral Component Interconnect (PCI)

Legacy internal expansion bus supporting 32-bit parallel transfers working at 33 MHz.

SAS throughput

SAS-1- 3 Gbps SAS-2- 6 Gbps SAS-3- 12 Gbps SAS-4- 22.5 Gbps

Effective isotropic radiated power (EIRP)

Signal strength from a transmitter, measured as the sum of transmit power, antenna cable/connector loss, and antenna gain.

Optical Character Recognition (OCR)

Software that can identify the shapes of characters and digits to convert them from printed images to electronic data files that can be modified in a word-processing program.

You are dealing with a support request and think that you have identified the probable cause of the reported problem. What should be your next troubleshooting step?

Test the theory to determine the cause.

OS not found (ex for defining GPT)

The "OS not found" error at boot time is an indication that the MBR (Master Boot Record) or GPT (Globally Unique ID Partition Table) is corrupted or faulty. If this occurs, you should reboot into the Windows recovery mode and use the 'bootrec /fixboot' command to fix the GPT.

cable modem

a type of network bridge that provides bi-directional data communication via radio frequency channels on a hybrid fiber-coaxial (HFC), radio frequency over glass (RFoG), and coaxial cable infrastructure. Cable modems are primarily used to deliver broadband internet access as cable internet, taking advantage of an HFC and RFoG network's high bandwidth.

wireless internet service provider (WISP)

ISP offering Internet access over ground-based Line of Sight (LoS) microwave transmitters.

You are planning to install a network of wireless access points with power supplied over data cabling. Each access point requires a 20W power supply. What version of PoE must the switch support to fulfill this requirement?

PoE+ (802.3at) or PoE++/4PPoE (802.3bt).

A laser printer is producing white stripes on the paper. What could be causing this?

Poorly distributed toner or damaged/worn transfer corona wire. If the secondary corona does not apply a charge evenly across the paper, less toner is attracted from the drum to the part of the sheet where charging failed. Note, repetitive white or black marks (rather than stripes) that do not smudge, the issue is more likely dirt or grease on the drum.

The technician has made a note to check that port 445 is blocked by the firewall. What is the purpose of the protocol that uses this port by default, and why should it be blocked?

Port TCP/445 is used by the Server Message Block (SMB) protocol that implements Windows File/Printer Sharing. SMB is designed for use on local networks only. Allowing access from the Internet would be a security risk.

You have just set up a Minecraft server on a spare computer within your network and want your friends to connect to it over the internet. What do you need to configure in your SOHO router to allow your friends to connect to the new Minecraft server you created?

Port forwarding occurs when a router takes requests from the Internet for a particular application, such as HTTP/port 80), and sends them to a designated host on the local area network.

EP imaging process (laser printer)

Power Problems: Using the multimeter, find the following voltages: Pin 1 +5V Pin 5 -5V Pin 9 +24V If none of the voltages are reading properly, then replace the fuse in the DC power supply. If one or more (but not all) of the voltages aren't reading properly, then the first thing to do is to remove all optional hardware in the printer (including memory) and test again. static-charge eliminator strip: inside the printer drains the transfer corona charge away from the paper after it has been used to transfer toner from the EP cartridge. If that strip is missing, broken, or damaged, the charge will remain on the paper and may cause it to stick to the EP cartridge, causing a jam. If the paper jams after reaching the transfer corona assembly, this may be the cause. Blank Pages: no toner or low toner in the cartridge. Another issue can be using refilled or reconditioned toner cartridges. During their recycling process, these cartridges may be filled with the wrong kind of toner (for example, one with an incorrect composition). The second cause is a damaged or missing transfer corona wire or damaged transfer corona roller. If a wire is lost or damaged, the developed image won't transfer from the EP drum to the paper. To determine if this is causing your problem, do the first half of the self-test (described later in this chapter in the "Self-Tests" section). If there is an image on the drum but not on the paper, you know that the transfer corona assembly isn't doing its job.

perimeter network

(formerly called a Demilitarized Zone or DMZ) is a portion of a private network connected to the Internet and protected against intrusion. Certain services may need to be made publicly accessible from the Internet (such as a web, email, or Minecraft server) and they should be installed in the perimeter network instead of in your intranet. If communication is required between hosts on either side of a perimeter network, then a host within the perimeter network will act as a proxy to take the request. If the request is valid, it re-transmits it to the destination. External hosts have no idea about what is behind the perimeter network so that the intranet remains secure. A perimeter network can be implemented using either two firewalls (screened subnet) or a single three-legged firewall (one with three network ports). In this SOHO network, it would use a single three-legged firewall approach to separate the perimeter network from the LAN and WAN. A local area network (LAN) is a network where all the nodes or hosts participating in the network are directly connected with cables or short-range wireless media. A wide area network (WAN) is a network that spans multiple geographic locations such as the internet. A metropolitan area network (MAN) is a network that covers a geographical area equivalent to a city or municipality.

802.11 Bandwidth

-n faster throughput with: wider 40 MHz channels, multiple-input multiple-output (MIMO), and channel bonding. (802.11n devices can support up to eight antennas, or four streams, because each antenna only sends or receives.) Channel bonding also simultaneous communication at 2.4G Hz and 5 GHz and bond the data streams, which increases throughput.

VGA (Video Graphics Array)

-DB-15 connector (accurately called DE-15) - 15 pin -Blue color -Analog signal (no digital option) -Image degrades after 5 to 10 meters

Standard Thick Client

-Traditional computer -Desktop Applications (Executable programs running in local memory and using local CPU) -Meets recommended requirements for running the OS (CPU, Total RAM, disk space) -Local resources (OS, Drivers, Apps) -Ongoing support (security patches, OS updates, App. updates) -Device is added to microsoft domain -authentication needed to gain access

What command is used to test if your own network card's driver is working properly?

127.0.0.1 is the localhost IP for testing your NIC. It is reserved for loopback test. If there is no communication of the return packet, this indicates the network card is faulty, the cable/loopback is loose, or there is bad wiring of the loopback plug. Using ping with public IP addresses or the gateway address, such as 1.1.1.1, 8.8.8.8, and 192.168.1.1, would instead verify the entire path and not just NIC's driver.

Which cellular technology is compromised of HSPA+ and EV-DO to provide higher data speeds than previous cellular data protocols?

3G: HSPA+ and EV-DO. HSPA+ (Evolved High-Speed Packet Access) 3G standard used for GSM, theoretical download speed 168 Mbps and theoretical upload speed 34 Mbps. HSPA+ normally reaches speeds ~20 Mbps. EV-DO (Evolution-Data Optimized) is a 3G standard used for CDMA, supports 3.1 Mbps downloads. 4G: LTE and LTA-A. Long Term Evolution (LTE) is a packet data communications specification providing an upgrade path for both GSM and CDMA. Theoretical speed of 150 Mbps and a real-world speed of ~20 Mbps. LTE Advanced (LTE-A) has theoretical speed of 300 Mbps and a real-world speed of around 40 Mbps. 5G: low/mid/high band mmWave technology. Low-band 5G reaches an average speed of 55 Mbps with a theoretical speed of 150 Mbps. Mid-band 5G reaches an average speed of 150 Mbps with a theoretical speed of 1.5 Gbps. High-band 5G reaches an average speed of 3 Gbps with a theoretical speed of up to 70 Gbps.

802.11ax (WiFi 6)

5 GHz/2.4 GHz- 9.6 Gbps- OFDMA- ID 35 meters- OD 140 meters Wi-Fi 6 introduces a new modulation technique called Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiple Access (OFDMA), which is an enhancement over the previously used OFDM. While OFDM was fast, it had a limitation that it could only transmit to one recipient at a time. OFDMA can handle communications with several clients at once.

OSI Model Layers

7—Application Layer The Application layer allows access to network services. This is the layer at which file services, print services, and other applications operate. 6—Presentation Layer This layer determines the "look," or format, of the data. The Presentation layer performs protocol conversion and manages data compression, data translation, and encryption. The character set information also is determined at this level. (The character set determines which numbers represent which alphanumeric characters.) 5—Session Layer This layer allows applications on different computers to establish, maintain, and end a session. A session is one virtual conversation. For example, all the procedures needed to transfer a single file make up one session. Once the session is over, a new process begins. This layer enables network procedures, such as identifying passwords, logins, and network monitoring. 4—Transport Layer The Transport layer controls the data flow and troubleshoots any problems with transmitting or receiving datagrams. It also takes large messages and segments them into smaller ones and takes smaller segments and combines them into a single, larger message, depending on which way the traffic is flowing. Finally, the TCP protocol (one of the two options at this layer) has the important job of verifying that the destination host has received all packets, providing error checking and reliable end-to-end communications. 3—Network Layer The Network layer is responsible for logical addressing of messages. At this layer, the data is organized into chunks called packets. The Network layer is something like the traffic cop. It is able to judge the best network path for the data based on network conditions, priority, and other variables. This layer manages traffic through packet switching, routing, and controlling congestion of data. 2—Data Link Layer This layer arranges data into chunks called frames. Included in these chunks is control information indicating the beginning and end of the datastream. The Data Link layer is very important because it makes transmission easier and more manageable, and it allows for error checking within the data frames. The Data Link layer also describes the unique physical address (also known as the MAC address) for each NIC. The Data Link layer is subdivided into two sections: Media Access Control (MAC) and Logical Link Control (LLC). 1—Physical Layer The Physical layer describes how the data gets transmitted over a communication medium. This layer defines how long each piece of data is and the translation of each into the electrical pulses or light impulses that are sent over the wires, or the radio waves that are sent through the air. It decides whether data travels unidirectionally or bidirectionally across the hardware. It also relates electrical, optical, mechanical, and functional interfaces to the cable.

hard drive form factor laptop internally using a Micro SATA connection?

