ANS101 (Practice)
Which ONE of the following is the age of a sheep which has 2 central and 2 medial incisors fully erupted? a. 2 to 3.5 years b. 12 to 18 months c. 1.5 to 2 years d. 3.5 to 4 years e. 12 months
1.5 to 2 years
A cow reaches her peak milk production at which ONE of the following times? A. 2 days after calving B. 1 - 3 weeks after calving C. 3 - 5 weeks after calving D. 5 - 8 weeks after calving E. 11 - 14 weeks after calving
3 - 5 weeks after calving
What is the optimum in the cluster during milking?
36-42kPa
In relation to sheep-goats hybrids, which ONE of the following statements is NOT CORRECT? A. Sheep-goat hybrids are common but rarely survive beyond weaning B. Sheep-goat hybrids are confirmed on the basis of their karyotype C. Sheep-goat hybrids are known as geep D. Sheep-goat hybrids usually die in utero E. Sheep-goat hybrids have 57 chromosomes
A
Which one of the following statements is NOT TRUE in relation to prime lamb production in Australia? A. Prime lamb production is a growth industry in Australia B. The export lamb industry is based on British breed or European sires C. The sheep meat industry requires year round production D. Integration of supply chain production is the way of the future E. Most prime lamb is produced in New South Wales and Western Australia
B
Daily care of a stabled horse involves all BUT ONE of the following? A. Grooming B. Hoof picking C. Checking teeth for sharp edges D. Feeding and watering E. Mucking out manure and urine
Checking teeth for sharp edges
Which of the following points of the horse is located closest to the hoof? a. Poll b. Point of hock c. Fetlock d. Coronet band e. Chestnut
Coronet band
Which of the following dots (1 to 5) in the picture indicates the CORRECT needle position for blood sample collection in a weaner pig?
Dot 1
Which one of the following statements regarding horns in sheep is correct? a. Wiltshire horn ewes usually do not have horns b. Horns are a recessive trait in sheep c. Female sheep of horned breeds always have horns d. Awassi fat tailed ewes usually have horns e. Horns are a dominant trait in sheep
Horns are a recessive trait in sheep
Point of balance is an important livestock handling concept. Which ONE of the following statements is true in relation to point of balance? a. Point of balance for a sheep is at the hindquarters b. Sheep will move forward when the handler steps in front of the point of balance c. Point of balance for a sheep is at the shoulder d. The point of balance for a mob varies according to breed e. Point of balance is a concept that does not apply to cattle handling
Point of balance for a sheep is at the shoulder
The 2 pigs (arrows) in the attached photo from a commercial pig farm would fit which one of the following descriptions? a. Large White x Duroc cross weaner pig b. Large White x Landrace cross grower pig c. Duroc weaner pig d. Duroc sucker pig e. Large White x Landrace cross weaner pig
Large White x Duroc cross weaner pig
Which ONE statement is correct? Seed-stock producers A. are usually studs that breed pure-bred rather than cross-bred cattle B. produce seed for crops to feed cattle C. never lot-feed cattle D. are restricted to the Wheat and Sheep zone. E. pregnancy test cattle twice a year.
