A&P 1 Chapters 1-9
When the arrector pili muscles contract,
"goose bumps" are formed.
What is the resting membrane potential for most neurons?
-70 mV
A cross-sectional diagram of skin showing the layers of the cutaneous membrane including the accessory structures of the integument. Figure 5-1 Which layer is the primary barrier against environmental hazards?
1
How many nuclei do most body cells contain? (Module 3.8B)
1
Humans normally have ________ pairs of ribs.
12
The vertebral column contains ____ thoracic vertrbrae
12
Along with the ribs and sternum, what other bones make up the thoracic cage? (Module 7.14C)
12 thoracic
Of the following choices, the pH of the least acidic solution is
12.0.
How many bones are in the appendicular skeleton? (Module 7.15A)
126
Each hand has ________ phalangeal bones.
14
Identify the sphenoid bone.
2
The innermost electron shell in an atom holds up to ________ electrons.
2
The adult skeleton contains ________ major bones.
206
How many chromosomes are contained within a typical somatic cell? (Module 3.9C)
23 pairs
A cross-sectional diagram of skin showing the layers of the cutaneous membrane including the accessory structures of the integument. Figure 5-1 An intradermal injection is administered into which layer?
3
A cross-sectional diagram of skin showing the layers of the cutaneous membrane including the accessory structures of the integument. Figure 5-1 Which layer contains most of the accessory organs?
3
Around which structure does the radius rotate?
3
A skeletal muscle fiber can contract until it has shortened by about
30 percent
The spinal cord consists of five regions and ________ segments.
31
A typical spinal cord has how many pairs of spinal nerves, and where does the spinal cord end? (Module 12.2A)
31 pairs; lumbar vertebra 1 or 2
After age ________ the vertebral column continues to elongate, but the spinal cord itself does not.
4
The muscular system of humans contributes approximately what percentage to the adult body weight?
44 percent
The epidermis in the thin skin contains ________ layer(s) and in the thick skin contains ________ layers.
4; 5
The vertebral column contains ________ lumbar vertebrae.
5
Where is the spinal cord located?
5
Which structure articulates with the glenoid cavity?
5
Which structure is the acromion?
5
While walking barefoot on the beach, Joe stepped on a thorn that penetrated through the sole of his foot to the dermis. How many layers of epidermis did the thorn penetrate?
5
Identify the place where the humerus often fractures.
6
which structure encloses the pituitary gland
6
Identify the diaphysis of the femur.
7
Normal human skeletons contain _ cervical vertebrae.
7
When the arm is extended at the elbow, which structure accepts the olecranon?
8
How many bones make up the axial skeleton?
80
There are ________ carpal bones located in the wrist, which form ________ rows of bones in the wrist.
8;2
Where would calcium ions be predominately found?
9
Aerobic metabolism normally provides ________ percent of the ATP demands of a resting muscle cell.
95
The region of the sarcomere containing the thick and thin filaments is the
A band
Describe a dermatome. (Module 12.5B)
A dermatome is the bilateral sensory region monitored by a single pair of spinal nerves.
What is a gene? (Module 3.10A)
A gene is a portion of a DNA strand that functions as a hereditary unit and codes for a specific protein.
Describe the relationship between joint strength and mobility. (Module 8.6A)
A joint that is strong is not very mobile.
What is a benign tumor? (Module 3.21B)
A mass produced by abnormal growth and division of cells that remains within the original tissue and does not spread.
Define motor unit. (Module 9.10B)
A motor unit is a motor neuron and all the muscle fibers that it controls.
Which has the greater concentration of hydrogen ions, a substance with a pH of 5 or a substance with a pH of 4?
A pH of 4 is greater.
What is a reflex? (Module 12.1B)
A reflex is a rapid, automatic response triggered by specific stimuli.
Define retinaculum. (Module 10.16A)
A retinaculum is a wide band of connective tissue that stabilizes tendons.
A fibrin clot that is formed over a skin wound is called
A scab
Define spinal reflex. (Module 12.1C)
A spinal reflex is an automatic response to a stimulus that is controlled in the spinal cord and can function without input from the brain.
Define suture. (module 7.2C)
A suture is a fibrous connective tissue immovable joint between the flat bones of the skull.
Describe a synapse. (Module 11.2B)
A synapse is where one neuron communicates with another cell.
Define the term synergist as it relates to muscle action. (Module 10.3A)
A synergist is a muscle that helps the agonist perform its actions more efficiently.
Define tendon and aponeurosis. (Module 9.2A)
A tendon is a bundle of collagen fibers that connects a skeletal muscle to a bone, whereas an aponeurosis is a broad collagenous sheet that connects skeletal muscle to a broad area on one or more bones.
Which complementary base pairing is unique to RNA?
A-U
Which ligament is a severely hyperextended knee more likely to damage: the ACL or the PCL? (Module 8.10C)
ACL
Which neurotransmitter is the most studied?
ACh
AMP + P →
ADP
The anticodon for the triplet UCA is
AGU
A two-second duration of isometric tetanic contraction is supported by which energy source alone?
ATP
Describe ATP. (Module 2.19A)
ATP consists of an adenosine molecule with three phosphate groups attached.
Identify three sources of stored energy utilized by muscle fibers. (Module 9.12B
ATP, creatine phosphate, and glycogen
What is the survival rate of a localized malignant melanoma that is detected and removed in the early stages of the cancer?
Above 95%
When a person does jumping jacks, which limb movements are necessary? (Module 8.4C)
Adduction and abduction
Which of the following is not part of cell theory?
All cells differentiate into specialized cell types.
Which of the following muscles belongs to the flexors of the knee muscle group?
All of the answers are correct
The sternum contains
All of the answers are correct.
Why would an elderly person be more prone to skin infections than a younger person?
All of the answers are correct.
Describe the all-or-none principle. (Module 11.10B)
All stimuli that bring the membrane to threshold will generate identical action potentials.
Why do the pharynx, esophagus, anus, and vagina have a similar epithelial organization? (Module 4.5B)
All these sites are subject to physical stresses and abrasion.
Define action potential. (Module 11.10A)
An action potential is the propagated change in membrane potential of an excitable cell.
What is an enzyme? (Module 2.9A)
An enzyme is a protein that lowers the activation energy of a reaction.
Define organ. (Module 1.10B)
An organ is two or more tissues working to perform several functions.
Which division of the skeleton has the greater range of motion? (Module 8.6B)
Appendicular
Where is articular cartilage found, and how is it nourished? (Module 6.3C)
Articular cartilage is found covering both epiphyseal portions of articulating bone and nutrients diffuse from synovial fluid within the joint.
What is the function of the axial muscles? (Module 10.4A)
Axial muscles position the head and spinal column and also move the rib cage for breathing.
Why is basal cell carcinoma considered less dangerous than malignant melanoma? (Module 5.3D)
Basal cell carcinomas rarely become malignant and metastasize, whereas malignant melanoma cells quickly spread throughout the lymphatic system to other organs
Which of the labels in Figure 4-1 indicates an adhesion belt?
C
The most abundant mineral in the human body is
Calcium
What event initiates the contraction cycle?
Calcium ions arrive within the zone of overlap.
Which event occurs at the axon terminal?
Calcium ions enter the cytoplasm and trigger exocytosis of the neurotransmitter.
________ is a pigment found in vegetables that can make the skin appear orange or yellow.
Carotene
When does cell division begin and end? (Module 3.18C)
Cell division begins at mitosis and ends at cytokinesis.
A transverse fracture of the wrist that may be comminuted is called a ________ fracture.
Colles
The pancreas is an example of which glandular structure?
Compound tubuloalveolar
Compare concentric and eccentric contractions. (Module 9.11B)
Concentric contractions occur when the muscle tension exceeds the load, and the muscle shortens. Eccentric contractions occur when the muscle tension is less than the load, and the muscle elongates
Cross-bridges are portions of
Cross-bridges are portions ofmyosin molecules.
Distinguish between the cytoplasm and cytosol. (Module 3.2A)
Cytoplasm is the material between the plasma membrane and the nuclear membrane; cytosol is the fluid portion of the cytoplasm.
Vitamin ________ is formed in the skin when it is exposed to sunlight.
D
_______ is the process of duplicating chromosomes prior to cell division.
DNA replication
Chromosomes consist of ________ and ________.
DNA; Proteins
How does calcitonin act to lower blood calcium? (Module 6.11C)
Decreases osteoclast break down of bone matrix, decreases calcitriol production, decreases intestinal absorption, and increases renal excretion
Describe depolarization, repolarization, and hyperpolarization. (Module 11.9B)
Depolarization is a shift in membrane potential toward a more positive value; repolarization is the return of the membrane potential to resting; and hyperpolarization is a shift in membrane potential toward a more negative value.