A 1.8" form factor is used, the drive is connected to the laptop using a Micro SATA connector since a regular SATA connector will not fit due to the connector's larger size.

KVM

A KVM (or Keyboard, Video, and Mouse) is hardware switching device that allows for multitasking on a single device. A KVM gives ability to connect 2-64 physical computers to a single set of hw devices, like kb, monitor, and mouse. KVMs can be directly connected to systems being controlled over USB, known as local remote. Modern KVMs can also operate over the network using IP, common in large datacenters. A PS/2 splitter allows both a mouse and keyboard to be connected to a single PS/2 port. A video mirroring device is used to send a duplicate copy of the video display signal to two or more monitors simultaneously. A USB splitter or USB hub is a device that connects to a USB port to allow additional USB devices to be connected to the PC, essentially increasing the number of USB ports available.

Which of the following types of laptop displays would utilize a fluorescent backlight to illuminate the image?

A LCD (TFT) with fluorescent backlight has been the standard display technology for the last few years. The backlight is a fluorescent bulb that illuminates the image, making it bright and clear. An inverter supplies the correct AC voltage to the backlight from the laptop's DC power circuits. More modern laptops use LED displays that replace the fluorescent backlight with an LED backlight. OLED and plasma displays do not use a backlight.

BNC connector

A connector used with thin coaxial cable. Some BNC connectors are T-shaped and called T-connectors. One end of the T connects to the NIC, and the two other ends can connect to cables or end a bus formation with a terminator.

crossover cable

A crossover cable connects two similar devices (PC to PC, Router to Router, Switch to Switch, etc.) to create a network. For an ethernet cable, this should be a network cable with a T568A wiring standard on one end and a T568B wiring standard on the other end of the cable to create a crossover cable. A straight-through or patch cable is a network cable that uses the same wiring standard on both ends such as T568A to 5T568A or T568B to T568B. A serial cable is a data cable that transmits data a single bit at a time. A DB-9 connector is used to terminate an RS-232 serial cable.

difference between a docking station and a port replicator

A docking station is a sophisticated type of port replicator designed to provide additional ports (such as network or USB) and functionality (such as expansion slots and drives) to a portable computer when used at a desk. A port replicator is a simple device to extend the range of ports (for example, USB, DVI, HDMI, Thunderbolt, network, and so on) available for a laptop computer when it is used at a desk. The difference between a docking station and a port replicator is that a docking station can add additional capabilities beyond what is already integrated into the laptop whereas a port replicator can only reproduce the same ports that already exist on the laptop. Thunderbolt is a connector type that can be used either as a display interface (like DisplayPort) or as a general peripheral interface (like USB 3). Thunderbolt 3 uses USB-C connectors. A USB hub is a device that connects to a USB port to allow additional USB devices to be connected to the PC, essentially increasing the number of USB ports available.

A company hires a network technician who is reviewing the network setup documentation. The technician sees that the company has fiber optic cable running all the way up to the building. This represents what type of connection?

A fiber to the premises (FTTP) internet connection means that the service provider's fiber optic cable runs all the way to the customer's building. A fiber to the curb (FTTC) solution retains some sort of copper wiring to the customer premises while extending the fiber link to a communications cabinet servicing multiple subscribers. The service providers with their roots in telephone networks use very high-speed DSL (VDSL) to support FTTC. VDSL achieves higher bit rates than other DSL types at the expense of range. An optical network terminal (ONT) is a device that converts between optical and electrical signaling deployed to facilitate full fiber internet connection types.

foul-smelling chemical odor

A foul smell is usually indicative of a distended capacitor. If there was a burning smell, then the power supply should be the first component inspected.

Your boss is looking for a recommendation for a cloud solution that will only allow for both onsite systems and cloud services to work together seamlessly. What type of cloud model should you recommend?

A hybrid cloud model allows for the seamless integration of both onsite and cloud services to the end-user simultaneously. Hybrid clouds can be cost-efficient, flexible, easy to migrate to a complete cloud solution in the future, and require less maintenance than completely onsite options. As with all cloud options, the contents must be properly secured due to the elastic storage nature of all cloud solutions and the possibility of data remnants. A public cloud contains services offered by third-party providers over the public Internet and is available to anyone who wants to use or purchase them. They may be free or sold on-demand, allowing customers to pay only per usage for the CPU cycles, storage, or bandwidth they consume. A private cloud contains services offered either over the Internet or a private internal network and only to select users instead of the general public. A community cloud is a collaborative effort in which infrastructure is shared between several organizations from a specific community with common concerns (security, compliance, jurisdiction, etc.), whether managed internally or by a third party and hosted internally or externally.

Multimeter

A measuring instrument for current, voltage, and resistance

RAID-6: Dual parity

A method of protecting against multiple storage drive failures by creating two sets of parity data on an array of hard disks. Six total drives, five actual data drives. The drives are striped with parity interleaved to optimize performance. min 4 drives, can lose up to 2 drives

Long-range fixed wireless

A point-to-point technology that uses directional antennas to send/receive network signals. antenna typically: small satellite dish, usually 1 meter wide, and can send/receive signals ~10-20 kilometers. With point-to-point, devices must be pointed at each other—misalignment causes network failure—and obstructions will also cause problems.

patch cable

A relatively short section (usually between 3 and 25 feet) of cabling with connectors on both ends.

port replicator

A simple device used to extend the range of ports (for example, USB, DVI, HDMI, Thunderbolt, network, and so on) available for a laptop computer when it is used on a desk.

cpu architechture

Advanced RISC Machine (ARM) designs implement an SoC which means that all the controllers, including video, sound, networking, and storage, are part of the CPU. The IA-32 (Intel Architecture) and x86-32 instruction sets define a CPU as IBM PC compatible. Intel and Advanced Micro Devices (AMD) design and manufacture IA-32. The x86-32 and IA-32 instruction sets define a CPU as IBM PC compatible. Intel and Advanced Micro Devices (AMD) design and manufacture IA-32. The x64 instruction set, developed initially by AMD as AMD64 or x86-64, extends the x86 instruction set for 64-bit operation.

laser printer problems2

All-Black Pages: This happens when the charging unit (the charging corona wire or charging corona roller) in the toner cartridge malfunctions and fails to place a charge on the EP drum. Because the drum is grounded, it has no charge. Anything with a charge (like toner) will stick to it. As the drum rotates, all of the toner is transferred to the page and a black page is formed. Solution: replace the toner cartridge with a known, good, manufacturer-recommended one. If that doesn't solve the problem, then the HVPS is at fault. (It's not providing the high voltage that the charging corona needs to function.) Repetitive Small Marks or Defects: toner spilled inside the printer may be causing the problem. It can also be caused by a crack or chip in the EP drum (this mainly happens with recycled cartridges), which can accumulate toner. Solution: clean or replace the offending roller. Vertical White Lines on the Page: Foreign matter (more than likely toner) caught on the transfer corona wire

2.4 GHz Channels

Although 14 channels have been defined for US, only allowed to configure devices only to the first 11. Two channels will not overlap if there are four channels between them. If you need to use three non-overlapping channels, your only choices are 1, 6, and 11.

fire

An ABC fire extinguisher is rated for all three fire types, but it leaves a sticky residue that can damage computers and electrical appliances.

link-local address

An IP address that is automatically assigned by an operating system to allow a node to communicate over its local subnet if a routable IP address is not available. ICANN has established the range of 169.254.0.0 through 169.254.254.255 as potential link-local IPv4 addresses. IPv6 link-local addresses begin with the prefix FE80::/10.

You just installed an SSD into a laptop to increase the storage speed of the device. Which of the following should you configure to increase the lifespan of the newly installed SSD?

An SSD (Solid-State Drive) is limited in the total number of write functions that can occur over its lifespan. Due to the immediate ability of an SSD to locate data on the drive (since there is no spinning platter that must be moved to reach the right area to retrieve the data like a regular magnetic hard drive), there is no need to defragment an SSD. When you defrag a hard drive, especially an SSD, it will cause tons of small write accesses, reducing the hard drive's lifespan. And since data is not being read sequentially, it doesn't matter if the file is stored in a hundred different places; the performance will remain the same. Therefore, you should disable any regularly scheduled defragmentation tasks when using an SSD to extend its lifespan.

statements regarding most connectors and ports

An input/output (I/O) port is the external connection point for a particular type of bus interface and the connector is the part of a peripheral cable that inserts into a port with the same shape. Most connectors and input/output ports now use edge contacts that connect the cable wires to the circuit boards. A lot of available connectors and ports have an asymmetric design called keying to prevent users from inserting them the wrong way around. Similarly, a lot of connecters and ports have contacts that can be reversible.

bluetooth features

Basic Rate (BR) Bluetooth devices since v1.0 support data transfer rate of 1.0 Mbps (data transfer is actually 721 Kbps). Slow, but sufficient for early keyboards, mice, and speakers. Enhanced Data Rate (EDR) v2.0 supported EDR, at 3.0 Mbps. After overhead, it goes down to 2.1 Mbps. EDR consumes more power than BR. High Speed (HS) v3.0 brought HS allowing Bluetooth to transmit over 802.11 signals. Boosting data transfer rate to 24 Mbps. Note, this requires Wi-Fi to be nearby, and using HS requires considerably more power than EDR. Low Energy (LE) v4.0 brought low energy mode, sacrificing data transfer rate (270 Kbps) but maintains transmission distance while using less energy. LE consumes between 1-50% power compared to Classic mode. Primary intent was to make compatible with IoT devices. v4.2 was first to include specific features for IoT. Note: Computer peripherals are more likely to use Classic mode, whereas IoT devices, Bluetooth beacons, and things like activity monitors will probably use LE. Slot Availability Masking (SAM) One potential issue with Bluetooth is interference on its communication channels—it uses the same unlicensed 2.4 GHz frequency that Wi-Fi does—and SAM is designed to help reduce problems. SAM can detect and prevent interference by switching bands within that frequency spectrum to help maintain throughput.

