A&P Test 3

How does Lasix works?

is used to reduce extra fluid in the body (edema) caused by conditions such as heart failure, liver disease, and kidney disease. This can lessen symptoms such as shortness of breath and swelling in your arms, legs, and abdomen. This drug is also used to treat high blood pressure.

Where in the body is renin released?

A protein released by the kidneys.

Which of the following disease processes would MOST likely cause delayed or dysfunctional wound healing? A) Diabetes B) Hypothyroidism C) Heart disease D) Hypertension

A) Diabetes

_____________ are the MOST abundant white blood cells, are largely responsible for protecting the body against infection, and are key components of the first response to foreign body invasion. A) Neutrophils B) Eosinophils C) B lymphocytes D) Basophils

A) Neutrophils

Muscle cramps and paresthesias in a malnourished patient with alcoholism are MOST likely the result of: A) hypocalcemia. B) hypernatremia. C) hyperkalemia. D) hypermagnesemia.

A) hypocalcemia.

If the cause of a disease is unknown, it is said to be: A) idiopathic. B) organic. C) functional. D) pathologic.

A) idiopathic.

The chief white blood cell of the immune response is the: A) lymphocyte. B) neutrophil. C) monocyte. D) eosinophil.

A) lymphocyte.

Red blood cells

Carry oxygen to the tissues, they are disk shaped, and are also known as erythrocytes.

What are the types and stages of shock?

Central Shock Cardiogenic shock Obstructive shock Peripheral Shock Hypovolemic shock Distributive shock

Thyroid gland?

Consists of two lobes that are connected by a narrow band of tissue. The thyroid gland manufactures and secretes hormones that have a role in growth, development, and metabolism.

Which of the following medications does NOT shift potassium into the cells? A) Insulin B) Albuterol C) Bicarbonate D) 50% dextrose

D) 50% dextrose

Which of the following statements regarding basophils is correct? A) Basophils release chemicals that destroy parasitic invaders. B) Basophils account for approximately 70% of the leukocytes. C) Basophils travel to the tissues, where they become macrophages. D) Basophils release histamine and other chemicals that dilate blood vessels.

D) Basophils release histamine and other chemicals that dilate blood vessels.

Which of the following factors would MOST likely cause hyponatremia? A) Mild fever B) A seizure C) Acute nausea D) Diuretic use

D) Diuretic use

Which of the following conditions would be the LEAST likely to cause hyperventilation? A) Ketoacidosis B) Severe infection C) Aspirin overdose D) Metabolic alkalosis

D) Metabolic alkalosis

What type of shock occurs when blood flow becomes blocked in the heart or great vessels? A) Cardiogenic B) Peripheral C) Distributive D) Obstructive

D) Obstructive

How does Alkalosis affect CO2?

It can affect due to decreased blood levels of carbon dioxide, which is an acid. It can also affect due to increased blood levels of bicarbonate, which is a base.

Obstructive shock?

Occurs when blood flow becomes blocked in the heart or great vessels.

Cardionegic shock?

Occurs when the heart cannot circulate enough blood to maintain adequate peripheral oxygen delivery.

How does diabetes relate to Hyperkalemia?

Patients with diabetes often also have diminished kidney capacity to excrete potassium into urine. The combination of potassium shift out of cells and diminished urine potassium excretion causes hyperkalemia.

How does hyperkalemia affect the T-wave?

Persistent depolarization inactivates sodium channels in the cell membrane resulting in decrease in the rate of phase 0 of the action potential, widened QRS complex and prolonged PR interval.

Hypovolemic shock?

The circulating blood volume is insufficient to deliver adequate oxygen and nutrients to the body.

How Basophils release histamine, how it progresses during Anaphylaxis?

The least common of all granulocytes and play a role in both allergic and inflammatory reactions. Basophils contain large amounts of histamine: that increase tissue inflammation. And heparin: that inhibits blood clotting.

What are the primary and secondary causes of cardiogenic shock?

The most common cause of cardiogenic shock is myocardial infarction, as a single event or cumulative.

How is Lasix used and administered?