Compare dorsiflexion and plantar flexion. (Module 8.4B)
Dorsiflexion is upward movement of the foot or toes. Plantar flexion extends the ankle joint and bends the foot or toes down, as in standing on tiptoes.
Compare the absolute refractory period with the relative refractory period (module 11.10C)
During the absolute refractory period the membrane cannot respond to further stimulation. During the relative refractory period the membrane can respond only to a larger-than-normal stimulus.
Which of the following is correct regarding muscle fatigue and recovery?
During the recovery period, lactate can be recycled back to pyruvate.
Which of the following statements about genes is not correct?
Each single chromosome contains one single gene.
Define endochondral ossification. (Module 6.7A)
Endochondral ossification is the replacement of a cartilage model with bone.
Describe the two primary types of glands. (Module 4.8A)
Endocrine glands release their substances into the interstitial fluid; exocrine glands release their secretions into ducts that open onto an epithelial surface.
Where do cells obtain the energy needed for their vital functions? (Module 2.19C)
Energy comes from breaking high energy bonds in a compound.
Why do our cells need enzymes? (Module 2.9B)
Enzymes lower the activation energy of a reaction so it can occur.
________ line the brain ventricles and spinal canal.
Ependymal cells
________ provide information about the external environment.
Exteroceptors
Which of the following is the best situation for maintaining homeostasis?
Extracellular fluid should be isotonic to intracellular fluid.
Compare F-actin with G-actin. (Module 9.4A)
F actin is a twisted strand made up of two rows of G actin subunits where myosin heads can bind.
Which of the following statements is/are not true regarding human muscles?
Fast fibers are high in myoglobin.
What purposes do fontanelles serve? (Module 7.9B)
Fontanelles permit flexibility of the skull during childbirth and allow room for the brain to enlarge during infancy and early childhood
Choose the correct statement regarding synapses.
Gap junctions at an electrical synapse interlock the presynaptic and postsynaptic membranes.
How is genetic information coded in the cell? (Module 3.8A)
Genetic information is coded by the sequence of nucleotides in DNA.
Compare gigantism with acromegaly. (Module 6.9C)
Gigantism results from an overproduction of growth hormone before puberty, whereas acromegaly results from an overproduction of growth hormone after puberty.
Define graded potential. (Module 11.9A)
Graded potential is a temporary, localized change in the potential of a cell.
Distinguish between growth and development. (Module 1.7B)
Growth refers to an increase in size. Development refers to changes in structures and functions as the organism grows.
Distinguish between hydrophilic and hydrophobic molecules. (Module 2.11C)
Hydrophilic molecules are attracted to water, whereas hydrophobic molecules do not interact with water molecules.
The region of the sarcomere that always contains only thin filaments is the
I band.
________ monitor the digestive, respiratory, cardiovascular, urinary, and reproductive systems.
Interoceptors
________ monitor the internal environment.
Interoceptors
Which of the following is a function of the meniscus?
It channels the flow of synovial fluid.
Which of the following is correct regarding cytoplasm?
It contains cytosol and organelles.
Define gray matter in the spinal cord.
It contains the cell bodies of neurons, neuroglia, and unmyelinated axons, and it surrounds the narrow central canal.
Which of the following is not true of the muscular system?
It depends upon the cardiovascular system to provide the hemoglobin stored in slow muscle fibers.
Which of the following statements about water is not correct?
It has a relatively low heat capacity.
Why would areolar tissue be considered the ideal type for connective tissue proper?
It has all cell types found in other forms of connective tissue
Which of the following is not true of the skeletal system?
It interacts with the lymphatic system to regulate calcium levels.
Which of the following is true about genetic mutation?
It is a change in the DNA base sequence.
How is the H band distinguished from the other prominent structural features of the sarcomere?
It is a lighter region that contains thick filaments, but no thin filaments.
What is an important characteristic of amino acid uracil?
It is found only in RNA
What is the significance of the cauda equina? (Module 12.2E)
It is made up of extensions of the posterior and anterior roots of spinal segments L2 to S5. It forms as the vertebral column continues to elongate after growth of the spinal cord ceases at about age 4
Which of the following statements about tissue swelling that occurs during inflammation is true?
It is triggered by histamine and caused by increased endothelial permeability.
Which of the following statements about the Golgi apparatus is false?
It sends transport vesicles to the RER.
How would a drug that blocks acetylcholine receptors at the motor end plate affect skeletal muscle?
It would cause flaccid paralysis (muscles are relaxed and unable to contract).
How would the loss of acetylcholinesterase from the motor end plate affect skeletal muscle?
It would cause spastic paralysis (muscles are contracted and unable to relax).
What properties are common to keratinized epithelia? (Module 4.5C)
Keratinized epithelia are both tough and water resistant.
Which gastrointestinal organ is responsible for bile secretion and regulation of blood nutrient composition?
Liver
What is transcription? (Module 3.11A)
Making an RNA strand from the DNA template
Which of the following is a direct example of the study of physiology?
Measuring heart rate and noting blood pressure.
Define membrane potential. (Module 11.6A)
Membrane potential is the unequal charge distribution between the inner and outer surfaces of the plasma membrane.
________ increase surface area to facilitate absorption of extracellular materials.
Microvilli
Define mitosis, and list its four stages. (Module 3.20A)
Mitosis is the division of a cell into two identical daughter cells. The four stages are prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase.
Why is a CNS neuron not usually replaced after it is injured? (Module 11.2D)
Most CNS neurons are not replaced because they lack centrioles so they cannot divide.
What happens to the lactate produced by skeletal muscle during peak activity? (Module 9.13C)
Most of the lactate diffuses into the bloodstream and enters the liver where it is converted to pyruvate.
When do muscle fibers produce lactate? (Module 9.12C)
Muscle fibers produce lactate when there is a lack of oxygen.
Define muscle hypertrophy and muscle atrophy. (Module 9.15A)
Muscle hypertrophy is an increase in the size of the muscle cells and muscle atrophy is a decrease in the size of the muscle cells.
When a skeletal muscle fiber contracts, which of the following does not occur?
Myosin and actin filaments decrease in length.
________ account for roughly half of the volume of the nervous system.
Neuroglia
Classify neurons based on their function. (Module 11.3B)
Neurons are classified functionally as sensory, interneurons, or motor neurons.
Classify neurons based on their structure. (Module 11.3A)
Neurons are classified structurally as anaxonic, bipolar, unipolar, or multipolar.
Describe the functions of osteocytes. (Module 6.4B)
Osteocytes are mature bone cells that maintain the bone matrix.
Describe the functions of osteogenic cells and osteoblasts. (Module 6.4A)
Osteogenic cells are stem cells that form osteoblasts. Osteoblasts are immature bone cells that secrete the organic components of bone matrix.
Describe the external environment of most of the body's cells. (Module 3.2D)
Our cells are surrounded by a watery extracellular fluid.
Most of a cell's ATP is produced within its mitochondria. What gas do mitochondria require to produce ATP, and what gas results? (Module 3.7B)
Oxygen is required to produce ATP, and carbon dioxide is released in the process.
All the following result in decreased calcium levels in the bloodstream EXCEPT __________.
PTH stimulation of osteoclasts
Distinguish between passive and active processes of membrane passage. (Module 3.13C)
Passive processes do not need ATP and active processes do need ATP.
Ankle fractures that affect both bones of the leg are called __________.
Pott's fractures
Compare presynaptic and postsynaptic cells. (Module 11.2C)
Presynaptic cells are usually neurons and postsynaptic cells can be a neuron or another type of cell, such as skeletal muscle fiber or a gland cell.
________ monitor the position of skeletal muscles and joints.
Proprioceptors
__________ monitor the position and movement of skeletal muscles and joints.
Proprioceptors
Define range of motion (ROM). (Module 8.1A)
Range of motion is the amount of movement at a joint
Define resting membrane potential. (Module 11.7A)
Resting membrane potential is the membrane potential of an unstimulated cell.
Which of the following statements regarding ribosomes is FALSE?
Ribosomes also function in the synthesis of the phospholipids and cholesterol.
Which glial cells are found only in the PNS?
Schwann cells
Identify the neuroglia of the PNS. (Module 11.5A)
Schwann cells and satellite cells
Describe the direction of sensory input and motor commands relative to the spinal cord. (Module 12.1A)
Sensory input travels toward the spinal cord and motor commands travel away from the spinal cord.
