App Deployment - App Builder
Worldwide Containers is planning a production release. Which steps would be part of the deployment plan? (Choose 2) a. Ask users to avoid logging in during the scheduled release time b. Manually configure metadata that is not supported by the metadata API c. Update code in production if test coverage is not sufficient d. Create change sets to migrate metadata
b. Manually configure metadata that is not supported by the metadata API d. Create change sets to migrate metadata Since not all metadata is supported by the metadata API, these metadata types have to be manually configured in the target org. Change sets are used to deploy metadata to a target org from the Salesforce interface. Users can be prevented from logging into the org by assigning them a maintenance profile that has no login hours or by freezing all end users. The code cannot be updated in production.
For which of the following scenarios should unmanaged packages be used? (Choose 2) a. Sandbox to production migration b. One-time installation of the application in a single org c. Distributing open-source projects d. Distributing and selling applications to
b. One-time installation of the application in a single org c. Distributing open-source projects Unmanaged packages are typically used to distribute open-source projects or application templates to provide developers with the basic building blocks for an application. Once installed, the components can no longer be modified by the developer of the package and are not upgradeable.
Which of the following components will be renamed if a naming conflict occurs when installing an unmanaged package? a. Apex class b. Report c. List View d. Apex trigger
b. Report c. List View If a naming conflict occurs, the install is blocked. Nonetheless, for some of the components, Salesforce can optionally change the name of the component being installed: - Reporting Snapshot - Dashboard - Document - Email Template - Folder - Letterhead - List View - Report
A Salesforce developer is building an application for a client using a Developer Edition org and is required to regularly deploy updates to their production org. What tools can the developer use to perform the deployment. (Choose 2) a. Developer console b. Salesforce extension pack c. Change sets d. Salesforce CLI
b. Salesforce extension pack d. Salesforce CLI The Salesforce Extensions pack, which is built on Salesforce CLI, enables tools such as Visual Studio Code and Code Builder to perform operations in a connected Salesforce org. For example, using any of these tools allows metadata to be retrieved from a Developer Edition org and then deployed to a production org. The Developer Console is a collection of tools used for creating, debugging, and testing applications, but it is not capable of deploying metadata to other orgs. Change sets are not supported in Developer Edition orgs.
What is true regarding change sets? (Choose 2) a. Change sets support all types of components b. There are 2 types of change sets, Inbound and Outbound c. Change sets can only be sent between organizations affiliated with a production organization d. Dependent components are automatically added to change sets
b. There are 2 types of change sets, Inbound and Outbound c. Change sets can only be sent between organizations affiliated with a production organization Change sets do not support every type of component. Dependent components can be viewed and added when creating a change set, but they are not automatically added.
A developer working for Cosmic Solutions has created a full copy sandbox and label it as 'fullsb. If a Salesforce user of the company uses the username '[email protected]' to access the production environment, which login URL and username would be required by the user to access the sandbox environment? a. https://login.salesforce.com, [email protected] b. https://test.salesforce.com, [email protected] c. https://login.salesforce.com, [email protected] d. https://sandbox.salesforce.com, [email protected]
b. https://test.salesforce.com,[email protected] Users can log in to a sandbox environment using the URL 'https://test.salesforce.com' and appending 'sandbox _name' to their username. In this case, 'fullsb' would need to be appended to the username '[email protected]' since 'fullsb' is the name of the sandbox created by the developer, i.e. "[email protected]'. However, the password would remain the same.