are usually studs that breed pure-bred rather than cross-bred cattle
Which ONE of the following key behavioural traits is not true in relation to sheep handling? a. Sheep flock so will always try to get back into the mob b. Sheep forced to look up stay more calm c. Sheep will naturally circle in a group d. Advancing sheep should be not be able to see the sheep behind them e. Advancing sheep should be able to see the sheep ahead
b
Cattle stand up (from the lying position): a. back legs first b. front legs first c. either back or front legs first d. the same way that a horse does e. differently depending on whether they are a bull or a cow
back legs first
Which ONE of the following is not true in relation to sheep behaviour? a. Sheep have panoramic vision 330-360° b. Sheep use vision to determine where other flock members are c. Sheep use vocalisation to communicate d. Sheep have a poor sense of smell e. Sheep use smell to identify other sheep
d
Which ONE of these is correct? Body condition score: a. is a system used to quantify the amount of fat and muscle on an individual animal b. is always a scale from 1-5 c. is only used in beef cows d. describes only the amount of fat on a beef cow e. can only be measured by touching the animal
is a system used to quantify the amount of fat and muscle on an individual animal
Which ONE of the following is correct? Upper incisors in cattle: a. don't exist b. erupt starting at 2 years of age c. erupt starting at 2.5 years of age d. erupt between 2.5 - 3.5 years of age e. erupt after 4.5 years of age
don't exist
Which ONE of the following is not true in relation to safety issues in the shearing shed? a. Make sure the shed is well ventilated and well lit b. Ensure all guards are on all shearing machinery c. Use electric motors on wool presses to reduce noise pollution d. Make sure that emergency stop buttons are easily reached e. Discuss with a Pharmacist the possibility of obtaining drugs to sedate heavy rams before shearing
e
Which one of the following general statements regarding sheep breeds is incorrect? a. The Corriedale is a dual purpose breed b. The Merino produces fine wool c. The Poll Dorset is a useful milk breed d. The Drysdale is a carpet wool breed e. The Dorper is a coarse wool breed
e
Which one of the following is NOT a routine procedure done during processing of piglets within the first couple of days of life? a. Teeth clipping b. Tail docking c. Iron injection d. Ear notching e. Fostering
e
Which one of the following would NOT make pigs baulk (stop) whilst being moved? a. Change in flooring colour from a dark to a light colour b. A curtain blowing in the breeze c. Going from a well-lit area to a dimly lit area d. Change in flooring type e. A well-lit area with no objects in the path of the pigs
e
Which ONE of the following is correct? A beef cow in body condition score 1.5: a. is emaciated and needs to be euthanased b. has some fat and no muscle c. has some muscle but no fat d. is too fat for breeding e. is in adequate condition for breeding
has some muscle but no fat
In commercial, cross-bred beef breeding herds, replacement bulls are BEST sourced from.. A. the farmers own breeding herd. B. either the farmers own herd or reputable bull breeders. C. only bull breeders in the region. D. bull breeders who breed the same breed as the animals on the farm. E. studs that record information for BREEDPLAN.
studs that record information for
A dairyman's knot is used to
tie a hind-leg rope to a fixed object behind the cow to stop the cow kicking forwards
Carcass weight can be estimated by which ONE of the following? a. 30% of liveweight + 2 kg b. 50% of liveweight + 1 kg c. 50% of liveweight + 2 kg d. 40% of liveweight + 1 kg e. 40% of liveweight + 2 kg
50% of liveweight + 1 kg
Approximately what percentage of the total Australian beef production is exported annually? A. 95% B. 40% C. 25% D. 60% E. 10%
60%
In relation to wool which ONE of the following statements is NOT TRUE? A. Biological shearing (Bioclip™) involves injecting sheep with epidermal growth factor and harvesting the wool 7 days later B. Most wool is sold at public auctions through wool brokers C. Most of the wool produced in Australia is exported in the raw state D. Two main systems, the woollen and the worsted systems are used to process wool fibre into fabric E. Wool testing for sale must be carried out by an accredited laboratory
A
What ONE of the following statements BEST describes the characteristics of a beef cow in body condition or fat score 3? A. A P8 rump fat measurement of 23 - 32 mm and a flat top line with the tail head obscured by bulges of fat on either side and ribs not visible. B. A P8 rump fat measurement of 0 - 2 mm with a very prominent tail head and highly visible rib bones C. A P8 rump fat measurement of 7 - 12mm, a smooth top line with rounded tail head and ribs just visible. D. A P8 rump fat measurement of 3-6 mm, with the tail head just prominent and the ribs visible. E. A P8 rump fat measurement of 13-22 mm, with a smooth top line, and slight bulging of fat on either side of the tail head and ribs not visible.
A P8 rump fat measurement of 7 - 12mm, a smooth top line with rounded tail head and ribs just visible.
You are at a ram sale and overhear some farmers talking about using "Lambplan". What is "Lambplan"? A. Using ultrasound to determine the due date of lambing so ewes can be managed appropriately B. A system used to assess the genetic potential of sheep for traits that are important for prime lamb production C. A supply chain arrangement between producers and processors to ensure year-round supply of quality lambs D. An Australian quality assurance programme that ensures farmers use good genetics, management and nutrition of prime lambs to ensure supply of quality lambs for the domestic and export market E. A contract between a farmer and processor for lamb purchase at a future date agreed in the contract
A system used to assess the genetic potential of sheep for traits that are important for prime lamb production
Factors affecting milk production.
Age of cow, nutrition, disease status, genetics
Which ONE of the following breeds would be expected to have superior marbling (intramuscular fat) characteristics suitable for the Japanese and Korean markets? A. Limousin B. Angus C. Hereford D. Brahman E. Holstein-Friesian
Angus
Which ONE of the following statements is CORRECT? A. Herringbone dairies are not commonly used in Australia B. It is important to feed concentrates (for example wheat) to high producing dairy cows because they are high in fibre C. Annual ryegrass should be grazed at the 3 leaf stage for maximum quality D. A cow's annual milk production will increase until she reaches her 3rd lactation and then it will plateau out E. A cow's nutrient requirements do not vary during a lactation
Annual ryegrass should be grazed at the 3 leaf stage for maximum quality
Which ONE of the following statements is INCORRECT? A. Mares are seasonally polyoestrus and start cycling in response to increased day length B. The average length of the oestrus cycle in mares is 21 days with oestrus lasting an average of 5-7 days C. A mare in oestrus will usually allow a stallion to approach and sniff her and may turn her hindquarters towards him, straddle her hindlegs, raise her tail, urinate and "wink" her clitoris D. Artificial insemination is widely used in the thoroughbred breeding industry to increase the number of mares that can be bred to elite stallions each year E. Methods of pregnancy diagnosis in mares include rectal palpation and rectal ultrasound
Artificial insemination is widely used in the thoroughbred breeding industry to increase the number of mares that can be bred to elite stallions each year
In Australia producers have the many options for selling sheep and lambs for meat. Which ONE of the following statements is NOT TRUE in relation to marketing of sheep and lambs? A. Saleyards are the traditional way of selling sheep B. The method where the producer gets paid on the basis of objective measurements is referred to as "on the hoof" C. Forward contracts ensure that the type and number of lambs a customer requires are available D. Internet sales enable sheep to stay on the farm until sold E. "On-the-hook" means the producer is paid on the basis of hot carcass weight and carcass fat
B
Bulk milk somatic cell count. The number of leukocytes (somatic cells) in the vat milk (measured as cells/mL). BMSCC gives an indication of milk quality and presence of mastitis in a herd. One or 2 cows with clinical mastitis may be enough to increase the BMSCC. BMSCC is usually measured by the milk factory buying the milk on every pickup of milk and the farmer is given a printout of that as well as the fat and protein percentage in the milk. This is often called the "docket" or "daily docket".
BMSCC/ BMCC
The pig in the photo is in position for which one of the following procedures? a. Clinical examination b. Blood sampling c. Vaccination d. Rectal temperature collection e. Nasal swabbing
Blood sampling
Which ONE of the following statements about the diagram shown below is NOT CORRECT? A. The region labelled 2 and 3 represent the blind spot B. It is safe to stand in the region labelled 2 because cattle cannot kick backwards C. Cattle have poor depth perception in the region labelled 5 D. Cattle have binocular vision in the region labelled 6 E. A handler standing in region 1 is at risk of being kicked
Cattle have poor depth perception in the region labelled 5
Which breed of cow originated in Europe? a. Charolais b. Hereford c. Angus d. Jersey
Charolais
The pig in the photo is in position for which one of the following? a. Blood sample collection b. Clinical examination c. Nasal swabbing d. Picking up the pig e. Injection of medication or vaccination
Clinical examination
What is the correct terminology for the piece of equipment pictured below?
Curry Comb
A cow that reached the end of her lactation (often close to 305 DIM) and has been dried off (milking has ceased).
DRY COW
Farmers may choose to run more than one breed of sheep on the same property. Which ONE of the following breeds is least likely to cause contamination of Merino wool with dark medullated fibres? A. Awassi B. Dohne C. Dorper D. Damara E. Suffolk
Dohne
Which ONE of the following statements about tail biting in pigs is INCORRECT? A. Variation in tail length can predispose to an outbreak of tail biting B. Pigs find tail biting to be very painful and quickly move away from being bitten C. Tail biting, vulva biting, ear biting and flank biting are vices seen in pigs D. Exceeding the recommended stocking density for pigs can result in tail biting E. If left untreated, tail bitten pigs are at risk of severe infections of the spinal cord
E
Lamb marking involves a number of procedures of which one is compulsory, the others optional in Western Australia. Which ONE of the following procedures is compulsory? a. Ear-tagging b. Tail docking c. Castration of male lambs d. Mulesing e. Ear marking
Ear marking
You need to move a group of 5 gilts (growers) from one pen to another, which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. Move them one at a time to ensure you have maximum control of the situation. b. If you choose to use a stockboard, always keep a decent distance between the stockboard and the group of pigs approx. 2m is recommended. c. Ensure that the path is clear, the gates are set up and the destination pen is open. Once this is done, open the gate of the pen you wish to move. d. Clear the path of any objects, plan a route which avoids sharp dark/light contrasts, dead ends and a change in flooring and then stand in front of the pigs' point of balance to ensure the pigs move forwards. e. Once you know which pen you want to move, ensure that the path to the destination pen is clear but leave the destination pen gate closed until you have moved all the pigs to the gate (to stop them running into the pen, turning around and running back out).
Ensure that the path is clear, the gates are set up and the destination pen is open. Once this is done, open the gate of the pen you wish to move.
Research has shown that some sheep eartags are better than others because they cause less damage to ears. Which ONE of the following tags has been reported as causing the least damage to ears of sheep? a. Metal loop tags b. Flexible plastic tags with male and female part c. Plastic loop tags d. Copper loop tags e. Swivel tags
Flexible plastic tags with male and female part
Which ONE type of cow identification is most commonly used in the Australian dairy industry to allow easy individual cow identification during milking? A. Freeze branding B. Hot iron branding C. Acid branding D. Rubber/ plastic tags in the ear E. NLIS tags
Freeze branding
When a bull is restrained in a crush, the most dangerous part is the: a. Head b. Hind legs c. Front legs d. All parts equally dangerous
Head
Which ONE of the following breeds dominates the dairy industry in the industrialised world? A. Illawarra shorthorn B. Ayrshire C. Jersey D. Holstein E. Composite Holstein x Jersey x Ayrshire
Holstein
Individual cow somatic cell count. The number of leukocytes in an individual cow's milk.
ISCC
Which one of the following statements correctly describes what the person is doing in the photo? a. In the process of turning the piglet upside down to be passed down between their legs to the floor into clinical examination position. b. In the process of turning the piglet upside down onto their lap into the blood sample collection position. c. Restraining the piglet for intramuscular injection. d. Taking the piglet's pulse e. Weighing the piglet
In the process of turning the piglet upside down onto their lap into the blood sample collection position.
Which ONE of the following signs is NOT associated with oestrus in a cow? A. Increased bellowing B. Mounting other cows C. Standing to be mounted by other cows D. Hair rubbed off the back of the cow over the pelvic area E. Increase in milk production
Increase in milk production
Which one of the following statements is CORRECT about injecting a weaner pig with medication intramuscularly (refer to numbers in photo)?
Injecting the pig in position 2 with a 18 gauge x ½ inch needle
A cow that has had a calf for this lactation and is in the milking herd.
LACTATING COW
Within each lactation, milk production follows a particular pattern. The cow will reach her peak milk production 5 - 8 weeks after calving and then her milk production will gradually decrease by about 10% per month. When she is producing insufficient milk, or at approximately 305 days after calving, the farmer will dry her off (cease milking) and she is called a "dry" cow.
LACTATION CURVE
Which ONE of the following statements is correct in relation to ear marking? a. Male sheep are marked on the right ear b. Female sheep are marked on the right ear c. Ear tags are put in the same ear as the earmark d. Goats must be earmarked e. Sheep must be earmarked or branded
Male sheep are marked on the right ear
Which ONE of the following statements regarding identification of horses is LEAST correct? A. Standardbreds are freeze-branded on the right crest of the neck B. Thoroughbreds have an age freeze-branded on the off-side shoulder C. All newly registered thoroughbreds must be DNA-typed D. Most horses can be identified by their colour markings alone E. Horses in North America can be identified by a lip tattoo
Most horses can be identified by their colour markings alone
Which ONE of the following would be the preferred method of short-term restraint for most horses? A. Rope, webbing or leather halter B. Nose-twitch C. Neck twitch D. Ear twitch E. Lip chain
Nose-twitch
DAYS IN MILK (DIM)
Number of days that the cow has been milking for in the current lactation (ie from calving)
A correctly placed snare rope would be in which one of the following positions? a. Over both the top and the bottom jaw to keep the mouth shut b. Over just the top jaw well behind the canine teeth c. Over just the bottom jaw well behind the canine teeth d. On the back leg to hold the pig steady e. On the tip of the snout
Over just the top jaw well behind the canine teeth
Which ONE of the following is NOT a true breed of horse? A. Morgan B. Holsteiner C. Appaloosa D. Palomino E. Arabian
Palomino
Which ONE of the following statements about feeding dairy cows is CORRECT? A. Fat and protein are the key dietary nutrients required for milk production B. Dairy cattle must be fed a low fibre diet to maintain rumen function and high milk production C. Well-managed pasture can supply all the nutrients required by a high producing Holstein cow during peak lactation D. Increasing the amount of milk produced per cow generally reduces the cost of production and increases farm profitability E. Pasture is the cheapest source of feed for most Australian dairy farms
Pasture is the cheapest source of feed for most Australian dairy farms
Which one of the following statements about biosecurity is NOT correct? a. Biosecurity is a set of procedures or measures designed to protect a population from harmful biological or biochemical substances. b. It is not uncommon to shower onsite before entering a pig facility. c. Piggery farm staff are generally permitted to have pet pigs at home. d. People showing flu symptoms are a biosecurity risk for piggeries. e. Leather boots are not permitted on piggeries because they cannot be effectively disinfected.
Piggery farm staff are generally permitted to have pet pigs at home.
Which ONE of the following statements is true in relation to ram harnesses? a. Ram harnesses are normally placed on both rams and wethers b. Ram harnesses are used to make moving animals easier c. Ram harnesses should be placed with the crayon on the back of the animal d. Ram harnesses should be placed with the crayon on the brisket of the animal e. Ram harnesses are used to check which ewes have not been mated
Ram harnesses should be placed with the crayon on the brisket of the animal
Which one of the following would be considered to be a POSITIVE interaction after having injected a female pig? a. Yelling out 'good girl' as pigs can be hard of hearing b. Resting your hand on her back and saying 'good boy' in a soft voice c. Getting out of the pen as quickly as possible d. Changing your overalls to a different colour so she doesn't associate you with the injection e. Snare her to take her mind off the previous experience
Resting your hand on her back and saying 'good boy' in a soft voice
Which ONE of the following statements relates to a sheep in condition score 3? a. Backbone not detectable with pressure on thumbs b. b. Eye muscle reasonable depth with the surface tending to feel flat c. Individual short ribs can only be felt with pressure d. Backbone can be felt easily with firm pressure e. Short ribs ends are smooth and well covered with muscle. Firm pressure necessary to feel under and between short ribs
Short ribs ends are smooth and well covered with muscle. Firm pressure necessary to feel under and between short ribs
**Which ONE of the following statements would best describe these wool test results: SS 23N/Kilotex; AFD 19µ; CF high; VM 7%? A. Staple strength strong, wool fine, clean fibre high, vegetable matter low B. Staple strength rotten, wool coarse, comfort factor high, vegetable matter high C. Staple strength tender, wool fine, comfort factor high, vegetable matter high D. Staple strength strong, wool medium, coefficient fibre high, vegetable matter low E. Staple strength tender, wool fine, clean fibre high, vegetable matter low
Staple strength tender, wool fine, comfort factor high, vegetable matter high
Snare ropes should NOT be used as a restraint for which one of the following procedures? a. Blood sampling b. Nasal swabbing c. Surgical procedures d. Tonsillar scraping e. Injection of medication
Surgical procedures
A dry cow that is within approximately 2 weeks of calving.
TRANSITION COW / springer
Which one of the following CORRECTLY states what can be done by a stockperson with the 5 week old piglet restrained in the position in the photo? a. Temperature can be taken using a thermometer b. Castration can be performed c. Vasectomy can be performed d. Injection (vaccine or medication) can be done into the thigh muscle e. Tail docking can be performed
Temperature can be taken using a thermometer
COLOSTRUM
The first milk a cow produces after calving.