Chapter 1 Which organ system provides support, protection of soft tissue, mineral storage, and blood formation?
Skeletal
Name the three types of muscle tissue, identify where they are found, and list their functions. (Module 9.1A)
Skeletal muscle is directly or indirectly attached to bones and enables movement of the body. Cardiac muscle forms the heart and propels blood. Smooth muscle is found throughout the body and moves substances through hollow tubes, such as in the digestive tract and regulates the diameter of blood vessels.
In this illustration, the three compartments are separated by semipermeable membranes. The red balls represent solutes, and the lightly shaded area represents water. Which of the following is a true statement?
Solution B is hypotonic to solution A, but hypertonic to solution C.
Which of the following represents a gliding joint?
Sternoclavicular joints
The endomysium __________.
Surrounds individual muscle fibers
List the three major functions of the Golgi apparatus. (Module 3.6A)
The Golgi apparatus (1) renews or modifies the plasma membrane, (2) modifies and packages cellular secretions, and (3) packages special enzymes within vesicles (lysosomes) for use within the cell.
Which is correct regarding the spinal cord?
The adult spinal cord ends between vertebrae L1 and L2.
Choose the incorrect statement regarding synovial joints.
The area inside a joint has a significant number of pain receptors.
What are the divisions and functions of the muscular system? (Module 10.1A)
The axial division support and position the axial skeleton and the appendicular division support and move the limbs.
Describe the axial and appendicular divisions of the skeleton. (Module 6.1A)
The axial skeleton consists of the bones of the skull, vertebral column, and thorax. The appendicular skeleton consists of the bones of the limbs, pectoral girdle and pelvic girdle.
What is the first step in Wallerian degeneration?
The axon and myelin degenerate and fragment.
Which is true regarding events that occur at neuromuscular junctions?
The binding of acetylcholine molecules to the receptors alters the membrane's permeability
If osteoclast activity exceeds osteoblast activity in a bone, how will bone mass be affected? (Module 6.4D)
The bone mineral content will decrease and thus bone mass will decrease.
Describe the brachial plexus. (Module 12.9A)
The brachial plexus is a network of nerves formed by branches of spinal nerve segments C5-T1.
Describe the changes in appearance of the transitional epithelium lining the urinary bladder as stretching occurs. (Module 4.6C)
The cells become flatter.
Compare the central and peripheral nervous system. (Module 11.1A)
The central nervous system consists of the brain and spinal cord and it integrates, processes, and coordinates sensory data and motor commands. The peripheral nervous system consists of all the nervous tissue outside the central and enteric nervous systems.
Describe the connective tissue layers associated with skeletal muscle tissue. (Module 9.2B)
The epimysium surrounds the entire muscle; the perimysium divides the skeletal muscle into fascicles; the endomysium surrounds individual muscle fibers
Which of the following is not a characteristic used to describe the structure of multicellular exocrine glands?
The extensiveness of the Golgi apparatus in the secretory areas
What is human A&P? (Module 1.1A)
The field of human anatomy and physiology.
Describe the relationship between the number of fibers in a motor unit and the precision of body movements. (Module 9.10C)
The finer and more precise the movement, the fewer the number of muscle fibers in the motor unit.
Explain the relationship between load and speed of muscle contraction. (Module 9.11A)
The greater the load on a muscle, the longer it takes for the muscle to shorten, and the less it shortens.
Contrast the effects of a hypotonic solution and a hypertonic solution on a red blood cell. (Module 3.15C)
The hypotonic solution would cause the RBC to swell and it may burst (hemolysis), and the hypertonic solution would cause the RBC to shrink (crenation).
Describe the lumbar plexus and sacral plexus. (Module 12.10A)
The lumbar plexus is a nerve network formed by axons from the anterior rami of spinal nerve segments T12-L4; the sacral plexus is a nerve network formed by axons from the anterior rami of spinal nerve segments L4-S4.
Describe the function of the medullary cavity. (Module 6.3B)
The medullary cavity contains the red bone marrow and the yellow bone marrow.
Why does hair turn white or gray with age? (Module 5.10A)
The melanocyte activity declines, making the hair white or gray.
What would happen if there were no AChE in the synaptic cleft? (Module 9.6C)
The motor end plate would be continuously stimulated and continuous muscle contraction would occur.
Describe the neuromuscular junction. (Module 9.6A)
The neuromuscular junction is where the axon terminals of a motor neuron interact with the skeletal muscle fiber midway along the fiber's length.
Describe the nucleus pulposus and annulus fibrosus of an intervertebral disc. (Module 8.7A)
The nucleus pulposus is a soft, elastic, gelatinous core and the annulus fibrosus is a tough outer ring of fibrocartilage.
Which of the following would occur in a resting membrane after a stimulus is applied?
The opening of sodium channels will cause depolarization.
Define diffusion. (Module 3.14A)
The passive movement of molecules from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration until equilibrium is achieved.
Describe osmosis. (Module 3.15A)
The passive movement of water across a selectively permeable membrane from a solution with a lower solute concentration to a solution with a higher solute concentration.
What special terms are used to describe the plasma membrane and cytoplasm of a skeletal muscle fiber? (Module 9.2C)
The plasma membrane is called the sarcolemma and the cytoplasm is called the sarcoplasm.
What is the relationship between myelin and the propagation speed of action potentials? (Module 11.11B)
The presence of myelin increases the propagation speed of action potentials.
Describe the alveolar process. (Module 7.4A)
The projecting ridge that contains the tooth sockets for the upper teeth.
Explain why the propagation of action potentials along electrically excitable membranes occurs in only one direction. (Module 9.5D)
The refractory period prevents it from propagating back in the direction from which it began.
What is the importance of the secondary curves of the spine? (Module 7.10A)
The secondary curves allow us to balance our body weight to permit an upright posture.
Define metastasis. (Module 3.21C)
The spread of cancer cells beyond the original tissue, leading to secondary tumors.
What bone processes from the zygomatic arch? (Module 7.4B)
The temporal process of the zygomatic bone and the zygomatic process of the temporal bone.
Which occurs during an eccentric contraction?
The tension developed is less than the load, causing the muscle to lengthen while it is contracted.
Define hyponychium. (Module 5.9B)
The thickened stratum corneum underlying the free edge of the nail.
Describe the three parts necessary for homeostatic regulation. (Module 1.17B)
The three parts necessary for homeostatic regulation are the receptor, the control center, and the effector.
Muscle A abducts the humerus and muscle B adducts the humerus. What is the relationship between the two muscles. (Module 10.3B)
The two muscles are antagonists to each other.
Why does the free edge of a nail appear white? (Module 5.9C)
There are no underlying blood vessels.
Describe the appearance of simple columnar epithelial cells in a sectional view. (Module 4.7A)
They appear columnar with an elongated nucleus close to the basement membrane.
Why are hydrogen, lithium, and sodium classified as reactive elements?
They are elements with unfilled valence shells
Explain how the complementary strands of DNA are held together. (Module 2.20B)
They are held by complementary base pairing; adenine to thymine and guanine to cytosine.
Which of the following statements is not true about action potentials?
They can travel in two directions.
Why are ribs 11 and 12 called floating ribs? (Module 7.14B)
They do not connect with the sternum at all.
Regarding neurons, which of the following is true?
They exist in many different types and shapes.
Microtubules do not have which of the following functions?
They stiffen microvilli.
Compare thin skin with thick skin. (Module 5.2A)
Thin skin has 4 layers and covers most of the body surfaces. Thick skin has 5 layers and covers the palms of the hands and soles of the feet.
Which type of burn usually requires skin grafting? Why? (Module 5.5B)
Third-degree burns because the tissue damage is so great that the tissue cannot repair itself.
Which of the following is an incorrect description?
Transfer RNA (tRNA) transfers the instructions for protein synthesis to the ribosome
Define transverse tubules. (Module 9.3B)
Transverse tubules are tubular extensions of the sarcolemma that extend deep into the sarcoplasm contacting the terminal cisternae of the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
The mRNA sequence that is complementary to the sequence ATC on DNA is
UAG
Why does exposure to sunlight or sunlamps darken skin? (Module 5.3B)
UV radiation stimulates melanocytes to produce more melanin.
________ are fine hairs that lack pigment and cover much of the body surface.
Vellus hairs
Describe the kind of bonds that hold the atoms in a water molecule together. (Module 2.4C)
Water molecule bonds are polar covalent bonds, in which unequal sharing of electrons occurs.
