A&P 1 Chapters 1-9

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When the arrector pili muscles contract,

"goose bumps" are formed.

What is the resting membrane potential for most neurons?

-70 mV

A cross-sectional diagram of skin showing the layers of the cutaneous membrane including the accessory structures of the integument. Figure 5-1 Which layer is the primary barrier against environmental hazards?

1

How many nuclei do most body cells contain? (Module 3.8B)

1

Humans normally have ________ pairs of ribs.

12

The vertebral column contains ____ thoracic vertrbrae

12

Along with the ribs and sternum, what other bones make up the thoracic cage? (Module 7.14C)

12 thoracic

Of the following choices, the pH of the least acidic solution is

12.0.

How many bones are in the appendicular skeleton? (Module 7.15A)

126

Each hand has ________ phalangeal bones.

14

Identify the sphenoid bone.

2

The innermost electron shell in an atom holds up to ________ electrons.

2

The adult skeleton contains ________ major bones.

206

How many chromosomes are contained within a typical somatic cell? (Module 3.9C)

23 pairs

A cross-sectional diagram of skin showing the layers of the cutaneous membrane including the accessory structures of the integument. Figure 5-1 An intradermal injection is administered into which layer?

3

A cross-sectional diagram of skin showing the layers of the cutaneous membrane including the accessory structures of the integument. Figure 5-1 Which layer contains most of the accessory organs?

3

Around which structure does the radius rotate?

3

A skeletal muscle fiber can contract until it has shortened by about

30 percent

The spinal cord consists of five regions and ________ segments.

31

A typical spinal cord has how many pairs of spinal nerves, and where does the spinal cord end? (Module 12.2A)

31 pairs; lumbar vertebra 1 or 2

After age ________ the vertebral column continues to elongate, but the spinal cord itself does not.

4

The muscular system of humans contributes approximately what percentage to the adult body weight?

44 percent

The epidermis in the thin skin contains ________ layer(s) and in the thick skin contains ________ layers.

4; 5

The vertebral column contains ________ lumbar vertebrae.

5

Where is the spinal cord located?

5

Which structure articulates with the glenoid cavity?

5

Which structure is the acromion?

5

While walking barefoot on the beach, Joe stepped on a thorn that penetrated through the sole of his foot to the dermis. How many layers of epidermis did the thorn penetrate?

5

Identify the place where the humerus often fractures.

6

which structure encloses the pituitary gland

6

Identify the diaphysis of the femur.

7

Normal human skeletons contain _ cervical vertebrae.

7

When the arm is extended at the elbow, which structure accepts the olecranon?

8

How many bones make up the axial skeleton?

80

There are ________ carpal bones located in the wrist, which form ________ rows of bones in the wrist.

8;2

Where would calcium ions be predominately found?

9

Aerobic metabolism normally provides ________ percent of the ATP demands of a resting muscle cell.

95

The region of the sarcomere containing the thick and thin filaments is the

A band

Describe a dermatome. (Module 12.5B)

A dermatome is the bilateral sensory region monitored by a single pair of spinal nerves.

What is a gene? (Module 3.10A)

A gene is a portion of a DNA strand that functions as a hereditary unit and codes for a specific protein.

Describe the relationship between joint strength and mobility. (Module 8.6A)

A joint that is strong is not very mobile.

What is a benign tumor? (Module 3.21B)

A mass produced by abnormal growth and division of cells that remains within the original tissue and does not spread.

Define motor unit. (Module 9.10B)

A motor unit is a motor neuron and all the muscle fibers that it controls.

Which has the greater concentration of hydrogen ions, a substance with a pH of 5 or a substance with a pH of 4?

A pH of 4 is greater.

What is a reflex? (Module 12.1B)

A reflex is a rapid, automatic response triggered by specific stimuli.

Define retinaculum. (Module 10.16A)

A retinaculum is a wide band of connective tissue that stabilizes tendons.

A fibrin clot that is formed over a skin wound is called

A scab

Define spinal reflex. (Module 12.1C)

A spinal reflex is an automatic response to a stimulus that is controlled in the spinal cord and can function without input from the brain.

Define suture. (module 7.2C)

A suture is a fibrous connective tissue immovable joint between the flat bones of the skull.

Describe a synapse. (Module 11.2B)

A synapse is where one neuron communicates with another cell.

Define the term synergist as it relates to muscle action. (Module 10.3A)

A synergist is a muscle that helps the agonist perform its actions more efficiently.

Define tendon and aponeurosis. (Module 9.2A)

A tendon is a bundle of collagen fibers that connects a skeletal muscle to a bone, whereas an aponeurosis is a broad collagenous sheet that connects skeletal muscle to a broad area on one or more bones.

Which complementary base pairing is unique to RNA?

A-U

Which ligament is a severely hyperextended knee more likely to damage: the ACL or the PCL? (Module 8.10C)

ACL

Which neurotransmitter is the most studied?

ACh

AMP + P →

ADP

The anticodon for the triplet UCA is

AGU

A two-second duration of isometric tetanic contraction is supported by which energy source alone?

ATP

Describe ATP. (Module 2.19A)

ATP consists of an adenosine molecule with three phosphate groups attached.

Identify three sources of stored energy utilized by muscle fibers. (Module 9.12B

ATP, creatine phosphate, and glycogen

What is the survival rate of a localized malignant melanoma that is detected and removed in the early stages of the cancer?

Above 95%

When a person does jumping jacks, which limb movements are necessary? (Module 8.4C)

Adduction and abduction

Which of the following is not part of cell theory?

All cells differentiate into specialized cell types.

Which of the following muscles belongs to the flexors of the knee muscle group?

All of the answers are correct

The sternum contains

All of the answers are correct.

Why would an elderly person be more prone to skin infections than a younger person?

All of the answers are correct.

Describe the all-or-none principle. (Module 11.10B)

All stimuli that bring the membrane to threshold will generate identical action potentials.

Why do the pharynx, esophagus, anus, and vagina have a similar epithelial organization? (Module 4.5B)

All these sites are subject to physical stresses and abrasion.

Define action potential. (Module 11.10A)

An action potential is the propagated change in membrane potential of an excitable cell.

What is an enzyme? (Module 2.9A)

An enzyme is a protein that lowers the activation energy of a reaction.

Define organ. (Module 1.10B)

An organ is two or more tissues working to perform several functions.

Which division of the skeleton has the greater range of motion? (Module 8.6B)

Appendicular

Where is articular cartilage found, and how is it nourished? (Module 6.3C)

Articular cartilage is found covering both epiphyseal portions of articulating bone and nutrients diffuse from synovial fluid within the joint.

What is the function of the axial muscles? (Module 10.4A)

Axial muscles position the head and spinal column and also move the rib cage for breathing.

Why is basal cell carcinoma considered less dangerous than malignant melanoma? (Module 5.3D)

Basal cell carcinomas rarely become malignant and metastasize, whereas malignant melanoma cells quickly spread throughout the lymphatic system to other organs

Which of the labels in Figure 4-1 indicates an adhesion belt?

C

The most abundant mineral in the human body is

Calcium

What event initiates the contraction cycle?

Calcium ions arrive within the zone of overlap.

Which event occurs at the axon terminal?

Calcium ions enter the cytoplasm and trigger exocytosis of the neurotransmitter.

________ is a pigment found in vegetables that can make the skin appear orange or yellow.

Carotene

When does cell division begin and end? (Module 3.18C)

Cell division begins at mitosis and ends at cytokinesis.

A transverse fracture of the wrist that may be comminuted is called a ________ fracture.

Colles

The pancreas is an example of which glandular structure?

Compound tubuloalveolar

Compare concentric and eccentric contractions. (Module 9.11B)

Concentric contractions occur when the muscle tension exceeds the load, and the muscle shortens. Eccentric contractions occur when the muscle tension is less than the load, and the muscle elongates

Cross-bridges are portions of

Cross-bridges are portions ofmyosin molecules.

Distinguish between the cytoplasm and cytosol. (Module 3.2A)

Cytoplasm is the material between the plasma membrane and the nuclear membrane; cytosol is the fluid portion of the cytoplasm.

Vitamin ________ is formed in the skin when it is exposed to sunlight.

D

_______ is the process of duplicating chromosomes prior to cell division.

DNA replication

Chromosomes consist of ________ and ________.

DNA; Proteins

How does calcitonin act to lower blood calcium? (Module 6.11C)

Decreases osteoclast break down of bone matrix, decreases calcitriol production, decreases intestinal absorption, and increases renal excretion

Describe depolarization, repolarization, and hyperpolarization. (Module 11.9B)

Depolarization is a shift in membrane potential toward a more positive value; repolarization is the return of the membrane potential to resting; and hyperpolarization is a shift in membrane potential toward a more negative value.

Compare dorsiflexion and plantar flexion. (Module 8.4B)

Dorsiflexion is upward movement of the foot or toes. Plantar flexion extends the ankle joint and bends the foot or toes down, as in standing on tiptoes.

Compare the absolute refractory period with the relative refractory period (module 11.10C)

During the absolute refractory period the membrane cannot respond to further stimulation. During the relative refractory period the membrane can respond only to a larger-than-normal stimulus.

Which of the following is correct regarding muscle fatigue and recovery?

During the recovery period, lactate can be recycled back to pyruvate.

Which of the following statements about genes is not correct?

Each single chromosome contains one single gene.

Define endochondral ossification. (Module 6.7A)

Endochondral ossification is the replacement of a cartilage model with bone.

Describe the two primary types of glands. (Module 4.8A)

Endocrine glands release their substances into the interstitial fluid; exocrine glands release their secretions into ducts that open onto an epithelial surface.

Where do cells obtain the energy needed for their vital functions? (Module 2.19C)

Energy comes from breaking high energy bonds in a compound.

Why do our cells need enzymes? (Module 2.9B)

Enzymes lower the activation energy of a reaction so it can occur.

________ line the brain ventricles and spinal canal.

Ependymal cells

________ provide information about the external environment.

Exteroceptors

Which of the following is the best situation for maintaining homeostasis?

Extracellular fluid should be isotonic to intracellular fluid.

Compare F-actin with G-actin. (Module 9.4A)

F actin is a twisted strand made up of two rows of G actin subunits where myosin heads can bind.

Which of the following statements is/are not true regarding human muscles?

Fast fibers are high in myoglobin.

What purposes do fontanelles serve? (Module 7.9B)

Fontanelles permit flexibility of the skull during childbirth and allow room for the brain to enlarge during infancy and early childhood

Choose the correct statement regarding synapses.

Gap junctions at an electrical synapse interlock the presynaptic and postsynaptic membranes.

How is genetic information coded in the cell? (Module 3.8A)

Genetic information is coded by the sequence of nucleotides in DNA.

Compare gigantism with acromegaly. (Module 6.9C)

Gigantism results from an overproduction of growth hormone before puberty, whereas acromegaly results from an overproduction of growth hormone after puberty.

Define graded potential. (Module 11.9A)

Graded potential is a temporary, localized change in the potential of a cell.

Distinguish between growth and development. (Module 1.7B)

Growth refers to an increase in size. Development refers to changes in structures and functions as the organism grows.

Distinguish between hydrophilic and hydrophobic molecules. (Module 2.11C)

Hydrophilic molecules are attracted to water, whereas hydrophobic molecules do not interact with water molecules.

The region of the sarcomere that always contains only thin filaments is the

I band.

________ monitor the digestive, respiratory, cardiovascular, urinary, and reproductive systems.

Interoceptors

________ monitor the internal environment.

Interoceptors

Which of the following is a function of the meniscus?

It channels the flow of synovial fluid.

Which of the following is correct regarding cytoplasm?

It contains cytosol and organelles.

Define gray matter in the spinal cord.

It contains the cell bodies of neurons, neuroglia, and unmyelinated axons, and it surrounds the narrow central canal.

Which of the following is not true of the muscular system?

It depends upon the cardiovascular system to provide the hemoglobin stored in slow muscle fibers.

Which of the following statements about water is not correct?

It has a relatively low heat capacity.

Why would areolar tissue be considered the ideal type for connective tissue proper?

It has all cell types found in other forms of connective tissue

Which of the following is not true of the skeletal system?

It interacts with the lymphatic system to regulate calcium levels.

Which of the following is true about genetic mutation?

It is a change in the DNA base sequence.

How is the H band distinguished from the other prominent structural features of the sarcomere?

It is a lighter region that contains thick filaments, but no thin filaments.

What is an important characteristic of amino acid uracil?

It is found only in RNA

What is the significance of the cauda equina? (Module 12.2E)

It is made up of extensions of the posterior and anterior roots of spinal segments L2 to S5. It forms as the vertebral column continues to elongate after growth of the spinal cord ceases at about age 4

Which of the following statements about tissue swelling that occurs during inflammation is true?

It is triggered by histamine and caused by increased endothelial permeability.

Which of the following statements about the Golgi apparatus is false?

It sends transport vesicles to the RER.

How would a drug that blocks acetylcholine receptors at the motor end plate affect skeletal muscle?

It would cause flaccid paralysis (muscles are relaxed and unable to contract).

How would the loss of acetylcholinesterase from the motor end plate affect skeletal muscle?

It would cause spastic paralysis (muscles are contracted and unable to relax).

What properties are common to keratinized epithelia? (Module 4.5C)

Keratinized epithelia are both tough and water resistant.

Which gastrointestinal organ is responsible for bile secretion and regulation of blood nutrient composition?

Liver

What is transcription? (Module 3.11A)

Making an RNA strand from the DNA template

Which of the following is a direct example of the study of physiology?

Measuring heart rate and noting blood pressure.

Define membrane potential. (Module 11.6A)

Membrane potential is the unequal charge distribution between the inner and outer surfaces of the plasma membrane.

________ increase surface area to facilitate absorption of extracellular materials.

Microvilli

Define mitosis, and list its four stages. (Module 3.20A)

Mitosis is the division of a cell into two identical daughter cells. The four stages are prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase.

Why is a CNS neuron not usually replaced after it is injured? (Module 11.2D)

Most CNS neurons are not replaced because they lack centrioles so they cannot divide.

What happens to the lactate produced by skeletal muscle during peak activity? (Module 9.13C)

Most of the lactate diffuses into the bloodstream and enters the liver where it is converted to pyruvate.

When do muscle fibers produce lactate? (Module 9.12C)

Muscle fibers produce lactate when there is a lack of oxygen.

Define muscle hypertrophy and muscle atrophy. (Module 9.15A)

Muscle hypertrophy is an increase in the size of the muscle cells and muscle atrophy is a decrease in the size of the muscle cells.

When a skeletal muscle fiber contracts, which of the following does not occur?

Myosin and actin filaments decrease in length.

________ account for roughly half of the volume of the nervous system.

Neuroglia

Classify neurons based on their function. (Module 11.3B)

Neurons are classified functionally as sensory, interneurons, or motor neurons.

Classify neurons based on their structure. (Module 11.3A)

Neurons are classified structurally as anaxonic, bipolar, unipolar, or multipolar.

Describe the functions of osteocytes. (Module 6.4B)

Osteocytes are mature bone cells that maintain the bone matrix.

Describe the functions of osteogenic cells and osteoblasts. (Module 6.4A)

Osteogenic cells are stem cells that form osteoblasts. Osteoblasts are immature bone cells that secrete the organic components of bone matrix.

Describe the external environment of most of the body's cells. (Module 3.2D)

Our cells are surrounded by a watery extracellular fluid.

Most of a cell's ATP is produced within its mitochondria. What gas do mitochondria require to produce ATP, and what gas results? (Module 3.7B)

Oxygen is required to produce ATP, and carbon dioxide is released in the process.

All the following result in decreased calcium levels in the bloodstream EXCEPT __________.

PTH stimulation of osteoclasts

Distinguish between passive and active processes of membrane passage. (Module 3.13C)

Passive processes do not need ATP and active processes do need ATP.

Ankle fractures that affect both bones of the leg are called __________.

Pott's fractures

Compare presynaptic and postsynaptic cells. (Module 11.2C)

Presynaptic cells are usually neurons and postsynaptic cells can be a neuron or another type of cell, such as skeletal muscle fiber or a gland cell.

________ monitor the position of skeletal muscles and joints.

Proprioceptors

__________ monitor the position and movement of skeletal muscles and joints.

Proprioceptors

Define range of motion (ROM). (Module 8.1A)

Range of motion is the amount of movement at a joint

Define resting membrane potential. (Module 11.7A)

Resting membrane potential is the membrane potential of an unstimulated cell.

Which of the following statements regarding ribosomes is FALSE?

Ribosomes also function in the synthesis of the phospholipids and cholesterol.

Which glial cells are found only in the PNS?

Schwann cells

Identify the neuroglia of the PNS. (Module 11.5A)

Schwann cells and satellite cells

Describe the direction of sensory input and motor commands relative to the spinal cord. (Module 12.1A)

Sensory input travels toward the spinal cord and motor commands travel away from the spinal cord.