Which of the following below are valid statements about sandbox refreshes? (Choose 3) a. The refresh interval controls the duration of a sandbox refresh b. Refreshes are executed immediately after a refresh request c. A sandbox is refreshed to update the metadata and/or data from its source org d. Sandbox refreshes may take hours, days, or more than a week e. Sandboxes should be refreshed prior to the development of a project
c. A sandbox is refreshed to update the metadata and/or data from its source org d. Sandbox refreshes may take hours, days, or more than a week e. Sandboxes should be refreshed prior to the development of a project Sandboxes are refreshed to ensure that metadata and/or data is current before development or testing begins. The data is updated if the sandbox is a clone or uses a template. Sandbox copies or refreshes, depending on variables such as the org size, customization, or refresh queue, may take hours, days, or even more than a week to complete. The refresh interval does not control how long a sandbox refresh takes to complete. However, the number of customizations, data size, number of objects and configuration choices, and server load of an org do impact the refresh duration. Also, sandbox refreshes are not executed immediately after the request. They are placed in a queue and are processed on a first-come, first-served basis. Therefore, sandbox refreshes should be planned ahead, executed as often as needed, or whenever it makes sense for a project, taking into consideration the refresh limits, to ensure that the sandbox is ready in time for the next task.
Global Containers has 50 user profiles. When performing a production deployment, which of the options are most suitable in order to lockout and prevent users from logging in during deployment? (Choose 2) a. At the beginning of the deployment, change the login hours on each profile. At the end of the deployment, reset the login hours. b. At the beginning of the deployment, manually change the profile of each user to a maintenance profile. At the end of the deployment, reset each user's profile. c. At the beginning of the deployment, use Data Loader to freeze each user record except the System Administrator. At the end of the deployment, unfreeze the user records back. d. At the beginning of the deployment, use Data Loader to change the profile of each user except the System Administrator to a maintenance profile. At the end of the deployment, update all user records with their original
c. At the beginning of the deployment, use Data Loader to freeze each user record except the System Administrator. At the end of the deployment, unfreeze the user records back. d. At the beginning of the deployment, use Data Loader to change the profile of each user except the System Administrator to a maintenance profile. At the end of the deployment, update all user records with their original It is common practice to prevent users from logging in during a maintenance window by assigning them a 'maintenance' profile that has no login hours for the users. This is done by setting the Start Time field of the Profile Login Hours to '12:00 AM' and the End Time field to 'End of the Day' (or '12:00 AM', if not available). Using Data Loader, the profile of all users except the System Administrator can be changed to this profile in bulk. Alternatively, the Freeze option can be used to prevent users from logging into the org during the deployment process. This can be done more quickly via Data Loader by updating the 'IsFrozen' field of the users to 'True' in the 'UserLogin' object. These settings can be reverted back using Data Loader again. Manual processes are not recommended in this case as there are too many users or profiles. When an automated option is available, it is best to make use of them for speed and efficiency.
You are running a training session for a group of new Salesforce developers. Each developer is provided with their own Salesforce developer edition org. As part of this training session you are required to distribute an Expense Manager application to the trainees, and allow them to work further on it. What would be the best way to do this? a. Bundle the app as a Managed Package b.Share code for the Expense Manager via email c. Bundle the app as an Unmanaged Package d. Create Trainee Users on your Salesforce org
c. Bundle the app as an Unmanaged Package Trainees would need to have access to the source code in order to work on it. An Unmanaged Package is the best option for this since the app and code can be distributed to unrelated orgs and be modified by the developers.
A Salesforce Administrator is designing a metadata deployment plan using change sets that will be implemented for an upcoming project. Which of the following are valid change set migration paths? (Choose 2) a. Developer Edition org to a Developer Pro sandbox b. Developer sandbox to a Developer Edition org c. Developer sandbox to a Production org d. Production org to a Developer sandbox
c. Developer sandbox to a Production org d. Production org to a Developer sandbox Change sets can be used to deploy metadata from a sandbox to a production org, production org to a sandbox, or sandbox to another sandbox. Developer Editions orgs do not support change sets. In addition, deployment connections can only be established between orgs that are affiliated with a production org. Thus, a change set cannot be deployed to an unrelated org such as a Developer Edition org.
What type of Sandbox is appropriate for full regression, performance and load testing? a. Partial Copy Sandbox b. Test Sandbox c. