AH II Exam 3 Practice

The nurse providing direct client care uses specific practices to reduce the chance of acquiring infection with human immune deficiency virus (HIV) from clients. Which practice is most effective? a. Consistent use of Standard Precautions b. Double-gloving before body fluid exposure c. Labeling charts and armbands "HIV+" d. Wearing a mask within 3 feet (1 m) of the client

ANS: A According to The Joint Commission, the most effective preventative measure to avoid HIV exposure is consistent use of Standard Precautions. Standard Precautions are required by the CDC. Double-gloving is not necessary. Labeling charts and armbands in this fashion is a violation of the Health Information Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA). Wearing a mask within 3 feet (1 m) of the client is not necessary with every client contact.

Emergency medical technicians arrive at the emergency department with an unresponsive client who has an oxygen mask in place. Which action would the nurse take first? a. Assess that the client is breathing adequately. b. Insert a large-bore intravenous line. c. Place the client on a cardiac monitor. d. Assess for the best neurologic response.

ANS: A After establishing an airway, the highest priority intervention in the primary survey is to establish that the client is breathing adequately. Even though this client has an oxygen mask on, he or she may not be breathing, or may be breathing inadequately with the device in place. Inserting an IV line and placing the client on a monitor would come after ensuring a patent airway and effective breathing.

A client with HIV-III is hospitalized and has weeping Kaposi sarcoma lesions. The nurse dresses them with sterile gauze. When changing these dressings, which action is most important for the nurse's safety? a. Adhering to Standard Precautions b. Assessing tolerance to dressing changes c. Performing hand hygiene before and after care d. Disposing of soiled dressings properly

ANS: A All of the actions are important, but due to the infectious nature of this illness, the nurse would ensure he or she is following Standard Precautions (and Transmission-Based Precautions when necessary) to avoid a potential exposure.

The nurse is presenting information to a community group on safer sex practices. The nurse would teach that which sexual practice is the riskiest? a. Anal intercourse b. Masturbation c. Oral sex d. Vaginal intercourse

ANS: A Anal intercourse is the riskiest sexual practice because the fragile anal tissue can tear, creating a portal of entry for human immune deficiency virus in addition to providing mucus membrane contact with the virus.

An emergency department nurse assesses a client admitted after a lightning strike. The client is awake but somewhat confused. Which assessment would the nurse complete first? a. Electrocardiogram (ECG) b. Wound inspection c. Creatinine kinase d. Computed tomography of head

ANS: A Clients who survive a lightning strike can have serious myocardial injury, which can be manifested by ECG and myocardial perfusion abnormalities. The nurse would prioritize the ECG over the other assessments which would be completed later.

A nurse has educated a client on an epinephrine autoinjector. What statement by the client indicates additional instruction is needed? a. "I don't need to go to the hospital after using it." b. "I must carry two autoinjectors with me at all times." c. "I will write the expiration date on my calendar." d. "This can be injected right through my clothes."

ANS: A Clients would be instructed to call 911 and go to the hospital for monitoring after using the autoinjector. The medication may wear off before the offending agent has cleared the client's system. The other statements show good understanding of this treatment.

A nurse is constructing a personal preparedness plan in case of a disaster. What does the nurse consider in making this plan? a. Store basic supplies to last for at least 3 days. b. Have short-term arrangements for child care. c. Store enough frozen foods in freezer for 5 days. d. Keep cooking utensils needed in a separate bag.

ANS: A Concerns for their home and family can impact the willingness to report in an emergency and can be diminished by being prepared with a personal preparedness plan with enough supplies for 3 days. Any food needs to be nonperishable with no cooking required. Arrangements for children, pets, or older adults would be made for extended period of time.

What is the primary goal of a triage system used by the nurse with clients presenting to the emergency department? a. Determine the acuity of the client's condition to determine priority of care. b. Assess the status of the airway, breathing, circulation, or presence of deficits. c. Determine whether the client is responsive enough to provide needed information. d. Evaluate the emergency department's resources to adequately treat the patient.

ANS: A ED triage is an organized system for sorting and classifying clients into priority levels depending on illness or injury severity. The primary goal of the triage system is to facilitate the ED nurse's ability to prioritize care according to the acuity of the patient, having the clients with the more severe illness or injury seen first. Airway, breathing, and circulation are part of the primary survey. Determining responsiveness is done during the disability phase of the primary survey and is not the primary goal. Evaluating the ED's resources is also not a goal of triage.

While on a camping trip, a nurse cares for an adult client who had a drowning incident in a lake and is experiencing agonal breathing with a palpable pulse. What action would the nurse take first? a. Deliver rescue breaths. b. Wrap the client in dry blankets. c. Assess for signs of bleeding. d. Check for a carotid pulse.

ANS: A In this emergency situation, the nurse immediately initiates airway clearance and ventilator support measures, including delivering rescue breaths.

A client admitted to the emergency department following a lightning strike. What is the priority assessment the nurse focuses on? a. Cardiopulmonary b. Integumentary c. Peripheral vascular d. Renal

ANS: A Lightning strikes can profoundly affect the cardiopulmonary and the central nervous system as a serious cardiac and/or respiratory arrest. The nurse would be alert for reports of chest pain and would watch for dysrhythmias on the cardiac monitor. As impairment of the respiratory center can also be affected, the nurse would assess the respiratory system second.

A nurse teaches a community health class about water safety. Which statement by a participant indicates that additional teaching is needed? a. "I can go swimming all by myself because I am a certified lifeguard." b. "I cannot leave my toddler alone in the bathtub for even a minute." c, "I will appoint one adult to supervise the pool at all times during a party." d. "I will make sure that there is a phone near my pool in case of an emergency."

ANS: A People would never swim alone, regardless of lifeguard status. The other statements indicate good understanding of the teaching.

A primary health care provider prescribes a rewarming bath for a client who presents with Grade 3 frostbite. What action would the nurse take prior to starting this treatment? a. Administer intravenous morphine. b. Wrap the limb with a compression dressing. c. Massage the frostbitten areas. d. Assess the limb for compartment syndrome.

ANS: A Rapid rewarming in a water bath is recommended for all instances of partial-thickness and full-thickness frostbite. Patients experience severe pain during the rewarming process and nurses would administer intravenous analgesics.

A client calls the clinic to report exposure to poison ivy and an itchy rash that is not helped with over-the-counter antihistamines. What response by the nurse is most appropriate? a. "Antihistamines do not help poison ivy." b. "There are different antihistamines to try." c. "You should be seen in the clinic right away." d. "You will need to take some IV steroids."

ANS: A Since histamine is not the mediator of a type IV reaction such as with poison ivy, antihistamines will not provide relief. The nurse would educate the client about this. The client does not need to be seen right away. The client may or may not need steroids; they may be given either IV or orally.

An HIV-negative client who has an HIV-positive partner asks the nurse about receiving tenofovir/emtricitabine. What information is most important to teach the client about this drug? a. Does not reduce the need for safe sex practices. b. Has been taken off the market due to increases in cancer. c. Reduces the number of HIV tests you will need. d. Is only used for postexposure prophylaxis.

ANS: A Tenofovir/emtricitabine is a newer drug used for preexposure prophylaxis and appears to reduce transmission of human immune deficiency virus (HIV) from known HIV-positive people to HIV-negative people. The drug does not reduce the need for practicing safe sex. Since the drug can lead to drug resistance if used, clients will still need HIV testing every 3 months. This drug has not been taken off the market and is not used for postexposure prophylaxis.

A nurse is talking with a client about a negative enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) test for human immune deficiency virus (HIV). The test is negative and the client states "Whew! I was really worried about that result." What action by the nurse is most important? a. Assess the client's sexual activity and patterns. b. Express happiness over the test result. c. Remind the client about safer sex practices. d. Tell the client to be retested in 3 months.

ANS: A The ELISA test can be falsely negative if testing occurs after the client has become infected but prior to making antibodies to HIV. This period of time is known as the window period and can last up to 21 days. The confirmatory Western Blot test takes an additional 7 days, so using that testing algorithm, the client's status may not truly be known for up to 28 days. The client may have had exposure that has not yet been confirmed. The nurse needs to assess the client's sexual behavior further to determine the proper response. The other actions are not the most important, but discussing safer sex practices is always appropriate. Testing would be recommended every 3 months for someone engaging in high risk behaviors.