Chapter 1 Which organ system provides support, protection of soft tissue, mineral storage, and blood formation?

Skeletal

Name the three types of muscle tissue, identify where they are found, and list their functions. (Module 9.1A)

Skeletal muscle is directly or indirectly attached to bones and enables movement of the body. Cardiac muscle forms the heart and propels blood. Smooth muscle is found throughout the body and moves substances through hollow tubes, such as in the digestive tract and regulates the diameter of blood vessels.

In this illustration, the three compartments are separated by semipermeable membranes. The red balls represent solutes, and the lightly shaded area represents water. Which of the following is a true statement?

Solution B is hypotonic to solution A, but hypertonic to solution C.

Which of the following represents a gliding joint?

Sternoclavicular joints

The endomysium __________.

Surrounds individual muscle fibers

List the three major functions of the Golgi apparatus. (Module 3.6A)

The Golgi apparatus (1) renews or modifies the plasma membrane, (2) modifies and packages cellular secretions, and (3) packages special enzymes within vesicles (lysosomes) for use within the cell.

Which is correct regarding the spinal cord?

The adult spinal cord ends between vertebrae L1 and L2.

Choose the incorrect statement regarding synovial joints.

The area inside a joint has a significant number of pain receptors.

What are the divisions and functions of the muscular system? (Module 10.1A)

The axial division support and position the axial skeleton and the appendicular division support and move the limbs.

Describe the axial and appendicular divisions of the skeleton. (Module 6.1A)

The axial skeleton consists of the bones of the skull, vertebral column, and thorax. The appendicular skeleton consists of the bones of the limbs, pectoral girdle and pelvic girdle.

What is the first step in Wallerian degeneration?

The axon and myelin degenerate and fragment.

Which is true regarding events that occur at neuromuscular junctions?

The binding of acetylcholine molecules to the receptors alters the membrane's permeability

If osteoclast activity exceeds osteoblast activity in a bone, how will bone mass be affected? (Module 6.4D)

The bone mineral content will decrease and thus bone mass will decrease.

Describe the brachial plexus. (Module 12.9A)

The brachial plexus is a network of nerves formed by branches of spinal nerve segments C5-T1.

Describe the changes in appearance of the transitional epithelium lining the urinary bladder as stretching occurs. (Module 4.6C)

The cells become flatter.

Compare the central and peripheral nervous system. (Module 11.1A)

The central nervous system consists of the brain and spinal cord and it integrates, processes, and coordinates sensory data and motor commands. The peripheral nervous system consists of all the nervous tissue outside the central and enteric nervous systems.

Describe the connective tissue layers associated with skeletal muscle tissue. (Module 9.2B)

The epimysium surrounds the entire muscle; the perimysium divides the skeletal muscle into fascicles; the endomysium surrounds individual muscle fibers

Which of the following is not a characteristic used to describe the structure of multicellular exocrine glands?

The extensiveness of the Golgi apparatus in the secretory areas

What is human A&P? (Module 1.1A)

The field of human anatomy and physiology.

Describe the relationship between the number of fibers in a motor unit and the precision of body movements. (Module 9.10C)

The finer and more precise the movement, the fewer the number of muscle fibers in the motor unit.

Explain the relationship between load and speed of muscle contraction. (Module 9.11A)

The greater the load on a muscle, the longer it takes for the muscle to shorten, and the less it shortens.

Contrast the effects of a hypotonic solution and a hypertonic solution on a red blood cell. (Module 3.15C)

The hypotonic solution would cause the RBC to swell and it may burst (hemolysis), and the hypertonic solution would cause the RBC to shrink (crenation).

Describe the lumbar plexus and sacral plexus. (Module 12.10A)

The lumbar plexus is a nerve network formed by axons from the anterior rami of spinal nerve segments T12-L4; the sacral plexus is a nerve network formed by axons from the anterior rami of spinal nerve segments L4-S4.

Describe the function of the medullary cavity. (Module 6.3B)

The medullary cavity contains the red bone marrow and the yellow bone marrow.

Why does hair turn white or gray with age? (Module 5.10A)

The melanocyte activity declines, making the hair white or gray.

What would happen if there were no AChE in the synaptic cleft? (Module 9.6C)

The motor end plate would be continuously stimulated and continuous muscle contraction would occur.

Describe the neuromuscular junction. (Module 9.6A)

The neuromuscular junction is where the axon terminals of a motor neuron interact with the skeletal muscle fiber midway along the fiber's length.

Describe the nucleus pulposus and annulus fibrosus of an intervertebral disc. (Module 8.7A)

The nucleus pulposus is a soft, elastic, gelatinous core and the annulus fibrosus is a tough outer ring of fibrocartilage.

Which of the following would occur in a resting membrane after a stimulus is applied?

The opening of sodium channels will cause depolarization.

Define diffusion. (Module 3.14A)

The passive movement of molecules from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration until equilibrium is achieved.

Describe osmosis. (Module 3.15A)

The passive movement of water across a selectively permeable membrane from a solution with a lower solute concentration to a solution with a higher solute concentration.

What special terms are used to describe the plasma membrane and cytoplasm of a skeletal muscle fiber? (Module 9.2C)

The plasma membrane is called the sarcolemma and the cytoplasm is called the sarcoplasm.

What is the relationship between myelin and the propagation speed of action potentials? (Module 11.11B)

The presence of myelin increases the propagation speed of action potentials.

Describe the alveolar process. (Module 7.4A)

The projecting ridge that contains the tooth sockets for the upper teeth.

Explain why the propagation of action potentials along electrically excitable membranes occurs in only one direction. (Module 9.5D)

The refractory period prevents it from propagating back in the direction from which it began.

What is the importance of the secondary curves of the spine? (Module 7.10A)

The secondary curves allow us to balance our body weight to permit an upright posture.

Define metastasis. (Module 3.21C)

The spread of cancer cells beyond the original tissue, leading to secondary tumors.

What bone processes from the zygomatic arch? (Module 7.4B)

The temporal process of the zygomatic bone and the zygomatic process of the temporal bone.

Which occurs during an eccentric contraction?

The tension developed is less than the load, causing the muscle to lengthen while it is contracted.

Define hyponychium. (Module 5.9B)

The thickened stratum corneum underlying the free edge of the nail.

Describe the three parts necessary for homeostatic regulation. (Module 1.17B)

The three parts necessary for homeostatic regulation are the receptor, the control center, and the effector.

Muscle A abducts the humerus and muscle B adducts the humerus. What is the relationship between the two muscles. (Module 10.3B)

The two muscles are antagonists to each other.

Why does the free edge of a nail appear white? (Module 5.9C)

There are no underlying blood vessels.

Describe the appearance of simple columnar epithelial cells in a sectional view. (Module 4.7A)

They appear columnar with an elongated nucleus close to the basement membrane.

Why are hydrogen, lithium, and sodium classified as reactive elements?

They are elements with unfilled valence shells

Explain how the complementary strands of DNA are held together. (Module 2.20B)

They are held by complementary base pairing; adenine to thymine and guanine to cytosine.

Which of the following statements is not true about action potentials?

They can travel in two directions.

Why are ribs 11 and 12 called floating ribs? (Module 7.14B)

They do not connect with the sternum at all.

Regarding neurons, which of the following is true?

They exist in many different types and shapes.

Microtubules do not have which of the following functions?

They stiffen microvilli.

Compare thin skin with thick skin. (Module 5.2A)

Thin skin has 4 layers and covers most of the body surfaces. Thick skin has 5 layers and covers the palms of the hands and soles of the feet.

Which type of burn usually requires skin grafting? Why? (Module 5.5B)

Third-degree burns because the tissue damage is so great that the tissue cannot repair itself.

Which of the following is an incorrect description?

Transfer RNA (tRNA) transfers the instructions for protein synthesis to the ribosome

Define transverse tubules. (Module 9.3B)

Transverse tubules are tubular extensions of the sarcolemma that extend deep into the sarcoplasm contacting the terminal cisternae of the sarcoplasmic reticulum.

The mRNA sequence that is complementary to the sequence ATC on DNA is

UAG

Why does exposure to sunlight or sunlamps darken skin? (Module 5.3B)

UV radiation stimulates melanocytes to produce more melanin.

________ are fine hairs that lack pigment and cover much of the body surface.

Vellus hairs

Describe the kind of bonds that hold the atoms in a water molecule together. (Module 2.4C)

Water molecule bonds are polar covalent bonds, in which unequal sharing of electrons occurs.