Contrast the white matter and gray matter in the CNS. (Module 11.4D)
White matter of the CNS is dominated by myelinated axons. Gray matter of the CNS is dominated by neuron cell bodies, dendrites, and unmyelinated axons.
Which of the labels in Figure 4-1 indicates a hemidesmosome?
a
Epithelium is connected to underlying connective tissue by
a basal lamina.
The effects of aging on the skin include
a decline in the activity of sebaceous glands.
Tetanus is most likely to result from which condition?
a deep puncture wound, such as that from a nail
What is a tissue? (Module 4.1B)
a group of similar cells and their cell products
A thickened area of scar tissue that is covered by a shiny, smooth epidermal surface is called
a keloid
Which of the following muscles would contract more forcefully?
a muscle receiving 20 to 25 action potentials per second
In the example of blood clotting that occurs after a severe cut:
a positive feedback loop occurs
The articular cartilage damaged by osteoarthritis is characterized by __________.
a rough network of bristly collagen fibers
A movement away from the midline of the body is termed
abduction
Triggering of the muscle action potential occurs after
acetylcholine binds to chemically gated channels in the motor end plate membrane.
Excessive growth hormone after puberty could result in
acromegaly
Two prominent features of the clavicle are the medial sternal end and the lateral ________ end.
acromial
The location of the rotator cuff muscles in relation to the glenohumoral joint minimizes the upward pressure against the __________.
acromion of the scapula
A process that requires cellular energy to move a substance against its concentration gradient is called
active transport.
The most abundant high-energy compound in cells is
adenosine triphosphate.
Rickets can be prevented by
adequate sunlight and dietary intake of cholecalciferol.
Cells that store fat are called
adipocytes
A resting muscle generates most of its ATP by
aerobic metabolism of fatty acids.
When does the activation of a motor neuron occur in a stretch reflex?
after information processing in the CNS
An alternate name for the prime mover in muscle action is
agonist.
If a substance has a pH that is greater than 7, it is
alkaline
Joints are classified by
all of the answers are correct
Skin wrinkle and sagging is caused by
all of the choices.
Why can inflammation occur in any organ in the body? (Module 4.18C)
all organs have connective tissues
A slightly movable joint is a(n)
amphiarthrosis
Decreased blood flow to a muscle could result in all of the following except
an increase in intracellular glycogen.
When electrons are transferred from one atom to another, and the two atoms unite as a result of the opposite charges,
an ionic bond is formed.
Microfilaments
anchor the cytoskeleton to the plasma membrane.
Which of the following is not a characteristic of the male pelvis?
angle of pubic arch greater than 100 degrees
Ions with a negative charge are called
anions
An anatomical term that means the same as "ventral" is
anterior
Which ramus carries sensory information from the limbs? (Module 12.6A)
anterior ramus
Identify the major fontanelles. (Module 7.9A)
anterior, posterior, sphenoidal, and mastoid fontanelles
The genetically programmed death of cells is called
apoptosis.
When comparing slow fibers to fast fibers, slow fibers
appear dark red
How many skeletal muscles are there in the body? (Module 10.1B)
approximately 700
Of the spinal meninges, the middle one is the ________ mater.
arachnoid
All of the following are true of neurons except that they
are a very specialized form of connective tissue.
Elements that have atoms with full outer shells of electrons
are inert gases
Carbohydrate molecules
are the body's most readily available source of energy
Each of the following is an example of dense connective tissue except
areolar connective tissue.
In compact bone, the osteons are
arranged in concentric lamellae.
Arthritis always involves damage to
articular cartilage
Name the major components of a typical vertebra. (Module 7.10B)
articular processes, vertebral arch, and vertebral body
The location where two bones meet is called a joint or an
articulation
Which glial cell protects the CNS from chemicals and hormones circulating in the blood? (Module 11.4C)
astrocytes
Where does translation occur?
at the ribosomes
The first cervical vertebra is better known as the
atlas
The actual mass of an atom is known as its
atomic weight
The smallest stable units of matter are
atoms
anchoring proteins
attach the plasma membrane to other structures in the cell.
The hyoid bone
attaches to tongue muscles
The second cervical vertebra is usually called the
axis
Joe suffered a hairline fracture at the base of the dens. Identify the bone and fracture site. (Module 7.11A)
axis; cervical
Which part(s) of the neuron can conduct an action potential?
axon and telodendria
In which part of a neuron does Wallerian degeneration occur? (Module 11.5B)
axons of PNS neurons
Which of the labels in Figure 4-1 indicates a tight junction?
b
While standing in the anatomical position,
back refers to dorsal
Which type of synovial joint is the shoulder (glenohumeral) joint?
ball and socket joint
Which structures separate epithelial tissue from connective tissue?
basement membranes
The central body of a muscle is also known as the
belly
If the anterior compartment of the lower limb was suffering from "compartment syndrome," which of these structures would not be at risk of injury?
biceps femoris
Which of the following is an example of a normal physiological process that uses a positive feedback loop?
blood clotting
The central canal of an osteon contains
blood vessels
Chondrocytes are to cartilage as osteocytes are to
bone
Osseous tissue is also called
bone
The surface of articular cartilage is
both slick and smooth
Which of the following does not move the pectoral girdle?
brachialis
Which of the following muscles is not part of the shoulder?
brachialis
By what means are water molecules attracted to each other? (Module 2.5B)
by hydrogen bonds
Which of the following is the heel bone?
calcaneus
Identify the tarsal bones
calcaneus, talus, navicular, cuboid, and three cuneiform bones
Elevated levels of calcium ion in the blood stimulate the secretion of the hormone
calcitonin.
What is released from the structure labeled "9"?
calcium ions
Which substance accounts for almost two-thirds of the weight of bone?
calcium salts
A mature red blood cell lacks a nucleus. Thus, it
cannot make new proteins and will be worn out within a few months.
By weight, which element is the second most abundant in the human body?
carbon
The molecule CO2 is known as
carbon dioxide
Intercalated discs and striations are characteristic of ________ tissue.
cardiac muscle
Name the effectors of the ANS. (Module 11.1C)
cardiac muscle, smooth muscle, glands, and adipose tissue
Which two organ systems are involved with circulation within the body? (Module 1.13A)
cardiovascular and lymphatic systems
Each individual gene does which of the following?
carries the instructions for making a single polypeptide
Chondroitin sulfate is abundant in the matrix of
cartilage
Firm, rubbery matrix is a structural feature of which connective tissue type?
cartilage
Endochondral ossification begins with the formation of a(n)
cartilage model
Ions with a + charge are called
cations
________ are transmembrane proteins that connect two cell membranes together.
cell adhesion molecules
Transmembrane proteins that bind to each other and to extracellular materials are known as:
cell adhesion molecules (CAMs).
Name the structural components of a typical neuron. (Module 11.2A)
cell body, axon, and dendrites
Some cells contain large numbers of mitochondria while others have relatively few or none. This suggests that
cells with large numbers of mitochondria have a high energy demand.
List the common characteristics shared by all living things. (Module 1.7A)
cells, organization, responsiveness, regulation, growth, development, reproduction, and metabolism
Oxygen is required in biological systems for
cellular respiration
Neurons have a very limited ability to divide after injury because most
centrioles
Identify the secondary spinal curves
cervical and lumbar
Water molecules and small ions enter a cell through
channels formed by integral proteins.
Which substance is produced in the skin when exposed to UV radiation and subsequently converted to calcitriol?
cholecalciferol
Which of the following is a structural component of cell membranes?
cholesterol
In cells that are not dividing, chromosomes uncoil to form a tangle of fine fibers known as
chromatin.
A muscle that controls the diameter of an opening is a ________ muscle.
circular
The five vertebral regions are the cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and
coccygeal
Which of the following is a not characteristic of the female pelvis?
coccyx points anteriorly
A unit in messenger RNA consisting of a set of three consecutive nucleotides is termed a(n)
codon
The dominant fiber type in most dense connective tissue is
collagen
In the spinal cord, white matter is separated into ascending and descending tracts organized as
columns
A ________ fracture produces shattered bone fragments.
comminuted
An open, or ________, fracture projects through the skin.
compound
Structurally, mammary glands are examples of which of the following?
compound alveolar
Describe the action of the external oblique. (Module 10.10C)
compresses abdomen, depresses ribs, flexes or bends spine
The fracture of vertebrae subjected to extreme vertical stress is called a ________ fracture
compression
The smooth, rounded articular process of a bone is termed a
condyle.
Which type of tissue fills internal spaces of the body?
connective
Which of the following tissues fills internal spaces and provides structural support?
connective tissue
The epidural space contain
connective tissue and blood vessels.
The three types of connective tissue include
connective tissue proper, fluid connective, and supporting connective.
You have a child who attends daycare while you attend classes. Just before class, you are notified that your child has a slight fever and appears fine otherwise, but must be picked up because of the fever. Which of the following is your best solution?
contact your prearranged backup person so that she or he can pick up and take care of your child until you are out of class.
All of the following are true of epidermal ridges except that they
contain increased numbers of free nerve endings.
Muscle tissue, one of the four basic tissue groups, consists chiefly of cells that are highly specialized for
contraction.
The start of each gene begins with a(n) ________ segment.
control
Which of the following is not a recognized function of skeletal muscle?
controlled involuntarily
Identify the structure labeled "1."
coracoid process
All of the following can be used in the management of severe burn except
corticosteroids.
Vertebrosternal ribs are directly connected to the sternum by
costal cartilages
When atoms complete their outer electron shell by sharing electrons, they form
covalent bonds.
Red blood cell shrinkage is to ________ as cell bursting is to ________.
crenation; hemolysis
A prominent ridge, as seen on the pelvis, is a
crest
The two components of the integumentary system are the
cutaneous membrane and accessory structures.
Which of the labels in Figure 4-1 is very abundant in cardiac muscle?
d
All of the following are true of the pigment melanin except that it
decreases in concentration within cells during exposure to the sun.
Of the nine muscles that cross the shoulder joint and insert on the humerus, which muscle is considered to be a prime mover?
deltoid
Tissues that provide strength and support for areas subjected to stresses from many directions are
dense irregular connective tissues.
During the ________ phase of action potential development, voltage-gated sodium channels are open.
depolarization
Opening of sodium channels in the axon membrane causes
depolarization and increased positive charge inside the membrane.
In the process of continuous propagation, all of the following are true except
depolarization of the axonal membrane only occurs at nodes.
A shift of the resting transmembrane potential toward 0 mV is called
depolarization.
The keratinocytes are tightly connected with each other by
desmosomes.
The shaft of a long bone is called the
diaphysis.
Synovial joints are classified functionally as:
diarthroses.
A freely movable joint is a(n)
diarthrosis
What do lysosomes contain? (Module 3.6B)
digestive enzymes
The ankle is _______ to the knee
distal
the wrist is _______ to the elbow.
distal
The clavicle articulates with the scapula
distally with the acromion
The subdural space lies between the
dura mater and the arachnoid mater.
From what structure does merocrine secretion occur?
eccrine sweat gland
In the homeostatic regulation example of ambient temperature control, the air conditioner functions as the __________.
effector
Which of the following movements would you associate with chewing food?
elevation
Individual muscle cells are surrounded by what connective tissue?
endomysium
The lining of the medullary cavity is called the
endosteum
The lining of the heart and blood vessels is called
endothelium.
The hydrolysis of ATP yields ADP, a phosphate ion, and
energy
Name the neuroglia of the CNS. (Module 11.4A)
ependymal cells, microglia, astrocytes, oligodendrocytes
The repair of the epidermis after a wound begins as basal cells produce new
epidermal cells.
The dense layer of connective tissue that surrounds an entire skeletal muscle is the
epimysium.
Secondary ossification centers occur in
epiphyses
identify the structure labeled 2
epiphysis
List the major parts of a long bone. (Module 6.3A)
epiphysis, metaphysis, diaphysis, and medullary cavity
Keratin is a protein that is typically found in which tissue type?
epithelial
Which type of tissue covers exposed surfaces of the body?
epithelial
the tissue that always has a top and a bottom is ___ tissue
epithelial
What two types of tissues contribute to the formation and maintenance of the basement membrane? (Module 4.4D)
epithelial and connective tissue
Which of the following tissues covers and protects exposed surface areas of the body?
epithelial tissue
At the base of a nail, keratinized skin called the cuticle is also called the
eponychium.
A twisting motion of the foot that turns the sole of the foot outward is known as
eversion
The gluteus maximus is the most powerful muscle during __________.
extension
The largest bone of the lower limb is the
femur
Identify the bones of the lower limb. (Module 7.22A)
femur, tibia, fibula, patella, tarsal bones, metatarsal bones, and phalanges
Which tissue type, found within the knee joint and between the pubic bones of the pelvis, resists compression and limits relative movement?
fibrocartilage
The type of cartilage found in the intervertebral discs is ________ cartilage.
fibrous
The lateral bulge at your ankle is a projection from the
fibula
A rib is an example of a ________ bone.
flat
Identify the six broad categories for classifying a bone according to shape. (Module 6.2A)
flat, sutural, long, irregular, sesamoid, short
Which movements are possible at hinge joints? (Module 8.4A)
flexion and extension
Which superficial flexor muscle of the forearm is the most lateral?
flexor carpi radialis
Which muscle is a superficial anterior flexor muscle?
flexor digitorum superficialis
Which muscle of the wrist and fingers is a deep anterior flexor?
flexor pollicis longus
Ribs that have no connection to the sternum are called
floating ribs
Blood belongs to which of the following types of connective tissue?
fluid connective tissue
A ________ is a rounded passageway for passage of blood vessels and/or nerves.
foramen
What is the name of the structure labeled "8"?
foramen ovale
A rounded hole through a bone is termed a
foramen.
What is the primary function of kidneys?
form and concentrate urine
If an animal cell lacked centrioles, it would not be able to
form the mitotic spindle.
Simple cuboidal epithelium is found
forming the kidney tubules.
A shallow depression on a bone is termed a
fossa.
Damage to a bone because of extreme load, sudden impact, or stresses applied from an unusual direction is called a
fracture
Which of the following describes spiral fractures?
fractures that are produced by twisting stresses that spread along the length of the bone
Identify three different types of membranes based on permeability. (Module 3.13B)
freely permeable, selectively permeable, and impermeable
identify the bones of the orbital complex (module 7.7A)
frontal, sphenoid, zygomatic, palatine, maxilla, lacrimal, and ethmoid
If the epidermis, dermis, and part of hypodermis are burned, it is classified as.
full thickness.
The triplet codes needed to specify a specific polypeptide chain are found in the
gene
In transcription, __________.
gene activation begins with the temporary disruption of the hydrogen bonds between the complementary nitrogenous bases of the two DNA strands
Which of the following is a nerve of the lumbar plexus?
genitofemoral nerve
Which term does not describe cells with abnormal growth and division?
germ cells
The shoulder joint, or ________ joint, permits the greatest range of motion of any joint.
glenohumeral
The scapula articulates with the humerus at its ________ cavity.
glenoid
Identify the structure labeled "2."
glenoid cavity
Describe the types of motion possible at a synovial joint. (Module 8.3A)
gliding, angular, circumduction, and rotation
The most important metabolic fuel molecule in the body is
glucose
Name the muscles that compose the gluteal group. (Module 10.19A)
gluteus maximus, gluteus medius, gluteus minimus, tensor fasciae latae
In saltatory propagation, a local current produces a(n) __________.
graded depolarization
which structure supports the larynx and attaches to muscles that move the tongue?
greater horns of the hyoid bone
Regions of the CNS where neuron cell bodies dominate constitute the ________ matter.
grey
List some hormones that are necessary for maintaining a healthy integument. (Module 5.11A)
growth hormone, sex hormones, growth factors, glucocorticoids, and thyroid hormones
Compared to the hand, the foot
has a more restricted range of movement.
Muscle fibers differ from "typical cells" in that muscle fibers
have many nuclei.
The expanded articular end of an epiphysis that is separated from the shaft by a narrower neck is termed a
head.
A midsagittal section would pass through the
heart
In a typical undisturbed cell, the extracellular fluid (ECF) contains high concentrations of sodium ions and chloride ions, whereas the cytosol contains __________.
high concentrations of potassium ions and negatively charged proteins
The elbow joint is an example of a ___ joint
hinge
Which of the following is an example of a ball and socket joint
hip
Give the term for the "study of tissues." (Module 4.1A)
histology
________ is the study of tissue structures.
histology
The tendency for physiological systems to stabilize internal conditions is called
homeostasis
The central principle of physiology is
homeostasis.
Each skeletal muscle fiber contains ________ myofibrils.
hundreds to thousands
Which type of connective tissue is found between the ribs and the sternum, or supporting the trachea?
hyaline cartilage
what type occurs at 1
hyaline cartilage
The weakest bond between two atoms is the ________ bond.
hydrogen
Which element commonly has only a proton as its nucleus?
hydrogen
List the elements that make up organic compounds. (Module 2.13A)
hydrogen and carbon, and generally oxygen as well
Diffusion of a substance across the cell membrane is influenced by all of the following except
hydrolysis of ATP.