Which one of the following general statements regarding sheep teeth is correct? a. The dental formula for sheep is I 4/4 C 2/2 P3/3 M3/3 b. Sheep normally lose their permanent incisor teeth at the age of 5 years c. Maxillary prognathism refers to an overshot jaw d. The dental formula for sheep is I 0/4 C 0/0 P3/3 M3/3 e. Mandibular prognathism refers to an undershot jaw
The dental formula for sheep is I 0/4 C 0/0 P3/3 M3/3
Which ONE of the following statements BEST describes a well-fitted alpaca halter? A. The noseband should sit high on the bridge of the nose, close to the eye, and be fitted snugly B. The noseband should be fitted loosely so that you can fit 2-3 fingers underneath and prevent restriction of breathing C. The noseband should be fitted tight enough to prevent the alpaca from opening the mouth to spit or bite the handler D. The noseband should sit low on the nose to prevent damage to the eye E. Alpaca halters are fitted and adjusted in the same way as a horse headcollar
The noseband should sit high on the bridge of the nose, close to the eye, and be fitted snugly
If a pony is described as 10.2 hands high, which ONE of the following is correct? A. The pony is 102 cm tall at the wither B. The pony is 102 cm tall at the highest point of the neck C. The pony is 25.9 inches tall at the wither D. The pony is 42 inches tall at the wither E. The pony is 42 inches tall when measured exactly half way between the wither and the rump
The pony is 42 inches tall at the wither
Which ONE of the following statements about horse body language is INCORRECT? A. Aggression may be accompanied by swishing of the tail and threatening to kick B. Ears pinned back against the head may be a warning of intent to bite or kick C. A frightened horse may have it's tail tucked D. The ears are generally pointed towards the direction in which the horse's attention is focused E. Unlike cattle and sheep, horses do not have a flight distance
Unlike cattle and sheep, horses do not have a flight distance
The recommended technique and site for vaccinating sheep against Clostridial diseases (eg. Tetanus) is which ONE of the following? a. Vaccinate into the muscle on the hind leg b. Vaccinate under the skin on the face c. Vaccinate into the muscle on the neck d. Vaccinate under the skin on the neck e. Vaccinate under the skin below the ear
Vaccinate under the skin below the ear
Which ONE of the following is INCORRECT? A heifer...... a. is a cow under two years of age b. is a female cow that has not had a calf c. will not be lactating d. is a term that can only be used to describe female cattle e. is a term that can be used to describe some pregnant cows
a
Which ONE of the following is not used to handle cattle: a. a mulesing cradle b. a caush and headbail c. a forcing pen d. a raceway e. drafting gates
a
Which of the following is NOT a rule associated with snaring of pigs? a. Once you have snared the pig, move to the corner of the pen to limit disruption from the other pigs in the pen. b. Never snare from outside the pen. c. Two hands on the snare at all times. d. Be organised and efficient to minimise the amount of time the pig is snared. e. Once you have placed the snare in the correct position, tighten the snare and lean back, the pig will pull back at the same time resulting in effective restraint.