Contrast the white matter and gray matter in the CNS. (Module 11.4D)

White matter of the CNS is dominated by myelinated axons. Gray matter of the CNS is dominated by neuron cell bodies, dendrites, and unmyelinated axons.

Which of the labels in Figure 4-1 indicates a hemidesmosome?

a

Epithelium is connected to underlying connective tissue by

a basal lamina.

The effects of aging on the skin include

a decline in the activity of sebaceous glands.

Tetanus is most likely to result from which condition?

a deep puncture wound, such as that from a nail

What is a tissue? (Module 4.1B)

a group of similar cells and their cell products

A thickened area of scar tissue that is covered by a shiny, smooth epidermal surface is called

a keloid

Which of the following muscles would contract more forcefully?

a muscle receiving 20 to 25 action potentials per second

In the example of blood clotting that occurs after a severe cut:

a positive feedback loop occurs

The articular cartilage damaged by osteoarthritis is characterized by __________.

a rough network of bristly collagen fibers

A movement away from the midline of the body is termed

abduction

Triggering of the muscle action potential occurs after

acetylcholine binds to chemically gated channels in the motor end plate membrane.

Excessive growth hormone after puberty could result in

acromegaly

Two prominent features of the clavicle are the medial sternal end and the lateral ________ end.

acromial

The location of the rotator cuff muscles in relation to the glenohumoral joint minimizes the upward pressure against the __________.

acromion of the scapula

A process that requires cellular energy to move a substance against its concentration gradient is called

active transport.

The most abundant high-energy compound in cells is

adenosine triphosphate.

Rickets can be prevented by

adequate sunlight and dietary intake of cholecalciferol.

Cells that store fat are called

adipocytes

A resting muscle generates most of its ATP by

aerobic metabolism of fatty acids.

When does the activation of a motor neuron occur in a stretch reflex?

after information processing in the CNS

An alternate name for the prime mover in muscle action is

agonist.

If a substance has a pH that is greater than 7, it is

alkaline

Joints are classified by

all of the answers are correct

Skin wrinkle and sagging is caused by

all of the choices.

Why can inflammation occur in any organ in the body? (Module 4.18C)

all organs have connective tissues

A slightly movable joint is a(n)

amphiarthrosis

Decreased blood flow to a muscle could result in all of the following except

an increase in intracellular glycogen.

When electrons are transferred from one atom to another, and the two atoms unite as a result of the opposite charges,

an ionic bond is formed.

Microfilaments

anchor the cytoskeleton to the plasma membrane.

Which of the following is not a characteristic of the male pelvis?

angle of pubic arch greater than 100 degrees

Ions with a negative charge are called

anions

An anatomical term that means the same as "ventral" is

anterior

Which ramus carries sensory information from the limbs? (Module 12.6A)

anterior ramus

Identify the major fontanelles. (Module 7.9A)

anterior, posterior, sphenoidal, and mastoid fontanelles

The genetically programmed death of cells is called

apoptosis.

When comparing slow fibers to fast fibers, slow fibers

appear dark red

How many skeletal muscles are there in the body? (Module 10.1B)

approximately 700

Of the spinal meninges, the middle one is the ________ mater.

arachnoid

All of the following are true of neurons except that they

are a very specialized form of connective tissue.

Elements that have atoms with full outer shells of electrons

are inert gases

Carbohydrate molecules

are the body's most readily available source of energy

Each of the following is an example of dense connective tissue except

areolar connective tissue.

In compact bone, the osteons are

arranged in concentric lamellae.

Arthritis always involves damage to

articular cartilage

Name the major components of a typical vertebra. (Module 7.10B)

articular processes, vertebral arch, and vertebral body

The location where two bones meet is called a joint or an

articulation

Which glial cell protects the CNS from chemicals and hormones circulating in the blood? (Module 11.4C)

astrocytes

Where does translation occur?

at the ribosomes

The first cervical vertebra is better known as the

atlas

The actual mass of an atom is known as its

atomic weight

The smallest stable units of matter are

atoms

anchoring proteins

attach the plasma membrane to other structures in the cell.

The hyoid bone

attaches to tongue muscles

The second cervical vertebra is usually called the

axis

Joe suffered a hairline fracture at the base of the dens. Identify the bone and fracture site. (Module 7.11A)

axis; cervical

Which part(s) of the neuron can conduct an action potential?

axon and telodendria

In which part of a neuron does Wallerian degeneration occur? (Module 11.5B)

axons of PNS neurons

Which of the labels in Figure 4-1 indicates a tight junction?

b

While standing in the anatomical position,

back refers to dorsal

Which type of synovial joint is the shoulder (glenohumeral) joint?

ball and socket joint

Which structures separate epithelial tissue from connective tissue?

basement membranes

The central body of a muscle is also known as the

belly

If the anterior compartment of the lower limb was suffering from "compartment syndrome," which of these structures would not be at risk of injury?

biceps femoris

Which of the following is an example of a normal physiological process that uses a positive feedback loop?

blood clotting

The central canal of an osteon contains

blood vessels

Chondrocytes are to cartilage as osteocytes are to

bone

Osseous tissue is also called

bone

The surface of articular cartilage is

both slick and smooth

Which of the following does not move the pectoral girdle?

brachialis

Which of the following muscles is not part of the shoulder?

brachialis

By what means are water molecules attracted to each other? (Module 2.5B)

by hydrogen bonds

Which of the following is the heel bone?

calcaneus

Identify the tarsal bones

calcaneus, talus, navicular, cuboid, and three cuneiform bones

Elevated levels of calcium ion in the blood stimulate the secretion of the hormone

calcitonin.

What is released from the structure labeled "9"?

calcium ions

Which substance accounts for almost two-thirds of the weight of bone?

calcium salts

A mature red blood cell lacks a nucleus. Thus, it

cannot make new proteins and will be worn out within a few months.

By weight, which element is the second most abundant in the human body?

carbon

The molecule CO2 is known as

carbon dioxide

Intercalated discs and striations are characteristic of ________ tissue.

cardiac muscle

Name the effectors of the ANS. (Module 11.1C)

cardiac muscle, smooth muscle, glands, and adipose tissue

Which two organ systems are involved with circulation within the body? (Module 1.13A)

cardiovascular and lymphatic systems

Each individual gene does which of the following?

carries the instructions for making a single polypeptide

Chondroitin sulfate is abundant in the matrix of

cartilage

Firm, rubbery matrix is a structural feature of which connective tissue type?

cartilage

Endochondral ossification begins with the formation of a(n)

cartilage model

Ions with a + charge are called

cations

________ are transmembrane proteins that connect two cell membranes together.

cell adhesion molecules

Transmembrane proteins that bind to each other and to extracellular materials are known as:

cell adhesion molecules (CAMs).

Name the structural components of a typical neuron. (Module 11.2A)

cell body, axon, and dendrites

Some cells contain large numbers of mitochondria while others have relatively few or none. This suggests that

cells with large numbers of mitochondria have a high energy demand.

List the common characteristics shared by all living things. (Module 1.7A)

cells, organization, responsiveness, regulation, growth, development, reproduction, and metabolism

Oxygen is required in biological systems for

cellular respiration

Neurons have a very limited ability to divide after injury because most

centrioles

Identify the secondary spinal curves

cervical and lumbar

Water molecules and small ions enter a cell through

channels formed by integral proteins.

Which substance is produced in the skin when exposed to UV radiation and subsequently converted to calcitriol?

cholecalciferol

Which of the following is a structural component of cell membranes?

cholesterol

In cells that are not dividing, chromosomes uncoil to form a tangle of fine fibers known as

chromatin.

A muscle that controls the diameter of an opening is a ________ muscle.

circular

The five vertebral regions are the cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and

coccygeal

Which of the following is a not characteristic of the female pelvis?

coccyx points anteriorly

A unit in messenger RNA consisting of a set of three consecutive nucleotides is termed a(n)

codon

The dominant fiber type in most dense connective tissue is

collagen

In the spinal cord, white matter is separated into ascending and descending tracts organized as

columns

A ________ fracture produces shattered bone fragments.

comminuted

An open, or ________, fracture projects through the skin.

compound

Structurally, mammary glands are examples of which of the following?

compound alveolar

Describe the action of the external oblique. (Module 10.10C)

compresses abdomen, depresses ribs, flexes or bends spine

The fracture of vertebrae subjected to extreme vertical stress is called a ________ fracture

compression

The smooth, rounded articular process of a bone is termed a

condyle.

Which type of tissue fills internal spaces of the body?

connective

Which of the following tissues fills internal spaces and provides structural support?

connective tissue

The epidural space contain

connective tissue and blood vessels.

