A+ practice test B

A network administrator wants to ensure sensitive data is not exfiltrated from the system electronically. Which of the following should be implemented? A. DLP B. ARP C. MTTR D. DMZ

Answer A is correct. Data loss prevention (DLP) is used to classify and protect your organization's confidential and critical data. Within the DLP software, you create rules that prevent users from accidentally or maliciously sharing particular types of data outside your organization. For example, a DLP rule might prevent users from forwarding any business emails outside of the corporate mail domain. Another DLP rule might prevent users from uploading files to a consumer cloud service, like OneDrive or Dropbox. Yet another type of rule would prevent users from copying files to removable media. Answer C is incorrect. Mean time to resolution (MTTR) is the average amount of time taken to resolve a particular issue. Answer B is incorrect. The Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) is a communication protocol that resolves IP addresses to MAC addresses. Answer D is incorrect. A demilitarized zone (DMZ) is a small network between the internal network and the Internet that provides a layer of security and privacy. A DMZ is often deployed using a multihomed firewall.

Which of the following custom configurations needs to support surround sound speaker system? A. Gaming PC B. Home theater PC C. Thin client D. Home server PC

Answer B is correct. A home theater PC (HTPC) needs to support a surround sound speaker system. HTPC is a computer dedicated and configured to store and stream digital movies, either from the local hard drive or through an online subscription such as Netflix. It also includes the following components: *HTPC compact form factor motherboard *Video card with HDMI port *TV tuner card *Specialized audio card capable of connecting to surround-sound speakers Answer D is incorrect. A home server PC is a server for your house connected to multiple computing devices within the home to store videos, music, and pictures. Home server PCs have a variety of features and functions, but they all have common requirements for providing a home with the necessary functions: *Media streaming capabilities to access and play digital movies *File sharing for all home users to access the file system on the server *Print sharing Answer C is incorrect. A thin client is a computer that relies heavily on another system, typically a server, to run most of its programs, processes, and services. Client setup requirements will be specific to a user's needs and will most likely be based on a job role. Answer A is incorrect. A gaming PC is a computer equipped with powerful graphics capabilities, fast processing capabilities, and a large amount of memory.

What is the minimum number of physical disk drives required in RAID 5? A. 1 B. 3 C. 4 D. 2

Answer B is correct. RAID level 5 spreads data byte by byte across multiple drives, with parity information also spread across multiple drives. You need at least 3 physical disk drives that have the same capacity and are of the same type. If one drive fails, the parity information on the remaining drives can be used to reconstruct the lost data. In the event of a drive failure, data recovery is not instantaneous (as it is in RAID 1); the bad drive needs to be replaced, and then the missing data needs to be reconstructed. With RAID 5, disk performance is enhanced because more than one read and write can occur simultaneously. However, the parity calculations create some write-performance overhead.

Smith, a technician, is troubleshooting a problem. He has confirmed the cause of the problem and resolved the issue. Which of the following should be the technician's next step? A. Document lessons learned. B. Verify full system functionality. C. Test your theory to determine the actual cause. D. Establish a plan of action.

Answer B is correct. There are certain general steps that the technician must apply while troubleshooting: 1.Identify the problem. 2.Establish a theory of probable cause. 3.Test your theory to determine the actual cause. 4.Once you've confirmed the cause, establish a plan of action to resolve the problem, then take steps to implement the solution. 5.When you've completed the steps to resolve the issue, verify full system functionality. 6.The final step is to document your findings, actions taken, and the outcome.

Which of the following interfaces is capable of transmitting high-quality and high-bandwidth streams of audio and video between devices? A. MIDI B. RJ-11 C. HDMI D. eSATA

Answer C is correct. The High Definition Multimedia Interface (HDMI) interface is capable of transmitting high-quality and high-bandwidth streams of audio and video between devices. The HDMI technology is used with devices such as an HDTV, projector, DVD player, or Blu-ray player. Answer A is incorrect. Musical Instrument Digital Interface (MIDI) is a connectivity standard for transferring digital instrument data. It is primarily used by computers, synthesizers, and electronic keyboards. Answer B is incorrect. Registered Jack 11 (RJ-11) is the connector used for wired analog telephone service and for dial-up modem connections on computers. They've mostly been replaced by faster network connections, but you might find one on a laptop or in rural areas. Answer D is incorrect. External SATA (eSATA) allows you to connect external SATA hard drives, solids state drives, and optical drives to your computer. When you have a SATA expansion card that includes an external connector, the external connector will be eSATA.

A user complains that his computer automatically reboots after a short period of time. Which of the following computer components will you change to perform preventive maintenance on the computer? A. Hard disk drive B. Operating system C. CPU cooling fan D. RAM

Answer C is correct. The very common cause for this issue is that the CPU fan is not working properly. It causes the computer to reboot after a short period of time. Answer B is incorrect. There is no need to change the operating system, as the operating system has nothing to do with this issue. Answer D is incorrect. The RAM is also not causing the issue. A faulty RAM would give error code beeps during the startup of the computer. Answer A is incorrect. Changing the hard disk drive is not required, as a bad hard disk drive would also give an error message during the startup phase of the computer.

Maria, an employee, is on a business trip. She connects her laptop to a hotel's wireless network to send emails to customers. The next day she notices that emails have been sent from her account without her consent. Which protocol is used to compromise her email password utilizing a network sniffer? A. TLS B. SSL C. SSH D. HTTP

Answer D is correct. According to the scenario, HTTP is used to compromise Maria's email password utilizing a network sniffer. The Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) is a network protocol that works on the Application layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) and Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) models and enables clients to connect to and retrieve web pages from a server to interact with websites. It is an application protocol that runs on top of the TCP/IP suite of protocols (the foundation protocols for the Internet). This protocol sends data in plain text. Therefore, a network sniffer or a packet sniffer can be used to capture an HTTP packet by an attacker. The data then can be read by an attacker, perhaps allowing the attacker to see confidential information, such as passwords. Answer B is incorrect. Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) makes up a protocol group that operates on top of TCP to provide an encrypted session between the client and the server. It is commonly seen on websites implemented as the Hypertext Transport Protocol Secure (HTTPS) protocol. Answer A is incorrect. Transport Layer Security (TLS) is a security protocol that protects sensitive communication from eavesdropping and tampering by using a secure, encrypted, and authenticated channel over a TCP/IP connection. Answer C is incorrect. Secure Shell (SSH) is a protocol that enables a user or an application to log on to another device over a network, execute commands, and manage files. It creates a shell or session with a remote system, offers strong authentication methods, and ensures that communications are secure over insecure channels.

Which of the following RAID types should be used to configure two drives for maximum performance? A. RAID 5 B. RAID 6 C. RAID 10 D. RAID 0

Answer D is correct. RAID 0 implements striping, which is the process of spreading data across multiple drives. Striping can dramatically improve the read and write performance. You must have at least two physical disk drives to implement striping. RAID 0 takes the contents of files and spreads them in roughly even parts across all drives in the RAID array. It allows the CPU to read and write simultaneously on different drives, improving performance. Answer A is incorrect. RAID 5 spreads data byte by byte across multiple drives, with parity information also spread across multiple drives. You need at least three physical disk drives that have the same capacity and are of the same type. Answer C is incorrect. RAID 10, or RAID 1+0, combines two RAID levels into one. It uses RAID 1 and RAID 0 to provide both mirroring from level 1 and striping from level 0. RAID 10 uses a minimum of four disks, in two disk mirrored blocks. Answer B is incorrect. RAID 6 is similar to RAID 5, except with at least four drives, and two parity disks. RAID 6 has the benefits of RAID 5 but with much stronger fault tolerance.

James, a technician, wants to transfer files between two systems. Which of the following protocols will help him? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two. A. FTP B. SCP C. OSPF D. NTP

Answers A and B are correct. The File Transfer Protocol (FTP) and the Secure Copy Protocol (SCP) can be used to transfer files on a network. The FTP protocol transfers files across an IP network, and it can transfer files between any two machines that are using it. The problem with FTP is that all data is sent in clear text. SCP provides a secure file-transfer service over an SSH connection and offers a file's original date and time information, which is not available with FTP. Answer C is incorrect. Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) is a routing protocol that uses a link-state routing algorithm and falls into the group of interior routing protocols, operating within a single autonomous system (AS). Answer D is incorrect. The Network Time Protocol (NTP) works in conjunction with other synchronization utilities to ensure that all computers on a given network agree on the time.

Which of the following combines the features of a firewall, anti-virus, and IDS/IPS into a single device? A. UTM B. SSH C. NAS D. VPN

Answer A is correct. A Unified Threat Management (UTM) appliance is a security device that combines the features of a firewall, anti-virus, and IDS/IPS into a single device. The goal of UTM is to centralize security management, allowing administrators to manage all of their security-related hardware and software through a single device or interface. Answer D is incorrect. A virtual private network (VPN) is an encrypted communication tunnel that connects two systems over an untrusted network, such as the Internet. It provides security for both authentication and data transmission through a process called encapsulation. Answer B is incorrect. The Secure Shell (SSH) is a protocol that enables a user or an application to log on to another device over a network, execute commands, and manage files. Answer C is incorrect. A network attached storage (NAS) is a device or appliance that provides only file-based data storage services to other network devices.

Which of the following devices will allow a technician to use a single set of input devices on several computers? A. KVM switch B. PoE C. iSCSI D. Layer 3 switch

Answer A is correct. A keyboard, video, mouse (KVM) switch is a device that enables a computer user to control multiple computers with a single keyboard and mouse, with the display sent to a single monitor. This feature is particularly useful in managing multiple test environments, or in accessing multiple servers that have no need for dedicated display or input devices. KVM switches are available with PS/2 or USB connections, and come in desktop, inline, or rack-mount varieties. Higher-end rack-mount models can be uplinked to connect dozens of computers. Answer C is incorrect. Internet Small Computer Systems Interface (iSCSI) is an IP-based storage networking standard for linking data storage facilities. It is used to facilitate data transfers over intranets and to manage storage over long distances by carrying SCSI commands over IP networks. Answer B is incorrect. Power over Ethernet (PoE) is a technology that enables both power and data to be transmitted over an Ethernet cable. Answer D is incorrect. A layer 3 switch combines the functionality of a switch and a router. It acts as a switch to connect devices that are on the same subnet or virtual LAN at lightning speeds and has IP routing intelligence built into it to double up as a router.

Joe, a technician, is tasked to maintain a printer. He checks the printer and finds that its imaging drum and transfer roller are not working. For which of the following types of printers should he obtain a maintenance kit containing an imaging drum and transfer roller? A. Laser printer B. Thermal printer C. Impact printer D. Inkjet printer

Answer A is correct. A laser printer produces a high-quality and high-speed output of both text and graphics by using a process called electro-photographic imaging. It is a printer that uses a laser beam to project a document onto an electrically charged drum. Laser printers include some specialized components not found in other printer types: *Toner cartridge *Laser scanning assembly *Paper transport mechanism *Electrostatic Photographic drum (EP drum), or imaging drum *Transfer corona assembly *Fuser assembly *Formatter board Answer D is incorrect. An inkjet printer is a printer that forms images by firing microscopic droplets of liquid ink out of microscopic ink jet nozzles mounted together on a carriage assembly that moves back and forth across the paper. Inkjet printers have a self-cleaning cycle and will park the print-head when not in use. You might need to replace inkjet cartridges, replace print heads, or run calibration programs on an inkjet printer. Answer B is incorrect. A thermal printer is a general term for any printer that uses a heating element to create the image on the paper with dye, ink from ribbons, or directly with pins while the feed assembly moves the media through the printer. A maintenance kit for a thermal printer can include an electrostatic discharge (ESD)-safe vacuum cleaner to clean the thermal printer and isopropyl alcohol and a lint-free cloth or cotton swab to clean the heating element on the print head. Answer C is incorrect. An impact printer is any type of printer that strikes a component directly against the ink ribbon to create characters on impact paper. A maintenance kit for an impact printer can include the ink ribbon that should be replaced when the printout is faded.