"Spikes" form on a dehydrating blood cell when it is placed in a(n) ________ solution.
hypertonic
Hemolysis may occur when a blood cell is placed into a(n) ________ solution.
hypotonic
Which of the following does not help stabilize the knee joint?
iliofemoral ligament
The majority of the fibers of the gluteus maximus insert onto the __________.
iliotibial tract
The band of collagen fibers that laterally braces the knee is the
iliotibial tract.
Elastic cartilage is found
in the ear.
The primary spinal cord
include the thoracic and sacral curves
Which of the following is not a function of synovial fluid
increasing osmotic pressure within joint
Muscular force can be adjusted to match increased loads by
increasing the frequency of action potentials in motor neurons
The chin is ________ to the nose.
inferior
Carpal tunnel syndrome is characterized by __________.
inflammation of the flexor retinaculum and/or tendon sheaths
Which of the following is true for parathyroid hormone?
inhibits calcitonin secretion.
What is the function of the posterior ramus?
innervates the muscles, joints, and skin of the back
The end of a muscle that is attached to the point that moves when the muscle contracts is called the
insertion.
Damage to which of the following muscles would interfere most with the ability to breathe?
intercostals
Which of the following are not types of neuroglia?
interneurons
Endocrine glands empty their products into ________ and are referred to as ________ glands, while exocrine gland secretions empty into ________ or onto surfaces.
interstitial fluid; ductless; ducts
Muscles located entirely within an organ are called
intrinsic.
A common type injury to the ankle occurs by excessive turning of the sole inward, termed
inversion
DNA replication __________.
involves DNA polymerase binding to nitrogenous bases that are exposed when DNA strands unwind
All of the following are true of the hypodermis except it
is attached to the dermis by a basement membrane.
When you are seated, which part of the hip bone bears your body's weight? (Module 7.19C)
ischial tuberosity
Which three bones fuse to make up the hip bone? (Module 7.19A)
ischium, ilium, and pubis
Which of the following is not true of DNA?
it carries amino acids to the ribosome.
All of the following are correct regarding RNA except
it contains a double helix
All the following are characteristics of periosteum EXCEPT __________
it is an incomplete cellular layer that lines the medullary cavity
All of the following are characteristics of nucleus, except
it packages and sorts products.
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of DNA?
it performs protein synthesis
The type of most cells that form the strata in the epidermis are
keratinocytes.
The tensor fasciae latae stabilizes the hip joint and the __________ joint.
knee
Which of these would not lead to increased oxygen consumption?
lactic acidosis
Scar tissue is the result of
large numbers of collagen fibers and relatively few blood vessels in the injured area.
Identify the structure labeled "3."
lateral epicondyle
Bending the vertebral column from side to side is an example of:
lateral flexion
Na+ and K+ both use ________ to passively diffuse across the plasma membrane.
leak channels
The mandible articulates with what other cranial bones? (Module 7.3C)
left and right temporal bones
Which facial expression muscle acts to elevate the upper lip?
levator labii superioris muscle
A(n) ________ is a rigid structure that moves on a fixed point.
lever
Identify the structure labeled "12."
linea aspera
Simple columnar epithelia are found
lining the gallbladder.
Transitional epithelium is found
lining the urinary bladder.
Bone is ____ tissue.
living connective
To keep the humeral head centered within the glenoidal cavity the rotator cuff muscles must be __________.
located in the same plane
The humerus is an example of a(n) ________ bone.
long
Which of the following organelles damages pathogens?
lysosomes
Messenger RNA is vital to the cell because
mRNA can leave the nucleus, and DNA cannot leave the nucleus.
What is the main function of mesenchymal cells?
make new connective tissue cells
The most dangerous type of skin cancer is termed
malignant melanoma.
Milk is produced by ________ glands.
mammary
Which of the following is not primarily a muscle of facial expression?
masseter
The sternocleidomastoid inserts on the
mastoid process.
cancer cells
may exhibit metastasis
the heart is ______ to the lungs.
medial
Fat is stored within the
medullary cavity.
An albino individual lacks the ability to produce
melanin.
The endoplasmic reticulum is an example of a(n) ________ organelle.
membranous
Name the foramina of the mandible. (Module 7.8A)
mental foramina and mandibular foramina
Perspiration is produced by ________ glands.
merocine sweat
Which type of glands secret their products by exocytosis?
merocrine
List the three types of RNA involved in protein synthesis. (Module 3.10C)
messenger RNA, transfer RNA, and ribosomal RNA
What is the term for mRNA?
messenger ribonucleic acid
The region of a long bone between the end and the shaft is known as the
metaphysis.
List the three basic components of the cytoskeleton. (Module 3.4A)
microfilaments, intermediate filaments, and microtubules
Which of the following cytoskeleton components moves the chromosomes during cell division?
microtubules
Which of the following organelles produces 95% of cell ATP?
mitochondria
Most of the ATP required to power cellular operations is produced in the
mitochondria.
The proper distribution of a cell's genetic material to two daughter cells is accomplished by the process of
mitosis
DNA replication occurs during what two cellular processes? (Module 3.19D)
mitosis and meiosis
Nuclear division in somatic cells is known as
mitosis.
All of the following are correct regarding DNA except
molecular shape varies with hydrogen bonding along the length of the strand.
Breathing faster and deeper eliminates more carbon dioxide from the body than normal breathing. Under these circumstances,
more carbon dioxide will diffuse out of the blood in the lungs.
When acetylcholine binds to receptors at the motor end plate, the end plate membrane becomes
more permeable to sodium ions
lumbar and vertebrae are ________ massive and ________ mobile.
most; least
Receptors for acetylcholine are located on the
motor end plate
A single motor neuron together with all the muscle fibers it innervates is called a(n)
motor unit.
Abduction is a __________.
movement away from the longitudinal axis of the body in the frontal plane
Which of the following movements is a good example of flexion?
moving the hand toward the shoulder
Unicellular exocrine glands secrete
mucus
The most common neurons in the CNS, including the motor neurons that control skeletal muscles, are __________.
multipolar neurons
Tissue that is specialized for contraction is ________ tissue.
muscle
Which type of tissue contracts to produce movements?
muscle
Neurons and ________ have electrically excitable membranes that propagate action potentials.
muscle cells
Which of the following cell types is long, slender and makes contractions?
muscle cells
The white matter of the spinal cord is mainly
myelinated axons.
Name the proteins that make up a thick filament. (Module 9.4B)
myosin and titin
The nail body covers the
nail bed
If a response decreases a disturbance, the system is classified as a ________ feedback system.
negative
When body temperature rises, a center in the brain initiates physiological changes to decrease the body temperature. This is an example of
negative feedback.
An alternate term for tumor is
neoplasm
Which organ system directs immediate responses to stimuli?
nervous system
Tissue that is specialized for the conduction of electrical impulses is ________ tissue.
neural
Which type of tissue conducts electrical impulses?
neural
The gray horns of the spinal cord contain mainly
neuron cell bodies.
The basic functional unit of the nervous system is the
neuron.
All ________ function to propagate electrical signals from one place to another.
neurons
A solution containing equal numbers of hydrogen ions and hydroxide ions is
neutral
The tiny gaps between adjacent Schwann cells are called
nodes.
Which neurotransmitter is located in most neuromuscular and neuroglandular junctions of the sympathetic division of the ANS?
norepinephrine
The nucleus is surrounded by the
nuclear envelope.
Transfer of mRNA from the nucleus to the cytosol occurs through
nuclear pores
Molecules that store and process genetic information are
nucleic acids
All the following are familiar indicators of inflammation EXCEPT:
numbness.
The opening in the diaphysis through which blood vessels provide oxygen to osteons is named the ________ foramen.
nutrient
The foramen magnum is found in the ____ bone.
occipital
Continuous propagation __________.
occurs along unmyelinated axons
Rigor mortis __________.
occurs as the sarcoplasmic reticulum deteriorates, releasing calcium ions
Terms of anatomical direction are used to describe
one body part in relation to another
The "kissing muscle" that purses the lips is the
orbicularis oris.
Moving from simpler to more complex, which level of organization is immediately before (simpler than) the cell?
organelle
Carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins are classified as
organic molecules.