The three types of connective tissue include

connective tissue proper, fluid connective, and supporting connective.

You have a child who attends daycare while you attend classes. Just before class, you are notified that your child has a slight fever and appears fine otherwise, but must be picked up because of the fever. Which of the following is your best solution?

contact your prearranged backup person so that she or he can pick up and take care of your child until you are out of class.

All of the following are true of epidermal ridges except that they

contain increased numbers of free nerve endings.

Muscle tissue, one of the four basic tissue groups, consists chiefly of cells that are highly specialized for

contraction.

The start of each gene begins with a(n) ________ segment.

control

Which of the following is not a recognized function of skeletal muscle?

controlled involuntarily

Identify the structure labeled "1."

coracoid process

All of the following can be used in the management of severe burn except

corticosteroids.

Vertebrosternal ribs are directly connected to the sternum by

costal cartilages

When atoms complete their outer electron shell by sharing electrons, they form

covalent bonds.

Red blood cell shrinkage is to ________ as cell bursting is to ________.

crenation; hemolysis

A prominent ridge, as seen on the pelvis, is a

crest

The two components of the integumentary system are the

cutaneous membrane and accessory structures.

Which of the labels in Figure 4-1 is very abundant in cardiac muscle?

d

All of the following are true of the pigment melanin except that it

decreases in concentration within cells during exposure to the sun.

Of the nine muscles that cross the shoulder joint and insert on the humerus, which muscle is considered to be a prime mover?

deltoid

Tissues that provide strength and support for areas subjected to stresses from many directions are

dense irregular connective tissues.

During the ________ phase of action potential development, voltage-gated sodium channels are open.

depolarization

Opening of sodium channels in the axon membrane causes

depolarization and increased positive charge inside the membrane.

In the process of continuous propagation, all of the following are true except

depolarization of the axonal membrane only occurs at nodes.

A shift of the resting transmembrane potential toward 0 mV is called

depolarization.

The keratinocytes are tightly connected with each other by

desmosomes.

The shaft of a long bone is called the

diaphysis.

Synovial joints are classified functionally as:

diarthroses.

A freely movable joint is a(n)

diarthrosis

What do lysosomes contain? (Module 3.6B)

digestive enzymes

The ankle is _______ to the knee

distal

the wrist is _______ to the elbow.

distal

The clavicle articulates with the scapula

distally with the acromion

The subdural space lies between the

dura mater and the arachnoid mater.

From what structure does merocrine secretion occur?

eccrine sweat gland

In the homeostatic regulation example of ambient temperature control, the air conditioner functions as the __________.

effector

Which of the following movements would you associate with chewing food?

elevation

Individual muscle cells are surrounded by what connective tissue?

endomysium

The lining of the medullary cavity is called the

endosteum

The lining of the heart and blood vessels is called

endothelium.

The hydrolysis of ATP yields ADP, a phosphate ion, and

energy

Name the neuroglia of the CNS. (Module 11.4A)

ependymal cells, microglia, astrocytes, oligodendrocytes

The repair of the epidermis after a wound begins as basal cells produce new

epidermal cells.

The dense layer of connective tissue that surrounds an entire skeletal muscle is the

epimysium.

Secondary ossification centers occur in

epiphyses

identify the structure labeled 2

epiphysis

List the major parts of a long bone. (Module 6.3A)

epiphysis, metaphysis, diaphysis, and medullary cavity

Keratin is a protein that is typically found in which tissue type?

epithelial

Which type of tissue covers exposed surfaces of the body?

epithelial

the tissue that always has a top and a bottom is ___ tissue

epithelial

What two types of tissues contribute to the formation and maintenance of the basement membrane? (Module 4.4D)

epithelial and connective tissue

Which of the following tissues covers and protects exposed surface areas of the body?

epithelial tissue

At the base of a nail, keratinized skin called the cuticle is also called the

eponychium.

A twisting motion of the foot that turns the sole of the foot outward is known as

eversion

The gluteus maximus is the most powerful muscle during __________.

extension

The largest bone of the lower limb is the

femur

Identify the bones of the lower limb. (Module 7.22A)

femur, tibia, fibula, patella, tarsal bones, metatarsal bones, and phalanges

Which tissue type, found within the knee joint and between the pubic bones of the pelvis, resists compression and limits relative movement?

fibrocartilage

The type of cartilage found in the intervertebral discs is ________ cartilage.

fibrous

The lateral bulge at your ankle is a projection from the

fibula

A rib is an example of a ________ bone.

flat

Identify the six broad categories for classifying a bone according to shape. (Module 6.2A)

flat, sutural, long, irregular, sesamoid, short

Which movements are possible at hinge joints? (Module 8.4A)

flexion and extension

Which superficial flexor muscle of the forearm is the most lateral?

flexor carpi radialis

Which muscle is a superficial anterior flexor muscle?

flexor digitorum superficialis

Which muscle of the wrist and fingers is a deep anterior flexor?

flexor pollicis longus

Ribs that have no connection to the sternum are called

floating ribs

Blood belongs to which of the following types of connective tissue?

fluid connective tissue

A ________ is a rounded passageway for passage of blood vessels and/or nerves.

foramen

What is the name of the structure labeled "8"?

foramen ovale

A rounded hole through a bone is termed a

foramen.

What is the primary function of kidneys?

form and concentrate urine

If an animal cell lacked centrioles, it would not be able to

form the mitotic spindle.

Simple cuboidal epithelium is found

forming the kidney tubules.

A shallow depression on a bone is termed a

fossa.

Damage to a bone because of extreme load, sudden impact, or stresses applied from an unusual direction is called a

fracture

Which of the following describes spiral fractures?

fractures that are produced by twisting stresses that spread along the length of the bone

Identify three different types of membranes based on permeability. (Module 3.13B)

freely permeable, selectively permeable, and impermeable

identify the bones of the orbital complex (module 7.7A)

frontal, sphenoid, zygomatic, palatine, maxilla, lacrimal, and ethmoid

If the epidermis, dermis, and part of hypodermis are burned, it is classified as.

full thickness.

The triplet codes needed to specify a specific polypeptide chain are found in the

gene

In transcription, __________.

gene activation begins with the temporary disruption of the hydrogen bonds between the complementary nitrogenous bases of the two DNA strands

Which of the following is a nerve of the lumbar plexus?

genitofemoral nerve

Which term does not describe cells with abnormal growth and division?

germ cells

The shoulder joint, or ________ joint, permits the greatest range of motion of any joint.

glenohumeral

The scapula articulates with the humerus at its ________ cavity.

glenoid

Identify the structure labeled "2."

glenoid cavity

Describe the types of motion possible at a synovial joint. (Module 8.3A)

gliding, angular, circumduction, and rotation

The most important metabolic fuel molecule in the body is

glucose

Name the muscles that compose the gluteal group. (Module 10.19A)

gluteus maximus, gluteus medius, gluteus minimus, tensor fasciae latae

In saltatory propagation, a local current produces a(n) __________.

graded depolarization

which structure supports the larynx and attaches to muscles that move the tongue?

greater horns of the hyoid bone

Regions of the CNS where neuron cell bodies dominate constitute the ________ matter.

grey

List some hormones that are necessary for maintaining a healthy integument. (Module 5.11A)

growth hormone, sex hormones, growth factors, glucocorticoids, and thyroid hormones

Compared to the hand, the foot

has a more restricted range of movement.

Muscle fibers differ from "typical cells" in that muscle fibers

have many nuclei.

The expanded articular end of an epiphysis that is separated from the shaft by a narrower neck is termed a

head.

A midsagittal section would pass through the

heart

In a typical undisturbed cell, the extracellular fluid (ECF) contains high concentrations of sodium ions and chloride ions, whereas the cytosol contains __________.

high concentrations of potassium ions and negatively charged proteins

The elbow joint is an example of a ___ joint

hinge

Which of the following is an example of a ball and socket joint

hip

Give the term for the "study of tissues." (Module 4.1A)

histology

________ is the study of tissue structures.

histology

The tendency for physiological systems to stabilize internal conditions is called

homeostasis

The central principle of physiology is

homeostasis.

Each skeletal muscle fiber contains ________ myofibrils.

hundreds to thousands

Which type of connective tissue is found between the ribs and the sternum, or supporting the trachea?

hyaline cartilage

what type occurs at 1

hyaline cartilage

The weakest bond between two atoms is the ________ bond.

hydrogen

Which element commonly has only a proton as its nucleus?

hydrogen

List the elements that make up organic compounds. (Module 2.13A)

hydrogen and carbon, and generally oxygen as well

Diffusion of a substance across the cell membrane is influenced by all of the following except

hydrolysis of ATP.

"Spikes" form on a dehydrating blood cell when it is placed in a(n) ________ solution.

hypertonic

Hemolysis may occur when a blood cell is placed into a(n) ________ solution.

hypotonic

Which of the following does not help stabilize the knee joint?

iliofemoral ligament

The majority of the fibers of the gluteus maximus insert onto the __________.

iliotibial tract

The band of collagen fibers that laterally braces the knee is the

iliotibial tract.

Elastic cartilage is found

in the ear.

The primary spinal cord

include the thoracic and sacral curves

Which of the following is not a function of synovial fluid

increasing osmotic pressure within joint

Muscular force can be adjusted to match increased loads by

increasing the frequency of action potentials in motor neurons

The chin is ________ to the nose.

inferior

Carpal tunnel syndrome is characterized by __________.

inflammation of the flexor retinaculum and/or tendon sheaths

Which of the following is true for parathyroid hormone?

inhibits calcitonin secretion.

What is the function of the posterior ramus?

innervates the muscles, joints, and skin of the back

The end of a muscle that is attached to the point that moves when the muscle contracts is called the

insertion.

Damage to which of the following muscles would interfere most with the ability to breathe?

intercostals

Which of the following are not types of neuroglia?

interneurons

Endocrine glands empty their products into ________ and are referred to as ________ glands, while exocrine gland secretions empty into ________ or onto surfaces.

interstitial fluid; ductless; ducts

Muscles located entirely within an organ are called

intrinsic.

A common type injury to the ankle occurs by excessive turning of the sole inward, termed

inversion

DNA replication __________.

involves DNA polymerase binding to nitrogenous bases that are exposed when DNA strands unwind

All of the following are true of the hypodermis except it

is attached to the dermis by a basement membrane.

When you are seated, which part of the hip bone bears your body's weight? (Module 7.19C)

ischial tuberosity

Which three bones fuse to make up the hip bone? (Module 7.19A)

ischium, ilium, and pubis

Which of the following is not true of DNA?

it carries amino acids to the ribosome.

All of the following are correct regarding RNA except

it contains a double helix

All the following are characteristics of periosteum EXCEPT __________

it is an incomplete cellular layer that lines the medullary cavity

All of the following are characteristics of nucleus, except

it packages and sorts products.

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of DNA?

it performs protein synthesis

The type of most cells that form the strata in the epidermis are

keratinocytes.

The tensor fasciae latae stabilizes the hip joint and the __________ joint.

knee

Which of these would not lead to increased oxygen consumption?

lactic acidosis

Scar tissue is the result of

large numbers of collagen fibers and relatively few blood vessels in the injured area.

Identify the structure labeled "3."

lateral epicondyle

Bending the vertebral column from side to side is an example of:

lateral flexion

Na+ and K+ both use ________ to passively diffuse across the plasma membrane.

leak channels

The mandible articulates with what other cranial bones? (Module 7.3C)

left and right temporal bones

Which facial expression muscle acts to elevate the upper lip?

levator labii superioris muscle

A(n) ________ is a rigid structure that moves on a fixed point.

lever

Identify the structure labeled "12."

linea aspera

Simple columnar epithelia are found

lining the gallbladder.

Transitional epithelium is found

lining the urinary bladder.

Bone is ____ tissue.

living connective

To keep the humeral head centered within the glenoidal cavity the rotator cuff muscles must be __________.

located in the same plane

The humerus is an example of a(n) ________ bone.

long

Which of the following organelles damages pathogens?

lysosomes

Messenger RNA is vital to the cell because

mRNA can leave the nucleus, and DNA cannot leave the nucleus.

What is the main function of mesenchymal cells?

make new connective tissue cells

The most dangerous type of skin cancer is termed

malignant melanoma.

Milk is produced by ________ glands.

mammary

Which of the following is not primarily a muscle of facial expression?

masseter

The sternocleidomastoid inserts on the

mastoid process.

cancer cells

may exhibit metastasis

the heart is ______ to the lungs.

medial

Fat is stored within the

medullary cavity.

An albino individual lacks the ability to produce

melanin.

The endoplasmic reticulum is an example of a(n) ________ organelle.

membranous

Name the foramina of the mandible. (Module 7.8A)

mental foramina and mandibular foramina

Perspiration is produced by ________ glands.

merocine sweat

Which type of glands secret their products by exocytosis?

merocrine

List the three types of RNA involved in protein synthesis. (Module 3.10C)

messenger RNA, transfer RNA, and ribosomal RNA

What is the term for mRNA?

messenger ribonucleic acid

The region of a long bone between the end and the shaft is known as the

metaphysis.

List the three basic components of the cytoskeleton. (Module 3.4A)

microfilaments, intermediate filaments, and microtubules

Which of the following cytoskeleton components moves the chromosomes during cell division?

microtubules

Which of the following organelles produces 95% of cell ATP?

mitochondria

Most of the ATP required to power cellular operations is produced in the

mitochondria.

The proper distribution of a cell's genetic material to two daughter cells is accomplished by the process of

mitosis

DNA replication occurs during what two cellular processes? (Module 3.19D)

mitosis and meiosis

Nuclear division in somatic cells is known as

mitosis.

All of the following are correct regarding DNA except

molecular shape varies with hydrogen bonding along the length of the strand.

Breathing faster and deeper eliminates more carbon dioxide from the body than normal breathing. Under these circumstances,

more carbon dioxide will diffuse out of the blood in the lungs.

When acetylcholine binds to receptors at the motor end plate, the end plate membrane becomes

more permeable to sodium ions

lumbar and vertebrae are ________ massive and ________ mobile.

most; least

Receptors for acetylcholine are located on the

motor end plate

A single motor neuron together with all the muscle fibers it innervates is called a(n)

motor unit.

Abduction is a __________.

movement away from the longitudinal axis of the body in the frontal plane

Which of the following movements is a good example of flexion?

moving the hand toward the shoulder

Unicellular exocrine glands secrete

mucus

The most common neurons in the CNS, including the motor neurons that control skeletal muscles, are __________.

multipolar neurons

Tissue that is specialized for contraction is ________ tissue.

muscle

Which type of tissue contracts to produce movements?

muscle

Neurons and ________ have electrically excitable membranes that propagate action potentials.

muscle cells

Which of the following cell types is long, slender and makes contractions?

muscle cells

The white matter of the spinal cord is mainly

myelinated axons.

Name the proteins that make up a thick filament. (Module 9.4B)

myosin and titin

The nail body covers the

nail bed

If a response decreases a disturbance, the system is classified as a ________ feedback system.

negative

When body temperature rises, a center in the brain initiates physiological changes to decrease the body temperature. This is an example of

negative feedback.

An alternate term for tumor is

neoplasm

Which organ system directs immediate responses to stimuli?

nervous system

Tissue that is specialized for the conduction of electrical impulses is ________ tissue.

neural

Which type of tissue conducts electrical impulses?

neural

The gray horns of the spinal cord contain mainly

neuron cell bodies.

The basic functional unit of the nervous system is the

neuron.

All ________ function to propagate electrical signals from one place to another.

neurons

A solution containing equal numbers of hydrogen ions and hydroxide ions is

neutral

The tiny gaps between adjacent Schwann cells are called

nodes.

Which neurotransmitter is located in most neuromuscular and neuroglandular junctions of the sympathetic division of the ANS?

norepinephrine

The nucleus is surrounded by the

nuclear envelope.

Transfer of mRNA from the nucleus to the cytosol occurs through

nuclear pores

Molecules that store and process genetic information are

nucleic acids

All the following are familiar indicators of inflammation EXCEPT:

numbness.

The opening in the diaphysis through which blood vessels provide oxygen to osteons is named the ________ foramen.

nutrient

The foramen magnum is found in the ____ bone.

occipital

Continuous propagation __________.

occurs along unmyelinated axons

Rigor mortis __________.

occurs as the sarcoplasmic reticulum deteriorates, releasing calcium ions

Terms of anatomical direction are used to describe

one body part in relation to another

The "kissing muscle" that purses the lips is the

orbicularis oris.

Moving from simpler to more complex, which level of organization is immediately before (simpler than) the cell?

organelle

Carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins are classified as

organic molecules.

Which of the following is arranged in correct order from the most complex to the simplest?

organism, system, organ, tissue, cellular, molecular

Based on the Biological Hierarchy of Organization, tissues join together to form what structures?

organs

The end of a muscle that remains stationary when the muscle contracts is called the

origin

_____is also known as degenerative joint disease.

osteoarthritis

What are mature bone cells in lacunae called? (Module 4.14B)

osteocytes

The lacunae of osseous tissue contain

osteocytes.

What is the functional unit of compact bone? (Module 4.14C)

osteon

The molecule O2 is known as

oxygen

Of the list below, which has the highest concentration of hydroxide ions?

pH 14

Which pH is closest to normal blood pH?

pH 7

Define pH. (Module 2.12A)

pH is a measure of the hydrogen ion concentration in a solution.

During an inflammatory response to injury, which of the following is least likely in the region of the injury?

pale, cold skin

The palmaris longus inserts on the __________.

palmar aponeurosis

Which of the following is a wrist flexor?

palmaris longus muscle

Most of the skeletal muscles in the body are ________ muscles.

parallel

Muscles with fibers that run parallel to the long axis of the body are called

parallel.

A cut parallel to the midsagittal plane would produce a ________ section.

parasagittal

Identify the hormone that stimulates the release of calcium ions from bone matrix. Explain its mechanism of action. (Module 6.11A)

parathyroid hormone; increases osteoclast break down of bone matrix

Identify the sesamoid bone of the lower limb. (Module 7.22C)

patella

which of the following terms refers to the foot?

pedal

The quadrants of the abdominopelvic region include all of the following except the

pelvic quadrant

The clearest distinction between a male and female skeleton is seen in the characteristics of the

pelvis

The thoracic cavity contains the

pericardial and pleural cavities.

Which of the following structures is located within the mediastinum?

pericardial sac

idenitfy the structure at 4

periosteum

The plasma membrane includes all of the following except

peripheral proteins

If a surgeon makes an incision just inferior to the diaphragm, which body cavity will be opened? (Module 1.22C)

peritoneal portion of the abdominopelvic cavity

The ________ of a membrane indicates how easy it is for substances to cross.

permeability

The bony portion of the nasal septum is formed by the

perpendicular plate of the ethmoid and the vomer bone.

The brachial plexus gives rise to all of the following nerves except the

phrenic.

The layer of the meninges in direct contact with the spinal cord is the

pia mater

The bumpy bone on the medial side of your wrist is actually the ________ bone.

pisiform

The watery fluid component of blood is called

plasma

Which muscle terminology pairing is correct?

platy-flat

The ________ covers the anterior surface of the neck.

platysma

Of the following clinical conditions affecting skeletal muscle, which is caused by a virus?

polio

The anatomical term for the thumb is

pollex

Which of the following is least likely to result in a genetic mutation?

poor health

To allow for flexion, the __________ unlocks the knee joint.

popliteus

What structure contains the cell bodies of sensory neurons?

posterior root ganglion

The separation of plus and negative charges across the membrane creates a ________ difference, or voltage.

potential

A sequence of amino acids bonded together in a linear chain is called a

primary structure.

All of the following are true of perspiration produced by merocrine sweat glands except that it

produces the body odor characteristic of "sweating."

All of the following are functions of accessory structures of integument except

production of skin pigments.

A person lying face down is in the ______ position

prone

The extracellular matrix of connective tissues consists of which of the following?

protein fibers and ground substance

mRNA is needed to synthesize ________ in the cytoplasm.

proteins

Each of the following is an example of an inorganic compound except

proteins.

The "atomic number" of an atom is determined by the number of ________ it has.

protons

The mass of an atom is largely determined by the number of ________ it has.

protons + neutrons

The mass number represents the number of

protons + neutrons.

The nucleus of an atom consist of

protons+neutrons

The nucleus of an atom consists of

protons+neutrons

Which subatomic particles have a positive charge? Which are uncharged? (Module 2.1B)

protons; neutrons

A herniated intervertebral disc is caused by

protrusion of the nucleus pulposus

Which of the following is not a function of the axial skeleton?

provides an attachment for calf muscles

List four essential functions of epithelial tissue. (Module 4.3A)

provides physical protection, controls permeability, provides sensation, and produces specialized secretions

At which joint do pronation and supination occur?

proximal radio-ulnar joint

The pubic bones are joined anteriorly by what structure? (Module 7.20B)

pubic symphysis

The two pubic bones join medially at the

pubic symphysis

Adenine and guanine are

purines represented by A and G

Many gyms feature weightlifting machines called "adductor machines" that are used to strengthen the thighs. If you were to work out on one of these, what would you be doing?

pushing both thighs inward toward a center point, bringing your knees together

Which bone of the forearm is positioned laterally when in the anatomical position? (Module 7.17B)

radius

Which of the following is a forearm bone?

radius

The interosseous membrane is located between the __________.

radius and ulna

A projection at an angle on a bone is termed a

ramus.

List the components of a reflex arc. (Module 12.12B)

receptor, sensory neuron, motor neuron, effector, and sometimes interneurons may be involved

The increase in muscle tension that is produced by increasing the number of active motor units is called

recruitment

Which axial muscle is often known as the "six-pack" in physically fit people? (Module 10.13A)

rectus abdominis

Name the muscle of the quadriceps femoris. (Module 10.20B)

rectus femoris, vastus intermedius, vastus lateralis, vastus medialis

All of the following are examples of positive feedback, except

relaxation of smooth muscles' blood vessels when body temperature goes up.

Mitosis is to somatic cells as meiosis is to ________ cells.

reproductive

Which of the following processes, for very small organisms, simply involves transferring materials across exposed surfaces?

respiration

The framework or stroma of organs such as the spleen, liver, and lymph nodes is made up of ________ tissue.

reticular connective

What is the term for rRNA?

ribosomal ribonucleic acid

The urinary bladder is found in the ________ quadrant and the ________ quadrant.

right lower; left lower

After death, muscle fibers run out of ATP and calcium begins to leak from the sarcoplasmic reticulum into the sarcoplasm. This results in a condition known as

rigor mortis.

Nail production occurs at the nail

root.

Which form of endoplasmic reticulum modifies and packages newly synthesized proteins?

rough endoplasmic reticulum

Which of the following organelles has ribosomes bound to its membrane?

rough endoplasmic reticulum

A cell duplicates its chromosomes during the ________ phase.

s

Name the bones of the pelvis. (Module 7.20A)

sacrum, coccyx, and the hip bones

Which plane divides the body into right and left parts?

sagittal

Each of the following terms is a descriptive term for a muscle's action except

sartorius.

Which carpal bones articulate with the radius?

scaphoid and lunate

Name the carpal bones. (Module 7.18A)

scaphoid, lunate, triquetrum, pisiform, trapezium, trapezoid, capitate, hamate

Name the bones of the pectoral girdles. (Module 7.16A)

scapula and clavicle

Which of the following is a holocrine exocrine gland?

sebaceous

Contracting the gastrocnemius muscles to elevate the body on the toes involves a ________ lever.

second-class

What process is shown at "6"?

secondary ossification

Merocrine sweat glands

secrete a watery fluid directly onto the surface of the skin.

Epithelial cells exhibit modifications that adapt them for

secretion.

Cell membranes are said to be ________ because they allow some substances to pass but not others.

selectively permeable

Which division of the PNS brings information to the CNS? (Module 11.1B)

sensory

If the posterior root of a spinal nerve is severed

sensory input would be blocked.

The posterior horns of the spinal cord contain mainly

sensory nuclei.

Which of the following is not a function of membrane proteins?

serve as cell nutrients

Which class of bones develops inside tendons and is most commonly located near joints at the knees, the hands, and the feet?

sesamoid bones

To allow movement of the tendons within the carpal tunnel zone, each tendon is encased in a __________.

sheath

The carpal bones are examples of ________ bones.

short

Compared to the vertebral column, the spinal cord is

shorter.

Name the type of synovial joint for each of the following: shoulder, elbow, ankle, and thumb. (Module 8.3D)

shoulder: ball-and-socket elbow: hinge ankle: hinge thumb: saddle.

Which of the following activities or sensations is not monitored by interoceptors?

sight

Merocrine sweat glands are classified as

simple coiled tubular.

The body's most delicate type of epithelium is the ________ epithelium.

simple squamous

__ epithelium is found inside the eyes.

simple squamous

The epithelial cells that are flat, thin and have one layer are called

simple squamous.

If one pair of electrons is unequally shared between two atoms, a ________ occurs.

single polar covalent bond

A chamber within a bone normally filled with air is a

sinus

Of the following tissues, which has the least ability to regenerate after injury?

skeletal muscle

Gap junctions can be found in all of the following tissues except

skeletal muscle.