The usual initial dose of LASIX is 20 to 80 mg given as a single dose tablet. Congestive heart failure, cirrhosis of the liver, and renal disease, including the nephrotic syndrome.

How are mitochondria and ATP related?

They function as the metabolic center of the cell, and produce adenosine triphosphate (ATP), the major energy source for the cell.

What is the goal of releasing renin into the body?

maintain homeostasis of the blood pressure.

Distributive shock?

Occurs when there is wide-spread dilation of the resistance vessels, the capacitance vessels or both.

When oxygen does not reach the cell, the cell reverts to: A) anaerobic metabolism and produces lactic acid. B) aerobic metabolism and produces carbon dioxide. C) fat metabolism and begins producing ketoacids. D) anaerobic metabolism and produces bicarbonate.

A) anaerobic metabolism and produces lactic acid.

Half of the body's magnesium is stored in the: A) bones. B) kidneys. C) skeletal muscle. D) extracellular fluid.

A) bones.

Orthostatic hypotension and oliguria are common manifestations of: A) dehydration. B) fluid overload. C) hypernatremia D) left-sided heart failure.

A) dehydration.

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is characterized by: A) enlargement or thickening of the heart muscle. B) progressive shrinking of the right side of the heart. C) a significant reduction of blood return to the atria. D) generalized thinning of the left and right ventricles.

A) enlargement or thickening of the heart muscle.

A patient who overdosed on heroin and is unconscious with slow, shallow respirations would MOST likely experience: A) increased CO2 retention. B) acute metabolic acidosis. C) excess CO2 elimination. D) a pH well above 7.45.

A) increased CO2 retention.

Aspirin and NSAIDs reduce inflammation and pain by: A) inhibiting prostaglandin synthesis. B) decreasing circulating pyrogen levels. C) thinning the blood and reducing platelets. D) promoting mast cell synthesis of prostaglandins.

A) inhibiting prostaglandin synthesis.

Renin is a protein that is released into the bloodstream by the _________ in response to changes in __________. A) kidneys, blood pressure B) liver, acid-base balance C) pancreas, insulin levels D) hypothalamus, body temperature

A) kidneys, blood pressure

Type O blood contains: A) neither A nor B antigens but contains both A and B plasma antibodies. B) erythrocytes with type A antigens and plasma with type B antibodies. C) A and B surface antigens, but the plasma contains no ABO antibodies. D) both A and B surface antigens and both A and B plasma antibodies.

A) neither A nor B antigens but contains both A and B plasma antibodies.

A loss of normal sympathetic nervous system tone causes: A) neurogenic shock. B) obstructive shock. C) profound vasoconstriction. D) a reduced absolute blood volume.

A) neurogenic shock.

In the presence of infection, white blood cells release endogenous chemicals called _________, which produce fever. A) pyrogens B) histamines C) leukotrienes D) catecholamines

A) pyrogens

Angiogenesis is defined as: A) the growth of new blood vessels. B) the destruction of blood vessels. C) rerouting of intact blood vessels. D) regrowth of damaged blood vessels.

A) the growth of new blood vessels.

When cells are hypoxic for more than a few seconds: A) they produce substances that may damage other local or distant body systems. B) the respiratory system rapidly decompensates and breathing becomes slow. C) an increase in cytochrome production occurs and the body makes more energy. D) lysosomes quickly release enzymes that attempt to rebuild the structure of the cell.

A) they produce substances that may damage other local or distant body systems.

What does the increase or decrease of ADH mean?

An increase in blood osmolarity, causes ADH to be released into the body so that the kidneys can reabsorb water, decreasing the osmolarity of the blood.

In general, a child's immune system is not fully developed until he or she is between: A) 1 and 2 years of age. B) 2 and 3 years of age. C) 3 and 4 years of age. D) 4 and 5 years of age.

B) 2 and 3 years of age.

How does the body respond to hypoperfusion? A) Decreased preload, stroke volume, and heart rate B) Catecholamine release and increased systemic vascular resistance C) Splenic retention of red blood cells secondary to systemic hypoxia D) A compensatory decrease in cardiac output and cardiac oxygen demand

B) Catecholamine release and increased systemic vascular resistance

Which of the following represents an abnormal electrolyte serum level? A) Sodium, 140 mEq/L B) Potassium, 6 mEq/L C) Calcium, 9.5 mEq/L D) Magnesium, 1.7 mEq/L

B) Potassium, 6 mEq/L

Factor ____ is the antihemophilic factor. A) VII B) VIII C) IX D) XI

B) VIII

A type I hypersensitivity reaction is: A) a local reaction that primarily involves IgG antibodies. B) an acute reaction that occurs in response to a stimulus. C) an allergic response that occurs within hours of antigen exposure. D) a cytotoxic reaction and destroys many of the body's healthy cells.

B) an acute reaction that occurs in response to a stimulus.

A patient with kidney or liver failure would MOST likely develop: A) severe dehydration. B) an increase in isotonic fluid. C) cellular shrinkage and death. D) excessive hypertonic fluid levels.

B) an increase in isotonic fluid.

Distributive shock occurs when: A) central vasoconstriction forces blood from the core of the body. B) blood pools in expanded vascular beds and tissue perfusion decreases. C) microorganisms attack the blood vessels, resulting in vasodilation. D) a significant decrease in cardiac contractility causes decreased perfusion.

B) blood pools in expanded vascular beds and tissue perfusion decreases.

Baroreceptors, which are located in the carotid artery, aorta, and kidneys, are MOST sensitive to changes in: A) fluid volume. B) blood pressure. C) acid-base balance. D) sodium concentrations.

B) blood pressure.

Unlike basophils, mast cells: A) do not release leukotrienes. B) do not circulate in the blood. C) circulate freely in the bloodstream. D) play a major role in allergic reactions.

B) do not circulate in the blood.

The destruction of a blood clot is called: A) adhesion. B) fibrinolysis. C) chemotaxis. D) agglutination.

B) fibrinolysis.

A diabetic patient who failed to take his or her insulin and presents with peaked T waves on the cardiac monitor and muscle weakness is MOST likely: A) hypocalcemic. B) hyperkalemic. C) hypokalemic. D) hypoglycemic.

B) hyperkalemic.

The two MOST common causes of inflammation are: A) fever and phagocytosis. B) infection and injury. C) hypercarbia and hypoxemia. D) immunosuppression and fever.

B) infection and injury.

Carpopedal spasm that occurs during respiratory alkalosis is caused by a(n): A) decrease in arterial CO2. B) intracellular calcium shift. C) extracellular sodium shift. D) intracellular potassium shift.

B) intracellular calcium shift.

Apoptosis is defined as: A) hypoxic cell death. B) normal cell death. C) pathologic cell death. D) premature cell death.

B) normal cell death.

An injection of immunoglobulin is a form of: A) native immunity. B) passive acquired immunity. C) innate immunity. D) active acquired immunity.

B) passive acquired immunity.

Foreign material such as bacteria and other microorganisms are engulfed and destroyed by: A) basophils. B) phagocytes. C) eosinophils. D) lymphocytes.

B) phagocytes.

Strength of a person's peripheral pulses is related to: A) heart rate and preload. B) stroke volume and pulse pressure. C) physical size and blood pressure. D) cardiac output and heart rate.

B) stroke volume and pulse pressure.

The tension exerted on a cell due to water movement across the cell membrane is referred to as: A) osmosis. B) tonicity. C) diffusion. D) active transport.

B) tonicity.

Gout is a condition in which: A) calcium deposits affect the joints. B) uric acid accumulates in the blood. C) the kidneys fail to excrete sodium. D) synovial fluid is progressively destroyed.

B) uric acid accumulates in the blood.

Patients with congenital prolongation of the Q-T interval are at GREATEST risk for: A) sudden asystole. B) ventricular arrhythmias. C) coronary artery disease. D) acute myocardial infarction.

B) ventricular arrhythmias.

Anaphylactic shock is characterized by: A) labored breathing and hypertension. B) wheezing and widespread vasodilation. C) intracellular hypovolemia and hives. D) a deficiency of circulating histamines.

B) wheezing and widespread vasodilation.

Infectious cellular injury would LEAST likely occur in a patient: A) with metastatic cancer. B) with migraine headaches. C) who is over 70 years of age. D) with long-term diabetes.

B) with migraine headaches.

What chemical induces hypoxia by blocking oxidative phosphorylation in the mitochondria and preventing oxygen metabolism? A) Lead B) Ethanol C) Cyanide D) Carbon monoxide

C) Cyanide

__________ is the protein that bonds to form the fibrous component of a blood clot. A) Kinin B) Plasmin C) Fibrin D) Collagen

C) Fibrin

All of the following diseases are autoimmune diseases, EXCEPT: A) rheumatoid arthritis. B) type 1 diabetes. C) HIV infection. D) myasthenia gravis.

C) HIV infection.

Which of the following disease processes is more common in women? A) Gout B) Lung cancer C) Osteoporosis D) Parkinson's disease

C) Osteoporosis

A person who ingests an excessive amount of salicylate would MOST likely experience: A) alkalosis. B) bradycardia. C) a fall in pH. D) hypoventilation.

C) a fall in pH.

The MOST common cause of cardiogenic shock is: A) untreated hypertension. B) blunt force chest trauma. C) acute myocardial infarction. D) sustained pulmonary hypertension.

C) acute myocardial infarction.

Hyperkalemia is defined as: A) excess potassium in the cells. B) a relative deficit of sodium. C) an elevated serum potassium level. D) a critically low magnesium level.

C) an elevated serum potassium level.

A patient with chronic renal insufficiency who has been taking laxatives and presents with confusion, muscle weakness, and decreased deep tendon reflexes MOST likely has: A) decreased serum sodium levels. B) an overall decrease in serum potassium. C) an increased serum level of magnesium. D) increased intracellular magnesium levels.

C) an increased serum level of magnesium.

Wounds that heal by primary intention: A) do not utilize fibrin or fibronectin. B) heal without the formation of a scab. C) are generally clean wounds with opposed margins. D) have a more pronounced and prolonged inflammatory phase.

C) are generally clean wounds with opposed margins.

Severe, prolonged stress: A) is frequently a direct cause of death. B) results in the destruction of cholesterol and fat. C) causes the body to lose its ability to fight disease. D) results in chronically low levels of cortisol.

C) causes the body to lose its ability to fight disease.

All of the following factors would cause potassium to shift into the cell, EXCEPT: A) alkalosis. B) epinephrine release. C) increased vagal tone. D) insulin administration.

C) increased vagal tone.

Aldosterone acts on the kidneys by: A) increasing potassium reabsorption into the blood and enhancing sodium elimination in the urine. B) dilating the renal vasculature, thus enhancing renal blood flow and facilitating sodium excretion. C) increasing sodium reabsorption into the blood and enhancing potassium elimination in the urine. D) constricting the renal vasculature, thus slowing renal blood flow and decreasing the glomerular filtration rate.

C) increasing sodium reabsorption into the blood and enhancing potassium elimination in the urine.

In decompensated shock, systolic blood pressure is: A) less than 90 mm Hg in adult males. B) less than 80 mm Hg in adult females. C) less than the fifth percentile for the age. D) usually undetectable due to vasodilation.

C) less than the fifth percentile for the age.

The resistance stage of the stress reaction is characterized by: A) an immediate release of the catecholamines epinephrine and norepinephrine, which causes the fight-or-flight response B) a reduction of cortisol in the body, which predisposes the person to acute inflammatory processes. C) stimulation of the adrenal glands to secrete hormones that increase blood glucose levels and maintain blood pressure. D) adrenal gland depletion, which leads to decreased blood glucose levels, physical exhaustion, and immunocompromise.

C) stimulation of the adrenal glands to secrete hormones that increase blood glucose levels and maintain blood pressure.

Unlike an allergic reaction, an autoimmune reaction: A) targets an antigen or allergen. B) is generally predictable. C) targets a person's own tissues. D) does not involve antibodies.

C) targets a person's own tissues.

When blood osmolarity increases: A) the kidneys excrete more water from the body through diuresis in an attempt to normalize the blood's osmolarity. B) osmoreceptors located in the hypothalamus stimulate the release of vasopressin, which causes the body to retain water. C) the pituitary gland releases antidiuretic hormone (ADH), which stimulates the kidneys to resorb water and decrease the blood's osmolarity. D) volume-sensitive receptors in the atria stretch, causing the release of natriuretic proteins that normalize the blood's osmolarity.

C) the pituitary gland releases antidiuretic hormone (ADH), which stimulates the kidneys to resorb water and decrease the blood's osmolarity.

Which of the following statements regarding multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS) is correct? A) MODS typically develops within 20 to 30 minutes following resuscitation from cardiac arrest. B) At the cellular level, MODS results in aerobic metabolism, metabolic alkalosis, and impaired cellular function. C) Signs and symptoms of MODS include compensatory hypertension, bradycardia, and a fever greater than 105°F. D) MODS occurs when injury or infection triggers a massive systemic immune, inflammatory, and coagulation response.

D) MODS occurs when injury or infection triggers a massive systemic immune, inflammatory, and coagulation response.

Generally, the only physical finding in a patient with a prolapsed mitral valve is: A) a chronically irregular heart rate. B) sharp chest pain following strenuous exertion. C) dyspnea and palpitations while in a sitting position. D) a clicking sound heard during cardiac auscultation.

D) a clicking sound heard during cardiac auscultation.

The MOST major challenge to pH homeostasis is: A) hyperventilation. B) CO2 elimination. C) acute fluid loss. D) acid production.

D) acid production.

Interleukins function by: A) releasing prothrombin from the liver and converting it to thrombin. B) stimulating macrophages to help engulf and destroy foreign substances. C) keeping leukocytes at the infection site until they can perform their task. D) attracting white blood cells to the sites of injury and bacterial invasion.

D) attracting white blood cells to the sites of injury and bacterial invasion.

Unlike bacteria, viruses: A) are unable to replicate. B) are treated effectively with antibiotics. C) do not produce an immune response. D) do not produce exotoxins or endotoxins.

D) do not produce exotoxins or endotoxins.

The MOST common type of exogenous hypovolemic shock is: A) severe diarrhea. B) internal hemorrhage. C) excess plasma loss. D) external bleeding.

D) external bleeding.

If an Rh-negative person receives Rh-positive blood: A) thrombocytopenia will occur. B) antibodies will not be released. C) a transfusion reaction will not occur. D) hemolysis and anemia can result.

D) hemolysis and anemia can result.

The body's rejection of an organ following transplantation is MOST likely the result of: A) autoimmunity. B) hypersensitivity. C) an infection. D) isoimmunity.

D) isoimmunity.

Slow-reacting substances of anaphylaxis are also known as: A) histamine. B) mast cells. C) eosinophils. D) leukotrienes.

D) leukotrienes.

When nerve cells and cardiac myocytes are injured: A) they are replaced by regeneration from remaining cells. B) their cells divide completely and thus heal completely. C) a slow influx of blood flow causes progressive repair. D) scar tissue forms because these cells cannot be replaced.

D) scar tissue forms because these cells cannot be replaced.

When renin is released: A) the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II is inhibited, which facilitates excretion of sodium via the kidneys. B) the lungs convert the plasma protein angiotensinogen to angiotensin I, which dilates the renal blood vessels and increases kidney function. C) the pancreatic alpha cells secrete the hormone glucagon, which facilitates the conversion of glycogen to glucose in the liver. D) the angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) converts angiotensin I to angiotensin II, which stimulates sodium resorption by the renal tubules.

D) the angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) converts angiotensin I to angiotensin II, which stimulates sodium resorption by the renal tubules.

Parathyroid Gland?

Embedded in the posterior portion of each lobe of the thyroid. They produce and secrete PTH which maintains normal levels of calcium in the blood and normal neuromuscular function.

Where are Insulin and glucagon made?

Insulin and glucagon are hormones secreted by islet cells within the pancreas. They are both secreted in response to blood sugar levels.

Adrenal Cortico Tropic Hormone (ACTH)?

It is produced in anterior pituitary. Its principal effects are increased production and release of cortisol by the cortex of the adrenal gland.

what causes the release of insulin and glucagon?

Its effect is opposite to that of insulin, which lowers the extracellular glucose. The pancreas releases glucagon when the concentration of glucose in the bloodstream falls too low. Glucagon causes the liver to convert stored glycogen into glucose, which is released into the bloodstream.

What do baroreceptors sense and what do they help control?

Located in the carotid sinus and in the aortic arch. Their function is to sense pressure changes by responding to change in the tension of the arterial wall. A sudden increase in blood pressure stretches the baroreceptors and the increased firing results in the vasomotor center inhibiting sympathetic drive and increasing vagal tone on the SA node of the heart. The SA node is slowed by the acetylcholine and heart rate slows to correct the increase in pressure.

What is the structure and function of the adrenals?

Located on top of each kidney. The adrenal glands manufacture and secrete certain sex hormones, as well as other hormones that are vital in maintaining the body's water an salt balance. These glands produce adrenaline (Epinephrine) Fight-or-Flight.

Calcitonin?

Source: Blood calcium concentration Actions: Lowers blood calcium and phosphate ion concentration by inhibiting calcium and phosphate ion release from bones, and by increasing kidney excretion of these ions.

Thyroxine (T4)?

Source: TSH from anterior pituitary Actions: Increases energy release from carbohydrates, increase protein synthesis, accelerates growth, stimulates nervous system activity.

Triiodothyronine (T3)?

Source: TSH from anterior pituitary Actions: Same as T4, but five times more potent.

What are the stress response stages and the hormones associated with them?

Stage 1: Alarm Hormone: Catecholamines, the most abundant are epinephrine and norepinephrine. Stage 2: Resistance Hormones: Corticosteroid, the two types are glucocorticoids(Cortisol) and mineralocorticoids (Aldosterone) Stage 3: Exhaustion Hormones: The adrenal glands become depleted, diminishing the level of blood glucose.

What are the effects of Angiotensin I and II?

Stimulates sodium resorption by the renal tubules. It also constricts the glomerular filtration rate. Angiotensin II is also responsible for stimulating the secretion of adrenal hormone Aldosterone.

Where is Aldosterone made, and what does it regulates?

The aldosterone hormone is a hormone produced by the adrenal gland. The hormone acts mainly in the functional unit of the kidneys to aid in the conservation of sodium, secretion of potassium, water retention and to stabilize blood pressure.

What does the posterior pituitary gland stores and releases?

The posterior pituitary does not produce any hormones of its own, rather, it stores and secretes two hormones made in the hypothalamus— oxytocin and anti-diuretic hormone.

White blood cells

The primary function of all white blood cells is to fight infection. They are also known as leukocytes, normally there are 4,500 to 10,000 white blood cells in a microliter of human blood.

What is the structure of the kidneys?

The renal cortex, renal medulla, and renal pelvis are the three main internal regions found in a kidney. Nephrons, masses of tiny tubules, are largely located in the medulla and receive fluid from the blood vessels in the renal cortex. The renal cortex produces erythropotein.

How can Hypoventilations affect CO2?

The state in which a reduced amount of air enters the alveoli in the lungs, resulting in decreased levels of oxygen and increased levels of carbon dioxide in the blood. Hypoventilation can be due to breathing that is too shallow (hypopnea) or too slow (bradypnea), or to diminished lung function.

What is the body's response to catecholamines being released during shock or simple hemorrhage?

Three commonly known ones are epinephrine (adrenaline), norepinephrine, and dopamine. Catecholamines can serve as neurotransmitters, transferring signals from neuron to neuron, as well as hormones, which regulate physiological functions such as your heartbeat and breathing rate.

How are Angiotensin I and II created?

When renin is released , it converts the plasma protein angiotensinogen to angiotensin I. In the lungs, angiotensin I is converted rapidly to angiotensin II by ACE.