Straight tip (ST)

Bayonet-style twist-and-lock connector for fiber optic cabling.

Which of the following technologies is often used indoors by companies to locate a shopper's position in a store and provide them time-sensitive offers or discounts?

Bluetooth A mobile device can use its internal GPS, cellular, Bluetooth, or Wi-Fi radios to identify its location. When indoors, the devices can use either Bluetooth or Wi-Fi to determine their location. Bluetooth can be used within a building to provide an accurate of the device within 3-4 meters. Bluetooth location services are often used to identify where in a store a customer is located and present them with targeted offers. For example, if the store identified that you were in the frozen foods section, they might send you a push notification offering you a discount on a pint of ice cream. Wi-Fi positioning systems use the signal strength or angle of arrival of a signal to determine the device's location within 1-4 meters. The use of Bluetooth and Wi-Fi to determine the device's location is known as an internal positioning system (IPS). Cellular radios can provide an approximate location based upon the triangulation of your position between different cellular towers. A GPS (global positioning system) device is used to determine a receiver's position on the Earth based on information received from 24 GPS satellites, which operate in a constellation in Medium Earth Orbit (MEO). The receiver must have a line-of-sight to four of the GPS satellites continuously to accurately determine its position on the earth (latitude, longitude, and altitude). The device's GPS receiver can provide an accurate location up to 10 meters.

Network topology

Bus: Cheap. Easy to install. Difficult to reconfigure. A break in the bus disables the entire network. Star: Cheap. Very easy to install and reconfigure. More resilient to a single cable failure. More expensive than bus. Ring: Efficient. Easy to install. Reconfiguration is difficult. Very expensive. Mesh: Best fault tolerance. Reconfiguration is extremely difficult, extremely expensive, and very complex. Hybrid: Gives a combination of the best features of each topology used. Complex (less so than mesh, however).

universal asynchronous receiver transmitter (UART)

Controller that can send and receive data in an asynchronous serial format.

DomainKeys Identified Mail (DKIM)

Cryptographic authentication mechanism for mail utilizing a public key published as a DNS record.

reserve

DHCP configuration that assigns either a prereserved or persistent IP address to a given host, based on its hardware address or other ID.

TXT record

DNS resource record for storing free-form string values.

DVI-D (left) and HDMI

DVI-D (left) and HDMI

resource records

Data file storing information about a DNS zone. The main records are as follows: A (maps a host name to an IPv4 address), AAAA (maps to an IPv6 address), CNAME (an alias for a host name), MX (the IP address of a mail server), and PTR (Pointer Record) (allows a host name to be identified from an IP address).

preferred roaming list (PRL)

Data that allows a CDMA-based handset to connect to nearby cell towers.

Wi-Fi analyzer

Device or software that can report characteristics of a WLAN, such as signal strength and channel utilization.

optical network terminal (ONT)

Device that converts between optical and electrical signaling deployed to facilitate full fiber Internet connection types.

orthogonal frequency division multiple access" (OFDMA)

Feature of Wi-Fi 6 allowing an access point to serve multiple client stations simultaneously.

metered utilization

Feature of cloud service models that allows customers to track and pay for precise compute, storage, and network resource units.

Server Message Block (SMB) or scan to folder

Feature of scanners and multifunction devices that directs output to a cloud storage account.

Single-mode fiber (SMF)

Fiber optic cable type that uses laser diodes and narrow core construction to support high bandwidths over distances of more than five kilometers. longer distance than mmf and has smaller core size. mmf used for 2k~a mile.

Multi-mode fiber (MMF)

Fiber optic cable type using LED or vertical cavity surface emitting laser optics and graded using optical multimode types for core size and bandwidth.

liquid crystal display (LCD)

Flat-panel display technology where the image is made up of liquid crystal cells with color filters controlled using electrical charges. The display must be illuminated by a backlight.

inverter

Fluorescent lamp backlights require AC power. An inverter component converts DC power from the motherboard to AC. The inverter can fail separately to the backlight.

What CPU technology should be selected for VM so that the processor can utilize two logical cores?

HyperThreading (HT) is an Intel CPU architecture implemented to expose two or more logical processors to the OS to deliver performance benefits. This allows the system to run multiple cores for each operating system in a virtualized environment. Since the question asked about logical cores and not physical cores, the answer is hyperthreading and not a multi-core processor. A 32-bit CPU is a hardware item and used by low-end notebooks or thin clients. A dedicated GPU is a graphics card and would not help with running multiple virtual machines.

Automatic Private IP Address (APIPA)

If a Windows-based DHCP client is unable to reach a DHCP server, it will configure itself with an Automatic Private IP Address (APIPA) address. Those addresses have the format 169.254.x.x.

RAID failure

If the technician cannot access the RAID configuration utility, this indicates that the controller itself is likely to have failed. However, the data on the volume should be recoverable. Most desktop-level RAID solutions can tolerate the loss of only one disk, so the technician should replace it as soon as possible. If the RAID failure affects the boot process, the technician can use the RAID configuration utility to verify its status. If a volume is not available, either multiple disks (more than the tolerated number of disks) have failed, or the controller has failed.

Power over Long-Range Fixed Wireless

In addition to network signals, power can be transmitted over long-range fixed wireless as well. A common name tech is wireless power transfer (WPT). The transmitting station generates the power and transmits it via microwave or laser light toward the receiver. The receiving station gets the signal and converts it back to electricity. Efficiency is an issue with WPT implementations. The amount of energy lost can vary; some commercial providers claim to have 70 percent efficiency, which is far lower than copper cables.

SAS components

Initiator Think of this as the controller. It sends commands to target devices and receives data back from them. These can be integrated or an add-on card. Each initiator can have a direct connection to 128 devices. Target This is the device, typically a hard drive. It can also be multiple hard drives functioning in a RAID array. Service Delivery Subsystem The service delivery subsystem transmits information between an initiator and a target. Often this is a cable, but it can also be a server backplane (where multiple devices connect). Expander An expander is a device that allows for multiple initiators to be combined into one service delivery subsystem. Through the use of expanders, one initiator can support up to 16,256 devices.

duplex unit

Installable option that enables a print device or scanner to use both sides of a page automatically.

page description language (PDL)

Instructions that the print device can use to create an image on the page (for most printers, this means a raster describing the placement of dots on the paper).

fiber to the premises (FTTP)

Internet connection type that uses a fiber link between the subscriber premises and ISP network. Fiber to the premises (FTTP) uses a full fiber link, while fiber to the curb (FTTC) retains a short segment of copper wire between the subscriber premises and a street cabinet.

Near-Field Communication

It transmits at 13.56 MHz, which is the same frequency as HF RFID. three different modes: NFC Card Emulation Mode This lets the device act as a smartcard. This is useful for making payments at the site of a merchant that uses NFC. NFC Reader/Writer Mode This allows the device to read information stored in an NFC tag on a label or poster. NFC Peer-to-Peer Mode This allows for ad hoc data transfer between two NFC-enabled devices. In peer-to-peer mode, NFC data is transmitted in the NFC Data Exchange Format (NDEF), using the Simple NDEF Exchange Protocol (SNEP). SNEP uses the Layer 2 Logical Link Control Protocol (LLCP), which is connection-based, to provide reliable data delivery.

Small computer system interface (SCSI)

Legacy expansion bus standard allowing for the connection of internal and external devices. Each device on a SCSI bus must be allocated a unique ID. The bus must also be terminated at both ends. A small computer system interface (SCSI) is one example of a legacy parallel bus where one SCSI host bus adapter (HBA) can control multiple devices attached by internal ribbon cables or external SCSI cables.

integrated drive electronics (IDE)

Legacy mass storage bus, most commonly implemented as extended IDE (EIDE) and also referred to as parallel advanced technology attachment (PATA). Each IDE controller port supports two devices connected over ribbon cable with three connectors (controller, primary device, and secondary device). On the cable, pin 1 has a red stripe. Manufacturers also key the connectors to prevent technicians from inserting them the wrong way around. An EIDE cable typically has three color-coded connectors. The blue connector is for the motherboard port and pin 1 on the cable will have a red stripe. An EIDE cable typically has three color-coded connectors. The black, or end, connector attaches to device 0, and pin 1 on the cable will have a red stripe. An EIDE cable typically has three color-coded connectors. The grey, or middle, connector attaches to device 1, and pin 1 on the cable will have a red stripe.

Multiple Input Multiple Output (MIMO)

MIMO means using multiple antennas rather than a single antenna to communicate information. (802.11n devices can support up to eight antennas, or four streams, because each antenna only sends or receives.) Channel bonding also allows the device to communicate simultaneously at 2.4G Hz and 5 GHz and bond the data streams, which increases throughput.

AAAA

MORE INFO Authentication, Authorization, Accounting and Address

MDF/IDF wiring closet

Main Distribution Frame Intermediate dist frame uses 110 punchdown tool to lockdown CAT

signal-to-noise ratio (SNR)

Measurement of a wireless signal level in relation to any background noise.

Coaxial (coax) cable

Media type using two separate conductors that share a common axis categorized using the Radio Grade (RG) specifications.

Micro-ATX and Mini-ITX

Mini-ITX is 6.7 inches square, while Micro-ATX is 9.6 inches x 9.6 inches.

You are configuring a network attached storage (NAS) appliance. What file sharing protocol(s) could you use to allow access to Windows, Linux, and Apple macOS clients?

Most clients should support Server Message Block (SMB). Another option is to configure File Transfer Protocol (FTP).