A nurse wants to become involved in community disaster preparedness and is interested in helping setup and staff first-aid stations or community acute care centers in the event of a disaster. Which organization is the best fit for this nurse's interests? a. The Medical Reserve Corps b. The National Guard c. The health department d. A Disaster Medical Assistance Team

ANS: A The Medical Reserve Corps (MRC) consists of volunteer medical and public health care professionals who support the community during times of need. They may help staff hospitals, establish first-aid stations or special needs shelters, or set up acute care centers in the community. The National Guard often performs search-and-rescue operations and law enforcement. The health department focuses on communicable disease tracking, treatment, and prevention. A Disaster Medical Assistance Team is deployed to a disaster area for up to 72 hours, providing many types of relief services. DIF: Understanding TOP: Integrated Process: Teaching/LearningKEY: Emergency and Disaster Preparedness, Emergency nursingMSC: Client Needs Category: Safe and Effective Care Environment: Safety and Infection Control Btestbanks.com Downloaded by Jorge Sanchez ([email protected]) Btestbanks.com

An emergency department nurse cares for a middle-age mountain climber who is confused, ataxic, and exhibits impaired judgement. After administering oxygen, which intervention would the nurse implement next? a. Administer dexamethasone. b. Complete a mini mental state examination. c. Prepare the client for computed tomography of the brain. d. Request a psychiatric consult.

ANS: A The client is exhibiting signs of mountain sickness and high-altitude cerebral edema (HACE). Dexamethasone reduces cerebral edema by acting as an anti-inflammatory in the central nervous system. The other interventions will not specifically treat HACE, although a thorough mental status exam would be performed.

A client has been hospitalized with an opportunistic infection secondary to HIV-III. The client's partner is listed as the emergency contact, but the client's mother insists that she should be listed instead. What action by the nurse is best? a. Contact the social worker to assist the client with advance directives. b. Ignore the mother; the client does not want her to be involved. c. Let the client know, gently, that nurses cannot be involved in these disputes. d. Tell the client that, legally, the mother is the emergency contact.

ANS: A The client should make his or her wishes known and formalize them through advance directives. The nurse would help the client by contacting someone to help with this process. Ignoring the mother or telling the client that nurses cannot be involved does not help the situation. Legal statutes vary by state, but the nurse would be the client's advocate and help ensure his or her wishes are met.

A client with HIV-II is hospitalized for an unrelated condition, and several medications are prescribed in addition to the regimen already being used. What action by the nurse is most important? a. Consult with the pharmacy about drug interactions. b. Ensure that the client understands the new medications. c. Give the new drugs without considering the old ones. d. Schedule all medications at standard times.

ANS: A The drug regimen for someone with HIV/AIDS is complex and consists of many medications that must be given at specific times of the day, and that have many interactions with other drugs and food. The nurse would consult with a pharmacist about possible interactions. Client teaching is important but does not take precedence over ensuring the medications do not interfere with each other, which could lead to drug resistance or a resurgence of symptoms.

The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with HIV-II. The client's CD4+ cell count is 399/mm3 (0.399 109/L). What action by the nurse is best? a. Counsel the client on safer sex practices/abstinence. b. Encourage the client to abstain from alcohol. c. Facilitate genetic testing for CD4+ CCR5/CXCR4 co-receptors. d. Help the client plan high-protein/iron meals.

ANS: A This client is in the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention HIV-II case definition group. He or she remains highly infectious and would be counseled on either safer sex practices or abstinence. Abstaining from alcohol is healthy but not required, although some medications may need to be taken while abstaining. Genetic testing is not commonly done, but an alteration on the CCR5/CXCR4 co-receptors is seen in long-term nonprogressors. High-protein/iron meals are important for people who are immunosuppressed, but helping to plan them does not take precedence over stopping the spread of the disease.

A nurse begins a job at a Veterans Administration Hospital and asks why so much emphasis is on HIV testing for the veterans. What reasons is this nurse given? (Select all that apply.) a. Veterans have a high prevalence of substance abuse. b. Many veterans may engage in high risk behaviors. c. Many older veterans may not know their risks. d. Everyone should know their HIV status. e. Belief that the VA has tested them and would notify them if positive.

ANS: A,B,C,D,E All options are correct for the veteran population. The nurse interacting with veteran would ensure they know about the HIV testing offered by the VA.

A client has just been informed of a positive HIV test. The client is distraught and does not know what to do. What intervention by the nurse is best? a. Assess the client for support systems. b. Determine if a clergy member would help. c. Explain legal requirements to tell sex partners. d. Offer to tell the family for the client.

ANS: A This client needs the assistance of support systems. The nurse would help the client identify them and what role they can play in supporting him or her. A clergy member may or may not be welcome. Positive HIV test results are reportable in all 50 states, Washington, D.C., and Canada but the nurse works with the client to support his or her choices in disclosure. The nurse would not tell the family for the client.

A hospital responds to a local mass casualty event. What action would the nurse supervisor take to prevent staff posttraumatic stress disorder during and after the event? a. Provide water and healthy snacks for energy throughout the event. b. Schedule 16-hour shifts to allow for greater rest between shifts. c. Encourage counseling upon deactivation of the emergency response plan. d. Assign staff to different roles and units within the medical facility.

ANS: A To prevent staff posttraumatic stress disorder during a mass casualty event, the nurses would use available counseling, encourage and support co-workers, monitor each other's stress level and performance, take breaks when needed, talk about feelings with staff and managers, and drink plenty of water and eat healthy snacks for energy. Nurses would also keep in touch with family, friends, and significant others, and not work for more than 12 hours/day. Encouraging counseling upon deactivation of the plan, or after the emergency response is over, does not prevent stress during the casualty event. Assigning staff to unfamiliar roles or units may increase situational stress and is not an approach to prevent posttraumatic stress disorder. These actions also help mitigate PTSD after the event.

A nurse wants to become part of a Disaster Medical Assistance Team (DMAT) but is concerned about maintaining licensure in several different states. Which statement best addresses these concerns? a. "Deployed DMAT providers are federal employees, so their licenses are good in all 50 states." b. "The government has a program for quick licensure activation wherever you are deployed." c. "During a time of crisis, licensure issues would not be the government's priority concern." d. "If you are deployed, you will be issued a temporary license in the state in which you are working."

ANS: A When deployed, DMAT health care providers act as agents of the federal government, and so are considered federal employees. Thus their licenses are valid in all 50 states. Licensure is an issue that the government would be concerned with, but no programs for temporary licensure or rapid activation are available.

A client resuscitated after drowning is admitted to the emergency department. What assessment findings does the nurse recognize as symptoms of a drowning? (Select all that apply.) a. Bilateral crackles b. Bradycardia c. Cyanosis of the lips d. Hypotension e. Flushed, diaphoretic skin

ANS: A, B, C, D Drowning victims will exhibit signs of pulmonary edema which includes crackles in one or both lungs, persistent dry cough, and cyanosis of the lips and/or nail beds. The diving reflex as a response to asphyxia produces bradycardia, signs of decreased cardiac output with hypotension, and vasoconstriction of vessels in the intestine, skeletal muscles, and kidneys.

A nurse is learning about human immune deficiency virus (HIV) infection. Which statements about HIV infection are correct? (Select all that apply.) a. CD4+ cells begin to create new HIV virus particles. b. Antibodies produced are incomplete and do not function well. c. Macrophages stop functioning properly. d. Opportunistic infections and cancer are leading causes of death. e. People with HIV-I disease are not infectious to others. f. The CD4+ T-cell is only affected when the disease has progressed to HIV-III

ANS: A, B, C, D In HIV, CD4+ cells begin to create new HIV particles. Antibodies the client produce are incomplete and do not function well. Macrophages also stop functioning properly. Opportunistic infections and cancer are the two leading causes of death in client's with HIV infection. People infected with HIV are infectious in all stages of the disease. The CD4+ T-cell is the immune system cell most affected by infection with the HIV virus.

Which findings are AIDS-defining characteristics? (Select all that apply.) a. CD4+ cell count less than 200/mm3 (0.2 109/L) or less than 14% b. Infection with P. jiroveci c. Positive enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) test for human immunedeficiency virus (HIV) d. Presence of HIV wasting syndrome e. Taking antiretroviral medications f. Confusion, dementia, or memory loss

ANS: A, B, D, F A diagnosis of AIDS requires that the person be HIV positive and have either a CD4+ T-cell count of less than 200 cells/mm3 (0.2 109/L) or less than 14% (even if the total CD4+ count is above 200 cells/mm3) or an opportunistic infection such as P. jiroveci and HIV wasting syndrome. Confusion, dementia, and memory loss are central nervous system indications. Having a positive ELISA test and taking antiretroviral medications are not AIDS-defining characteristics.

The nurse is assessing a client for signs and symptoms of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). Which of the following would be consistent with this disorder? (Select all that apply.) a. Discoid rash on skin exposed to sunlight b. Urinalysis positive for casts and protein c. Painful, deformed small joints d. Pain on inspiration e. Thrombocytosis f. Serum positive for antinuclear antibodies (ANA)

ANS: A, B, D, F Signs and symptoms of SLE include (but are not limited to) a discoid rash on skin exposed to the sun, urinalysis with casts and protein, pleurisy as manifested by pain on inspiration, and positive ANA titers in the blood. Nonerosive arthritis in peripheral joints can occur but does not lead to deformity. Thrombocytopenia is another sign.

An emergency department (ED) nurse is preparing to transfer a client to the trauma intensive care unit. Which information would the nurse include in the nurse-to-nurse hand-off report? (Select all that apply.) a. Mechanism of injury b.Diagnostic test results c. Immunizations d. List of home medications e. Isolation Precautions f. Safety concerns

ANS: A, B, E, F Hand-off communication would be comprehensive so that the receiving nurse can continue care for the client fluidly. Communication would be concise and would include only the most essential information for a safe transition in care. Hand-off communication would include the client's situation (reason for being in the ED), brief medical history, assessment and diagnostic findings, Transmission-Based Precautions needed, safety concerns interventions provided, and response to those interventions. Immunization history is not usually considered critical unless it relates to the reason for admission. Medication reconciliation will occur when the client reaches the inpatient unit.

An emergency department nurse moves to a new city where heat-related illnesses are common. Which clients does the nurse anticipate being at highest risk for heat-related illnesses? (Select all that apply.) a. Homeless individuals b. People with substance abuse disorders c. Caucasians d. Hockey players e. Older adults f. Obese individuals

ANS: A, B, E, F Some of the most vulnerable, at-risk populations for heat-related illness include older adults; people who work outside, such as construction and agricultural workers; homeless people; people who abuse substances; outdoor athletes (recreational and professional); and members of the military who are stationed in countries with hot climates (e.g., Iraq, Afghanistan). Hockey is generally a cold-air game whether played indoors or outdoors and wouldn't have as much risk for heat-related illness as other sports.

A nurse teaches a client who has severe allergies ways to prevent insect bites. Which statements does the nurse include in this client's teaching? (Select all that apply.) a. "Consult an exterminator to control bugs in and around your home." b. "Do not swat at insects or wasps." c. "Wear sandals whenever you go outside." d. "Keep your prescribed epinephrine autoinjector in a bedside drawer." e. "Use screens in your windows and doors to prevent flying insects from entering." f. "Identify and remove potential nesting sites in your yard."

ANS: A, B, E, F To prevent arthropod bites and stings, patients should wear protective clothing, cover garbage cans, use screens in windows and doors, inspect clothing and shoes before putting them on, consult an exterminator, remove nests, avoid swatting at insects, and carry a prescription epinephrine autoinjector at all times if they are known to be allergic to bee or wasp stings. Shoes are needed when working in areas known or suspected to harbor arthropods, but sandals will not protect the feet. Removing nesting sites may help eliminate the population.

The nurse is teaching a client about medications for HIV-II treatment. What drugs are paired with the correct information? (Select all that apply.) a. Abacavir: avoid fatty and fried foods. b. Efavirenz: take 1 hour before or 2 hours after antacids. c. Atazanavir: check pulse daily and report pulse greater than 100 beats/min. d. Dolutegravir: do not take this medication if you become pregnant. e. Enfuvirtide: teach client how to operate syringe infusion pump for administration. f. All drugs: you must adhere to the drug schedule at least 90% of the time for effectiveness.

ANS: A, B, F Abacavir is a nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor and clients are taught to avoid fried and fatty foods because they can lead to digestive upsets and even pancreatitis. Efavirenz is a nonnucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor and clients are taught to take them (doraverene) all except spaced 1 hour before or 2 hours after antacids to avoid inhibiting drug absorption. Atazanavir is a protease inhibitor and can cause bradycardia which should be reported. Dolutegravir is an integrase inhibitor and can cause birth defects. Enfuvirtide is a fusion inhibitor and is given subcutaneously. All drugs must be taken as scheduled 90% of the time in order to remain effective.

The nurse is studying hypersensitivity reactions. Which reactions are correctly matched with their hypersensitivity types? (Select all that apply.) a. Type I—examples include hay fever and anaphylaxis. b. Type II—mediated by action of immunoglobulin M (IgM). c. Type III—immune complex deposits in blood vessel walls. d. Type IV—examples are poison ivy and transplant rejection. e. Type IV—involve both antibodies and complement.

ANS: A, C, D Type I reactions are mediated by immunoglobulin E (IgE) and include hay fever, anaphylaxis, and allergic asthma. Type III reactions consist of immune complexes that form and deposit in the walls of blood vessels. Type IV reactions include responses to poison ivy exposure, positive tuberculosis tests, and graft rejection. Type II reactions are mediated by immunoglobulin G, not IgM. Type IV hypersensitivity reactions do not involve either antibodies or complement.

Emergency medical services (EMS) brings a large number of clients to the emergency department following a mass casualty incident. The nurse identifies the clients with which injuries with yellow tags? (Select all that apply.) a. Partial-thickness burns covering both legs b. Open fractures of both legs with absent pedal pulses c. Neck injury and numbness of both legs d. Small pieces of shrapnel embedded in both eyes e. Head injury and difficult to arouse f. Bruising and pain in the right lower abdomen

ANS: A, C, D, F Clients with burns, spine injuries, eye injuries, and stable abdominal injuries would be treated within 30 minutes to 2 hours, and therefore would be identified with yellow tags. The client with the open fractures and the client with the head injury would be classified as urgent with red tags.

A nurse is providing health education at a community center. Which instructions does the nurse include in teaching about prevention of lightning injuries during a storm? (Select all that apply.) a. Seek shelter inside a building or vehicle. b. Hide under a tall tree. c. Do not take a bath or shower. d. Turn off the television. e. Remove all body piercings. f. Put down golf clubs or gardening tools.

ANS: A, C, D, F When thunder is heard, individuals should seek shelter in a safe area such as a building or an enclosed vehicle. Electrical equipment such as TVs and stereos should be turned off. Stay away from plumbing, water, and metal objects such as golf clubs or gardening tools. Do not stand under an isolated tall tree or a structure such as a flagpole. Body piercings will not increase a person's chances of being struck by lightning.

Which assessment findings would indicate to the nurse that a client has suffered from a heat stroke? (Select all that apply.) a. Confusion and bizarre behavior b. Headache and fatigue c. Hypotension d. Presence of perspiration e. Tachycardia and tachypnea f. Body temperature more than 104° F (40° C)

ANS: A, C, E, F Signs and symptoms of heat stroke include as elevated body temperature (above 104° F [40° C]), mental status changes such as confusion and decreasing level of consciousness, hypotension, tachycardia, and tachypnea. Perspiration is an inconsistent finding.

A nurse is caring for a client with HIV-III who was admitted with HAND. What sign or symptom would be most important for the nurse to report to the primary health care provider? a. Nausea b. Change in pupil size c. Weeping open lesions d. Cough

ANS: B HIV-associated neurocognitive disorder (HAND) is a sign of neurologic involvement. The nurse would report any sign of increasing intracranial pressure immediately, including change in pupil size, level of consciousness, vital signs, or limb strength. The other signs and symptoms are not life threatening and would be documented and reported appropriately.

A nurse triages clients arriving at the hospital after a mass casualty. Which clients are correctly classified? (Select all that apply.) a. A 35-year-old female with severe chest pain: red tag b. A 42-year-old male with full-thickness body burns: green tag c. A 55-year-old female with a scalp laceration: black tag d. A 60-year-old male with an open fracture with distal pulses: yellow tag e. An 88-year-old male with shortness of breath and chest bruises: green tag f. A 33-year-old male unconscious with bilateral leg amputations: yellow tag

ANS: A, D Red-tagged clients need immediate care due to life-threatening injuries. A client with severe chest pain would receive a red tag. Yellow-tagged clients have major injuries that need to be treated within 30 minutes to 2 hours. A client with an open fracture with distal pulses would receive a yellow tag. The client with full-thickness body burns would receive a black tag. The client with a scalp laceration would receive a green tag, and the client with shortness of breath would receive a red tag. The client with the amputated legs will probably be black tagged if the unconsciousness is from massive blood loss.

A client is being administered the first dose of belimumab for a systemic lupus erythematosus flare. What actions by the nurse are most appropriate? (Select all that apply.) a. Observe the client for at least 2 hours afterward. b. Instruct the client about the monthly infusion schedule. c. Inform the client not to drive or sign legal papers for 24 hours. d. Ensure emergency equipment is working and nearby. e. Make a follow-up appointment for a lipid panel in 2 months. f. Instruct the client to hold other medications for 72 hours.