Which of the following is arranged in correct order from the most complex to the simplest?
organism, system, organ, tissue, cellular, molecular
Based on the Biological Hierarchy of Organization, tissues join together to form what structures?
organs
The end of a muscle that remains stationary when the muscle contracts is called the
origin
_____is also known as degenerative joint disease.
osteoarthritis
What are mature bone cells in lacunae called? (Module 4.14B)
osteocytes
The lacunae of osseous tissue contain
osteocytes.
What is the functional unit of compact bone? (Module 4.14C)
osteon
The molecule O2 is known as
oxygen
Of the list below, which has the highest concentration of hydroxide ions?
pH 14
Which pH is closest to normal blood pH?
pH 7
Define pH. (Module 2.12A)
pH is a measure of the hydrogen ion concentration in a solution.
During an inflammatory response to injury, which of the following is least likely in the region of the injury?
pale, cold skin
The palmaris longus inserts on the __________.
palmar aponeurosis
Which of the following is a wrist flexor?
palmaris longus muscle
Most of the skeletal muscles in the body are ________ muscles.
parallel
Muscles with fibers that run parallel to the long axis of the body are called
parallel.
A cut parallel to the midsagittal plane would produce a ________ section.
parasagittal
Identify the hormone that stimulates the release of calcium ions from bone matrix. Explain its mechanism of action. (Module 6.11A)
parathyroid hormone; increases osteoclast break down of bone matrix
Identify the sesamoid bone of the lower limb. (Module 7.22C)
patella
which of the following terms refers to the foot?
pedal
The quadrants of the abdominopelvic region include all of the following except the
pelvic quadrant
The clearest distinction between a male and female skeleton is seen in the characteristics of the
pelvis
The thoracic cavity contains the
pericardial and pleural cavities.
Which of the following structures is located within the mediastinum?
pericardial sac
idenitfy the structure at 4
periosteum
The plasma membrane includes all of the following except
peripheral proteins
If a surgeon makes an incision just inferior to the diaphragm, which body cavity will be opened? (Module 1.22C)
peritoneal portion of the abdominopelvic cavity
The ________ of a membrane indicates how easy it is for substances to cross.
permeability
The bony portion of the nasal septum is formed by the
perpendicular plate of the ethmoid and the vomer bone.
The brachial plexus gives rise to all of the following nerves except the
phrenic.
The layer of the meninges in direct contact with the spinal cord is the
pia mater
The bumpy bone on the medial side of your wrist is actually the ________ bone.
pisiform
The watery fluid component of blood is called
plasma
Which muscle terminology pairing is correct?
platy-flat
The ________ covers the anterior surface of the neck.
platysma
Of the following clinical conditions affecting skeletal muscle, which is caused by a virus?
polio
The anatomical term for the thumb is
pollex
Which of the following is least likely to result in a genetic mutation?
poor health
To allow for flexion, the __________ unlocks the knee joint.
popliteus
What structure contains the cell bodies of sensory neurons?
posterior root ganglion
The separation of plus and negative charges across the membrane creates a ________ difference, or voltage.
potential
A sequence of amino acids bonded together in a linear chain is called a
primary structure.
All of the following are true of perspiration produced by merocrine sweat glands except that it
produces the body odor characteristic of "sweating."
All of the following are functions of accessory structures of integument except
production of skin pigments.
A person lying face down is in the ______ position
prone
The extracellular matrix of connective tissues consists of which of the following?
protein fibers and ground substance
mRNA is needed to synthesize ________ in the cytoplasm.
proteins
Each of the following is an example of an inorganic compound except
proteins.
The "atomic number" of an atom is determined by the number of ________ it has.
protons
The mass of an atom is largely determined by the number of ________ it has.
protons + neutrons
The mass number represents the number of
protons + neutrons.
The nucleus of an atom consist of
protons+neutrons
The nucleus of an atom consists of
protons+neutrons
Which subatomic particles have a positive charge? Which are uncharged? (Module 2.1B)
protons; neutrons
A herniated intervertebral disc is caused by
protrusion of the nucleus pulposus
Which of the following is not a function of the axial skeleton?
provides an attachment for calf muscles
List four essential functions of epithelial tissue. (Module 4.3A)
provides physical protection, controls permeability, provides sensation, and produces specialized secretions
At which joint do pronation and supination occur?
proximal radio-ulnar joint
The pubic bones are joined anteriorly by what structure? (Module 7.20B)
pubic symphysis
The two pubic bones join medially at the
pubic symphysis
Adenine and guanine are
purines represented by A and G
Many gyms feature weightlifting machines called "adductor machines" that are used to strengthen the thighs. If you were to work out on one of these, what would you be doing?
pushing both thighs inward toward a center point, bringing your knees together
Which bone of the forearm is positioned laterally when in the anatomical position? (Module 7.17B)
radius
Which of the following is a forearm bone?
radius
The interosseous membrane is located between the __________.
radius and ulna
A projection at an angle on a bone is termed a
ramus.
List the components of a reflex arc. (Module 12.12B)
receptor, sensory neuron, motor neuron, effector, and sometimes interneurons may be involved
The increase in muscle tension that is produced by increasing the number of active motor units is called
recruitment
Which axial muscle is often known as the "six-pack" in physically fit people? (Module 10.13A)
rectus abdominis
Name the muscle of the quadriceps femoris. (Module 10.20B)
rectus femoris, vastus intermedius, vastus lateralis, vastus medialis
All of the following are examples of positive feedback, except
relaxation of smooth muscles' blood vessels when body temperature goes up.
Mitosis is to somatic cells as meiosis is to ________ cells.
reproductive
Which of the following processes, for very small organisms, simply involves transferring materials across exposed surfaces?
respiration
The framework or stroma of organs such as the spleen, liver, and lymph nodes is made up of ________ tissue.
reticular connective
What is the term for rRNA?
ribosomal ribonucleic acid
The urinary bladder is found in the ________ quadrant and the ________ quadrant.
right lower; left lower
After death, muscle fibers run out of ATP and calcium begins to leak from the sarcoplasmic reticulum into the sarcoplasm. This results in a condition known as
rigor mortis.
Nail production occurs at the nail
root.
Which form of endoplasmic reticulum modifies and packages newly synthesized proteins?
rough endoplasmic reticulum
Which of the following organelles has ribosomes bound to its membrane?
rough endoplasmic reticulum
A cell duplicates its chromosomes during the ________ phase.
s
Name the bones of the pelvis. (Module 7.20A)
sacrum, coccyx, and the hip bones
Which plane divides the body into right and left parts?
sagittal
Each of the following terms is a descriptive term for a muscle's action except
sartorius.
Which carpal bones articulate with the radius?
scaphoid and lunate
Name the carpal bones. (Module 7.18A)
scaphoid, lunate, triquetrum, pisiform, trapezium, trapezoid, capitate, hamate
Name the bones of the pectoral girdles. (Module 7.16A)
scapula and clavicle
Which of the following is a holocrine exocrine gland?
sebaceous
Contracting the gastrocnemius muscles to elevate the body on the toes involves a ________ lever.
second-class
What process is shown at "6"?
secondary ossification
Merocrine sweat glands
secrete a watery fluid directly onto the surface of the skin.
Epithelial cells exhibit modifications that adapt them for
secretion.
Cell membranes are said to be ________ because they allow some substances to pass but not others.
selectively permeable
Which division of the PNS brings information to the CNS? (Module 11.1B)
sensory
If the posterior root of a spinal nerve is severed
sensory input would be blocked.
The posterior horns of the spinal cord contain mainly
sensory nuclei.
Which of the following is not a function of membrane proteins?
serve as cell nutrients
Which class of bones develops inside tendons and is most commonly located near joints at the knees, the hands, and the feet?
sesamoid bones
To allow movement of the tendons within the carpal tunnel zone, each tendon is encased in a __________.
sheath
The carpal bones are examples of ________ bones.
short
Compared to the vertebral column, the spinal cord is
shorter.
Name the type of synovial joint for each of the following: shoulder, elbow, ankle, and thumb. (Module 8.3D)
shoulder: ball-and-socket elbow: hinge ankle: hinge thumb: saddle.
Which of the following activities or sensations is not monitored by interoceptors?
sight
Merocrine sweat glands are classified as
simple coiled tubular.
The body's most delicate type of epithelium is the ________ epithelium.
simple squamous
__ epithelium is found inside the eyes.
simple squamous
The epithelial cells that are flat, thin and have one layer are called
simple squamous.
If one pair of electrons is unequally shared between two atoms, a ________ occurs.
single polar covalent bond
A chamber within a bone normally filled with air is a
sinus
Of the following tissues, which has the least ability to regenerate after injury?
skeletal muscle
Gap junctions can be found in all of the following tissues except
skeletal muscle.