a
Which one of the following general statements regarding sheep breeding management is incorrect? a. Age at first joining should normally be 6 months b. Most sheep breeds are seasonal breeders and respond to shortening day length c. Joining should normally last 5 to 6 weeks d. The duration of pregnancy is 5 months in sheep and goats e. Ewes should be on a rising plane of nutrition during the last two months of pregnancy
a
Which one of the following general statements regarding sheep wool is incorrect? a. Dead wool is an alternate name for raw wool b. Cotted wool is wool which has become matted while on the sheep' back c. Clip is the quantity of wool shorn from all sheep in a single season from a farm d. Coarse indicates wool of thick (high) fibre diameter e. Crimp is the natural wave formation visible in wool fibres
a
Restraining the head of an agitated cow is BEST done using a. a temporary halter because it will dont hurt the cow b. only nose grips because they are safer c. a rope halter and nose grips with or without a temporary halter d. a rope halter and nose grips e. a rope halter with or without nose grips depending on how agitated she is
a rope halter with or without nose grips depending on how agitated she is
Which breed of cow does not produce milk? a. Dairy Illawarra b. Angus c. Jersey d. Friesian e. all produce milk
all produce milk
Which ONE of the following statements is INCORRECT? A. The digestive tract of horses is best suited to small frequent meals B. Horses are non-ruminants and so sudden changes can be made to the diet without risk of dietary upsets C. Horses eat better when they can see and hear other horses eating D. A regular feeding routine is important for confined horses E. Monitoring the condition of the teeth is important to ensure that horses are able to chew and digest feed efficiently
b
Which ONE of the following safety procedures is incorrect when jetting, dipping, drenching or treating for flystrike? a. Ensure that all workers use recommended safety equipment, such as skin protection, ear and eye protection and a face mask b. Use chemicals correctly according to the manufacturers' instructions and make sure you have read the labels and Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) for the product being used c. Keep all equipment in good repair and replace faulty parts d. Immediately take a panadol if you experience headaches, nausea or other ill effects after using chemicals for dipping, jetting or drenching of blow fly treatments e. Report any adverse events to the Australian Pesticides and Veterinary Medicines Authority (APVMA)
d
Which ONE of the following statements in relation to handling sheep is not true? a. Plan musters in advance b. Assume that rams will act unpredictably c. Use suitably trained sheep dogs to control the mob d. If you must lift a sheep, sit it down facing towards you, draw it close to your body and pick it up by the back legs, making sure to lift with your thigh muscles e. When shearing, use a harness to support your back
d
Which one of the following statements regarding sheep breeds is incorrect? a. White Suffolks were developed by crossing Suffolks and Poll Dorsets b. Texels are meat sheep that originated in Holland (The Netherlands) c. East Friesians are a milking sheep breed d. The Lincoln is a milking sheep breed e. The Border Leicester ram crossed with Merino ewes is used to produce prime lambs
d
Casting a heifer is BEST done using: a. the Reuff's method with sedation b. the Reuff's method without sedation c. the criss-cross method without sedation d. the criss-cross method with seadtion e. either method with sedation f. either method without sedaion
either method with sedation
Which ONE of the following is correct? The point of balance of a cow: a. is at the level of the shoulder b. is at the level of the hip c. is the point where a cow will lose its balance d. is used to cast a cow e. is further forward in older cows
is at the level of the shoulder
Which ONE of these is most correct. A cow with no permanent incisors: a. is either under 18 months of age or is old enough to have lost all of its permanent teeth b. is under 2 years of age c. is over 5 years of age d. is called a full-mouth e. is of no use in a herd
is either under 18 months of age or is old enough to have lost all of its permanent teeth
Which ONE of the following is correct? A dry cow: a. has never had a calf b. has a calf at foot c. is lactating d. is not lactating e. is out of the rain
is not lactating
Which of the following is MOST correct? A crush test/score: a. is used to quantify the temperament of a cow by scoring the degree of movement while a cow is secured in a head bail b. is the score given to the condition of the cow when it restrained in a crush c. is a 1 - 4 scale used to grade the effectiveness of a particular type of crush d. Is part of the trio of criteria that should be recorded every time a cow is caught in a crush - breed, age and crush score e. determines how hard a crush can squeeze a cow
is used to quantify the temperament of a cow by scoring the degree of movement while a cow is secured in a head bail
A cow with 8 permanent incisors is: Select one: a. 2 years old b. 3 years old c. 3.5 - 4.5 years old d. over 3.5 years old e. 6 years old
over 3.5 years old
The BEST way to identify a cow in a written record (for example a report of a clinical record) is by: a. recording permanent markings like tatoos, brands or notable coat colourations along with any tags that may be present b. by recording ear tag numbers c. by looking at NLIS tags d. by examining and counting teeth e. by recording hoof prints
recording permanent markings like tatoos, brands or notable coat colourations along with any tags that may be present
Casting a bull is BEST done using: a. the criss-cross method with sedation b. the criss-cross method without sedation c. the Reuff's method with sedation d. the Reuff's method without sedation e. sedation only
the criss-cross method with sedation
Which ONE of the following is correct? A flank rope is: a. not used in Australia b. used when there are inadequate crush facilities and a cow needs to be restrained for abdominal surgery c. used to secure the right hand side of the cow to a post d. never tied with a quick release knot e. best done with a black rope
used when there are inadequate crush facilities and a cow needs to be restrained for abdominal surgery