ANS: A, D This drug is a monoclonal antibody to tumor necrosis factor. The first dose would be administered in a place where severe allergic reactions and/or anaphylaxis can be managed. This includes having emergency equipment nearby. The client would be observed for at least 2 hours after this first dose. This drug does not cause drowsiness, so there would be no restrictions on driving or signing legal documents. Elevated lipids are not associated with this drug. This drug is used in combination with other therapies, especially during a flare.

A nurse is in charge of a first-aid tent at an all-day outdoor sports event on a hot and humid day. A participant comes to the tent reporting a headache, weakness, and nausea. What actions would the nurse take? (Select all that apply.) a. Have the client lie down in a cool place. b. Force fluids with large quantities of plain water. c. Administer acetaminophen and send home. d. Apply cold packs to neck, arm pits, and groin. e. Encourage drinking a sports drink. f. Remove all clothing and cover with a towel.

ANS: A, D, E Heat exhaustion manifests as flulike symptoms with headache, weakness, nausea, and/or vomiting. Treatment includes stopping the activity, moving to a cool place, and using cooling measures such as cold packs, cool water soaks, or fanning while spraying cool water on skin. Sodium deficits may occur from drinking plain water, so sports drinks or an oral rehydration therapy solution would be provided. The nurse would remove constrictive clothing only.

An emergency department nurse plans care for a client who is admitted with heat stroke. Which interventions does the nurse include in this patient's plan of care? (Select all that apply.) a. Administer oxygen via mask or nasal cannula. b. Administer ibuprofen, an antipyretic medication. c. Apply cooling techniques until core body temperature is less than 101° F (38.3° C). d. Infuse 0.9% sodium chloride via a large-bore intravenous cannula. e. Obtain baseline serum electrolytes and cardiac enzymes. f. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter for urine output measurements.

ANS: A, D, E Heat stroke is a medical emergency. Oxygen therapy and intravenous fluids would be provided, and baseline laboratory tests would be performed as quickly as possible. Urinary output is measured via an indwelling urinary catheter. The client would be cooled until core body temperature is reduced to 102° F (38.9° C). Antipyretics would not be administered.

A client with HIV-III is hospitalized with P. jiroveci pneumonia and is started on the drug of choice for this infection. What laboratory values would be most important for the nurse report to the primary health care provider? (Select all that apply.) a. Aspartate transaminase, alanine transaminase: elevated b. CD4+ cell count: 180/mm3 c. Creatinine: 1.0 mg/dL (88 mcmol/L) d. Platelet count: 80,000/mm3 (80 109/L) e. Serum sodium: 120 mEq/L (120 mmol/L) f. Serum potassium: 3.4 mEq/L (3.4 mmol/L)

ANS: A, D, E The drug of choice to treat P. jiroveci pneumonia is trimethoprim with sulfamethoxazole. Side effects of this drug include hepatitis, hyponatremia, and thrombocytopenia. The elevated liver enzymes, low platelet count, and low sodium would all be reported. The CD4+ cell count is within the expected range for a client with an AIDS-defining infection. The creatinine level is normal and the potassium is just below normal.

A nurse is teaching a wilderness survival class. Which statements would the nurse include about the prevention of hypothermia and frostbite? (Select all that apply.) a. "Wear synthetic clothing instead of cotton to keep your skin dry." b. "Drink plenty of fluids. Brandy can be used to keep your body warm." c. "Remove your hat when exercising to prevent overheating." d. "Wear sunglasses to protect skin and eyes from harmful rays." e. "Know your physical limits. Come in out of the cold when limits are reached." f. "Change your gloves and socks if they become wet."

ANS: A, D, E, F To prevent hypothermia and frostbite, the nurse would teach patients to wear synthetic clothing (which moves moisture away from the body and dries quickly), layer clothing, and a hat, facemask, sunscreen, and sunglasses. The client would also be taught to drink plenty of fluids, but to avoid alcohol when participating in winter activities. Clients need to know their physical limits and come in out of the cold when these limits have been reached. Wet clothing contributes to heat loss so clients would be taught to change any clothing that becomes wet.

The complex care provided during an emergency requires interprofessional collaboration. Which team members are paired with the correct responsibilities? (Select all that apply.) a. Psychiatric crisis nurse—interacts with clients and families when sudden illness, serious injury, or death of a loved one may cause a crisis b. Forensic nurse examiner—performs rapid assessments to ensure that clients with the highest acuity receive the quickest evaluation, treatment, and prioritization of resources c. Triage nurse—provides basic life support interventions such as oxygen, basic wound care, splinting, spinal motion restriction, and monitoring of vital signs d. Emergency medical technician—obtains client histories, collects evidence, and offers counseling and follow up care for victims of rape, child abuse, and domestic violence e. Paramedic—provides prehospital advanced life support, including cardiac monitoring,

ANS: A, E The psychiatric crisis nurse evaluates clients with emotional behaviors or mental illness and facilitates follow-up treatment plans. The psychiatric crisis nurse also works with clients and families when experiencing a crisis. Paramedics are advanced life support providers who can perform advanced techniques that may include cardiac monitoring, advanced airway management and intubation, establishing IV access, and administering drugs en route to the emergency department. The forensic nurse examiner is trained to recognize evidence of abuse and to intervene on the client's behalf. The forensic nurse examiner will obtain client histories, collect evidence, and offer counseling and follow up care for victims of rape, child abuse, and domestic violence. The triage nurse performs rapid assessments to ensure that clients with the highest acuity receive the quickest evaluation, treatment, and prioritization of resources. The emergency medical technician is usually the first caregiver and provides basic life support and transportation to the emergency department.

A new graduate nurse has started working on a medical-surgical unit. What actions would the nurse take to be prepared for a disaster? (Select all that apply.) a. Know the institution's Emergency Response Plan. b. Participate in the institution's disaster drill. c. Develop a personal preparedness plan. d. Understand that nurses play a role in every phase of a disaster. e. Be prepared to report immediately to the emergency department. f. Be willing to be flexible working during a crisis situation.

ANS: A,B,C,D,F Nurses play a major role in disaster and need to be prepared for any type of disaster. Knowing the institution's emergency management plan and participating in disaster drills will help the nurse be prepared for a disaster. Concerns for their home and family can impact the willingness to report in an emergency and can be diminished by being prepared with a personal preparedness plan. Nurses play key roles before, during, and after a disaster in the development of emergency management plan in defining specific nursing roles. During a crisis, nurses may be assigned to different areas of the facility or to different job functions and must remain flexible while working to their best ability.

The nurse is educating a client with HIV-II and the partner on self-care measures to prevent infection when blood counts are low. What information does the nurse provide? (Select all that apply.) a. Do not work in the garden or with houseplants. b. Do not empty the kitty litter boxes. c. Clean your toothbrush in the dishwasher daily. d. Bathe daily using antimicrobial soap. e. Avoid people who are sick and large crowds. f. Make sure meat, fish, and eggs are cooked well.

ANS: A,B,D,E,F Ways to avoid infection when immunocompromised include not working in the garden or with houseplants; not emptying litter boxes; running the toothbrush through the dishwasher at least weekly; bathing daily using antimicrobial soap; avoiding sick people and large crowds; and making sure meat, fish, and eggs are cooked well prior to eating them.

The nurse is caring for clients on the medical-surgical unit. What action by the nurse will help prevent a client from having a type II hypersensitivity reaction? a. Administering steroids for a positive TB test b. Correctly identifying the client prior to a blood transfusion c. Keeping the client free of the offending agent d. Providing a latex-free environment for the client

ANS: B A classic example of a type II hypersensitivity reaction is a blood transfusion reaction. These can be prevented by correctly identifying the client and cross-checking the unit of blood to be administered. A positive type IV response is a positive TB test. Avoidance therapy is the cornerstone of treatment for a type IV hypersensitivity to substances that are known and can be avoided such as poison ivy and insect stings. Latex allergies are a type I hypersensitivity

A nurse is triaging clients in the emergency department (ED). Which client would the nurse prioritize to receive care first? a. A 22 year old with a painful and swollen right wrist b. A 45 year old reporting chest pain and diaphoresis c. A 60 year old reporting difficulty swallowing and nausea d. An 81 year old, respiratory rate 28 breaths/min and temperature of 101° F (38.8° C)

ANS: B A client experiencing chest pain and diaphoresis would be classified as emergent and would be triaged immediately to a treatment room in the ED. The other clients are more stable.

A client with HIV-II has had a sudden decline in status with a large increase in viral load. What action would the nurse take first? a. Ask the client about travel to any foreign countries. b. Assess the client for adherence to the drug regimen. c. Determine if the client has any new sexual partners. d. Request information about new living quarters or pets.

ANS: B Adherence to the complex drug regimen needed for HIV treatment can be daunting. Clients must take their medications on time and correctly at a minimum of 90% of the time to be effective. Since this client's viral load has increased dramatically, the nurse would first assess this factor. After this, the other assessments may or may not be needed.

After a hospital's emergency department (ED) has efficiently triaged, treated, and transferred clients from a community disaster to appropriate units, the hospital incident command officer wants to "stand down" from the emergency plan. Which question would the nursing supervisor ask at this time? a. "Are you sure no more victims are coming into the ED?" b. "Do all areas of the hospital have the supplies and personnel they need?" c. "Have all ED staff had the chance to eat and rest recently?" d. "Does the Chief Medical Officer agree this disaster is under control?"

ANS: B Before "standing down," the incident command officer ensures that the needs of the other hospital departments have been taken care of because they may still be stressed and may need continued support to keep functioning. Many more "walking wounded" victims may present to the ED; that number may not be predictable. Giving staff the chance to eat and rest is important, but all areas of the facility need that too. Although the Chief Medical Officer (CMO) may be involved in the incident, the CMO does not determine when the hospital can "stand down."

A primary health care provider prescribes diazepam to a client who was bitten by a black widow spider. The client asks, "What is this medication for?" How does the nurse respond? a. "This medication is an antivenom for this type of bite." b. "It will relieve your muscle rigidity and spasms." c. "It prevents respiratory difficulty from excessive secretions." d. "This medication will prevent respiratory failure."

ANS: B Black widow spider venom can produce muscle rigidity and spasms, which are treated with the muscle relaxant, diazepam. It does not prevent respiratory difficulty or failure nor is it antivenom.

A client has been newly diagnosed with systemic lupus erythematosus and is reviewing self-care measures with the nurse. Which statement by the client indicates a need to review the material? a. "I will avoid direct sunlight as much as possible." b. "Baby powder is good for the constant sweating." c. "Grouping errands will help prevent fatigue." d. "Rest time will have to become a priority."

ANS: B Constant sweating is not a sign of SLE and powders are drying so they should not be used, at least not in excess. The client is correct in stating he/she should avoid direct sunlight, that grouping errands can prevent or reduce fatigue, and that rest will have to become a priority.

A nurse plans care for a client admitted with a snakebite to the right leg. With whom would the nurse collaborate? a. The facility's neurologist b. The poison control center c. The physical therapy department d. A herpetologist (snake specialist)

ANS: B For the client with a snakebite, the nurse would contact the regional poison control center immediately for specific advice on antivenom administration and client management.

The emergency department team is performing cardiopulmonary resuscitation on a client when the client's spouse arrives. Which action would the nurse take first? a. Request that the client's spouse sit in the waiting room. b. Ask the spouse if he or she wishes to be present during the resuscitation. c. Suggest that the spouse begin to pray for the patient. d. Refer the client's spouse to the hospital's crisis team.

ANS: B If resuscitation efforts are still under way when the family arrives, one or two family members may be given the opportunity to be present during lifesaving procedures. The other options do not give the spouse the opportunity to be present for the client or to begin to have closure.

A nurse is evaluating levels and functions of trauma centers. Which function is appropriately paired with the level of the trauma center? a. Level I—located within remote areas and provides advanced life support within resource capabilities b. Level II—located within community hospitals and provides care to most injured clients c. Level III—located in rural communities and provides only basic care to clients d. Level IV—located in large teaching hospitals and provides a full continuum of trauma care for all clients

ANS: B Level I trauma centers are usually located in large teaching hospital systems and provide a full continuum of trauma care for all clients. Both Level II and Level III facilities are usually located in community hospitals. These trauma centers provide care for most clients and transport to Level I centers when client needs exceed resource capabilities. Level IV trauma centers are usually located in rural and remote areas. These centers provide basic care, stabilization, and advanced life support while transfer arrangements to higher level trauma centers are made.

A client presents to the emergency department after prolonged exposure to the cold. The client is difficult to arouse and speech is incoherent. What action would the nurse take first? a. Reposition the client into a prone position. b. Administer warmed intravenous fluids to the client. c. Wrap the client's extremities in warm blankets. d. Initiate extracorporeal rewarming via hemodialysis.

ANS: B Moderate hypothermia manifests with muscle weakness, increased loss of coordination, acute confusion, apathy, incoherence, stupor, and impaired clotting. Moderate hypothermia is treated by core rewarming methods, which include administration of warm IV fluids; heated oxygen; and heated peritoneal, pleural, gastric, or bladder lavage. The client's trunk would be warmed prior to the extremities to prevent peripheral vasodilation. Extracorporeal warming with cardiopulmonary bypass or hemodialysis is a treatment for severe hypothermia.

A trauma client with multiple open wounds is brought to the emergency department in cardiac arrest. Which action would the nurse take prior to providing advanced cardiac life support? a. Contact the on-call orthopedic surgeon. b. Don personal protective equipment. c. Notify the Rapid Response Team. d. Obtain a complete history from the paramedic.

ANS: B Nurses must recognize and plan for a high risk of contamination with blood and body fluids when engaging in trauma resuscitation. Standard Precautions would be taken in all resuscitation situations and at other times when exposure to blood and body fluids is likely. Proper attire consists of an impervious cover gown, gloves, eye protection, a facemask, a surgical cap, and shoe covers. It is not known if this client has orthopedic injuries. The Rapid Response Team is not needed in the ED. A complete history is needed but the staff's protection comes first.

On a hot humid day, an emergency department nurse is caring for a client who is confused and has these vital signs: temperature 104.1° F (40.1° C), pulse 132 beats/min, respirations 26 breaths/min, and blood pressure 106/66 mm Hg. What action would the nurse take? a. Encourage the client to drink cool water or sports drinks. b. Start an intravenous line and infuse 0.9% saline solution. c. Administer acetaminophen (Tylenol) 650 mg orally. d. Encourage rest and reassess in 15 minutes.

ANS: B The client demonstrates signs of heat stroke. This is a medical emergency and priority care includes oxygen therapy, IV infusion with 0.9% saline solution, insertion of a urinary catheter, and aggressive interventions to cool the patient, including external cooling and internal cooling methods. Oral hydration would not be appropriate for a client who has symptoms of heat stroke because oral fluids would not provide necessary rapid rehydration, and the confused client would be at risk for aspiration. Acetaminophen would not decrease this patient's temperature or improve the patient's symptoms. The client needs immediate medical treatment; therefore, rest and reassessing in 15 minutes are inappropriate.

A middle-age mountain hiker is admitted to the emergency department exhibiting a cough with pink, frothy sputum and cyanosis of lips and nail beds. What priority action would the nurse implement? a. Administer acetazolamide. b. Administer oxygen via a nonrebreather mask. c. Complete a thorough pulmonary assessment. d. Obtain arterial blood gas (ABG) specimen for analysis.

ANS: B The client is exhibiting signs of AMS with high-altitude pulmonary edema (HAPE). Cyanosis indicates hypoxia and must be treated immediately. A complete pulmonary assessment and ABG analysis are indicated but the priority is oxygen administration. Acetazolamide is used to prevent AMS.

The nurse is teaching participants in a family-oriented community center ways to prevent their older relatives and friends from getting heat-related illnesses. What information does the nurse include? (Select all that apply.) a. Use sunscreen with an SPF of at least 15 when outdoors. b. Take cool baths or showers after outdoor activities. c. Check on the older adult daily in hot weather. d. Drink plenty of liquids throughout the day. e. Wear light-colored, snugly-fitting clothing to wick sweat away.

ANS: B, C, D To best prevent heat-related illnesses, the nurse would teach individuals to use sunscreen with at least an SPF of 30 for both UVA and UVB rays, to shower or bathe in cool water after being outdoors to reduce body heat, to remain hydrated, and to wear light-colored, loose-fitting clothes. Families and friends should check older adults at least twice a day during a heat wave; however, this may not prevent heat-related illness but could catch it quickly and limit its severity.

A client with HIV-III is in the hospital with severe diarrhea. What actions does the nurse delegate to assistive personnel (AP)? (Select all that apply.) a. Assessing the client's fluid and electrolyte status b. Assisting the client to get out of bed to prevent falls c. Obtaining a bedside commode if the client is weak d. Providing gentle perianal cleansing after stools e. Reporting any perianal abnormalities

ANS: B, C, D, E The AP can assist the client with getting out of bed, obtain a bedside commode for the client's use, cleanse the client's perianal area after bowel movements, and report any abnormal observations such as redness or open areas. The nurse assesses fluid and electrolyte status.

A nurse is providing education about HIV risks at a health fair. What groups would the nurse include as needing to be tested for HIV on an annual basis? (Select all that apply.) a. Anyone who received a blood product in 1989 b. Couples planning on getting married c. Those who are sexually active with multiple partners d. Injection drugs users e. Sex workers and their customers f. Adults over the age of 65 years

ANS: B, C, D, E The CDC recommends that HIV testing would be performed on those who received a transfusion between 1978 and 1985 only. People planning on getting married should be tested and all sexually active people should know their HIV status. Those engaged in sex work and their customers should also be tested, as well as injection drug users. Those over the age of 65 years need a one-time screen.