Which networking device must be used to have full-duplex communication between two host devices? A. Switch B. Firewall C. IDS D. Hub

Answer A is correct. A switch allows full-duplex communication where two devices on a network can simultaneously send and receive the data. It is a layer 2 device that joins multiple computers together within the same LAN. It examines the Layer 2 header of the incoming packet and forwards it properly to the right port and only that port. This means that there is a point-to-point connection (dedicated channel) between the transmitter of the sending device and the receiver of the receiving device. Answer C is incorrect. An intrusion detection system (IDS) is a device or software application that monitors a network or system for malicious activity or policy violations. Any intrusion activity or violation is reported either to an administrator or collected centrally using a security information and event management system. Answer D is incorrect. A hub is a multiport repeater that operates at Layer 1 of the OSI model. It lacks intelligence and simply forwards the data coming in at one port to all the available ports. Hence, it is not possible for more than one device to simultaneously send the data. Therefore, a hub only allows half-duplex communication. Answer B is incorrect. A firewall is a device that defines a set of rules to dictate which types of traffic are permitted or denied as that traffic enters or exits a firewall interface.

Which of the following is a point-to-point logical network created by grouping selected hosts, regardless of their physical location? A. VLAN B. DNS C. DMZ D. DAS

Answer A is correct. A virtual local area network (VLAN) is a point-to-point logical network created by grouping selected hosts, regardless of their physical location. It uses a switch or router that controls groups of hosts, which receive network broadcasts. VLANs can provide network security by enabling administrators to segment groups of hosts within the larger physical network. Answer C is incorrect. A demilitarized zone (DMZ) is an area between a private network and a public network such as the Internet. It is not a direct part of either network but is instead an additional network between the two networks. Answer B is incorrect. A domain name system (DNS) is the primary name resolution service on the Internet and private IP networks. It is a hierarchical system of databases that map domain names to their associated IP addresses. Answer D is incorrect. Direct attached storage (DAS) is a digital storage system directly attached to a server or workstation, without a storage network in between. It is made up of a data storage device connected directly to a computer through a host bus adapter.

James, a network administrator, wants to communicate with his company's internal website from a remote location via a wireless Internet connection. Which type of connection does he need to make this communication secure? A. VPN B. Frame Relay C. MPLS D. ISDN

Answer A is correct. A virtual private network (VPN) is a private network configured by tunneling through a public network, such as the Internet. It provides secure connections between endpoints, such as routers, clients, or servers, by using tunneling to encapsulate and encrypt data. It can create a secure connection over an insecure network, such as wireless or the Internet. The common VPN protocols include Secure Sockets Layer (SSL), Layer 2 Tunnel Protocol (L2TP), Layer 2 Forwarding Protocol (L2F), Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol (PPTP), and Transport Layer Security (TLS). Answer C is incorrect. Multiprotocol Label Switching (MPLS) is a wide area network (WAN) technology that performs label switching to forward traffic within an MPLS cloud by inserting a 32-bit header between a frame's Layer 2 and Layer 3 headers. It then makes forwarding decisions based on the label within an MPLS header. Answer D is incorrect. Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) is defined as a digital telephone/telecommunication network used to carry voice, data, and video over a present telephone network infrastructure. It needs an ISDN modem at the end of a transmission. Answer B is incorrect. Frame Relay is a packet-switching technology that involves breaking messages into chunks called packets at the sending device. Each packet can be sent over any number of routes on its way to its destination. The packets are then reassembled in the correct order at the receiving device.

A user needs a device that meets all of the following criteria: Longest possible battery life, Best-in-class viewing experience for printed text only, Wireless download capability for new content. Which of the following devices would best meet the user's requirements? A. E-reader B. Digitizer C. Port replicator D. Fitness monitor

Answer A is correct. An e-reader is a device outwardly similar to a tablet, but with functionality limited to downloading and reading electronic versions of books, magazines, and other documents. E-readers typically can transfer documents from a PC using a USB cable, but many have Wi-Fi or cellular capability so you can directly download them from online bookstores or libraries. Since they have narrower system demands than tablets, e-readers typically have longer battery life and displays that are more optimized for reading text. Answer B is incorrect. A digitizer is a layer of sensors between the Liquid Crystal Display (LCD) display and a layer of glass that enables the translation of the analog touch signal to a digital signal. Answer D is incorrect. A fitness monitor is normally worn on the wrist, which has an optical heart rate monitor (OHRM) to track the user's heart rate. It is a device for monitoring and tracking fitness-related metrics such as distance walked or run, calorie consumption, and quality of sleep. Answer C is incorrect. A port replicator is a scaled-down version of a docking station with only the standard ports available.

Which of the following CPU characteristics allows the processor to classify and separate memory areas where application code can and cannot execute? A. EDB B. MMX C. VRM D. Hyperthreading

Answer A is correct. Execute disable bit (EDB) is a hardware-based security feature that allows the processor to classify and separate memory areas where application code can and cannot execute. Malware programs and worms, when treated as trustworthy data, can exploit and overrun a memory buffer, and the computer may interpret the extra bits as instructions and execute them. The action could range from damaging files to disclosing confidential information and creating an access point. Intel refers to this as the XD bit and AMD refers to it as Enhanced Virus Protection. The operating system must support the no-execute (NX) bit to use this security feature. Answer C is incorrect. A voltage regulator module (VRM) is a replaceable module used to regulate the voltage fed to the CPU. Answer D is incorrect. Hyperthreading is a feature of certain Intel chips that makes one physical CPU appear as two logical CPUs. It uses additional registers to overlap two instruction streams to increase the CPU's performance by about 30 percent. Answer B is incorrect. Multimedia extensions (MMX) is a set of additional instructions, called microcode, to support sound, video, and graphics multimedia functions.

James, a technician, needs to configure a computer system for the maximum safety of stored data while staying cost-effective. Which of the following RAID levels should he use? A. RAID 1 B. RAID 0 C. RAID 6 D. RAID 10

Answer A is correct. James should use RAID 1 for the maximum safety of stored data while staying cost-effective. In RAID 1, data from an entire partition is duplicated on two identical drives by either mirroring or duplexing. In mirroring, the two disks share a drive controller. In disk duplexing, each disk has its own drive controller, so the controller card is not a single point of failure. Data is written to both halves of the mirror simultaneously. This redundancy provides fault tolerance and provides for quick failure recovery, but the storage overhead consumes half the available space. The work of reading the data can be split between both drives, improving performance. Answer B is incorrect. RAID 0 implements striping, which is the process of spreading data across multiple drives. Striping can dramatically improve the read and write performance. Striping provides no fault tolerance, however; because the data is spread across multiple drives, if any one of the drives fails, you will lose all of your data. Answer D is incorrect. RAID 10, or RAID 1+0, combines two RAID levels into one. It uses RAID 1 and RAID 0 to provide both mirroring from level 1 and striping from level 0. RAID 10 uses a minimum of four disks, in two disk mirrored blocks. This configuration gives better performance and system redundancy but it is not a cost-effective option. Answer C is incorrect. RAID 6 is similar to RAID 5, except with at least four drives, and two parity disks. RAID 6 has the benefits of RAID 5, but with much stronger fault tolerance. This configuration gives better performance and system redundancy but it is not a cost-effective option.

Maria is a technician at a medium-sized accounting firm that used cloud-based computing resources. During tax preparation season, the internal requirement for computing resources rises in the firm, and then after the taxes are filed, the computing capacity is no longer needed. She is being asked to find a way so that these computing resources can be accessed automatically when needed, without requiring intervention from the service provider. Which cloud computing feature will help to meet her needs? A. On-demand B. Resource pooling C. Broad network access D. Measured service

Answer A is correct. On-demand self-service is a cloud computing feature through which users can access additional storage, processing, and capabilities automatically, without requiring intervention from the service provider. It enables end users to request and access cloud resources as they are needed. This type of cloud service is useful for project-based needs, giving the project members access to the cloud services for the duration of the project, and then releasing the cloud services back to the hosting provider when the project is finished. This way, the firm is only paying for the services for the duration of the project. Answer C is incorrect. Broad network access is a cloud computing feature in which resources are available through the network in a standard format that allows and in fact promotes use from a wide variety of client platforms, often including any sort of computer or mobile device. Answer B is incorrect. In resource pooling, the cloud provider's resources are pooled and shared between multiple customers in a multi-tenant fashion, and can be dynamically allocated to suit changing demands. As much as possible, the customer doesn't even need to know where the resources are hosted, they just work wherever they are. Answer D is incorrect. Measured service is a cloud computing feature that refers to the cloud provider's ability to monitor and meter the customer's use of resources.

Which of the following protocols is considered stateless and uses TCP when communicating between a server and a client? A. HTTP B. POP3 C. Telnet D. FTP

Answer A is correct. The Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) is considered stateless and uses the Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) when communicating between a server and a client. It is a network protocol that works on the Application layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) and TCP/IP models and enables clients to connect to and retrieve web pages from a server to interact with websites. A stateless protocol does not require the server to retain session information or status about each communicating partner for multiple requests. Answer C is incorrect. Telnet is a stateful protocol. It is an application protocol that allows logging into remote systems via a virtual text terminal interface. A stateful protocol requires keeping the internal state on the server. Answer D is incorrect. The File Transfer Protocol (FTP) is also a stateful protocol. It is used to send and receive files between a client and a server. Answer B is incorrect. The Post Office Protocol version 3 (POP3) is a protocol used for retrieving email from a mailbox on the mail server and is a stateful protocol.

A user is notified of file system errors on an external hard drive. Which of the following tools can be used to repair common errors on the drive? A. chkdsk B. diskpart C. tasklist D. taskkill

Answer A is correct. The chkdsk command is used to verify the logical integrity of a file system. With the /f switch, chkdsk can repair the file system data. Enter chkdsk "drive letter" /f in the Run dialog box or at the command line. With the /r switch, chkdsk can locate bad sectors on the disk and recover any readable information. Entering chkdsk /? displays a list of all available switches. Answer B is incorrect. The diskpart command is used to manage computer drives including disks, partitions, volumes, and virtual hard disks. Answer D is incorrect. The taskkill command is used to end a task or process identified by PID or image name. Answer C is incorrect. The tasklist command is used to create a list of applications and services currently running on the local computer (or a specified remote computer).

Which of the following cables contains a center conductor made of copper surrounded by a plastic jacket with a braided shield over it? A. Coaxial B. Crossover C. Fiber-optic D. Twisted-pair

Answer A is correct. The coaxial cable contains a center conductor made of copper surrounded by a plastic jacket with a braided shield over it. It includes one physical channel that carries the signal surrounded (after a layer of insulation) by another concentric physical channel, both running along the same axis. Answer B is incorrect. The crossover cable has eight wires inside the cable shield and two RJ-45 connectors at each end. In the crossover cable, two sets of wires are crossed over. Answer C is incorrect. The fiber-optic cable transmits digital signals using light impulses rather than electricity. It is immune to Electromagnetic Interference (EMI) and Radio Frequency Interference (RFI). This cable allows light impulses to be carried on either a glass or a plastic core. Glass can carry the signal to a greater distance, but plastic costs less. Answer D is incorrect. The twisted-pair cable consists of multiple individually insulated wires twisted together in pairs. Sometimes a metallic shield is placed around them; hence, it is called Shielded Twisted-Pair (STP). A cable without outer shielding is called unshielded twisted-pair (UTP).