The substance called sebum is commonly known as

skin oil.

The type of muscle fiber that is most resistant to fatigue is the ________ fiber.

slow

Which type of muscle fiber predominates in the leg muscles of endurance athletes, such as long-distance runners? (Module 9.14C)

slow fibers

The muscle tissue that shows no striations is ________ muscle.

smooth

A(n) ________ is a homogeneous mixture containing a solvent and a solute.

solution

The ________ nervous system controls the skeletal muscles.

somatic

________ cells are all of the cells of the body except the reproductive cells (sperm and oocytes).

somatic

The anterior horns of the spinal cord contain mainly

somatic motor nuclei.

Identify the three basic components of connective tissue. (Module 4.10A)

specialized cells, protein fibers, and ground substance

A skull bone that could be described as looking like a bat with wings extended is the

sphenoid

Identify the structure labeled "7"

spine

When you run your finger down the middle of a person's spine, what part of each vertebra are you feeling just beneath the skin? (Module 7.11C)

spinous processes

A ________ fracture is produced by twisting stresses applied to the bone.

spiral

Which of the following movements is a good example of abduction?

spreading the fingers

Which suture forms the boundary between the temporal bone and the parietal bone of that side?

squamous suture

Skin can regenerate effectively even after considerable damage has occurred because

stem cells persist in both epithelial and connective-tissue components of the skin even after injury.

which of the following is an axial muscle?

sternocleidomastoid

Which bone(s) include(s) a manubrium?

sternum

Which of the following substances would be most acidic?

stomach secretions, pH = 1

The ducts of sweat glands and mammary glands are covered by ________ epithelium.

stratified cuboidal

In which layer of skin are keratinocytes produced?

stratum basale

The layer of dividing cells at the base of the epidermis is the

stratum basale.

Insensible perspiration takes place in the

stratum corneum.

Anatomy is to__________ as physiology is to __________.

structure; function

The ________ of the radius helps stabilize the wrist joint.

styloid process

Where is spinal CSF located? (Module 12.3A)

subarachnoid space

Cerebrospinal fluid flows within the

subarachnoid space.

Which of the following is not a muscle of the rotator cuff?

subclavius

Muscles visible at the body surface are often called

superficialis.

List the major nerves of the sacral plexus. (Module 12.10B)

superior and inferior gluteal, posterior femoral cutaneous, sciatic, and pudendal nerves

The gluteus medius muscle is innervated by the __________.

superior gluteal nerve

A person is lying on the bed gazing at the ceiling. She is in the ________ position.

supine

Damage to a joint cartilage is affecting which type of tissue?

supporting connective

Functions of epithelia include all of the following except

supporting muscle cells.

The site of intercellular communication between neurons is the

synapse.

The narrow space between the synaptic terminal and the muscle fiber is the

synaptic cleft

A suture is an example of a(n)

synarthrosis

An immovable joint is a(n)

synarthrosis

The fibrous connection between a tooth and its socket is functionally and structurally classified as which of the following?

synarthrotic gomphosis

Functionally, all of the following are synarthroses EXCEPT __________.

syndesmosis

Which of the following is not one of the four major types of synarthrotic joints?

syndesmosis

An epiphyseal line is an example of a

synostosis

Which structural category of joints allows for the greatest range of motion? (Module 8.1B)

synovial

Each of the following is a function of the integumentary system except

synthesis of vitamin C.

Amino acids are transferred to the ribosome to be incorporated into a growing polypeptide chain by

tRNA

The movements known as dorsiflexion and plantar flexion are limited to the

talocrural.

The distal end of the tibia articulates with the

talus

During this phase of cell division, the chromosomes uncoil, the nuclear membrane forms, and cytokinesis occurs.

telophase

Which of the following is not a function of the skeletal system?

temperature regulation

An example of a receptor in a negative feedback loop controlling body temperature would be

temperature sensors on the skin that detect a stimulus.

The external acoustic meatus is a foramen in which skull bone?

temporal

Which of the following are not components of the skeletal system?

tendons

________ hairs are coarse pigmented hairs.

terminal

Within a resting skeletal muscle fiber, where is the greatest concentration of Ca2+? (Module 9.3C)

terminal cisternae of the sarcoplasmic reticulum

Many medications introduced into the bloodstream cannot directly affect the neurons of the CNS because

the astrocytes isolate the CNS by forming a blood-brain barrier.

The structure of RNA differs from DNA in that

the backbone of RNA contains ribose

A characteristic of graded potentials is __________

the effect spreads passively through local currents

Membrane potential is

the electrical gradient of a cell.

Accessory structures of the skin include all of the following except

the epidermis.

A high-energy bond in ATP is present between

the first and second, and the second and third, phosphate groups

If the papilla of a hair follicle is destroyed,

the follicle will lose its blood supply.

In a first-class lever __________.

the fulcrum lies between the applied force and the load

The term "branched" in glandular structure refers to

the glandular areas of the gland

All of the following are correct regarding hair growth cycle except that

the hair becomes club hair during regression phase.

All of the following are true of the dermis EXCEPT that __________.

the hypodermis is part of the dermis

Tertiary protein structure results mainly from which interaction or bonding?

the interactions between the polypeptide chain and the surrounding water molecules

What makes a connective tissue "loose" or "dense"? (Module 4.12A)

the packing or volume of fibers

Identify the facial bones. (Module 7.3A)

the paired nasal, lacrimal, palatine, zygomatic, maxillae, and inferior nasal conchae, and the unpaired vomer and mandible

Facilitated diffusion differs from ordinary diffusion in that

the rate of molecular movement is limited by the number of available carrier molecules.

Bill accidentally fractures his first distal phalanx with a hammer. Which finger is broken? (Module 7.18C)

the tip of his thumb

What is the most important function of carbohydrates? (Module 2.14A)

they are the primary energy source

How are the skeletal system and muscular system related or similar in function?

they both function in support within the human body.

The most common lever systems in the body are those that have the applied force between the fulcrum and the load. These are called ________ levers.

third-class

The two major divisions of the ventral body cavity are the

thoracic and abdominopelvic.

The muscle known as the diaphragm separates the ________ from the ________.

thoracic cavity; abdominopelvic cavity

the minimum stimulus required to trigger an action potential is known as the

threshold

the common name for the pollex is the

thumb

The pyrimidine bases found in DNA are ________ and ________.

thymine; cytosine

Your ________ is your shinbone.

tibia

The medial surface of the knee joint is reinforced by the ________ ligament.

tibial collateral

An antagonist to the gastrocnemius is the

tibialis anterior

A muscle that dorsiflexes the foot is the

tibialis anterior.

What is the function of enzymes?

to lower the activation energy requirements of a reaction

A muscle whose name ends in the suffix "-glossus" would be found within or attached to the

tongue.

The process of forming mRNA is called

transcription

What is the term for tRNA?

transfer ribonucleic acid

Neuroglia do all of the following EXCEPT:

transmit electrical impulses

Which sectional plane would separate the thorax from the abdomen?

transverse

Which muscle forms the deepest layer of the abdominal wall muscles? (Module 10.10A)

transversus abdominis

Muscles with fibers that run perpendicular to the long axis of the body are called

transversus.

identify the largest of the superficial muscles that position the pectoral girdle. (Module 10.14A)

trapezius

The muscle that extends the arm while doing push-ups is the

triceps brachii.

At rest, active sites on the actin are blocked by

tropomyosin molecules.

When calcium ion binds to troponin,

tropomyosin moves into the groove between the helical actin strands.

A small rough bump on bone where a tendon attaches is called a

tuberosity.

Goblet cells are classified as

unicellular exocrine glands.

Artificial joints __________.

usually have a service life of only about 15 years.

Which of the following muscles of the thigh is located most anteriorly?

vastus medialis muscle

Gesturing "no" with the head does not depends on which of the following?

vertebra prominens

The part of the vertebrae that transfers weight along the axis of the vertebral column is the

vertebral body

To which part of the vertebra do the intervertebral discs attach? (Module 7.10C)

vertebral body

Neurotransmitter for release is stored in synaptic

vesicles.

Of the following bones, which is unpaired?

vomer

When does a muscle contraction begin?

when stored calcium ions are released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum into the sarcoplasm through gated calcium channels

Which of the following best describes the term "Z line"?

where thin filaments are anchored

Regions of the CNS with an abundance of myelinated axons constitute the ________ matter.

white

the three kinds of formed elements in blood are

white cells, red cells, and platelets

The common term for the carpal region is the

wrist


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