A client with HIV-III has oral thrush and difficulty eating. What actions does the nurse delegate to the assistive personnel (AP)? (Select all that apply.) a. Apply oral anesthetic gels before meals. b. Assist the client with oral care every 2 hours. c. Offer the client frequent sips of cool drinks. d. Provide the client with alcohol-based mouthwash. e. Remind the client to use only a soft toothbrush. f. Offer the client soft foods like gelatin or pudding.

ANS: B, C, E, F The AP can help the client with oral care, offer fluids, and remind the client of things the nurse (or other professional) has already taught. Soft foods and liquids are tolerated better than harder foods. Applying medications is performed by the nurse. Alcohol-based

An emergency department nurse is caring for a trauma patient. Which interventions does the nurse perform during the primary survey? (Select all that apply.) a. Foley catheterization b. Needle decompression c. Initiating IV fluids d. Splinting open fractures e. Endotracheal intubation f. Removing wet clothing g. Laceration repair

ANS: B, C, E, F The primary survey for a trauma client organizes the approach to the client so that life-threatening injuries are rapidly identified and managed. The primary survey is based on the standard mnemonic ABC, with an added D and E: Airway and cervical spinal motion restriction; Breathing; Circulation; Disability; and Exposure. After the completion of primary diagnostic and laboratory studies, and the insertion of gastric and urinary tubes, the secondary survey (a complete head-to-toe assessment) can be carried out.

A nurse caring for clients with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) plans care understanding the most common causes of death for these clients is which of the following? (Select all that apply.) a. Infection b. Cardiovascular impairment c. Vasculitis d. Chronic kidney disease e. Liver failure f. Blood dyscrasias

ANS: B, D Any and all organs and tissues may be affected in SLE but the most common causes of death in clients with SLE include cardiovascular impairment and chronic kidney disease.

A hospital prepares for a mass casualty event. Which functions are correctly paired with the personnel role? (Select all that apply.) a. Paramedic—decides the number, acuity, and resource needs of clients b. Hospital incident commander—assumes overall leadership for implementing the emergency plan c. Public information officer—provides advanced life support during transportation to the hospital d. Triage officer—rapidly evaluates each client to determine priorities for treatment e. Medical command physician—serves as a liaison between the health care facility and the media

ANS: B, D The hospital incident commander assumes overall leadership for implementing the emergency plan. The triage officer rapidly evaluates each client to determine priorities for treatment. The paramedic provides advanced life support during transportation to the hospital. The public information officer serves as a liaison between the health care facility and the media. The medical command physician decides the number, acuity, and resource needs of clients.

A hospital prepares to receive large numbers of casualties from a community disaster. Which clients would the nurse identify as appropriate for discharge or transfer to another facility? (Select all that apply.) a. Older adult in the medical decision unit for evaluation of chest pain b. Client who had open reduction and internal fixation of a femur fracture 3 days ago c. Client admitted last night with community-acquired pneumonia d. Infant who has a fever of unknown origin e. Client on the medical unit for wound care f. Client with symptoms of influenza after traveling abroad

ANS: B, E The client with the femur fracture could be transferred to a rehabilitation facility, and the client on the medical unit for wound care could be transferred home with home health or to a long-term care facility for ongoing wound care. The client in the medical decision unit would be identified for dismissal if diagnostic testing reveals a noncardiac source of chest pain. The newly admitted client with pneumonia would not be a good choice because culture results are not yet available and antibiotics have not been administered long enough. The infant does not have a definitive diagnosis. The client who has recently traveled abroad may have either seasonal influenza or may have a novel or potential pandemic respiratory virus and should not be transferred to avoid spreading the illness.

A nurse is caring for clients in a busy emergency department. What actions would the nurse take to ensure client and staff safety? (Select all that apply.) a. Leave the stretcher in the lowest position with rails down so that the client can access the bathroom. b. Use two identifiers before each intervention and before mediation administration. c. Attempt de-escalation strategies for clients who demonstrate aggressive behaviors. d. Search the belongings of clients with altered mental status to gain essential medical information. e. Use facility policy identification procedures for "Jane/John Doe" clients. f. Check clients for a medical alert bracelets or necklaces. g. Avoid using Security personnel to prevent escalation of client behaviors.

ANS: B,C,D,E,F Best practices for client and staff safety in the emergency department include leaving beds in the lowest position with side rails up, using two unique identifiers for medications and procedures, using de-escalation strategies for clients or visitors showing hostile or aggressive behaviors, searching the belongings of confused clients for medical information, using facility identification systems for Jane/John Doe clients, observing for medical alert jewelry, and using security staff as needed.

A nurse assesses a client recently bitten by a coral snake. Which assessment would the nurse complete first? a. Unilateral peripheral swelling b. Clotting times c. Cardiopulmonary status d. Electrocardiogram rhythm

ANS: C Signs and symptoms of coral snake envenomation are the result of its neurotoxic properties. The physiologic effect is to block neurotransmission, which produces ascending paralysis, reduced perception of pain, and, ultimately, respiratory paralysis. The nurse would monitor for respiratory rate and depth. Severe swelling and clotting problems do not occur with coral snakes but do occur with pit viper snakes. Electrocardiogram rhythm is not affected by neurotoxins.

A nurse is triaging clients in the emergency department. Which client would the nurse classify as "nonurgent?" a. A 44 year old with chest pain and diaphoresis b. A 50 year old with chest trauma and absent breath sounds c. A 62 year old with a simple fracture of the left arm d. A 79 year old with a temperature of 104° F (40.0° C)

ANS: C A client in a nonurgent category can tolerate waiting several hours for health care services without a significant risk of clinical deterioration. The client with a simple arm fracture and palpable radial pulses is currently stable, is not at significant risk of clinical deterioration, and would be considered nonurgent. The client with chest pain and diaphoresis and the client with chest trauma are emergent owing to the potential for clinical deterioration and would be seen immediately. The client with a high fever may be stable now but also has a risk of deterioration.

A nurse is triaging clients in the emergency department. Which client would be considered "urgent"? a. A 20-year-old female with a chest stab wound and tachycardia b. A 45-year-old homeless man with a skin rash and sore throat c. A 75-year-old female with a cough and a temperature of 102° F (38.9° C) d. A 50-year-old male with new-onset confusion and slurred speech

ANS: C A client with a cough and a temperature of 102° F (38.9° C) is urgent. This client is at risk for deterioration and needs to be seen quickly, but is not in an immediately life-threatening situation. The client with a chest stab wound and tachycardia and the client with new-onset confusion and slurred speech would be triaged as emergent. The client with a skin rash and a sore throat is not at risk for deterioration and would be triaged as nonurgent.

While triaging clients in a crowded emergency department, a nurse assesses a client who presents with symptoms of tuberculosis. Which action would the nurse take first? a. Apply oxygen via nasal cannula. b. Administer intravenous 0.9% saline solution. c. Transfer the client to a negative-pressure room. d. Obtain a sputum culture and sensitivity.

ANS: C A client with signs and symptoms of tuberculosis or other airborne pathogens would be placed in a negative-pressure room to prevent contamination of staff, clients, and family members in the crowded emergency department. The client may or may not need oxygen or an IV. A sputum culture would be obtained but is not the priority.

An emergency department nurse assesses a client who has been raped. With which health care team member would the nurse collaborate when planning this client's care? a. Primary health care provider b. Case manager c. Forensic nurse examiner d. Psychiatric crisis nurse

ANS: C All other members of the health care team listed may be used in the management of this client's care. However, the forensic nurse examiner is educated to obtain client histories and collect evidence dealing with the assault, and can offer the counseling and follow-up needed when dealing with the victim of an assault.

An emergency department (ED) case manager is consulted for a client who is homeless. Which intervention would the case manager provide? a. Communicate client needs and restrictions to support staff. b. Prescribe low-cost antibiotics to treat community-acquired infection. c. Provide referrals to subsidized community-based health clinics. d. Offer counseling for substance abuse and mental health disorders.

ANS: C Case management interventions include facilitating referrals to primary care providers who are accepting new clients or to subsidized community-based health clinics for clients or families in need of routine services. The ED nurse is accountable for communicating pertinent staff considerations, client needs, and restrictions to support staff (e.g., physical limitations, Isolation Precautions) to ensure that ongoing client and staff safety issues are addressed. The ED provider prescribes medications and treatments. The psychiatric nurse team evaluates clients with emotional behaviors or mental illness and facilitates the follow-up treatment plan, including possible admission to an appropriate psychiatric facility.

A nurse cares for victims during a community-wide disaster drill. One of the victims asks, "Why are the individuals with black tags not receiving any care?" How does the nurse respond? a. "To do the greatest good for the greatest number of people, it is necessary to sacrifice some." b. "Not everyone will survive a disaster, so it is best to identify those people early and move on." c. "In a disaster, extensive resources are not used for one person at the expense of many others." d. "With black tags, volunteers can identify those who are dying and can give them comfort care."

ANS: C In a disaster, military-style triage is used; this approach identifies the dead or expectant dead with black tags. This practice helps to maintain the goal of triage, which is doing the most good for the most people. Precious resources are not used for those with overwhelming critical injury or illness, so that they can be allocated to others who have a reasonable expectation of survival. Victims are not "sacrificed." Telling victims that is important to move on after identifying the expectant dead does not provide an adequate explanation and is callous. Victims are not black-tagged to allow volunteers to give comfort care.

A client with HIV-III asks the nurse why gabapentin is part of the drug regimen when the client does not have a history of seizures. What response by the nurse is best? a. "Gabapentin can be used as an antidepressant too." b. "I have no idea why you would be taking this drug." c. "This drug helps treat the pain from nerve irritation." d. "You are at risk for seizures due to fungal infections."

ANS: C Many classes of medications are used for neuropathic pain, including tricyclic antidepressants and anticonvulsants such as gabapentin. It is not being used to prevent seizures from fungal infections. If the nurse does not know the answer, he or she would find out for the client.

An emergency department manager wants to mitigate the possible acute and chronic stress after mass casualty events in the staff. What action would the manager take? a. Encourage all staff to join a Disaster Medical Assistance Team. b. Instruct all staff members to prepare go bags for all family members. c. Use available resources for broad education and training in disaster management. d. Provide incentives and bonuses for responding to mass casualty events.

ANS: C Research indicates that education and training in disaster management before an incident occurs is associated with improved confidence and better coping after the incident. Go bags are important to maintain for all family members but would not be effective in mitigating stress. A DMAT is a medical relief team made up of civilian medical, paraprofessional, and support personnel that is deployed to a disaster area with enough medical equipment and supplies to sustain operations for 72 hours. Incentives and bonuses will not help mitigate stress.

A client with known HIV-II is admitted to the hospital with fever, night sweats, and severe cough. Laboratory results include a CD4+ cell count of 180/mm3 and a negative tuberculosis (TB) skin test 4 days ago. What action would the nurse take first? a. Initiate Droplet Precautions for the client. b. Notify the primary health care provider about the CD4+ results. c. Place the client under Airborne Precautions. d. Use Standard Precautions to provide care.

ANS: C Since this client's CD4+ cell count is so low, he or she may have energy, or the inability to mount an immune response to the TB test. The client also appears to have progressed to HIV-III. The nurse would first place the client on Airborne Precautions to prevent the spread of TB if it is present. Next the nurse notifies the primary health care provider about the low CD4+ count and requests alterative testing for TB. Droplet Precautions are not used for TB. Standard Precautions are not adequate in this case.

After teaching a client how to prevent altitude-related illnesses, a nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which statement indicates that the client needs additional teaching? a. "If my climbing partner can't think straight, we should descend to a lower altitude." b. "I will ask my primary health care provider about medications to help prevent acute mountain sickness." c. "My partner and I will plan to sleep at a higher elevation to acclimate more quickly." d. "I will drink plenty of fluids to stay hydrated while on the mountain."

ANS: C Teaching to prevent altitude-related illness would include descending when symptoms start, staying hydrated, and taking acetazolamide, which is commonly used to prevent and treat acute mountain sickness. The nurse would teach the client to sleep at a lower elevation.

A nurse is volunteering in a temporary shelter for survivors of a hurricane. Which client does the nurse anticipate has the highest need for further assessment and referral? a. Client who is still trying to locate relatives who are missing b. Family awaiting the ability to travel out of state for temporary housing c. Client with a score of 48 on the Impact of Event Scale-Revised (IES-R) d. Client who has trouble sleeping and who startles easily

ANS: C The IES-R is an assessment tool is a 22-item self-administered questionnaire that scores individuals on signs and symptoms of acute stress disorder or posttraumatic stress disorder. A score of 33 or higher out of 88 is a positive finding and this client would be referred a psychiatrist or other licensed mental health care provider. The nurse would administer the assessment to the client with difficulty sleeping after ensuring he or she can read at the 10th grade level, which is the reading level of the tool. The other two clients do not show evidence of particular needs for referral beyond what is usually provided in a natural disaster.

An emergency department nurse is triaging victims of a multi-casualty event. Which client would receive care first? a. A 30-year-old distraught mother holding her crying child b. A 65-year-old conscious male with a head laceration c. A 26-year-old male who has pale, cool, clammy skin d. A 48 year old with a simple fracture of the lower leg

ANS: C The client with pale, cool, clammy skin may be in shock and needs immediate medical attention. The mother does not have injuries and so would be the lowest priority. The other two people need medical attention soon, but not at the expense of a person in shock.

An elderly client who has fallen from a roof is transported to the emergency department by ambulance. The client was unconscious at the scene but is conscious on arrival and is triaged as urgent. What is the priority assessment the nurse includes during the primary survey of the patient? a. A full set of vital signs b. Cardiac rhythm c. Neurologic status d. Client history

ANS: C The primary survey for a trauma client organizes the approach to the client so that life-threatening injuries are rapidly identified and managed. Injuries from this type of fall have a high risk for cervical spine injuries. In addition, with the loss of consciousness at the scene the client would be at risk for head trauma. A full set of vital signs is obtained as part of the secondary survey. The cardiac rhythm is important but not specifically related to this client's presentation. Client history would be obtained as able.

An emergency department charge nurse notes an increase in sick calls and bickering among the staff after a week with multiple trauma incidents. What action would the nurse take? a. Organize a pizza party for each shift. b. Remind the staff of the facility's sick-leave policy. c.Arrange for postincident crisis support. d. Talk individually with staff members.

ANS: C The staff may be suffering from stress related to the multiple traumas and needs to have crisis support. A crisis support team can assist the staff with developing appropriate coping methods. Speaking with staff members individually does not provide the same level of support as trained health care providers who can offer emotional first aid. Organizing a party and revisiting the sick-leave policy may be helpful, but are not as important and beneficial as formalized crisis support.

A nurse is caring for a client whose spouse died in a recent mass casualty accident. The client says, "I can't believe that my spouse is gone and I am left to raise my children all by myself." How would the nurse respond? a. "Please accept my sympathies for your loss." b. "I can call the hospital chaplain if you wish." c. "You sound anxious about being a single parent." d. "At least your children still have you in their lives."

ANS: C Therapeutic communication includes active listening and honesty. This statement demonstrates that the nurse recognizes the client's distress and has provided an opening for discussion. Extending sympathy and offering to call the chaplain do not give the client the opportunity to discuss feelings. Stating that the children still have one parent discounts the client's feelings and situation.

A client is in the hospital and has received two doses of an angiotensin-converting enzyme for hypertension. When the nurse answers the client's call light, the client presents an appearance as shown below: What action by the nurse takes is most appropriate? a. Administer epinephrine 1:1000, 0.3 mg IV push immediately. b. Apply oxygen by facemask at 100% and a pulse oximeter. c. Ensure a patent airway while calling the Rapid Response Team. d. Reassure the client that these symptoms will go away.

ANS: C This client has angioedema which is a severe type I hypersensitivity reaction and is most commonly caused by ACE-inhibitors. The nurse would ensure the client's airway is patent and either call the Rapid Response Team or delegate this to someone else. Epinephrine needs to be administered right away, but not without a prescription by the primary health care provider unless standing orders exist. The client may need oxygen, but a patent airway comes first. Reassurance is important, but airway and calling the Rapid Response Team are the priorities.

An emergency department nurse is caring for a client who is homeless. Which action would the nurse take to gain the client's trust? a. Speak in a quiet and monotone voice. b. Avoid eye contact with the patient. c. Listen to the client's concerns and needs. d. Ask security to store the client's belongings.

ANS: C To demonstrate behaviors that promote trust with homeless clients, the emergency department nurse makes eye contact (if culturally appropriate), speaks calmly, avoids any prejudicial or stereotypical remarks, shows genuine care and concern by listening, and follows through on promises. The nurse would also respect the client's belongings and personal space.

A nurse has presented an educational program to a community group on Lyme disease. What statement by a participant indicates the need to review the material? a. "I should take precautions against ticks, especially in the summer." b. "A red rash that looks like a bull's-eye may be one of the symptoms." c. "If Lyme disease is not treated successfully, it is usually fatal." d. "For Stage I disease, antibiotics are usually needed for 14 to 21 days."