Which of the following separates the personal computing environment from a user's physical computer? A. VDI B. SMTP C. RADIUS D. VoIP

Answer A is correct. Virtual desktop infrastructure (VDI) is a virtualization implementation that separates the personal computing environment from a user's physical computer. It uses virtualization to do this separation. In VDI, a desktop operating system and applications are run inside the VMs that are hosted on servers in the virtualization infrastructure. Answer C is incorrect. Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service (RADIUS) enables a server to provide standardized and centralized authentication for remote users. Answer B is incorrect. The Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) is a communication protocol that enables sending email from a client to a server or between servers. Answer D is incorrect. Voice over IP (VoIP) is a voice over data implementation in which voice signals are transmitted over IP networks.

Which of the following technologies is the most secure form of wireless encryption? A. WPA B. TLS C. SSL D. WEP

Answer A is correct. WiFi Protected Access (WPA) is a security protocol introduced to address some of the shortcomings in WEP. It provides for dynamic reassignment of keys to prevent the key attack vulnerabilities of WEP. WPA provides improved data encryption through the Temporal Key Integrity Protocol (TKIP), which is a security protocol created by the IEEE 802.11i task group to replace WEP. WPA is a Wi-Fi encryption standard. Answer D is incorrect. Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) is also a Wi-Fi encryption standard. It is a protocol that provides 64-bit, 128-bit, and 256-bit encryption using the Rivest Cipher 4 (RC4) algorithm for wireless communication. It had some serious security flaws due to which it was removed from the Wi-Fi standard in 2004. Answer C is incorrect. Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) is a security protocol that combines digital certificates for authentication with public key data encryption. It is a protocol for establishing authenticated and encrypted links between networked computers. Answer B is incorrect. Transport Layer Security (TLS) is a security protocol that protects sensitive communication from eavesdropping and tampering by using a secure, encrypted, and authenticated channel over a TCP/IP connection. It also establishes authenticated and encrypted links between networked computers.

Which of the following servers manages a record of all the IP addresses allocated to network nodes? A. Application B. DHCP C. Database D. Web

Answer B is correct. A Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server manages a record of all the IP addresses it allocates to network nodes. If a node is relocated in the network, the server identifies it using its MAC address that prevents accidentally configuring multiple devices with the same IP address. A DHCP server provides IP addressing information for network computers. This information includes IP addresses, subnet masks, default gateways, and DNS server addresses. Answer D is incorrect. A web server provides access to personal, corporate, or education website content. Answer A is incorrect. An application server provides access to shared applications, including data warehousing, data processing, and other applications shared among multiple users. Answer C is incorrect. A database server provides access to databases, including those for customer information, provided by database software such as Oracle or SQL Server.

Which of the following devices can be used to merge traffic between two different network topologies? A. Modem B. Bridge C. Access point D. Switch

Answer B is correct. A bridge can be used to merge traffic between two different network topologies. It is a bit like a repeater, except instead of blindly regenerating signals and passing them on, it actively works to prevent collisions by making sure not to send data to a segment that's already busy. The simplest sort of bridge even conveys all traffic that reaches it like a repeater does: it's just that it manages collisions by storing the frame it receives from one side, and waiting for the network to be clear before sending it on the others. That way, if a node on side A and a node on side B transmit at once, they don't collide; instead, the bridge stores both frames then transmits each to the opposite side. Answer D is incorrect. A switch is a network hardware device that joins multiple computers together within the same local area network (LAN). Unlike a hub, switches forward data only to the intended destination. Because of this functionality, they are slightly "smarter" than hubs, and are more common. Switches can also be connected to other switches, thus increasing the number of devices on a LAN without sacrificing performance. Troubleshooting a switch is easier because of the status indicator lights on the individual ports. Answer A is incorrect. A modem is a device that modulates and demodulates digital data to an analog signal that can be sent over a telephone line. Its name is a combination of modulate and demodulate. You can use a modem to connect to the Internet and to translate digital information to and from your computer. Answer C is incorrect. An access point (AP) is a device or software that facilitates communication and provides enhanced security to wireless devices. It also extends the physical range of a WLAN. The AP functions as a bridge between wireless STAs (stations) and the existing network backbone for network access.

Which of the following provides protection against network eavesdropping and signal interference and works at the physical layer of the OSI model? A. Switch B. Fiber optic cable C. IPSec D. Router

Answer B is correct. A fiber optic cable provides protection against network eavesdropping and signal interference and works at the physical layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model. Fiber cabling eliminates the tapping of electrical signals that is possible in the case of twisted pair and coaxial cables. Tapping fiber cable without service interruption and specially constructed equipment is impossible, which makes stealing service or eavesdropping on traffic significantly more difficult. Answers D and C are incorrect because the router and IPSec work at the network layer of the OSI model. Answer A is incorrect because the switch works at the data link layer of the OSI model.

A company offers several out-of-the-box computer configurations to its clients. A client requests several new computers for its newest location, which will be used by guests to check-in upon arrival and fill out contact information. Which of the following configurations would best fit this customer's needs? A. Virtualization workstation B. Touch-screen kiosk C. CAD workstation D. A/V editing workstation

Answer B is correct. According to the given scenario, a touch-screen kiosk would best meet the customer's needs. A touch-screen kiosk is a computer terminal featuring specialized hardware and software that provides access to information and applications for communication, commerce, entertainment, or education. Integration of technology allows kiosks to perform a wide range of functions, evolving into self-service kiosks. For example, kiosks may enable users to order from a shop's catalog when items are not in stock, check out a library book, look up information about products, issue a hotel key card, enter a public utility bill account number in order to perform an online transaction, or collect cash in exchange for merchandise. Answer D is incorrect. An audio/video (A/V) editing workstation is a powerful computer setup that supports the editing of audio and video recordings. These computers must be able to support the demanding editing programs that audio/video technicians use in post-production editing functions. Answer A is incorrect. A virtualization workstation is a computer that uses both hardware virtualization and client virtualization resources to provide a comprehensive virtual environment for users. Answer C is incorrect. A computer-aided design (CAD) workstation requires both hardware and software on a system to meet certain requirements to produce complex 3D designs.

Which of the following requires both hardware and software on a system to meet certain requirements to produce complex 3D designs? A. Audio/Video editing workstation BCAD workstation C .Gaming PC D. Home theater PC

Answer B is correct. Computer-aided design (CAD) workstations are unique in that they require both hardware and software on a system to meet certain requirements to produce complex 3D designs. CAD workstations require a high-end graphics card and monitor, and specialized input devices such as a digitizing tablet and light pen. Industries that use CAD created design specifications include automotive companies, aerospace, and architectural firms. Answer C is incorrect. A gaming PC is a computer equipped with powerful graphics capabilities, fast processing capabilities, and a large amount of memory. The main difference between a gaming PC and other consumer workstations is that it is specifically designed and built to support the demanding computing requirements of gaming software applications. Answer A is incorrect. An audio/video editing workstation is a powerful computer setup that supports the editing of audio and video recordings. These computers must be able to support the demanding editing programs that audio/video technicians use in post-production editing functions. Answer D is incorrect. A home theater PC (HTPC) is a computer system dedicated and configured to store and stream digital movies, either from the local hard drive or through an online subscription.

Which of the following Internet connection types transports high-bandwidth data over a simple telephone line? A. Broadband cable B. DSL C. Fiber-optic D. Satellite Internet

Answer B is correct. Digital subscriber line (DSL) is a technology that transports high-bandwidth data over a simple telephone line. It has become a popular way to connect small businesses and households to the Internet because it is affordable and provides a relatively high download speed. However, distance from the phone company's switching station and the quality of the lines affect the total bandwidth available to a customer. Answer C is incorrect. Fiber-optic is a method used to connect devices to the Internet using the fiber optic cable. Fiber-optic is mostly used in smaller areas to connect computing devices to a router. It provides a fast data exchange rate over distances of several kilometers. Answer A is incorrect. The broadband cable is a technology that carries data over cable television lines. Answer D is incorrect. Satellite Internet provides Internet access via direct connection to a communications satellite.

While installing Hyper-V, you receive an error that software is unable to install. Which of the following configuration options will you check? A. Throttling B. Virtualization support C. System configuration D. Hyper-threading

Answer B is correct. If the CPU supports virtualization, you can use the system firmware setup utility to enable or disable the various virtualization settings available. Virtualization support within the system firmware is dependent on the original equipment manufacturer (OEM) model. Hyper-V is Windows-based virtualization software that can create virtual machines on x86 and x64 systems running Windows. Linux-based virtualization typically uses either Xen or Kernel-based Virtual Machine (KVM). Answer C is incorrect. System configuration is a term in systems engineering that defines the computer hardware, the processes as well as the various devices that comprise the entire system and its boundaries. This term also refers to the settings or the hardware-software arrangement and how each device and software or process interact with each other based on a system settings file created automatically by the system or defined by the user. Answer A is incorrect. Throttling is used to adjust CPU speed. A CPU throttle is typically used to slow down the machine during idle times to conserve the battery or to keep the system running at a lower performance level when hardware problems have been encountered. Answer D is incorrect. Hyper-threading is a form of microprocessor parallelization where each physical processor is treated as two virtual processors. It is a feature of certain Intel chips that makes one physical CPU appear as two logical CPUs.

Maria, a network administrator, wants to block the availability of nonwork-type websites. Which type of server should she use for this purpose? A. DHCP server B. Proxy server C. DNS server D. Authentication server

Answer B is correct. Maria should use a proxy server to block the availability of nonwork-type websites. A proxy server can be used to deny access to certain websites as configured by an administrator. A proxy server is a computer that acts on behalf of several client PCs requesting content from the Internet or intranet. It acts as a security barrier or firewall between the local network and the Internet so that external users on the Internet cannot access the internal network. A proxy server provides security by restricting inbound as well as outbound connections. URL filtering is one of the functions of a proxy server where it is used to block users from accessing social networking sites during working hours. Answer D is incorrect. An authentication server examines the credentials of anyone trying to access the network, and it determines if network access is granted. Answer C is incorrect. A Domain Name System (DNS) server provides name resolution services for users accessing Internet resources. Answer A is incorrect. A Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server dynamically assigns IP address information, such as, IP address, subnet mask, DNS server's IP address, and default gateway's IP address, to network devices.

Which cloud computing feature enables the cloud services provider to service multiple customers to suit each customer's needs? A. On-demand self-service B. Resource pooling C. Measured service D. Rapid elasticity

Answer B is correct. Resource pooling is a cloud computing feature that enables the cloud services provider to service multiple customers to suit each customer's needs without any changes made to one customer affecting any of the other customers. It is used in cloud computing environments to describe a situation in which providers serve multiple clients with provisional and scalable services. In resource pooling, the cloud provider's resources are pooled and shared between multiple customers in a multi-tenant fashion, and can be dynamically allocated to suit changing demands. As much as possible, the customer doesn't even need to know where the resources are hosted, they just work wherever they are. Answer D is incorrect. Rapid elasticity is a cloud computing feature through which users can request additional space, and the provider allocates additional resources seamlessly to the end user. Answer A is incorrect. On-demand self-service is a cloud computing feature through which users can access additional storage, processing, and capabilities automatically, without requiring intervention from the service provider. Answer C is incorrect. Measured service is a cloud computing feature that refers to the cloud provider's ability to monitor and meter the customer's use of resources.

What is the default subnet mask for IP address 196.132.74.10? A. 255.255.0.0 B. 255.255.255.0 C. 127.0.0.1 D. 255.0.0.0

Answer B is correct. The first octet of the IP address 196.132.74.10 falls in the 192 to 223 range. Therefore, the IP address is a class C address. The default subnet mask for class C addresses is 255.255.255.0.The following table shows the range of the first octet of an IP address for the network classes: *Network Class @First Octet Range $Used For *Class A @1 to 126 $Unicast *Class B @128 to 191 $Unicast *Class C @192 to 223 $Unicast *Class D @224 to 239Multicast *Class E @240 to 254 $Experimental Answers D and A are incorrect because the default subnet masks for class A and class B addresses are 255.0.0.0 and 255.255.0.0, respectively. Answer C is incorrect. The IP address 127.0.0.1 is known as the loopback address for a computer. This address is used with the ping command to test TCP/IP on a computer. It uses a loopback driver to reroute the outgoing packets back to the source computer.

A host with an IP address of 15.0.0.126/25, in the subnet 15.0.0.0, needs to transfer data to a host with an IP address of 15.0.0.129/25, in the subnet 15.0.0.128. Which of the following devices will be required for this purpose? A. Firewall B. Router C. Hub D. Switch

Answer B is correct. The host 15.0.0.126/25 is in the 15.0.0.0 subnet and host 15.0.0.129/25 is in the 15.0.0.128 subnet. Therefore, a router (or a Layer 3 switch) is required for these hosts to communicate with each other as they are in different subnets. Answer A is incorrect because a firewall is a device that defines a set of rules to dictate which types of traffic are permitted or denied as that traffic enters or exits a firewall interface. Answers C and D are incorrect because a hub and a switch do not allow communication between different subnets.

Which of the following devices should a network administrator configure on the outermost part of a network? A. Hub B. Firewall C. Switch D. Access point

Answer B is correct. The network administrator should configure the firewall on the outermost part of the network. A firewall is a software program or hardware device that protects networks from unauthorized data by blocking unsolicited traffic. Firewalls allow incoming or outgoing traffic that has specifically been permitted by a system administrator and incoming traffic that is sent in response to requests from internal systems. Answer D is incorrect. An access point (AP) is a device or software that facilitates communication and provides enhanced security to wireless devices. Answer C is incorrect. A switch is a network hardware device that joins multiple computers together within the same local area network (LAN). Unlike a hub, switches forward data only to the intended destination. Answer A is incorrect. A hub, or multiport repeater, is a networking device used to connect the nodes in a physical star topology network into a logical bus topology. A hub contains multiple ports that you can connect devices to. When data from the transmitting device arrives at a port, it is copied and transmitted to all other ports so that all other nodes receive the data.

A user reports slow computer performance in his PC, which has RAID configuration, to a technician. The technician uses the manufacturer's diagnostic software, and the computer passes all tests. The technician then uses a defragmentation tool and hears clicking noises. Which of the following should the technician identify and replace? A. RAID B. HDD C. SSD D. NTFS

Answer B is correct. The technician should identify and replace the HDD. A hard disk drive (HDD) is a storage device that contains one or more round platters, which are coated with several layers of various materials. One of those layers can be magnetized or demagnetized to store binary data. Magnetized indicates the binary number 1, demagnetized indicates the binary number 0. Each piece of binary data is a bit. The platters are mounted on a drive spindle and rotate (spin on the spindle) in unison. Read/write heads are positioned over the top and bottom of each platter. As the platters spin, an actuator moves the read/write heads across the patters. The faster the platters spin, the quicker data passes under the read/write heads. The clicking sound arises from the unexpected movement of the disk's read/write actuator. If the head fails to move as expected or upon moving cannot track the disk surface correctly, the disk controller may attempt to recover from the error by returning the head to its home position and then retrying, at times causing an audible "click" sound. Answer D is incorrect. New Technology File System (NTFS) is a proprietary file system developed by Microsoft and was started with Windows NT 3.1 and many others, such as Windows 2000, including Windows XP, Windows Server 2003, Windows 7, Windows 8. It provides many features including security descriptors, encryption, disk quotas, and rich metadata, and can be used with Cluster Shared Volumes (CSV) to provide continuously available volumes that can be accessed simultaneously from multiple nodes of a failover cluster. Answer A is incorrect. A redundant array of independent disks (RAID) is a data storage technology where you combine multiple hard drives into a single logical unit to add fault tolerance (also referred to as data redundancy) and improve performance. With RAID, two or more hard drives are configured into an array. Answer C is incorrect. A solid-state drive (SSD) contains no moving parts and tends to be more reliable than magnetic drives like a hard disk drive (HDD). Solid-state drives are extremely fast since these devices have no moving parts, eliminating seek time, latency, and other electromechanical delays inherent in conventional disk drives.

Which type of cable is most often used to connect two devices of the same type, such as two computers or two switches to each other? A. Coaxial B. Straight-through C. Crossover D. Fiber optic

Answer C is correct. A crossover cable is most often used to connect two devices of the same type, such as two computers or two switches to each other. Use crossover cables for the following cabling: Switch to switch Switch to hub Hub to hub Router to router PC to PC Answer B is incorrect. A straight-through cable is used for the following cabling: Switch to router Switch to PC or server Hub to PC or server Answer D is incorrect. A fiber optic cable is a long-distance network telecommunications cable made from strands of glass fibers that uses pulses of light to transfer data. Answer A is incorrect. A coaxial cable is primarily used by cable TV companies to connect their satellite antenna facilities to customer homes and businesses.

Replacement of which of the following components on a laptop will typically require reinstallation of the OS? A. Video board B. Sound card C. Hard disk drive D. CMOS battery

Answer C is correct. A hard disk drive (HDD) is an electromechanical data storage device that uses magnetic storage to store and retrieve digital information using one or more rigid rapidly rotating disks (platters) coated with magnetic material. HDDs are a type of non-volatile storage, retaining stored data even when powered off. If the HDD has been replaced then the laptop will typically require reinstallation of the OS. Answer A is incorrect. A video board, also known as a display adapter or video adapter, is an integrated circuit card in a computer or, in some cases, a monitor that provides a digital-to-analog converter, video RAM, and a video controller so that data can be sent to a computer's display. Replacing a video converter does not require reinstallation of the OS. Answer D is incorrect. The Complementary Metal Oxide Semiconductor (CMOS) battery is a small battery, typically a lithium coin cell, that provides continuous power to the computer's real-time clock and maintains the system BIOS settings. CMOS batteries can last from two to ten years before you need to replace them. A failing CMOS battery will cause incorrect system dates or loss of BIOS settings when the computer is powered off. Answer B is incorrect. A sound card or audio card provides the interface necessary for the input of audio signals to, and output from, the computer. Replacing a sound card does not require reinstallation of the OS.

Which of the following does a home theatre PC uses to provide authentication and encryption services to connect with the set-top box? A. An HDMI port B. A TV tuner card C. A cable card D. A video card

Answer C is correct. A home theater PC (HTPC) is a computer system dedicated and configured to store and stream digital movies, either from the local hard drive or through an online subscription such as Netflix. It uses a cable card to provide authentication and encryption services to connect with the cable set-top box provided by the cable company. Answer B is incorrect. A TV tuner card allows the home theater PC to display high-definition (HD) digital output and attach the cable provider's cable TV wire directly to the system. Answer D is incorrect. A video card is an expansion card that generates a feed of output images to a display device (such as a computer monitor). In a home theater PC, generally, a video card with both GPU and HD capabilities are used. Answer A is incorrect. An HDMI port gives HDMI output for high-definition video and audio.

Which of the following would allow for multiple computers to share display and input devices? A. Switch B. Firewall C. KVM switch D. WAP

Answer C is correct. A keyboard, video, mouse (KVM) switch is a device that enables a computer user to control multiple computers with a single keyboard and mouse, with the display sent to a single monitor. This feature is particularly useful in managing multiple test environments, or in accessing multiple servers that have no need for dedicated display or input devices. KVM switches are available with PS/2 or USB connections, and come in desktop, inline, or rack-mount varieties. Higher-end rack-mount models can be uplinked to connect dozens of computers. Answer A is incorrect. A switch is a network hardware device that joins multiple computers together within the same LAN. Unlike a hub, switches forward data only to the intended destination. Answer B is incorrect. A firewall is a software program or hardware device that protects networks from unauthorized data by blocking unsolicited traffic. Answer D is incorrect. A wireless access point (WAP) is a device that provides a connection between wireless devices and enables wireless networks to connect to wired networks.

What monitors network traffic and restricts or alerts when unacceptable traffic is seen in the system? A. HIDS B. Reliability Monitor C. NIDS D. Performance Monitor

Answer C is correct. A network intrusion detection system (NIDS) is a network-based IDS that monitors network traffic and restricts or alerts when unacceptable traffic is seen in the system. A network-based IDS primarily uses passive hardware sensors to monitor traffic on a specific segment of the network. Answer A is incorrect. A host-based intrusion detection system (HIDS) is an IDS capability installed on a workstation or server to protect that device. Answer D is incorrect. Performance Monitor is used to monitor computer performance in real-time (in one-second intervals), or in the form of saved reports of real-time data. Answer B is incorrect. Reliability Monitor shows detailed information regarding events that affect system reliability.

Which of the following memory modules is used if it is labeled 1333 using the standard name? A. SIMM B. DDR SDRAM C. DDR3 D. RIMM

Answer C is correct. Double Data Rate (DDR3) is a type of SDRAM that is used for system memory. It is available in both DIMM and SO-DIMM form factors. DDR3 transfers the data at twice the rate of DDR2 and uses 30 percent less power in the process. Like DDR2, DDR3 chips use 240-pin connections but cannot be used interchangeably because of differences in notch location and electrical requirements. The variants of the DDR3 memory module include DDR3-800, DDR3-1066, DDR3-1333, and DDR3-1600. Answer A is incorrect. Single Inline Memory Module (SIMM) is a 32-bit module that has memory chips on one side of the package. SIMMs are only used on very old computers, and frequently must be installed in matched pairs. Answer B is incorrect. Double Data Rate Synchronous DRAM (DDR SDRAM) transfers data twice per clock cycle, which means it processes data on the rising side and falling side of the system clock. It is a replacement for SDRAM. DDR uses additional power and ground lines and is packaged on a 184-pin DIMM module. Answer D is incorrect. Rambus Inline Memory Module (RIMM) is a memory module that has a metal cover that acts as a heat sink. It is a trademarked term for memory modules used by Rambus memory. RIMM modules are 64-bit modules much like DIMMs, but slightly smaller. You'll only find them on older computers that use Rambus technology.

A user is having trouble moving and opening icons with a finger on a tablet. A technician has checked the preferences and configured the speed and sensitivity, however, the problem remains. Which of the following actions should the technician advise the user to take? A. Connect a wireless mouse. B. Reset the tablet. C. Clean the screen. D. Replace the digitizer.

Answer C is correct. If your touch screen is not responsive or is not responding as expected, there are several steps you should take to resolve the issue: *Clean the screen with a soft, lint-free cloth using gentle pressure. *Restart the computer or device using a cold boot. *Recalibrate the touch screen. *Check for and install any touch screen driver updates. *Check for electromagnetic interference by trying the touch screen in other locations.

A company has subscribed to a cloud service, paying monthly for a block of services and being billed incrementally when they exceed the monthly fee, after seeking permission from the service provider. Which of the following cloud concepts does this represent? A. Resource pooling B. Rapid elasticity C. Measured service D. On-demand

Answer C is correct. Measured service is a cloud computing feature that refers to the cloud provider's ability to monitor and meter the customer's use of resources. This service supports the customer's ability to dynamically make changes to the resources they receive. Based on the metered and measured information, the provider knows what resources the customer has used and can then bill for those resources during the next billing cycle. Answer A is incorrect. In resource pooling, the cloud provider's resources are pooled and shared between multiple customers in a multi-tenant fashion, and can be dynamically allocated to suit changing demands. As much as possible, the customer doesn't even need to know where the resources are hosted, they just work wherever they are. Answer D is incorrect. On-demand self-service is a cloud computing feature through which users can access additional storage, processing, and capabilities automatically, without requiring intervention from the service provider. Answer B is incorrect. Rapid elasticity is a cloud computing feature through which users can request additional resources, and the provider allocates additional resources seamlessly to the end-user. This allocation can often be done dynamically without any need for the user to contact the hosting provider.

Which of the following is used for parallel applications? A. VGA B. Thunderbolt C. DB-25 D. RCA

Answer C is correct. The DB-25 connector is used for parallel, small computer system interface (SCSI), or RS-232 serial applications. In parallel applications, DB-25 connectors are known as IEEE-1284 Type A connectors. The DB-25 is part of the D-subminiature (D-Sub) connector plug and socket family for computer and communication devices. Answer A is incorrect. Video Graphics Array (VGA) is an older standard used to connect a display device to your computer. VGA and its associated evolutionary standards, such as Super Video Graphics Array (SVGA), are analog standards. Answer D is incorrect. RCA connector is used to carry audio and video transmissions to and from a variety of devices such as TVs, digital cameras, and gaming systems. Its name is derived from Radio Corporation of America (RCA) that introduced the design in the 1930s. Answer B is incorrect. Thunderbolt is a standard interface developed by Intel in collaboration with Apple that allows the connection of external peripherals to an Apple computer.

Which port needs to be opened on the firewall for DNS? A. 443 B. 22 C. 53 D. 23

Answer C is correct. The Domain Name System (DNS) is the primary name resolution service on the Internet and private IP networks. It uses port 53 as the default port. Answer A is incorrect. Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure (HTTPS) is used for secure web pages and sites which includes encryption services. It uses port 443 as the default port. Answer D is incorrect. Telnet is used to log into remote systems via a virtual text terminal interface. It uses port 23 as the default port. Answer B is incorrect. Secure Shell (SSH) is used to enable a user or application to log on to another computer over a network, execute commands, and manage files. It uses port 22 as the default port.

According to the TCP/IP model, at which of the following layers is the routing of packets across multiple logical networks controlled? A. Network Interface B. Transport C. Internet D. Application

Answer C is correct. The Internet Layer controls the routing of packets across multiple logical networks. It is the next layer up from the Link layer and is associated with the Network layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model. Functions include traffic routing, traffic control, fragmentation, and logical addressing. The protocols at this layer include the Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP), the Internet Group Management Protocol (IGMP), and the Internet Protocol (IP). Answer A is incorrect. The Network Interface Layer, also known as the Network Access Layer or Link Layer, defines how nodes communicate on a local network and adapter level. It combines the Physical and Data Link layer functions into a single layer. Answer B is incorrect. The Transport Layer manages end-to-end communication between hosts, and breaks application data up into the segments or datagrams sent over the network. It is the next layer and is typically related directly to the same-named layer in the OSI model. Answer D is incorrect. The Application Layer allows user-level applications to access the other layers. It doesn't correspond directly to user applications, but instead to the protocols, those applications use to communicate to the network.

A technician is repairing a workstation that has a power light, but is not displaying anything on the screen and is not making any sounds during boot up. Which of the following should be used to further troubleshoot the workstation? A. FireWire card B. Loopback plug C. POST card D. Wireless tester

Answer C is correct. The technician should use a POST card to further troubleshoot the workstation. A POST card is a card that can be plugged directly into the motherboard in an available expansion card slot, or connected to an available USB port, that can read and display any error codes that get generated during the Power On Self Test (POST) process of a computer. This tool can be extremely useful for determining why a computer will not boot up. The specific error codes will differ depending on the basic input/output system (BIOS) version and the specific manufacturer. You may need to refer to the manufacturer for an updated error code list before you start using the card in the computer. Answer D is incorrect. A wireless tester, wireless locator, or Wi-Fi analyzer, is a Wi-Fi spectrum analyzer used to detect devices and points of interference, as well as analyze and troubleshoot network issues on a WLAN or other wireless networks. Like network analyzers, wireless testers give an overview of the health of a WLAN in one central location, enabling technicians to troubleshoot problems efficiently. Answer B is incorrect. A loopback plug is any tool that causes the device to transmit a signal back to itself. It is typically used for diagnosing transmission problems that redirect electrical signals back to the transmitting system. Answer A is incorrect. A FireWire card provides the interface necessary for the computer to recognize and interact with all devices that connect to the computer via a FireWire connection.

A client's computer is not connecting to a website. Which of the following commands will allow the technician to view the route/number of hops between the host and remote systems to troubleshoot the issue in the given scenario? A. netstat B. nslookup C. tracert D. ping

Answer C is correct. The tracert (Windows) and traceroute (Mac OS X, Linux) commands show the route that a packet takes to get to its destination. At the command prompt, type tracert or traceroute followed by a space and an IP address or URL. The output describes the route from the customer's machine to the destination machine, including all devices the packet passes through and how long each hop between devices takes. Answer B is incorrect. The nslookup command is used for diagnosing and troubleshooting domain name system (DNS) problems. It performs its function by sending queries to the DNS server and obtaining detailed responses at the command prompt. Answer D is incorrect. The ping command transmits a datagram to another host. If network connectivity works properly, the receiving host sends the datagram back. Answer A is incorrect. The netstat command shows the status of each active network connection. It displays statistics for both the Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) and the User Datagram Protocol (UDP), including the protocol, local address, foreign address, and the TCP connection state.

Which of the following connection types can be used simultaneously for video, storage, and audio? A. DVI B. RCA C. Thunderbolt D. SPDIF

Answer C is correct. Thunderbolt is a standard interface developed by Intel in collaboration with Apple that allows the connection of external peripherals to an Apple computer. Thunderbolt connection is a high-speed I/O technology interface that consists of a host controller that joins together PCI-Express data and/or DisplayPort video. Thunderbolt connection can support up to six peripheral devices, including full 4K video displays, audio, external graphics, and storage devices. It is capable of delivering up to 100 watts of power, so a single cable can be used to connect to a dock or display and charge your MacBook Pro or MacBook Air simultaneously. Answer A is incorrect. Digital Visual Interface (DVI) is a video display interface used to connect a display device to your computer. It is a video standard for transferring both analog and digital video signals. Answer D is incorrect. Sony Phillips Digital Interconnect Format (SPDIF) is a digital format signal used to connect audio devices to output audio signals over a short distance. Answer B is incorrect. RCA connector is used to carry audio and video transmissions to and from a variety of devices such as TVs, digital cameras, and gaming systems. Its name is derived from Radio Corporation of America (RCA) that introduced the design in the 1930s.

Which process is used by receivers in a GPS system to calculate the distance between themselves and the satellites to determine their location? A. Tracking B. Navigation C. Triangulation D. Parallax

Answer C is correct. Triangulation is a process used by receivers to calculate the distance between themselves and the satellites (based on the time it takes to receive a signal) to determine their location. They require input from four or three satellites to provide location and elevation. Answer A is incorrect. Global Positioning System (GPS) Tracking is used to track the location of an entity or object remotely through the use of the GPS. The technology can pinpoint the longitude, latitude, ground speed, and course direction of the target. Answer B is incorrect. Navigation is a process that involves the determination of position and direction. It allows you to get your current location and directions to where you want to go. Answer D is incorrect. Parallax is a process to measure distances to the closer stars. It is a displacement in the apparent position of an object viewed along two different lines of sight and is measured by the angle or semi-angle of inclination between those two lines.

You are setting up a printer in a training room. The trainer needs to be able to print multiple copies of the training documentation, which has many pages, for the classes. Which of the following should you configure on the printer to facilitate this? A. Quality B. Orientation C. Collate D. Duplex

Answer C is correct. You should choose the collate option. If collate is enabled the printer will print a complete copy of the document before the first page of the next copy is printed, and if collate is disabled the printer will print each page by the number of copies specified before printing the next page. If you are printing multiple copies of a file, the collate feature keeps all of the pages for each copy together. This prevents the user from needing to manually sort through the stack of output pages and assembling each copy by hand. Answer D is incorrect. Duplex is a printer configuration option that enables the user to automatically print on both sides of a page. Answer B is incorrect. Orientation is a printer configuration option that allows users to specify whether the document will be printed in a landscape or portrait orientation. Answer A is incorrect. Quality is a printer configuration option that enables users to specify whether they want to print draft, normal, or high-quality output.

A network engineer wants to segment the network into multiple broadcast domains. Which of the following devices can he use? A. Repeater B. Hub C. Bridge D. Layer 3 switch

Answer D is correct. A Layer 3 switch is a specialized hardware device used in network routing and allows to segment the network into multiple broadcast domains. It combines the functionality of a switch and a router. It acts as a switch to connect devices that are on the same subnet or virtual local area network (LAN) at lightning speeds and has IP routing intelligence built into it to double up as a router. It can support routing protocols, inspect incoming packets, and can even make routing decisions based on the source and destination addresses. Answer B is incorrect. A hub, or multiport repeater, is a networking device used to connect the nodes in a physical star topology network into a logical bus topology. A hub contains multiple ports that you can connect devices to. When data from the transmitting device arrives at a port, it is copied and transmitted to all other ports so that all other nodes receive the data. However, only the specified destination node reads and processes the data while all other nodes ignore it. Answer C is incorrect. A bridge is a bit like a repeater, except instead of blindly regenerating signals and passing them on, it actively works to prevent collisions by making sure not to send data to a segment that's already busy. The simplest sort of bridge even conveys all traffic that reaches it like a repeater does: it's just that it manages collisions by storing the frame it receives from one side, and waiting for the network to be clear before sending it on the others. That way, if a node on side A and a node on side B transmit at once, they don't collide; instead, the bridge stores both frames, then transmits each to the opposite side. Answer A is incorrect. A repeater, sometimes referred to as a signal extender, is a device that regenerates a signal to improve signal strength over transmission distances. By using repeaters, you can exceed the normal limitations on segment lengths imposed by various networking technologies.

Which of the following devices transmits data to all ports regardless of the final destination? A. Switch B. Firewall C. Router D. Hub

Answer D is correct. A hub, or multiport repeater, is a networking device used to connect the nodes in a physical star topology network into a logical bus topology. A hub contains multiple ports that you can connect devices to. When data from the transmitting device arrives at a port, it is copied and transmitted to all other ports so that all other nodes receive the data. However, only the specified destination node reads and processes the data while all other nodes ignore it. Answer B is incorrect. A firewall is a software program or hardware device that protects networks from unauthorized data by blocking unsolicited traffic. Answer C is incorrect. A router is a networking device that connects multiple networks. It works a lot like a bridge or switch, but since it operates on the Internet layer it tracks logical addresses and subnets. Answer A is incorrect. A switch is a network hardware device that joins multiple computers together within the same local area network (LAN). Unlike a hub, switches forward data only to the intended destination.

Which of the following would be the most important factor to consider when building a virtualization workstation? A. Dual monitor support B. Compact form factor C. High-end graphics card with onboard memory D. Maximum RAM and CPU cores

Answer D is correct. A virtualization workstation is a computer that uses both hardware virtualization and client virtualization resources to provide a comprehensive virtual environment for users. Organizations may use virtualization workstations to reduce the use and cost of hardware and to provide employees with a wide variety of OS specific applications from a single workstation. Common virtualization workstation software are VMWare, Oracle's VirtualBox, and Microsoft's Hyper-V. There are few most important factors to consider when building a virtualization workstation, these are: *Maximum RAM the motherboard can support *Maximum central processing unit (CPU) cores *Fast network connection for server-side VM hosting Answer C is incorrect. High-end graphics card with onboard memory is considered with a gaming computer. Answer B is incorrect. Compact form factor motherboard is considered with a home theater computer (HTPC). Answer A is incorrect. Dual monitor support is considered with an audio/video editing workstation.

Joe, a user, reports to a technician that his inkjet printer is regularly feeding two sheets of paper for every page printed. Which of the following is the most likely cause? A. Empty or defective cartridge B. Clogged nozzle C. Low-quality refilled cartridge D. Worn feed roller

Answer D is correct. A worn feed roller is the possible symptom of the paper slips or when the printer begins to pick up 2 to 3 pages or more at once, and then jams. It occurs when feed rollers lose their grip. To resolve this issue, wheels either need to be cleaned with alcohol or replaced. Answer A is incorrect. The empty or defective cartridge is the possible symptom of poor print quality. Answer C is incorrect. Low-quality refilled cartridge is the possible symptom of feathering/ink bleed. Answer B is incorrect. A clogged nozzle is the possible symptom of no output, in other words, the paper passes through the printer but the printer leaves the page blank.

Which of the following is a small circuit board, attached to the display screen of a laptop, that converts DC power to AC power for the display? A. Digitizer B. NAS appliance C. Backlight D. Inverter

Answer D is correct. An inverter is used to convert DC power to AC power for the display. When an inverter fails, depending on the laptop model, it may be appropriate to simply replace the display rather than replace the inverter. Replacement of the inverter requires an exact match, both electrically and mechanically (connectors, size/shape, and mounting). Answer C is incorrect. A backlight is the typical form of illumination used in a full-sized LCD display. Answer A is incorrect. A digitizer is a device used to trace an analog source and turn it into a digital representation. Answer B is incorrect. A network-attached storage (NAS) appliance is a data storage device that can be connected to a network to provide direct data access and file sharing to multiple computing devices attached to the network.

Jennifer, a client, is searching for a cloud-based service in which the cloud provider manages all underlying infrastructure including updating the operating system. Which service would you recommend to her? A. NaaS B. IaaS C. CaaS D. PaaS

Answer D is correct. Jennifer should use Platform as a Service (PaaS). It is a cloud service model that offers computing hardware, storage, networking, and operating systems that can manage all underlying infrastructure and servers that are required to support her application. It adds features to IaaS that include OSs and software development tools such as runtime environments. In this model, the vendor (public cloud company) manages the various hardware platforms, freeing up the software developer to focus on building their application and scaling it. Answer A is incorrect. Network as a Service (NaaS) provides network-based services through the cloud, including monitoring and quality of service (QoS) management. Answer B is incorrect. Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) is a cloud computing service that enables a consumer to outsource computing equipment purchases and run their own data center. It is an arrangement in which, rather than purchasing equipment and running your own data center, you rent those resources as an outsourced service. The consumer does not manage or control the underlying cloud infrastructure but has control over operating systems, storage, and deployed applications. Examples of IaaS include Rackspace's Cloud Servers, Amazon's Elastic Compute Cloud (EC2) service, and Simple Storage Service (S3). Answer C is incorrect. Communications as a Service (CaaS) is an outsourced enterprise communications solution that can be leased from a single vendor. It includes hosted voice, video conferencing, instant messaging, e-mail, collaboration, and all other communication services that are hosted in the cloud.

James, a security analyst, is hardening an authentication server. One of the primary requirements is to ensure there is SSO on this server. Which of the following technologies should he configure to fulfill the requirement in the given scenario? A. Telnet B. LDAP C. SSH D. Kerberos

Answer D is correct. Kerberos is an authentication service that is based on a time-sensitive ticket-granting system. It was developed by the Massachusetts Institute of Technology (MIT) to use a single sign-on (SSO) method in which the user enters access credentials that are then passed to the authentication server. The authentication server contains an access list and permitted access credentials. Kerberos can be used to manage access control to several services by using one centralized authentication server. Answer B is incorrect. The Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) is a directory service protocol that defines how a client can access information, perform operations, and share directory data on a directory server. Answer C is incorrect. Secure Shell (SSH) is used to enable a user or an application to log on to another computer over a network, execute commands, and manage files. Answer A is incorrect. Telnet is a remote access protocol that allows a command line terminal interface with a remote system. Its features are very basic and it isn't very secure, so it's not nearly as popular as it once was.

Lucy, a technician, is working on a project to interconnect her company's private data center to a cloud company that offers public e-mail services and another company that can provide burstable compute capacity. What type of cloud delivery model is she creating? A. Community B. Private C. Public D. Hybrid

Answer D is correct. Lucy is creating a hybrid cloud which is a combination of two or more clouds that remain distinct but are bound together, offering the benefits of multiple deployment models. It uses a mix of on-premises, private cloud, and third-party public cloud services with orchestration between the two platforms. Answer B is incorrect. A private cloud is a cloud computing method where the cloud infrastructure is operated solely for a single organization. Answer C is incorrect. A public cloud is a cloud computing method that provides its services over a network that is open for public use. Answer A is incorrect. A community cloud is a cloud computing method where multiple organizations from a specific community with common interests share the cloud infrastructure.

Maria, a network administrator, is working in an organization. A device connected to the organization's network is having an IP address 120.168.1.1. She wants to verify that the device has a TCP/IP stack loaded. Which of the following addresses should she ping? A. 192.0.0.1 B. 128.0.0.1 C. 191.168.1.1 D. 127.0.0.1

Answer D is correct. Maria should ping the address 127.0.0.1. The address 127.0.0.1 is a reserved IP address corresponding to the host computer. It is also known as a loopback address. It is used whenever a program needs to access a network service running on the same computer as itself. This address, 127.0.0.1, is defined by the TCP/IP protocol as a reserved address that routes packets back to the host. A successful ping to this address concludes that the device is running a TCP/IP stack. Answers B, C, and A are incorrect. Though these are valid Class B and Class C IP addresses used on the network, but cannot be used to verify that the device has a TCP/IP stack loaded.

A cloud computing feature through which users can access additional storage, processing, and capabilities automatically, without requiring intervention from the service provider is known as: A. Resource pooling B. Rapid elasticity C. Measured service D. On-demand self-service

Answer D is correct. On-demand self-service is a cloud computing feature through which users can access additional storage, processing, and capabilities automatically, without requiring intervention from the service provider. It enables end users to request and access cloud resources as they are needed. This type of cloud service is useful for project-based needs, giving the project members access to the cloud services for the duration of the project, and then releasing the cloud services back to the hosting provider when the project is finished. This way, the organization is only paying for the services for the duration of the project. Answer B is incorrect. Rapid elasticity is a cloud computing feature through which users can request additional resources, and the provider allocates additional resources seamlessly to the end user. Answer A is incorrect. In resource pooling, the cloud provider's resources are pooled and shared between multiple customers in a multi-tenant fashion, and can be dynamically allocated to suit changing demands. As much as possible, the customer doesn't even need to know where the resources are hosted, they just work wherever they are. Answer C is incorrect. Measured service is a cloud computing feature that refers to the cloud provider's ability to monitor and meter the customer's use of resources.

Which of the following expansion slots uses a serial connection? A. AGP B. PCI-X C. PCI D. PCIe

Answer D is correct. PCI Express (PCIe) is a high-speed serial computer expansion bus standard, designed to replace the older PCI, PCI-X, and AGP bus standards. It is based on the concept of lanes. Lanes can be grouped to increase bandwidth. Each device uses two lanes, one to transmit and one to receive (full-duplex). PCIe slots come in various lengths and are used for high-speed I/O devices. Answer B is incorrect. Peripheral Component Interconnect Extended (PCI-X) is an evolution of the original PCI bus which you might find on high-end legacy computers. It is a 64-bit parallel interface that is backward compatible with 32-bit PCI devices. Answer A is incorrect. Accelerated Graphics Port (AGP) is used for connecting a video card to the computer. AGP is based on 64-bit PCI but provides a dedicated connection and features meant for video cards. Answer C is incorrect. Peripheral Component Interconnect (PCI) is a peripheral bus commonly used in PCs that provides a high-speed data path between the CPU and peripheral devices. It has a 32-bit parallel data path, a maximum speed of 33 MHz, operated at 133 MB/sec, and supplied 5 volts of power to the expansion card in the slot.

A technician wants to remotely and securely access the desktop of a Linux workstation. The desktop is running remote control software without encryption. Which of the following should the technician use to secure the connection? A. IPSec B. PPTP C. VDI D. SSH

Answer D is correct. Secure Shell (SSH) is a protocol that enables a user or an application to log on to another device over a network, execute commands, and manage files. It creates a shell or session with a remote system, offers strong authentication methods, and ensures that communications are secure over insecure channels. It operates at the Application layer (layer 7) of the OSI and the TCP/IP models. It uses port 22 and runs on TCP. Answer B is incorrect. The Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol (PPTP) is a Microsoft-developed protocol that allows a PC or network to access a remote network such as your cloud-based database. It implements a TCP control channel with a Generic Routing Encapsulation tunnel to encapsulate PPP packets. Answer C is incorrect. Virtual desktop infrastructure (VDI) is a virtualization implementation that separates the personal computing environment from a user's physical computer. It uses virtualization to provide this separation. Answer A is incorrect. Internet Protocol Security (IPSec) is a set of open, non-proprietary standards that you can use to secure data as it travels across the network or the Internet. IPSec uses different protocols and services to provide data authenticity and integrity, anti-replay protection, non-repudiation, and protection against eavesdropping and sniffing.

Which of the following is a security protocol that combines digital certificates for authentication with public key data encryption? A. IPSec B. ARP C. SSH D. SSL

Answer D is correct. Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) is a security protocol that combines digital certificates for authentication with public key data encryption. It is a cryptographic protocol that provides communication security over a computer network. Answer A is incorrect. Internet Protocol Security (IPSec) is a set of open and non-proprietary standards that you can use to secure data as it travels across the network or the Internet. Answer C is incorrect. Secure Shell (SSH) is a program that enables a user or an application to log on to another computer over a network, execute commands, and manage files. Answer B is incorrect. The Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) is a communication protocol that resolves IP addresses to MAC addresses.

Smith, a network administrator, is having an issue of loss in signal strength after a certain point in the company's local network infrastructure. There are more than two devices to which the same signal needs to be transmitted. Which of the following devices should the network administrator most likely use to resolve this problem? A. Bridge B. Repeater C. Switch D. Hub

Answer D is correct. Smith should use a hub to resolve the issue of losing signal strength. A hub is a hardware device that operates at the Physical layer (Layer 1) of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model to connect computers in a network. Hubs are very simple devices and possess no decision-making capability. They simply repeat and forward the data received on one port to all the other ports. For this reason, they are often known as a multiport repeater. Answer B is incorrect because there are more than two devices that need amplified signals. The repeater would have been the best choice if only two devices were present. Answer C is incorrect because a switch operates at the Data Link layer (Layer 2) of the OSI model and joins multiple computers together within the same local area network (LAN). However, unlike a hub, a switch forwards data only to the intended destination. It examines the Layer 2 header of the incoming packet and forwards it properly to the right port and only that port. Answer A is incorrect because a bridge is an interconnectivity device that connects two local area networks (LANs) or two segments of the same LAN using the same communication protocols, and provides address filtering between them. It operates at the Data Link layer (Layer 2) of the OSI model.

Which of the following cloud service models enables a consumer to rent fully configured systems that are set up for specific purposes? A. DaaS B. IaaS C. IDaaS D. SaaS

Answer D is correct. Software as a Service (SaaS) enables a consumer to rent fully configured systems that are set up for specific purposes. It is subscription-based access to applications or databases, sometimes known as on-demand software. It eliminates the need to install software on user devices, and it can be helpful for mobile or transient workforces. Answer A is incorrect. Desktop as a Service (DaaS) is a form of virtual desktop infrastructure (VDI) in which the VDI is outsourced and handled by a third party. It is a virtual PC desktop that is hosted in the cloud and accessed remotely by thin clients. Answer B is incorrect. Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) is a cloud computing service that enables a consumer to outsource computing equipment purchases and run their own data center. It is an arrangement in which, rather than purchasing equipment and running your own data center, you rent those resources as an outsourced service. Answer C is incorrect. Identity as a Service (IDaaS) is an authentication infrastructure that provides single sign-on capabilities for the cloud. It is an approach to digital identity management in which an organization or individual performs an electronic transaction that requires identity data managed by a service provider.

Which of the following stores information about authorized users and their privileges as well as other organizational information? A. NTP B. SFTP C. RDP D. LDAP

Answer D is correct. The Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) is a simple network protocol used to access network directory databases, which store information about authorized users and their privileges as well as other organizational information. In LDAP, port 389 is used to request information from the local domain controller (DC) and port 3268 to query the global catalog. Answer B is incorrect. The Secure File Transfer Protocol (SFTP) is a protocol that is based on Secure Shell (SSH) and provides secure file transfers on an IP network. Answer C is incorrect. The Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) is a proprietary protocol created by Microsoft for connecting to and managing devices not necessarily located at the same place as the administrator. Answer A is incorrect. The Network Time Protocol (NTP) is a protocol used to synchronize computer clock times in a network of computers.

Which layer of the TCP/IP model manages end-to-end communication between hosts, error detection and correction, and message reordering? A. Network Interface B. Application C. Internet D. Transport

Answer D is correct. The Transport layer manages end-to-end communication between hosts and breaks application data up into the segments or datagrams sent over the network. It is typically related directly to the same-named layer in the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model. Functions include message segmentation, acknowledgment, traffic control, session multiplexing, error detection and correction (resends), and message reordering. The protocols in this layer include the Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) and the User Datagram Protocol (UDP). Answer B is incorrect. The Application layer allows user-level applications to access the other layers. It doesn't correspond directly to user applications, but instead to the protocols whose applications use to communicate to the network. It is the highest layer in the TCP/IP model and is related to the Session, Presentation, and Application layers of the OSI model. It is used to handle all process-to-process communication functions. Answer C is incorrect. The Internet layer controls the routing of packets across multiple logical networks. It is the next layer up from the Link layer and is associated with the Network layer of the OSI model. Functions include traffic routing, traffic control, fragmentation, and logical addressing. Answer A is incorrect. The Network Interface layer, also known as the Network Access layer or Link layer, defines how nodes communicate on the local network and adapter level. It combines the Physical and Data link layer functions into a single layer. This layer includes frame physical network functions like modulation, line coding, and bit synchronization, frame synchronization and error detection, and logical link control (LLC) and medium access control (MAC) sublayer functions.

Which of the following must be configured when trying to start a machine using a DVD? A. HFS B. TPM C. Integrated GPU D. Boot sequence

Answer D is correct. The boot sequence is one of the most important settings in your BIOS/UEFI. It controls the order in which the computer searches its disk drives for an operating system. You use the boot sequence setting to change the search order of drives. For example, you might change the first boot device from the hard drive to an optical or flash drive in order to launch an operating system installation or recovery program, or to switch between operating systems on different drives. Answer B is incorrect. A Trusted Platform Module (TPM) is a microchip installed on the motherboard of desktop and portable computers, which stores critical encryption keys in hardware inaccessible to the operating system or most attackers. Answer C is incorrect. The graphics processing unit (GPU) is integrated within the die of the CPU to provide an alternative to having a dedicated graphics card. It is designed to rapidly manipulate and alter memory to accelerate the creation of images in a frame buffer intended for output to a display device. Answer A is incorrect. Hierarchical File System (HFS) is the family of file systems used by Mac OS and iOS. The original HFS was used in very old Macs, while newer Apple products use refined versions like HFS+ and APFS. Windows can't usually read or write to HFS drives.

Which of the following components of the laser printer carries an electrical charge that attracts the toner? A. Fuser assembly B. Transfer corona assembly C. Toner cartridge D. EP drum

Answer D is correct. The electrostatic photographic drum (EP drum), or imaging drum is a component of the laser printer that carries an electrical charge that attracts the toner. It then transfers the toner to the paper. Answer B is incorrect. The transfer corona assembly is a component of the laser printer that contains the corona wires; it is responsible both for charging the paper so that it pulls the toner off the drum and also for charging the drum itself. Answer A is incorrect. The fuser assembly is a component of the laser printer that applies pressure and heat to the paper to adhere the toner particles to the paper. Answer C is incorrect. The toner cartridge is a component of the laser printer that contains the fine powder used to create images as well as additional components used in image production.

A user reports the inability to access a company server using the FTP protocol. A technician finds other ports to the server seem to work normally. The technician has determined the problem is an incorrectly configured software firewall on the user's machine. Which of the following is most likely the cause? A. Outgoing connections on port 23 are blocked. B. Incoming connections on port 22 are blocked. C. Incoming connections on port 443 are blocked. D. Outgoing connections on port 21 are blocked.

Answer D is correct. The outgoing connections on port 21 are blocked in the given scenario. The technician should open port 21 for outgoing connections. The File Transfer Protocol (FTP) is a Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) protocol that enables the transfer of files between a user's workstation and a remote host. It works on the Application layer (Layer 7) of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model and the Application layer of the TCP/IP model. FTP works on two TCP channels, namely, TCP port 20 for data transfer and TCP port 21 to control commands. These channels work together to enable users to execute commands and transfer data simultaneously. Answer C is incorrect. Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure (HTTPS) is used for secure web pages and sites which includes encryption services. It uses port 443 as the default port. Answer A is incorrect. Telnet is used to log into remote systems via a virtual text terminal interface. It uses port 23 as the default port. Answer B is incorrect. Secure Shell (SSH) is used to enable a user or application to log on to another computer over a network, execute commands, and manage files. It uses port 22 as the default port.

A technician is troubleshooting a desktop that is having intermittent issues with locking up and system errors. The technician suspects that the problem might be that not enough power is getting to the motherboard. Which of the following tools would the technician use to determine if the hypothesis is correct in the given scenario? A. Wi-Fi analyzer B. Punch down tool C. Loopback plug D. Multimeter

Answer D is correct. The technician would use a multimeter to determine if the hypothesis is correct in the given scenario. A multimeter is an electronic instrument used to measure voltage, current, and resistance. It usually has two probes with leads, one red and one black, that are plugged into two sockets on the meter. To switch between measuring volts, ohms, and amps, the leads can be moved to different sockets, or there may be a selector switch. Digital multimeters have a screen that displays the numeric value of what is being measured. Analog multimeters have a thin needle that swings in an arc and indicates the value of what is being measured. Many multimeters also have specific settings for testing circuit continuity, diodes, or battery charges. Multimeters are sometimes called volt-ohm meters. Answer A is incorrect. A wireless tester, wireless locator, or Wi-Fi analyzer, is a Wi-Fi spectrum analyzer used to detect devices and points of interference, as well as to analyze and troubleshoot network issues on a WLAN or other wireless networks. Answer C is incorrect. A loopback plug is a tool that causes the device to transmit a signal back to itself. It is typically used for diagnosing transmission problems that redirect electrical signals back to the transmitting system. Answer B is incorrect. A punch down tool is used in a wiring closet to connect cable wires directly to a patch panel. The tool strips the insulation from the end of the wire and embeds the wire into the connection at the back of the panel.

James, a technician, wants to syndicate the security controls of some of the network devices in the company. His company does not have sufficient resources to manage the security of its large infrastructure. Which of the following methods would best accomplish his goal? A. VPN B. SSO C. DMZ D. UTM

Answer D is correct. Unified Threat Management (UTM) would be best in the given scenario to accomplish the goal. An all-in-one appliance, also known as UTM, is one that provides a good foundation for security. UTM is a combination of a firewall with other abilities. These abilities include intrusion prevention, antivirus, content filtering, and so on. The advantages of combining everything into one include a reduced learning curve, a single vendor to deal with, and reduced complexity. Answer A is incorrect. A virtual private network (VPN) is an encrypted communication tunnel that connects two systems over an untrusted network, such as the Internet. It provides security for both authentication and data transmission through a process called encapsulation. Answer B is incorrect. Single sign-on (SSO) means that once a user is authenticated into a realm, reauthentication is not required for access to resources on any realm entity. It is able to internally translate and store credentials for the various mechanisms, from the credential used for original authentication. Answer C is incorrect. A demilitarized zone (DMZ) is a small network between the internal network and the Internet that provides a layer of security and privacy. A DMZ is often deployed using a multihomed firewall.

Which of the following encryption types is used with WPA2? A. RSA B. RC4 C. 3DES D. AES

Answer D is correct. Wi-Fi Protected Access 2 (WPA2) adds Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) cipher-based Counter Mode with Cipher Block Chaining Message Authentication Code Protocol (CCMP) encryption for even greater security and to replace TKIP. It provides a 128-bit encryption key. Answer C is incorrect. Triple-Data Encryption Standard (3DES) is a symmetric encryption algorithm that encrypts data by processing each block of data three times using a different key each time. This algorithm is used in the electronic payment industry. Answer A is incorrect. Rivest-Shamir-Adleman (RSA) is an asymmetric encryption algorithm for public-key encryption with a variable key length and block size. Answer B is incorrect. Rivest Cipher 4 (RC4) is a symmetric key encryption algorithm. It is popular with wireless and Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP)/WPA encryption.

You want to transfer an audio file from your mobile device to your friend's mobile device using the Bluetooth feature. Which of the following steps will you perform before entering the device passcode? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply. A. Turn on the Bluetooth device. B. Locate and select the Bluetooth device. C. Confirm pairing on the Bluetooth device. D. Test the connectivity.

Answers A and B are correct. You should perform the following steps for transferring data from one device to another: 1. Turn on the Bluetooth device. -Enable Bluetooth. -Enable pairing. 2.Use your mobile device to locate and select the Bluetooth device. 3.Enter the Bluetooth device passcode. 4.Confirm pairing on the Bluetooth device. 5.Test the connectivity.

You want to transfer data from your device to a device in another room within the operational range of about 10 meters. Which of the following wireless connection methods will you use? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. Bluetooth B. Infrared C. Wi-Fi D. Near field communication

Answers A and C are correct. You can use Bluetooth as well as Wi-Fi to transfer data from one device to another within the operational range of about 10 meters. Bluetooth is used for connecting mobile accessories to a device, like a headset, full-size keyboard, and mouse. Two mobile devices can also be connected via Bluetooth to transfer and share files. The maximum range for Bluetooth based wireless connection is 30 meters. However, this distance may vary according to the environment, such as walls, or microwave ovens, which can cause interference and reduce the operational distance of the Bluetooth devices. Wi-Fi can also be used, as it can extend well up to 45 meters indoors, approximately. It is a local area wireless technology that allows electronic devices to connect to the network, mainly using the 2.4 gigahertz (12 cm) ultra high frequency (UHF) and 5 gigahertz (6 cm) super high frequency (SHF) ISM radio bands. Answer B is incorrect. Infrared is a short-distance, line-of-sight, point-to-point communication method used to transfer small amounts of data from one device to another. Its wavelengths range from approximately 1 mm to 750 nm. A directed infrared system provides a limited range of approximately 3 feet and typically is used for personal area networks. It can not penetrate walls. Answer D is incorrect. Near field communication (NFC) uses radio frequency (RF) signals and establishes communication between two electronic devices by bringing them within 10 cm of each other.

Which of the following TCP ports are used by the File Transfer Protocol (FTP) for data transfer and to control commands? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose two. A. Port 20 B. Port 25 C. Port 22 D. Port 21

Answers A and D are correct. The File Transfer Protocol (FTP) is a TCP/IP protocol that enables the transfer of files between a user's workstation and a remote host. FTP works on two TCP channels: TCP port 20 for data transfer and TCP port 21 for control commands. These channels work together to enable users to execute commands and transfer data simultaneously. It works on the Application layer (layer 7) of the OSI and the TCP/IP models. Answer C is incorrect. Secure Shell (SSH) is a protocol that enables a user or an application to log on to another device over a network, execute commands, and manage files. It uses TCP port 22. Answer B is incorrect. The Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) is used to send email from clients to servers and for transferring email between servers. It is never used by clients to receive email from servers. It uses TCP port 25.

Which of the following external ports would a technician use to connect a keyboard to a computer? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. PS/2 B. DVI C. HDMI D. VGA E. USB

Answers A and E are correct. A technician would use Universal Serial Bus (USB) and PS/2 to connect a keyboard to a computer. USB provides a standard connection between the computer and a variety of computer peripherals, such as keyboards, digital cameras, printers, external disk drives, and more. One of the benefits of the USB interface is that it can supply power to the peripheral device. PS/2 is a six-pin interface used to connect older keyboards and pointing devices to a computer. Older computers will have a purple port for the keyboard and a green port for the mouse or other pointing device, or two ports without clear color coding. Answer C is incorrect. High-Definition Multimedia Interface (HDMI) is a digital standard used to transfer high-definition video and audio from your computer to a display device. It is popular for new monitors and televisions. Portable devices such as laptops and tablets might have smaller micro HDMI ports. Answer D is incorrect. Video Graphics Array (VGA) is an older standard used to connect a display device to your computer. VGA and its associated evolutionary standards, such as Super Video Graphics Array (SVGA), are analog standards. Answer B is incorrect. Digital Visual Interface (DVI) is a video display interface used to connect a display device to your computer. It is a video standard for transferring both analog and digital video signals.

A custom-built gaming PC is dropping frames while playing a graphic-intensive video game, making it unplayable. Which of the following should be reviewed as potential bottlenecks? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. Video card B. Central processing unit C. Number of available IP addresses D. Number of hard drives E. Amount of available RAM

Answers A, B, and E are correct. A gaming PC is a computer that comes equipped with powerful graphics capabilities, fast processing capabilities, and a large amount of memory. The main difference between a gaming PC and other consumer workstations is that they are specifically designed and built to support the demanding computing requirements of gaming software applications. All gaming PCs will require a high-end GPU to support the detailed 3D graphics and realistic imagery presented in PC games today. There is such a wide variety of gaming software applications that each gaming PC will have specific requirements based on the needs of the user and the applications used. Common requirements include: *A multicore processor *A high-end video/specialized graphics processing unit (GPU) unit *A high definition sound card *High-end cooling such as a water cooling system *Maximum RAM that is supported by the motherboard *Fast Internet connection for interactive gaming needs *Real-time video and audio input/output capabilities

Which connectors will you use to connect a serial port and an Ethernet port on a switch? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two. A. SC B. RJ-45 C. DB-9 D. ST

Answers B and C are correct. A registered jack (RJ-45) is an eight-pin connector found in most Ethernet networks. The unshielded twisted-pair (UTP) and shielded twisted-pair (STP) connections use RJ-45 connectors in computer networks. A DB-9 connector is used on serial cables. Serial cables use the RS-232 protocol that defines the functions of the 9 pins in a DB-9 connector. It is an older connector used for low-speed asynchronous serial communications, such as a PC to a serial printer, a PC to a console port of a router or switch, or a PC to an external modem. Answers D and A are incorrect because Straight Tip (ST) and Subscriber Connector or Standard Connector (SC) are fiber-optic connectors. The ST connector is similar in appearance to BNC connectors and is used to connect multimode fibers. SC is a box-shaped connector that snaps into a receptacle. It is often used in a duplex configuration where two fibers are terminated into two SC connectors that are molded together. It is used with single-mode fiber.

John, a customer, needs to run several virtual machines on his design workstation to work on cross-platform software. Which of the following should be maximized to improve workstation performance? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. Storage space B. RAM C. Number of CPU cores D. PCIe slots E. Cooling fans

Answers B and C are correct. A virtualization workstation is a computer that uses both hardware virtualization and client virtualization resources to provide a comprehensive virtual environment for users. The virtualized workstation is configured to use the system's hardware functions such as access to the random-access memory (RAM), and network interface cards (NICs), as well as run the software that provides multiple virtual machines (VMs). Virtualization provides users with a variety of applications and resources by offering multiple platforms within a single system. Virtualization software vendors will all have specific hardware and system requirements based on their actual software needs, but in most cases will require a virtualization workstation to have the following: The maximum RAM the motherboard can support. Maximum central processing unit (CPU) cores. Fast network connection for server-side VM hosting.

Which of the following are standard AMD processor socket types? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. LGA 2011 B. FM1 C. AM3 D. LGA 775 E. LGA 1156

Answers B and C are correct. The FM1 and AM3 are AMD CPU socket types. The FM1 is AMD's next-generation socket type that is designed to be used with the Fusion and Athlon II processors. The AM3 was designed to replace AM2+. The AM3 has 941 pins, while the AM2+ has 940. Answers D, E, and A are incorrect. LGA 775, LGA 1156, and LGA 2011 are Intel CPU socket types.

Which of the following protocols work at the Internet layer of the TCP/IP model? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. NFS B. ICMP C. ARP D. UDP E. TCP

Answers B and C are correct. The Internet layer controls the routing of packets across multiple logical networks. It is the next layer up from the Link layer and is associated with the Network layer of the Open Systems Interconnection model (OSI) model. The protocols in this layer include the Address Resolution Protocol (ARP), the Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP), and the IP protocol. Answer A is incorrect. The Application layer allows user-level applications to access the other layers. The protocols in this layer include the Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP), the Network File System (NFS), Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions (MIME), the File Transfer Protocol (FTP), the Domain Name System (DNS), the Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP), and the Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP). Answers E and D are incorrect. The Transport layer manages end-to-end communication between hosts and breaks application data up into the segments or datagrams sent over the network. The protocols in this layer include the Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) and the User Datagram Protocol (UDP).

A server administrator is setting up a new server for the company's network. Which port and service should be open to allow the newly installed server to assign IP addresses for the devices connecting with the network? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose two. A. SSH B. DHCP C. 67 D. 22

Answers B and C are correct. The server technician should open the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) service on the server that uses the User Datagram Protocol (UDP) ports 67 and 68 for dynamically assigning IP addresses to clients on the network. UDP port number 67 is the destination port of a server, and UDP port number 68 is used by the client. DHCP lets a network or server administrator supervise and distribute IP addresses from a central point and automatically sends a new IP address when a computer is plugged into a different place in the network. Answers D and A are incorrect. Secure Shell (SSH) is a protocol that enables a user or an application to log on to another device over a network, execute commands, and manage files. SSH uses the Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) port 22 for securely connecting to a remote host (typically via a terminal emulator).

Which of the following features makes an e-Reader different from a modern tablet? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. Ability to run graphically intense applications B. Longer battery life C. Ability to browse websites D. Smaller on-board storage

Answers B and D are correct. An e-reader is a device outwardly similar to a tablet, but with functionality limited to downloading and reading electronic versions of books, magazines, and other documents. E-readers typically can transfer documents from a PC using a USB cable, but many have Wi-Fi or cellular capability so you can directly download them from online bookstores or libraries. Since they have narrower system demands than tablets, e-readers typically have longer battery life and displays more optimized for reading the text. Answers C and A are incorrect because these two features are only supported on the tablet as e-Reader have technical limitations and provide only reading functionality.

Which of the following IP addresses belongs to class A? A. 192.168.178.1 B. 227.21.6.173 C. 2.134.213.2 D. 135.58.24.17

Answer C is correct. 2.134.213.2 is a class A IP address. Class A addresses have 0.-127 in their first octet. Answer D is incorrect. 135.58.24.17 is a class B IP address. Class B addresses have 128.-191 in their first octet. Answer A is incorrect. 192.168.178.1 is a class C IP address. Class C addresses have 192.-223 in their first octet. Answer B is incorrect. 227.21.6.173 is a class D IP address. Class D addresses have 224.-239 in their first octet.

Which of the following networking cables transmits digital signals using light impulses rather than electricity? A. Fiber optic B. Straight-through C. Rollover D. Crossover

Answer A is correct. The fiber optic cable transmits digital signals using light impulses rather than electricity. It is immune to Electromagnetic Interference (EMI) and Radio Frequency Interference (RFI). This cable allows light impulses to be carried on either a glass or a plastic core. Glass can carry the signal to a greater distance, but plastic costs less. Answer B is incorrect. The straight-through cable is used to connect unlike devices, such as computers to hubs or switches. It is also known as a patch cable. Answer D is incorrect. The crossover cable is used to connect like devices, such as device-to-device, switch to switch, or router to router. Answer C is incorrect. The rollover cable is used to connect a device to a router's console port.

Which of the following devices operate at the Data Link layer of the OSI model? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. Router B. Switch C. Bridge D. Gateway

Answers B and C are correct. Switches and bridges function at the Data Link layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model. A switch is a network hardware device that joins multiple computers together within the same local area network (LAN). A bridge is a bit like a repeater, except instead of blindly regenerating signals and passing them on, it actively works to prevent collisions by making sure not to send data to a segment that's already busy. Answers A and D are incorrect because a router or a gateway operates at Layer 3 (Network layer) of the OSI model.