The substance called sebum is commonly known as
skin oil.
The type of muscle fiber that is most resistant to fatigue is the ________ fiber.
slow
Which type of muscle fiber predominates in the leg muscles of endurance athletes, such as long-distance runners? (Module 9.14C)
slow fibers
The muscle tissue that shows no striations is ________ muscle.
smooth
A(n) ________ is a homogeneous mixture containing a solvent and a solute.
solution
The ________ nervous system controls the skeletal muscles.
somatic
________ cells are all of the cells of the body except the reproductive cells (sperm and oocytes).
somatic
The anterior horns of the spinal cord contain mainly
somatic motor nuclei.
Identify the three basic components of connective tissue. (Module 4.10A)
specialized cells, protein fibers, and ground substance
A skull bone that could be described as looking like a bat with wings extended is the
sphenoid
Identify the structure labeled "7"
spine
When you run your finger down the middle of a person's spine, what part of each vertebra are you feeling just beneath the skin? (Module 7.11C)
spinous processes
A ________ fracture is produced by twisting stresses applied to the bone.
spiral
Which of the following movements is a good example of abduction?
spreading the fingers
Which suture forms the boundary between the temporal bone and the parietal bone of that side?
squamous suture
Skin can regenerate effectively even after considerable damage has occurred because
stem cells persist in both epithelial and connective-tissue components of the skin even after injury.
which of the following is an axial muscle?
sternocleidomastoid
Which bone(s) include(s) a manubrium?
sternum
Which of the following substances would be most acidic?
stomach secretions, pH = 1
The ducts of sweat glands and mammary glands are covered by ________ epithelium.
stratified cuboidal
In which layer of skin are keratinocytes produced?
stratum basale
The layer of dividing cells at the base of the epidermis is the
stratum basale.
Insensible perspiration takes place in the
stratum corneum.
Anatomy is to__________ as physiology is to __________.
structure; function
The ________ of the radius helps stabilize the wrist joint.
styloid process
Where is spinal CSF located? (Module 12.3A)
subarachnoid space
Cerebrospinal fluid flows within the
subarachnoid space.
Which of the following is not a muscle of the rotator cuff?
subclavius
Muscles visible at the body surface are often called
superficialis.
List the major nerves of the sacral plexus. (Module 12.10B)
superior and inferior gluteal, posterior femoral cutaneous, sciatic, and pudendal nerves
The gluteus medius muscle is innervated by the __________.
superior gluteal nerve
A person is lying on the bed gazing at the ceiling. She is in the ________ position.
supine
Damage to a joint cartilage is affecting which type of tissue?
supporting connective
Functions of epithelia include all of the following except
supporting muscle cells.
The site of intercellular communication between neurons is the
synapse.
The narrow space between the synaptic terminal and the muscle fiber is the
synaptic cleft
A suture is an example of a(n)
synarthrosis
An immovable joint is a(n)
synarthrosis
The fibrous connection between a tooth and its socket is functionally and structurally classified as which of the following?
synarthrotic gomphosis
Functionally, all of the following are synarthroses EXCEPT __________.
syndesmosis
Which of the following is not one of the four major types of synarthrotic joints?
syndesmosis
An epiphyseal line is an example of a
synostosis
Which structural category of joints allows for the greatest range of motion? (Module 8.1B)
synovial
Each of the following is a function of the integumentary system except
synthesis of vitamin C.
Amino acids are transferred to the ribosome to be incorporated into a growing polypeptide chain by
tRNA
The movements known as dorsiflexion and plantar flexion are limited to the
talocrural.
The distal end of the tibia articulates with the
talus
During this phase of cell division, the chromosomes uncoil, the nuclear membrane forms, and cytokinesis occurs.
telophase
Which of the following is not a function of the skeletal system?
temperature regulation
An example of a receptor in a negative feedback loop controlling body temperature would be
temperature sensors on the skin that detect a stimulus.
The external acoustic meatus is a foramen in which skull bone?
temporal
Which of the following are not components of the skeletal system?
tendons
________ hairs are coarse pigmented hairs.
terminal
Within a resting skeletal muscle fiber, where is the greatest concentration of Ca2+? (Module 9.3C)
terminal cisternae of the sarcoplasmic reticulum
Many medications introduced into the bloodstream cannot directly affect the neurons of the CNS because
the astrocytes isolate the CNS by forming a blood-brain barrier.
The structure of RNA differs from DNA in that
the backbone of RNA contains ribose
A characteristic of graded potentials is __________
the effect spreads passively through local currents
Membrane potential is
the electrical gradient of a cell.
Accessory structures of the skin include all of the following except
the epidermis.
A high-energy bond in ATP is present between
the first and second, and the second and third, phosphate groups
If the papilla of a hair follicle is destroyed,
the follicle will lose its blood supply.
In a first-class lever __________.
the fulcrum lies between the applied force and the load
The term "branched" in glandular structure refers to
the glandular areas of the gland
All of the following are correct regarding hair growth cycle except that
the hair becomes club hair during regression phase.
All of the following are true of the dermis EXCEPT that __________.
the hypodermis is part of the dermis
Tertiary protein structure results mainly from which interaction or bonding?
the interactions between the polypeptide chain and the surrounding water molecules
What makes a connective tissue "loose" or "dense"? (Module 4.12A)
the packing or volume of fibers
Identify the facial bones. (Module 7.3A)
the paired nasal, lacrimal, palatine, zygomatic, maxillae, and inferior nasal conchae, and the unpaired vomer and mandible
Facilitated diffusion differs from ordinary diffusion in that
the rate of molecular movement is limited by the number of available carrier molecules.
Bill accidentally fractures his first distal phalanx with a hammer. Which finger is broken? (Module 7.18C)
the tip of his thumb
What is the most important function of carbohydrates? (Module 2.14A)
they are the primary energy source
How are the skeletal system and muscular system related or similar in function?
they both function in support within the human body.
The most common lever systems in the body are those that have the applied force between the fulcrum and the load. These are called ________ levers.
third-class
The two major divisions of the ventral body cavity are the
thoracic and abdominopelvic.
The muscle known as the diaphragm separates the ________ from the ________.
thoracic cavity; abdominopelvic cavity
the minimum stimulus required to trigger an action potential is known as the
threshold
the common name for the pollex is the
thumb
The pyrimidine bases found in DNA are ________ and ________.
thymine; cytosine
Your ________ is your shinbone.
tibia
The medial surface of the knee joint is reinforced by the ________ ligament.
tibial collateral
An antagonist to the gastrocnemius is the
tibialis anterior
A muscle that dorsiflexes the foot is the
tibialis anterior.
What is the function of enzymes?
to lower the activation energy requirements of a reaction
A muscle whose name ends in the suffix "-glossus" would be found within or attached to the
tongue.
The process of forming mRNA is called
transcription
What is the term for tRNA?
transfer ribonucleic acid
Neuroglia do all of the following EXCEPT:
transmit electrical impulses
Which sectional plane would separate the thorax from the abdomen?
transverse
Which muscle forms the deepest layer of the abdominal wall muscles? (Module 10.10A)
transversus abdominis
Muscles with fibers that run perpendicular to the long axis of the body are called
transversus.
identify the largest of the superficial muscles that position the pectoral girdle. (Module 10.14A)
trapezius
The muscle that extends the arm while doing push-ups is the
triceps brachii.
At rest, active sites on the actin are blocked by
tropomyosin molecules.
When calcium ion binds to troponin,
tropomyosin moves into the groove between the helical actin strands.
A small rough bump on bone where a tendon attaches is called a
tuberosity.
Goblet cells are classified as
unicellular exocrine glands.
Artificial joints __________.
usually have a service life of only about 15 years.
Which of the following muscles of the thigh is located most anteriorly?
vastus medialis muscle
Gesturing "no" with the head does not depends on which of the following?
vertebra prominens
The part of the vertebrae that transfers weight along the axis of the vertebral column is the
vertebral body
To which part of the vertebra do the intervertebral discs attach? (Module 7.10C)
vertebral body
Neurotransmitter for release is stored in synaptic
vesicles.
Of the following bones, which is unpaired?
vomer
When does a muscle contraction begin?
when stored calcium ions are released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum into the sarcoplasm through gated calcium channels
Which of the following best describes the term "Z line"?
where thin filaments are anchored
Regions of the CNS with an abundance of myelinated axons constitute the ________ matter.
white
the three kinds of formed elements in blood are
white cells, red cells, and platelets
The common term for the carpal region is the
wrist