ANS: C Untreated Lyme disease can lead to chronic complications, or Stage III Lyme disease, such as arthritis, chronic fatigue, memory/thinking problems. It is not usually a fatal disease so this information would need to be corrected by the nurse. The other participant statements are correct.

An emergency department nurse is caring for a client who had been hiking in the mountains for the past 2 days. What are the most important indicators that a client is experiencing high-altitude pulmonary edema (HAPE)? (Select all that apply.) a. Ataxia b. Confusion c. Crackles in both lung fields d. Decreased level of consciousness e. Persistent dry cough f. Reports "feeling hung over"

ANS: C, E Signs and symptoms of high-altitude pulmonary edema (HAPE) include poor exercise tolerance, prolonged recovery time after exertion, fatigue, and weakness that progresses to a persistent dry cough and cyanosis of lips and nail beds. Crackles may be auscultated in one or both lung fields. A late sign of HAPE is pink, frothy sputum. Ataxia and confusion or decreased level of consciousness are seen in HACE—high-altitude cerebral edema. Acute mountain sickness produces a syndrome similar to an alcohol-induced hangover.

A nurse is field-triaging clients after an industrial accident. Which client condition would the nurse triage with a red tag? a. Dislocated right hip and an open fracture of the right lower leg b. Large contusion to the forehead and a bloody nose c. Closed fracture of the right clavicle and arm numbness d. Multiple fractured ribs and shortness of breath

ANS: D Clients who have an immediate threat to life are given the highest priority, are placed in the emergent or class I category, and are given a red triage tag. The client with multiple rib fractures and shortness of breath has a threat to oxygenation and is the most critical. The client with the hip and leg problem and the client with the clavicle fracture would be classified as class II (urgent, yellow tag); these major but stable injuries can wait for 30 minutes to 2 hours for definitive care. The client with facial wounds would be considered the "walking wounded" and classified as nonurgent (class III, green tag).

A client who is hospitalized with burns after losing the family home in a fire becomes angry and screams at a nurse when dinner is served late. How would the nurse respond? a. "Do you need something for pain right now?" b. "Please stop yelling. I brought dinner as soon as I could." c. "I suggest that you get control of yourself." d. "You seem upset. I have time to talk if you'd like."

ANS: D Clients would be allowed to ventilate their feelings of anger and despair after a catastrophic event. The nurse establishes rapport through active listening and honest communication and by recognizing cues that the client wishes to talk. Asking whether the client is in pain as the first response closes the door to open communication and limits the client's options. Simply telling the client to stop yelling and to gain control does nothing to promote therapeutic communication.

A nurse assesses a client admitted with a brown recluse spider bite. Which assessment does the nurse perform to identify complications of this bite? a. Ask the client about pruritus at the bite site. b. Inspect the bite site for a bluish purple vesicle. c. Assess the extremity for redness and swelling. d. Monitor the client's temperature every 4 hours.

ANS: D Fever and chills indicate systemic toxicity, which can lead to hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia, DIC, and death. Assessing for a fever would indicate this complication. All other symptoms are normal for a brown recluse bite and would be assessed, but they do not provide information about complications from the bite.

An emergency department (ED) charge nurse prepares to receive clients from a mass casualty within the community. What is the role of this nurse during the event? a. Ask nursing staff to discharge clients from the medical-surgical units in order to make room for critically injured victims. b. Call additional medical-surgical and critical care nursing staff to come to the hospital to assist when victims are brought in. c. Inform the incident commander at the mass casualty scene about how many victims may be handled by the ED. d. Direct medical-surgical and critical care nurses to assist with clients currently in the ED while emergency staff prepare to receive the mass casualty victims.

ANS: D The ED charge nurse would direct additional nursing staff to help care for current ED clients while the ED staff prepares to receive mass casualty victims; however, they would not be assigned to the most critically ill or injured clients. The hospital incident commander's role is to take a global view of the entire situation and facilitate patient movement through the system, while bringing in personnel and supply resources to meet patient needs. The medical command physician would kept the incident commander informed about victims and capacity of the ED.

While at a public park, a nurse encounters a person immediately after a bee sting. The person's lips are swollen, and wheezes are audible. What action would the nurse take first? a. Elevate the site and notify the person's next of kin. b. Remove the stinger with tweezers and encourage rest. c. Administer diphenhydramine and apply ice. d. Administer an epinephrine autoinjector and call 911.

ANS: D The client's swollen lips indicate that anaphylaxis may be developing, and this is a medical emergency. The nurse would call 911 would immediately, and the client transported to the emergency department as quickly as possible. If an EpiPen is available, it would be administered at the first sign of an anaphylactic reaction. The other answers do not provide adequate interventions to treat airway obstruction due to anaphylaxis, although the nurse would remove the stinger as soon as possible after administering the autoinjector.

A nurse is teaching the client with systemic lupus erythematosus about prednisone. What information is the priority? a. Might make the client feel jittery or nervous. b. Can cause sodium and fluid retention. c. Long-term effects include fat redistribution. d. Never stop prednisone abruptly.

ANS: D The nurse teaches the client to avoid stopping the drug abruptly as the priority because this can lead to a life-threatening adrenal crisis. Short-term side effects do include jitteriness or nervousness, sodium and water retention. One long-term side effect is fat redistribution resulting in "moon face" and "buffalo hump."

A client with HIV-III and wasting syndrome has inadequate nutrition. What assessment finding by the nurse best indicates that goals have been met for this client problem? a. Chooses high-protein food. b. Has decreased oral discomfort. c. Eats 90% of meals and snacks. d. Has a weight gain of 2 lb (1 kg)/1 mo.

ANS: D The weight gain is the best indicator that goals for this client problem have been met because it demonstrates that the client not only is eating well but also is able to absorb the nutrients. Choosing high-protein food is important, but only if the client eats and absorbs the nutrients.

A client is hospitalized with Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia. The client reports shortness of breath with activity and extreme fatigue. What intervention is best to promote comfort? a. Administer sleeping medication. b. Perform most activities for the client. c. Increase the client's oxygen during activity. d. Pace activities, allowing for adequate rest.

ANS: D This client has two major reasons for fatigue: decreased oxygenation and systemic illness. The nurse would not do everything for the client but rather let the client do as much as possible within limits and allow for adequate rest in between. Sleeping medications may be needed but not as the first step, and only with caution. Increasing oxygen during activities may or may not be warranted, but first the nurse must try pacing the client's activity.

A client with HIV-III is admitted to the hospital with Toxoplasma gondii infection. Which action by the nurse is most appropriate? a. Initiate Contact Precautions. b. Conduct frequent neurologic assessments. c. Conduct frequent respiratory assessments. d. Initiate Protective Precautions.

ANS: D Toxoplasma gondii infection is an opportunistic infection that causes an encephalitis but poses only a rare threat to immunocompetent individuals The nurse would perform ongoing neurologic assessments. Contact and Protective Precautions are not needed. Good respiratory assessments are important to the client, but toxoplasmosis will demonstrate neurologic signs and symptoms.

An emergency department nurse is caring for a client who has died from a suspected homicide. Which action does the nurse take? a. Remove all tubes and wires in preparation for the medical examiner. b. Limit the number of visitors to minimize the family's trauma. c. Consult the bereavement committee to follow up with the grieving family. d. Communicate the client's death to the family in a simple and concrete manner.

ANS: D When dealing with clients and families in crisis, communicate in a simple and concrete manner to minimize confusion. Tubes must remain in place for the medical examiner. Family would be allowed to view the body. Offering to call for additional family support during the crisis is suggested. The bereavement committee would be consulted, but this is not the priority at this time.

A nurse prepares to discharge an older adult client home from the emergency department (ED). What actions does the nurse take to prevent future ED visits? (Select all that apply.) a. Provide medical supplies to the family. b. Consult a home health agency. c. Encourage participation in community activities. d. Screen for depression and suicide. e. Complete a functional assessment.

ANS: D, E Due to the high rate of suicide among older adults, a nurse would assess all older adults for depression and suicide. The nurse would also screen older adults for functional assessment, cognitive assessment, and risk for falls to prevent future ED visits.

A client with HIV-III has been hospitalized with suspected cryptosporidiosis. What physical assessment would be most important with this condition? a. Auscultating the lungs b. Assessing mucous membranes c. Listening to bowel sounds d. Performing a neurologic examination

ANS:B Cryptosporidiosis can cause diarrhea and wasting with extreme loss of fluids and electrolytes. The nurse would assess signs of hydration/dehydration as the priority, including checking the client's mucous membranes for dryness. The nurse will perform the other assessments as part of a comprehensive assessment.