Measured Service

Most cloud providers track clients' usage and then charge them for the services used. This type of setup is called metered service or measured service. Resource usage is monitored by the provider and reported to the client in a transparent fashion.

separation pad

Print device component that ensures only a single sheet at a time is fed into the paper path.

pickup roller

Print device components that feed paper between the input tray, print engine, and output tray.

virtual printing methods

Print to Image, Print to PDF, Print to XPS, and similarly Print to File are all virtual printing methods. These methods allow a user the ability to print to a file, a PDF (Portable Document Format), XPS (XML Paper Specification - a Microsoft alternative to PDF), or an image (photo). Printing to a network printer still requires access to a physical device connected to the network.

Subscriber connector (SC)

Push/pull connector used with fiber optic cabling.

What is the minimum number of disks required to implement RAID 10, and how much of the disks' total capacity will be available for the volume?

RAID 10 requires at least four disks (two mirrored pairs) and comes with a 50% capacity overhead, so the volume will only be half the total disk capacity.

If you have a computer with three hard disks, what type of RAID fault-tolerant configuration will make best use of them?

RAID 5 (striping with parity). RAID 0 is not fault tolerant. RAID 1 and RAID 10 require an even number of disks.

Which of the following virtualization concepts refers to a VM's ability to have memory allocated for its use?

Resource pooling refers to the concept that allows a virtual environment to allocate memory and processing capacity for a VMs use. Measured service is a term that IT professionals apply to cloud computing that references services where the cloud provider measures or monitors the provision of services for various reasons, including billing, effective use of resources, or overall predictive planning. Using a synchronization app can allow the files to be stored on both the laptop and the cloud service while maintaining the latest versions in both places. This allows a user to synchronize content between all of their own devices and share their cloud storage content with other users. Multiple users can simultaneously access the content to work collaboratively, or they can access it at different times. Each user's changes are typically marked with a flag or color highlighting to indicate who made changes to what content. Virtual application streaming allows an application to be delivered to a workstation from the cloud.

eSata specs

Revision 1.0- 1.5 Gbps SATA I Revision 2.0- 3.0 Gbps SATA II Revision 3.0- 6.0 Gbps SATA III eSATA does not provide power and requires a secondary cord to provide it

What basic factor might you look at in selecting a high-performance hard disk drive?

Revolutions per minute (RPM)—the speed at which it spins. The top-performing drives are 15,000 (15K) or 10,000 (10K).

transfer roller

Roller, corona wire, or belt assembly on a laser print device that applies a charge to the media (paper) so that it attracts toner from the photoconductor. A detac strip then removes the charge to prevent paper curl. On a color laser printer, the transfer unit is usually a belt.

Serial Advanced Technology Attachment (SATA)

Serial ATA is the most widely used interface for hard disks on desktop and laptop computers. It uses a 7-pin data connector with one device per port. There are three SATA standards specifying bandwidths of 1.5 Gb/s, 3 Gb/s, and 6 Gb/s respectively. SATA drives also use a new 15-pin power connector, though adapters for the old style 4-pin Molex connectors are available. External drives are also supported via the eSATA interface.

thin film transistor (TFT)

Specific display technology used to implement modern flat-panel LCD displays.

802.11 standards

Specifications developed by IEEE for wireless networking over microwave radio transmission in the 2.4 GHz, 5 GHz, and 6 GHz frequency bands. The Wi-Fi standards brand has six main iterations: a, b, g, Wi-Fi 4 (n), Wi-Fi 5 (ac), and Wi-Fi 6 (ax). These specify different modulation techniques, supported distances, and data rates, plus special features, such as channel bonding, MIMO, and MU-MIMO.

Global System for Mobile Communication (GSM)

Standard for cellular radio communications and data transfer. GSM phones use a SIM card to identify the subscriber and network provider. 4G and later data standards are developed for GSM.

Twisted Pair Cable Specifications

Standard max transmission of 100 meters (328 feet). Note, 10GBaseT over Cat 6—about 55 meters

Users in the marketing department complain that a recently installed printer is not producing accurate color output. What step might resolve the problem?

Switch to a PostScript (PS) driver. This is likely to have better support for accurate color models. You might also suggest running a calibration utility.

Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)

TCP establishes a connection between the sender and recipient using a handshake sequence of SYN, SYN/ACK, and ACK packets. TCP allows the receiver to send a negative acknowledgment (NACK) to force retransmission of a missing or damaged packet. TCP allows the graceful termination of a session using a FIN handshake. The main drawback is that this connection information requires multiple header fields. Network devices typically use Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP) to obtain a configuration file. The application protocol uses its own acknowledgment messaging, so it does not require TCP.

Jason wants to order a new gaming laptop for his son for his birthday. The laptop display must support a high refresh rate of 120 Hz or 144 Hz. Which of the following types of laptop displays should Jason purchase to meet this requirement?

TN (LCD) displays can be made with high refresh rates of 120 Hz or 144 Hz which makes them popular with gamers. An in-plane switching (IPS) LCD panel uses technology designed to resolve the quality issues inherent in TN panel technology, including strong viewing angle dependence and low-quality color reproduction. IPS displays have great color accuracy, but they do not support higher refresh rates sought after by gamers. VA displays are a good middle-ground between IPS and TN panel displays.

Which of the following DC voltages are not found within a printer when the laser printer converts AC power into DC power for use?

The DCPS (DC Power Supply/Source) DCPS converts 115VAC or 220VAC power into +5 VDC and -5 VDC for use by the printer's logic board, and +24 VDC to power the motors that feed the paper through the printing path in the last printer.

A company hired an administrator to manage their computers that host the employees' shared resources and applications. What kind of computers will the administrator manage?

The administrator will manage the company's server computers. A company dedicates a server computer to running network applications and hosting shared resources. A client computer allows end users to access the applications and resources to do work. Desktop administrators usually manage a company's client computers. A storage area network (SAN) provisions access to a configurable pool of storage devices that is isolated from the main network and that only application servers can use. A datacenter has dedicated networking, power, climate control, and physical access control features all designed to provide a highly available environment for running critical applications.

You are reviewing network inventory and come across an undocumented cable reel with "CMP/MMP" marked on the jacket. What installation type is this cable most suitable for?

The cable is plenum cable, rated for use in plenum spaces (building voids used with HVAC systems).

A network technician is setting static IPv4 addresses on servers. What needs to be manually set on each of the servers so that they connect to the network and aren't conflict with other servers? (Select all that apply.)

The gateway parameter is the IPv4 address of a router and is the IP address to which packets destined for a remote network should go by default. This will be changed for groups of locally connected devices. The last octet will configure differently quite frequently. There are 255 ips available in the last octet and it is likely that the first and last are used by networking devices. The first octet should remain fairly consistent due to the private subnet being used. The Domain Name System (DNS) and alternate DNS servers provide resolution of host and domain names to their IP addresses and are essential for locating resources on the internet.

Resource Pooling

The idea of resource pooling is closely linked with virtualization. Essentially same concept as shared resources. The provider's resources are seen as one large pool that can be divided up among clients as needed, and each client pays for the fraction of those resources they use. Clients should be able to access additional resources as needed, even though the client may not be aware of where the resources are physically located. Typical pooled resources include network bandwidth, storage, processing power, and memory.

Which of the following operating systems cannot be installed as a guest inside of a virtual machine on a Windows 10 laptop running Virtual Box?

The macOS software can only be installed in a Virtual Box virtual machine running on a macOS system. If you are running Virtual Box on Windows, it can only install other versions of Windows, Linux, and Unix. This is because Apple's operating system is proprietary.

What is the MOST common connector type used when connecting a USB cable to the back of a printer?

The most common USB connector used to connect to a printer is USB Type B. This connector has a large square-shaped male connector that is connected to the rear of the printer.

The large multi-function network printer has recently begun to print pages that appear to have a dust-like coating when handled by the users. Which of the following components should be replaced based on this description?

The printer passes the paper through the fuser, a pair of heated rollers. As the paper passes through these rollers, the loose toner powder melts, fusing with the paper's fibers. The fuser rolls the paper to the output tray, and you have your finished page. The fuser also heats the paper itself, of course, which is why pages are always hot when they come out of a laser printer or photocopier. If the paper feels dusty or the toner doesn't adhere to the printer, this usually indicates a failing fuser that needs to be replaced.

Thunderbolt

Thunderbolt 1- 10 gbps: Mini DisplayPort Thunderbolt 2- 20 gbps: Mini DisplayPort, DisplayPort 1.2 (can send video to a 4k display) Thunderbolt 3- 40 gbps: USB-C, 10 gbps Ethernet support Thunderbolt 4- 40 gbps: USB-C, Can support two 4k displays or one 8k display; 32 gbps PCIe

A technician is building a new computer he installs the motherboard, processor, memory, hard drives, and case fans, then they attempt to connect the cables to the appropriate connections. When the technician powers on the system, the fans spin, and the motherboard's LEDs light up. Unfortunately, the computer does not successfully complete the POST and the monitor remains blank. Which of the following did the technician likely forget to connect to the motherboard?

The technician forgot to connect the 8-pin CPU power cable. Without the CPU receiving power, the POST test cannot be run and the system will not boot up. If the motherboard power cable was not connected, then the motherboard's LED would not be lit. If the SATA 15-pin power cable was not connected, the system could still complete the POST and a "bootable device not found" error would be displayed on the monitor. If the case fan's power cables were not connected, the fans would not be spinning.

A hardware technician is tearing apart a non-functioning computer to salvage parts and pulls out a memory stick that synchronizes its speed to the motherboard system clock. What type of memory has the technician removed?

The technician removed synchronous DRAM (SDRAM) which is known as that because its speed synchronizes with the motherboard system clock. Modern system RAM is double data rate synchronous dynamic random access memory (DDR SDRAM) and makes two data transfers per clock cycle. Dynamic RAM stores each data bit as an electrical charge within a single bit cell. A bit cell consists of a capacitor to hold a charge and a transistor to read the contents of the capacitor. Error correcting code (ECC) RAM runs in workstations and servers that require a high level of reliability.

A hardware technician is building a server that will process financial data in real time and wants to use error correcting code (ECC) RAM that will detect and correct errors, if possible. What other considerations will the technician need to include to support the ECC RAM? (Select all that apply.)

The technician will need to include an extra processor chip on the module for the ECC RAM to store the 8-bit checksum the ECC RAM calculates. The technician will need to include a 72-bit data bus rather than the regular 64 bits to support the functions of the ECC RAM in the server. DDR memory modules, or DIMMs, typically feature heat sinks, due to the use of high clock speeds but that is not relevant to supporting ECC RAM in a server. A dual channel memory controller has two 64-bit pathways through the bus to the central processing unit (CPU) meaning that each transfer can send 128 bits of data.

Broad Network Access

This means that cloud capabilities are accessible over the network by different types of clients, such as workstations, laptops, and mobile phones, using common access software such as web browsers. The ability for users to get the data they want, when they want, and how they want is sometimes referred to as ubiquitous access.

IPv6

To make IPv4 addresses easier to use, they are in dotted decimal notation. IPv6 addresses are in hexadecimal notation. An IPv6 address divides into two main parts: the first 64 bits designate the network ID, while the second 64 bits designate a specific interface. The pool of available IPv4 public addresses is not very large, compared to the number of devices that need to connect to the internet, so IP version 6 (IPv6) will replace IPv4 completely. IPv6 addresses are in hexadecimal notation. To express a 128-bit IPv6 address in hex, the binary address divides into eight double-byte (16-bit) values delimited by colons.

MX record

Type of DNS resource record used to identify the email servers used by a domain.

Vertical alignment (VA)

Type of TFT display with good viewing angles and excellent contrast ratio.

In-plane switching (IPS)

Type of TFT display with the best overall quality, including wide viewing angles, good contrast ratio, and good response times (on premium units).

Twisted nematic (TN)

Type of low-cost TFT display with relatively poor viewing angles and contrast ratio, but good response times.

decibel (dB)

Unit for representing the power of network signaling.

Unlicensed and Licensed Frequencies

Unlicensed- Free to use, therefore cluttered Licensed- Gov issued, ex. AM FM

You are updating a support knowledge base article to help technicians identify port flapping. How can port flapping be identified?

Use the switch configuration interface to observe how long the port remains in an up state. Port flapping means that the port transitions rapidly between up and down states.

laser printer problems3

Vertical Black Lines on the Page: A groove or scratch in the EP drum Solution: replace the toner cartridge (or EP drum, if your printer uses a separate EP drum and toner). Image Smudging: If you can run your thumb across image and have it comes off on your thumb it's a fuser problem. Ghosting: Causes: broken cleaning blade or bad erasure lamps. If caused by a broken cleaner blade, replace the toner cartridge. If bad erasure lamps, you'll need to replace them. Printer Prints Pages of Garbage: Once the driver has been installed, it must be configured for the correct page-description language: PCL or PostScript. Most HP LaserJet printers use PCL (but can be configured for PostScript). Determine which page-description language your printer has been configured for, and set the printer driver to the same setting. Tip Most printers that have LCD displays will indicate that they are in PostScript mode with a PS or PostScript somewhere in the display. Formatter Board The other cause of several pages of garbage being printed is a bad formatter board.

A company is ordering custom-built laptops to supply to its field sales staff for use predominantly as presentation devices. The company can specify the type of panel used and has ruled out IPS and OLED on cost grounds. Which of the remaining mainstream display technologies is best suited to the requirement?

Vertical alignment (VA) displays support good viewing angles and high-contrast ratios, which makes them well-suited to displaying slides to an audience. The twisted nematic (TN) type is cheap but does not support wide-angle viewing.

What type of memory technology supports paging?

Virtual RAM or virtual memory. The operating system creates a virtual address space for each process. This address space can use physical system random-access memory (RAM) modules and swap space or paging files stored on fixed disks (hard drives and SSDs). Paging moves data between system RAM and the swap space as required.

A company has just installed a VoIP system on its network. Before the installation, all of the switches were replaced with layer 3 multilayer switches to allow for the VoIP devices to be placed on separate VLANs and have the packets routed accurately between them. What type of network segmentation technique is this an example of?

Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP) performance optimization can help a business improve the quality of its video and audio communications over the Internet by decreasing the size of the broadcast domain through the creation of VLANs. Each VLAN can contain the VoIP devices for a single department or business unit, and traffic is routed between the VLANs using layer 3 multilayer switches to increase the performance of the voice communication systems. Performance optimization helps companies bolster the availability, accessibility, security, and overall performance of their networks. Compliance enforcement involves dividing up one network into smaller sections to better control the flow of traffic across the network and to restrict confidential data to a specific network segment based on a specific regulation or contractual requirement, such as PCI DSS segmentation requirements. Separate public/private networking involves segmenting the network into two portions: public and private. This is often used in cloud architectures to protect private data.

You are assessing standards compatibility for a Wi-Fi network. Most employees have mobile devices with single-band 2.4 GHz radios. Which Wi-Fi standards work in this band?

Wi-Fi 6 (802.11ax), Wi-Fi 4 (802.11n), and the legacy standards 802.11g and 802.11b.

Input/output operations per second (IOPS)

a metric that measures the performance of a storage device. It indicates how many different input or output operations a device can perform in one second.

On-Demand Self-Service

With on-demand self-service, users can access additional storage, processing, and capabilities automatically, without requiring intervention from the service provider.

A workstation must be provisioned with a 4 Gbps network link. Is it possible to specify a single NIC to meet this requirement?

Yes. On an NIC with 4 gigabit Ethernet ports, the ports can be bonded to establish a 4 Gbps link.

A technician has removed an adapter card from a PC. Should the technician obtain and install a blanking plate to complete the service operation?

Yes. The fan system is designed to draw cool air across the motherboard and blow out warm air. Large holes in the chassis disrupt this air flow. Also, dust will be able to settle on the system components more easily. A blanking plate covers the empty slot in the case.

You are completing a network installation as part of a team. Another group has cabled wall ports to a patch panel. Is any additional infrastructure required?

Yes. The patch panel terminates cabling, but it does not establish any connections between the cable segments. You must install a networking appliance to act as a concentrator and connect the cable segments. On modern networks, this means installing a switch and cabling it to the patch panel ports using RJ45 patch cords.

You have a x8 PCIe storage adapter card—can you fit this in a x16 slot?

Yes—this is referred to as up-plugging. On some motherboards it may only function as a x1 device though.

What must you check when inserting a PGA form factor CPU?

You must check that pin 1 is aligned properly and that the pins on the package are aligned with the holes in the socket. Otherwise, you risk damaging the pins when the locking lever is secured.

Your company has recently closed a foreign branch office, and you are repurposing some PCs that were shipped from the old location. What feature of the PSUs must you check before powering the systems on?

You must check that the voltage selector is set to the correct voltage or, if there is no selector, that the PSU is suitable for the voltage used by the building power circuit.

domain controller

a centralized authentication server

link-local IP

an IPv6 address that is valid only for communications within the network segment or the broadcast domain that the host is connected to.

Rapid Elasticity

clients can get more resources instantly (or at least very quickly), and that is called rapid elasticity. Elasticity can also work backward; if fewer resources are required, the client may be able to scale down and pay less without needing to sell hardware. You will hear some subscriptions with built-in elasticity referred to as pay-as-you-grow services.

IPv4 Address Classes

class, octet, subnetmask, comments A: 1-127 255.0.0.0 For very large networks; 127 reserved for the loopback address B: 128-191 255.255.0.0 For medium-sized networks C: 192-223 255.255.255.0 For smaller networks with fewer hosts D 224-239 N/A Reserved for multicasts (sending messages to multiple systems) E 240-255 N/A Reserved for testing

Bluetooth device classes

class/dist/power-usage 1/100 meters/100 mW 2/10 meters/2.5 mW 3/1 meters/1 mW 4/0.5 meters/0.5 mW

Off-Site Email Applications - Cloud Services.

dsvsd

Bootable Device Not Found

if not hard drive or cable next: could indicate a problem with the master boot record (MBR) or boot sector on the hard drive. To fix this in any current version of Windows, boot to bootable media (USB or optical disc) and enter the Windows Recovery Environment (WinRE). In WinRE, you can get to a command prompt and use bootrec /fixmbr to fix the MBR and bootrec /fixboot to fix the boot sector.

Virtual Network Computing (VNC)

is a cross-platform screen sharing system that was created to remotely control another computer from a distance by a remote user from a secondary device as though they were sitting right in front of it.

Identifying Memory Issues

many memory problems manifest themselves as software issues. For example, memory problems can cause application crashes and produce error messages such as general protection faults (GPFs). Memory issues can also cause a fatal error in your operating system, producing proprietary crash screens such as the infamous Blue Screen of Death (BSOD) in Windows or the rotating pinwheel in macOS.

Infrastructure mode

means that the technician configures each client device (station) to connect to the network via an access point (AP). A frequency band is a portion of the microwave radio-frequency spectrum in which wireless products operate, such as the 2.4 GHz band or 5 GHz band. Dynamic frequency selection (DFS) is a regulatory feature of wireless access points that prevents the use of certain 5 GHz channels when in range of a facility that uses radar. Wi-Fi products have frequency bands. Channels are smaller bands with those frequency bands that allow multiple networks to operate at the same location without interfering with one another.

flickering phone

often caused by a failing backlight that needs to be replaced by a certified technician. In a laptop or mobile device, the LCD screen relies on a backlight source to uniformly light up the screen.

What network devices is used to put each connected network host to its own collision domain?

unmanaged switch A switch is a network device that receives incoming data into a buffer, then the destination MAC address is compared with an address table so that data is only sent out to the port with the corresponding MAC address. In a switched network, each port is in a separate collision domain. A managed switch is a switch with advanced networking functions and security settings that can be enabled and configured by an administrator. A hub provides no intelligence in its interconnection functions so that whatever is received on one port is repeated out every other port. This leads to many collisions occurring on the hub and increases the number of rebroadcasts which slows down the entire network. A repeater is an electronic device that receives a signal and retransmits it. Repeaters are used to extend transmissions so that the signal can cover longer distances or be received on the other side of an obstruction. Repeaters may be wired or wireless, and they rebroadcast whatever signal is received through their transmitter. A wireless access point (WAP), or access point, connects directly to a wired local area network and the AP then provides wireless connections using Wi-Fi for other devices to use that wired connection. An AP supports the connection of multiple wireless devices through their one wired connection.

Northbridge vs Southbridge

any component other than the CPU, memory and cache, or PCIe slots, the Southbridge is in charge. The Southbridge is also responsible for managing communications with the slower expansion buses, such as PCI, and legacy buses.

Network Bridge

created so that larger networks can be segmented or broken up into smaller networks to reduce traffic within that network. A network bridge is a computer networking device that creates a single, aggregate network from multiple communication networks or network segments.

RAID 0 (striping)

2 drives pros: speed con: no redundancy

RAID 1 (mirroring)

2 drives (min) pros: redundancy cons: speed

raid 0+1 mirror the stripes

2 pairs of striped sets can lose one striped pair on each side, downside is losing an entire mirror set

Power over Ethernet (PoE) - Injectors - Switch

A PoE switch has the Power over Ethernet functionality built into it. This means you can power devices using network cables. A PoE switch provides power that can be used to run other devices via the Ethernet cabling. A PoE injector connects your PoE-enabled network device to a non-PoE LAN switch port. More specifically, a PoE injector can be used to connect a wireless access point, IP phone, network camera or any IEEE 802.3af/at-powered device (PD) to a network switch.

SATA Cables and Connectors

data cable has red flat cord- 7 pin power cable multi-colored +3.3/5/12V 15 pin

The SDN controller operates on the control layer between the application layer and the infrastructure layer. APIs provide the interface between the control layer and application and infrastructure layers and scripts can automate calling functions in the layers. The infrastructure layer is the bottom layer of SDN and it contains the devices (physical or virtual) that handle the actual forwarding (switching and routing) of traffic. The application layer is the top layer of SDN and it makes decisions about how traffic is prioritized and secured and where it should be switched using business logic.

A cloud service provider is taking advantage of software-defined networking (SDN) to allow customers to provision and deprovision cloud resources on-demand. Which layer of SDN does the SDN controller operate on?

A technician plans a memory upgrade for a fleet of laptops for sales users. As the laptops are ultraportable, which memory form factor is likely NOT correct?

A dynamic inline memory module (DIMM) is a memory form factor that is used in desktop systems. Laptop memory is packaged in small outline DIMMs (SODIMMs). A SODIMM is like a DIMM only it has a smaller form factor for laptop use rather than on a desktop. A mini-DIMM has a smaller form factor than a small outline DIMM (SODIMM) form factor and is used in compact and ultraportable devices. A micro-DIMM has a much smaller form factor than a small outline DIMMs (SODIMM). A micro-DIMM is used with ultraportable devices.

You have been asked to install a network cable inside a conduit placed underground and connected to two buildings located about 1 KM apart. Which of the following cable types should you choose?

A fiber optic cable is a network cable that contains strands of glass fibers inside an insulated casing. They're designed for long-distance, high-performance data networking, and telecommunications. If you are dealing with connecting two networks over a long distance (over a few hundred meters), you should use a fiber optic cable. Shielded and plenum copper cables can only cover a distance of approximately 100 meters in length. Coaxial cables can cover a maximum distance of 200 to 500 meters in length.

Dion Training just installed a file server in VLAN 101 and their user workstations in VLAN 102. The users are unable to access the new file server from their workstations. Which of the following devices needs to be installed to allow users in VLAN 102 to access the resources in VLAN 101?

A router or other gateway device must be installed between two VLANs to allow connections to be routed between them. A Virtual LAN (VLAN) is a logically separate network that is created using switching technology. Even though hosts on two VLANs may be physically connected to the same cabling, local traffic is isolated to each VLAN so they must use a router to communicate. A hub provides no intelligence in its interconnection functions so that whatever is received on one port is repeated out every other port. A wireless access point (WAP), or access point, connects directly to a wired local area network and the AP then provides wireless connections using Wi-Fi for other devices to use that wired connection. An unmanaged switch operates out-of-the-box without any setup or configuration by switching network traffic based on MAC addresses and putting each switch port into its own collision domain. A hub, access point, and unmanaged switch are unable to route traffic and therefore would be unable to connect the two VLANs.

Z-Wave

A smart home protocol that provides two basic types of functions: signaling, to manage wireless connections, and control, to transmit data and commands between devices.

Your Windows 10 machine has just crashed. Where should you look to identify the cause of the system crash and how to fix it?

A stop error, commonly called the blue screen of death, blue screen, or BSoD, is an error screen displayed on a Windows computer system following a fatal system error. It indicates a system crash, in which the operating system has reached a condition where it can no longer operate safely. Each BSOD displays a "stop code" that can research the cause of the error and how to solve it. A Media Access Control (MAC) address is a unique physical hardware address for each Ethernet network adapter that is composed of 12 hexadecimal digits. A Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attack is an attempt to make an online service unavailable by overwhelming it with traffic from multiple sources. The Power On Self Test (POST) is a built-in diagnostic program that checks the hardware to ensure the components required to boot the PC are present and functioning correctly.

To allow employees access to the VDI environment, the company is installing thin clients in each employee's office. Which THREE of the following tasks must you first complete to install a thin client for a new employee?

A thin client is a stateless, fanless desktop terminal that has no hard drive. All features typically found on the desktop PC, including applications, sensitive data, memory, etc., are stored back in the data center when using a thin client, most typically in a VDI or other environment. To set up a thin client, first connect it to the network, update security software, and then install/configure any applications needed to access the VDI environment.

RG-59

A type of coaxial cable characterized by a 75-ohm impedance and a 20 or 22 AWG core, usually made of braided copper. Less expensive but suffering greater attenuation than the more common RG-6 coax, RG-59 is used for relatively short connections.

DDR2

A version of SDRAM that is faster than DDR and uses less power.

DDR3

A version of SDRAM that is faster than DDR2 memory and that can use triple channels.

optical media storage

CD- 700 MB DVD- 4.7 GB single-layer or 8.5 GB for dual-layer Blu-ray- 25 GB single-layer or 50 GB for dual-layer *A SD card is a type of memory card and is not considered an optical disc.

cross talk

Crosstalk is defined as an effect caused by the unintentional and undesired transmission (leakage) of a signal from one cable to another. ex. Due to the abuse of the cable being run over repeatedly by the user's chair, the cable's shielding could have been damaged and the cable may no longer be made up of the same consistency. This can lead to crosstalk amongst the cable pairs, or even opens/shorts of the wires in those cable pairs.

Whenever you reboot your domain controller, you notice it takes a very long time to boot up. As the server is booting, you hear noises that sound like a steady series of clicks coming from the hard drive. Which of the following is the BEST action to help speed up the boot time of the server?

Defragging is a simple process when file fragments are put together to speed up file access. File fragments are put together, and quality defragmentation utilities also assemble the free space into a single block to prevent future fragmentation. By defragmenting the hard drive, the server doesn't have to spend as much time accessing the information, and it can boot up faster. Based on the clicking noises, it sounds like the system has to access many parts of the drive to load the files.

What would MOST likely happen if connecting VGA with pins missing/broken off?

Due to the pinout of a VGA cable, if pins 1, 2, or 3 are missing, the display will be miscolored. If pins 13 or 14 are missing, the screen will not hold horizontal or vertical sync. The other pins are not used or are used as ground wires. Therefore, either the incorrect colors will show up on the screen, or the screen won't display at all.

568A/B

Ethernet cables are terminated with RJ-45 connectors. The pin-out (which wire connects to which pin) of those connectors is defined in the EIA/TIA 568A & 568B Standards. The difference between 568A and 568B is that the transmit and receive pairs are reversed. This allows for two types of cables, straight-through and crossover.

You want to boot from a removable USB device to troubleshoot your Windows 10 laptop. During your rebooting of the machine, which key should you press to enter the boot order menu?

F12 is the most commonly used key used to enter the BIOS / UEFI boot order menu. F11 during the boot up process will cause the system to boot into recovery mode on a Windows workstation. F8 is used to invoke the Advanced Boot Options menu to allow the selection of different startup modes for troubleshooting. This is done as part of Windows and not the BIOS / UEFI. The command + R is used on the OS X system to boot into recovery mode.

RG-6

RG-6 is used for television, satellite, and broadband cable connections. RG 59 has a smaller conductor than RG 6, which means that it can't achieve the same signal quality as RG 6. The way its shielding is designed also means that it doesn't keep Gigahertz level signals inside the conductor very well. This is why RG 59 probably isn't a good choice for your TV or internet connection. It is used mostly forCCTV an other analog video.

Which of the following cloud computing resources are MOST important when determining a cloud file-storage synchronization application's performance?

I/O bandwidth is the measurement of the amount of input and output operations that can be performed within a given time. The higher the I/O bandwidth, the faster and more efficient a cloud file-storage synchronization application will become. Applications that rely on large amounts of reading and writing of data require a high amount of I/O bandwidth. Disk speed is not nearly as important since most cloud file-storage systems use a virtualized file system for storage and do not rely on a single disk. Instead, they rely on a storage area network or a virtualized storage solution. The CPU and RAM utilization on the system would not have as large of an impact on the performance as the I/O bandwidth.

Which of the following is an example of a valid IPv6 address?

IPv6 addresses are written as a series of up to 32 hexadecimal digits, but can be summarized using a :: symbol. The ::1 is the IPv6 address for the localhost. An IPv4 address consists of 32 bits. IPv4 addresses are written in dotted octet notation, such as 192.168.1.254. MAC addresses are written as a series of 12 hexadecimal digits, such as 00:AB:FA:B1:07:34. The other option, 192:168:1:55 is not a valid address since it uses : instead of a . in between the octets.

network indicator lights

If the lights are steady on NIC, it indicates no network activity. Blinking, indicates data is passing over the NIC to the network. Even if there were an incorrect TCP/IP configuration or intermittent connectivity, there would be blinking lights to indicate transmission attempts.

A user returned a new tablet to the helpdesk with complaints that the screen was too dark and that the desktop image they put on it burned into the display. What kind of display does the tablet have?

In an organic light-emitting diode (OLED) display, or technically an advanced matrix OLED (AMOLED), the panel does not require a separate backlight but the screen is darker and images burn into the screen easier.

CPU's specifically designed to support virtualization

Intel processors- VT or Virtualization Technology. AMD-V (AMD's virtualization technology) HyperThreading (HT) is an Intel CPU architecture implemented to expose two or more logical processors to the OS to deliver performance benefits.

Virtual machines network configurations

Internal- prevents vm from communicating with the internet. VMs can communicate with each other and the host machine. Private- creates a switch that is usable only by the VMs. The VMs cannot communicate with the host. External- vm gets internet access. Localhost- each VM could only communicate with itself.

Which of the following network performance metrics is used to represent variable delay experienced by a client when receiving packets from a sender?

Jitter is a network condition that occurs when a time delay in the sending of data packets over a network connection occurs. Jitter is a big problem for any real-time applications you may be supporting on your networks, like video conferences, voice-over IP, and virtual desktop infrastructure clients. Latency is the measure of time that it takes for data to reach its destination across a network. Usually, we measure network latency as the round-trip time from a workstation to the distant end and back. Throughput is an actual measure of how much data is successfully transferred from the source to a destination. Bandwidth is the maximum rate of data transfer across a given network. Now, bandwidth is more of a theoretical concept that measures how much data could be transferred from a source to a destination under ideal conditions. Therefore, we often measure throughput, instead of bandwidth, to monitor our network performance.

Microwave Technology

Long-range fixed wireless can be licensed or unlicensed depending on the frequencies and power levels being utilized. For example, an 802.11 wireless network could be established using a directional antenna to connect two buildings over several miles using unlicensed frequencies and minimal power levels (under 200 mW) which are under the FCC limits. Alternatively, a microwave link can be established in the 4.91 GHz to 5.97 GHz unlicensed frequency range using a point-to-multipoint microwave antenna and transceiver system. Conversely, a user could purchase a licensed cellular fixed wireless system that requires a license from the FCC to operate to ensure they are not interfering with other users and services in the same frequency band.

WMN (Wireless Mesh Network)

Many wireless devices communicating directly rather than through a single central device. This technology is commonly used in IoT wireless networks.

Mini PCIe slot

Mini PCIe (mPCIe) are smaller form factor versions of standard PCI Express expansions cards used with laptops and other small form factor computing devices. Mini PCIe expansion cards provide the ability to add wireless networking or cellular data cards to a laptop. These slots can also be used to connect motherboard mounted solid-state storage devices. For the exam, it is important that you can identify the different parts of the motherboard by sight.

A user called the help desk to complain about an issue with their laptop's keyboard. Every time they type a word like "help" or "none," it is displayed as something cryptic like "he3p" or "n6ne". Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of this issue with the laptop keyboard?

Most keyboards have a numeric side (numbers only) and an alphanumeric side (numbers and letters and symbols). However, to minimize space usage, companies create some keyboards with the alphanumeric side only. This is quite common in laptops that insist on minimizing space for the sake of portability, as seen on mini-laptops and notebooks. Usually, the alphanumeric side is split into function keys (F1 to F12), followed by numeric keys (0-9), and then alphabetic keys (A-Z). To fix this, the fastest way to do this is to turn off NumLock using your laptop keyboard. If you hit the NumLock key, it will turn off. A light beside the key or on the laptop's top will go off to confirm that the NumLock is disabled.

Thin client

Networking system whereby client computers rely on servers to perform their processing tasks.

Error at boot

No boot device available- workstation is not recognizing the hard drive. Operating system not found or NTLDR not found- hard drive was recognized but that the Windows OS was not installed properly. BIOS ROM checksum error- indicates an issue with the BIOS, not the hard drive. "Windows could not start."- BOOT.INI's main job is to point to a valid copy of Windows, usually stored in \WINNT or \WINDOWS. If BOOT.INI doesn't point out a valid copy, this is the error you'll get. "NTLDR is missing."- Your Master Boot Record points to NTLDR. If there's a problem with the MBR, if it's corrupt or if the boot order is incorrect. "No boot device present".- This happens when the BIOS is pointing to a drive that has no bootable partitions. Windows boots into Safe Mode only. While many issues may cause this to happen, if you're able to boot into Safe Mode, you have a bootable copy of Windows and your BOOT.INI is fine.

Which cloud computing concept allows users to store files on a cloud-based server when necessary and copy that data from the cloud, and put it back on the device when space once again becomes available on the device?

On-demand refers to the fact that a consumer can unilaterally provision computing capabilities, such as server time and network storage, as needed automatically without requiring human interaction with each service provider. In this question, the cloud storage is provisioned and deprovisioned automatically for the user, and thereby it would be categorized as on-demand. Using a synchronization app can allow the files to be stored on both the laptop and the cloud service while maintaining the latest versions in both places. This allows a user to synchronize content between all of their own devices as well as share their cloud storage content with other users. Multiple users can simultaneously access the content to work collaboratively, or they can access it at different times. Each user's changes are typically marked with a flag or color highlighting to indicate who made changes to what content. Shared resources are any resources shared by multiple users or systems within an internal or cloud-based network.

You have been asked to set up the email on a corporate laptop. The employees of Dion Training are only allowed to receive their email on one device. The email should be removed from the server's mailbox whenever the client connects to the server to download the messages. Which of the following mail protocols should you configure to allow an employee to receive their mail on their laptop and meet these requirements?

POP3 downloads mail to device and removes mail from server's mailbox by default. IMAP does not remove the mail from server when client connects it maintains a copy on the server indefinitely until the user deletes it. IMAP also supports mailbox management functions, such as creating subfolders and access to the same mailbox by more than one client at the same time.

power supply voltages

Power supplies convert high voltage AC (115 VAC or 220 VAC) to three DC voltages: 3.3/5/12 VDC. 12 VDC is used by hard drives, CD/DVD drives, cooling fans, and other high-power devices. 3.3 VDC and 5 VDC are used by digital circuits like the motherboard and the system's expansion cards.

What printer concept is a page description language that produces faster outputs at the expense of quality?

Printer control language (PCL) produces faster outputs of lower quality. PCL tells printers how to properly layout and print contents of a document on a page. PCL is common, PostScript (PS) used in the electronic publishing and desktop publishing business. The Internet Printing Protocol (IPP) is a specialized Internet protocol for communication between client devices and printers (or print servers) using the HTTP protocol for data transport. The Line Printer Daemon (LPD) protocol is a network printing protocol for submitting print jobs to a remote printer. LPD is an older protocol than IPP.

S.M.A.R.T

Self-Monitoring and Repair Tool. It is a feature in all modern magnetic hard drives (non-SSD drives) that monitors the hard drive to ensure it performs properly. S.M.A.R.T. can detect when the failure of a drive is imminent and can alert the user so that they can back up the drive before a complete failure occurs. If your hard drive produces a S.M.A.R.T. failure, you should immediately back up the drive. Once a backup has been completed, you can instead focus on repairing the drive using chkdsk.

Several users from the Sales & Marketing department have called the service desk complaining that they cannot access the internet from their workstations. You open the command prompt, and enter IPCONFIG. It returns an IPv4 address of 10.1.2.3, a subnet mask of 255.255.255.0, and a default gateway of 10.1.2.1. You run "ping 8.8.8.8" but get "Request timed out" on the screen. You ping the IP of workstation next to this workstation and receive four successful replies from the command. You then ping the gateway (10.1.2.1) but again receive "Request timed out". What is MOST likely the problem with the salespeople's internet connectivity?

Since you can ping other workstations, but you cannot successfully ping the gateway device (the router), this indicates that the router is non-functioning. If the router is not functioning, the workstations will be unable to access any devices or servers outside since the router is necessary to connect them to those devices.

A traveling user looks to purchase a smartphone that has a high tolerance for differing environments. This includes indoor and outdoor use. What ingress protection (IP) rating does the user look for when wanting to protect the device from solids as best as possible?

Some mobile-device cases provide a degree of waterproofing. Waterproofing is rated on the ingress protection (IP) scale. The first (6) is a rating for repelling solids. In this case, dustproof. With an ingress protection (IP) scale, the first number located after "IP" is used for solids rating. A 5 is a dust-protected rating which is not as protective as a 6. When using an ingress protection (IP) scale, two numbers are designated after "IP." The first digit is for solids rating and the second is for liquids. In an ingress protection (IP) scale, the second value (8) is for liquids, 8 being protected from immersion beyond 1 m. The X means there is no rating.

The printer in your office is shared between 12 people. It has stopped working, and has been determined it must be replaced. The only other printer available is the manager's printer, but it is connected via USB to their workstation. One of the technicians would like to share the manager's printer with the other 12 employees as a temporary workaround. Unfortunately, there are no spare wired network jacks available in the office to connect the printer to the network directly, but there is a wireless access point nearby. Which of the following is the BEST way for the technician to allow the 12 employees to access the manager's printer?

The BEST solution would be to use a wireless print server to connect the printer to it using USB. This wireless print server can then receive the print jobs directly from all of the network users. It is not recommended that the technician create a share on the manager's computer or set the printer configuration to the manager's IP address since all print jobs would fail anytime the manager shut down or restarted their computer.

You have been assigned a trouble ticket for a workstation that is unable to boot. Error message on the screen reads, "Error loading operating system, BOOTMGR is missing, Press Ctrl+Alt+Del to restart." Which of the following actions should you take first?

To troubleshoot the failed boot, you must reboot the computer and enter into recovery mode. In Windows 10, you will need to boot from the installation disc, select "Repair your computer", and then enter the command-line interface (CLI). From the CLI, enter the command "bootrec /fixmbr" to repair the master boot record. Once completed, reboot the computer and allow it to load into Windows.

Dion Training's RAID 5 array consists of three 10,000 RPM 3.5" hard disk drives. The RAID is reporting that its health has become degraded. A technician replaces a faulty hard drive in the RAID with a new hard drive that is the same size and model as the previously failed drive. Users are now reporting that access to the share drive hosted by this RAID is slower than normal. Which of the following is MOST likely causing the slower performance on the RAID?

The RAID 5 array is rebuilding itself and causing slower performance. A RAID 5 provides block-level striping with distributed parity to provide redundancy using a minimum of three disks. When a disk fails in the RAID 5 array, the drive can continue to operate without data loss using the remaining two hard drives. When a failed drive is replaced, the RAID array must be rebuilt by calculating the missing data that was previously stored on the failed drive and copying it to the new drive. This process will slow down the overall performance of the RAID until the array is fully rebuilt and performance returns to normal. The technician cannot replace an HDD with an SSD without replacing the entire RAID. RAID arrays should use the same size and model of hard drives for best performance. The technician could not have replaced the wrong drive otherwise the entire RAID would fail since only a portion of the data on the RAID would remain (one of three drives). The technician did not change any settings in the question so it is unlikely that I/O caching was changed or disabled.

AGP slot

The accelerated graphics port (AGP) is a parallel expansion card standard that was originally designed for attaching a video card to a computer system to assist in the acceleration of 3D computer graphics. AGP has been replaced with PCIe due to its faster speeds.

Which of the following metrics should you consider to compare the performance of an SSD or HDD?

The input/output operations per second (IOPS) is a measurement of performance used to compare a hard disk drive (HDD) and solid-state device (SSD). The IOPS is calculated based on the physical constraints of the media being used. For a hard disk drive, the IOPS is calculated by dividing 1000 milliseconds by the combined average seek time and average latency. The seek time only applies to a traditional hard drive since it calculates the time it takes to move the head to the proper storage location on the platter. For an SSD, there is no seek time used since it can instantly access any portion of the memory without physically moving a read head.

A network administrator configures an authentication, authorization, and accounting (AAA) server. Which component in the AAA server setup does not store authentication credentials, but acts as a transit to forward data between devices?

The network access server (NAS) or network access point (NAP) are appliances, such as switches, access points, and VPN gateways. These do not store authentication credentials but simply act as a transit to forward this data between the AAA server and the supplicant. The supplicant is a component of the authentication, authorization, and accounting server and is the device requesting access, such as a user's PC or laptop. Remote Authentication Dial-in User Service (RADIUS) is a protocol that manages remote and wireless authentication infrastructures and implements AAA. In an authentication, authorization, and accounting (AAA) configuration, the AAA server is the authentication server positioned within the local network.

PRI and PRL

The preferred roaming index (PRI) is an index that works with the PRL to provide the best data/voice quality to a phone while roaming. The preferred roaming list (PRL) is a database built by CDMA service carriers to indicate which radio bands should be used when connecting to a cell tower. The baseband is the embedded operating system in the firmware of a smartphone or other cellular device. The firmware is a set of software instructions stored semi-permanently (embedded) on a hardware device. Modern types of firmware are stored in flash memory and can be updated more easily than legacy programmable Read-Only Memory (ROM) types. The baseband and firmware would not be updated or changed based on your location. The baseband is changed or updated when a security update is needed.

Which of the following components of a color laser printer is used to combine the 4 colors before printing them to the paper in one pass?

The transfer belt is the component in a color laser printer that combines the 4 colors before printing it to the paper in one pass. The transfer roller is the component in a laser printer that applies an electric charge to the paper to attract toner from the photoconductor during the imaging process. The pickup roller is the component in a laser printer that turns above a stack of paper to feed a sheet into the feed roller. The duplexing assembly is a component that enables a printer or scanner to use both sides of a page automatically.

toner streaks laser printer

The transfer roller charges the toner in the drum before it transfers to the paper. Streaks of toner usually indicate a dirty transfer roller. Cleaning the transfer roller can keep documents streak-free.

After installing the OS you see the "Operating System Not Found" error. You verify that the boot.ini file is configured properly, but the error still appears. What is MOST likely causing this error?

This issue may occur if one or more of the following conditions are true: (1) the basic input/output system (BIOS) does not detect the hard disk (2) the hard disk is damaged (3) sector 0 of the physical hard disk drive has an incorrect or malformed master boot record (MBR) (4) an incompatible partition is marked as Active (5) a partition that contains the MBR is no longer active.

Which option would you MOST likely use to configure PXE to set up remote imaging on a computer during a deployment?

To utilize the PXE boot option, you need to configure it under the BIOS boot option. The Preboot Execution Environment (PXE) is an industry-standard client/server interface that allows networked computers that are not yet loaded with an operating system to be configured and booted remotely by an administrator. Secure boot is a security system offered by UEFI that is designed to prevent a computer from being hijacked by malware. Power management allows Windows to reduce or turn off the power supplied to hardware components to save energy.

An organization that does not support the autodiscovery feature for email servers is deploying new phones to its team. A user is configuring their email server on their new device. What will the user enter in the incoming mail server field?

When configuring corporate email, the user will enter the fully qualified domain name (FQDN) or IP address of the Internet Mail Access Protocol (IMAP) or Post Office Protocol (POP3) server. When configuring corporate email, the user will enter the IP address or the FQDN of the Internet Mail Access Protocol (IMAP) or Post Office Protocol (POP3) server. When configuring corporate email, the user will enter the address of the Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) server in the outgoing mail server field. When configuring corporate email, the secure (TLS enabled) or unsecured ports used for IMAP, POP3, and SMTP would normally be set to default.

Peter is attempting to print to his office printer, but nothing comes out. Yesterday, his printer was working just fine. Peter does not notice any errors on the taskbar's printer icon. Which of the following actions should Peter try FIRST to solve this issue?

When this issue occurs, it is often because the system properly sent the print job to the print queue, but the print queue has become stuck. If no error is shown in the taskbar's printer icon, the user should open the print queue to determine if the print job has become stuck. If it is, then the print queue can be emptied or reset.

You need to determine the best way to test operating system patches in a lab environment before deploying them to your automated patch management system. Unfortunately, your network has several different operating systems in use, but you only have one machine available to test the patches on. What is the best environment to utilize to perform the testing of the patches before deployment?

When you have a limited amount of hardware resources to utilize but have a requirement to test multiple operating systems, you should set up a virtualized environment to test the patch across each operating system before deployment. You should never deploy patches directly into production without testing them first in the lab. Virtualization will allow the organization to create a lab environment without significant costs. Purchasing additional workstations would be costly and more time-consuming to configure.

Sticky keys

a Windows function that ignores a certain key is pressed and held for too long, such as the shift key being held down for 10 seconds. Whether working or defective, the backlight would not affect the keyboard typing and displaying the right keys to the screen. A keyboard's drivers would usually affect special keys (like volume or brightness), not standard keys like letters or the space bar.

Enterprise mobility management (EMM)

a class of management software designed to apply security policies to the use of mobile devices and apps in the enterprise.

hybrid cloud

a cloud computing environment that uses a mix of on-premises

S/PDIF (Sony-Philips Digital Interface) sound port

a port that connects to an external home theater audio system, providing digital audio output and the nest signal quality.

FireWire port

a port used for high-speed multimedia devices such as camcorders. also called an IEEE 1394 port.

End-point management server

an appliance that provides a management console that can monitor and control end-point devices. It is used to deploy and update software on end-points. It may also monitor security settings and software such as checking to see that antivirus is running and up to date on each end-point.

Application virtualization

means that the client either accesses an application hosted on a server or streams the application from the server ensuring that they are always using the latest version. Client-side virtualization refers to any solution designed to run on "ordinary" desktops or workstations. Each user will be interacting with the virtualization host directly. Server-side virtualization means deploying a server role as a virtual machine. For server computers and applications, the main use of virtualization is better hardware utilization through server consolidation. Container virtualization dispenses with the idea of a hypervisor and instead enforces resource separation at the OS level. The OS defines isolated containers for each user instance to run in.

RAID 10 (striping mirrors)

min of 4 drives (2 pairs) mirroring 2 while stripe+mirror next pair can lose one mirror pair on each side

VOIP (Voice over IP) devices that rely on PoE..

should use a CAT 5e, CAT 6, or higher cable to make the connection. This allows a single cable (CAT 5e or CAT 6) to carry both the data and the device's power. Fiber, coaxial, and CAT 3 cables cannot carry power to the VOIP device and cannot be used to meet this requirement. Using a CAT 5e or CAT 6 cable, you can connect two devices of approximately 300 feet (100 meters) without any need to repeat the signal.

signal attenuation

the longer the signal travels, the more it deteriorates. Attenuation can also occur when signal path is obstructing the line-of-sight between the antennas.

RAID 5 - Striping with Parity

• File blocks are striped along with a parity block • Efficient use of disk space • High redundancy • Minimum of 3 drives cons: can only lose one drive min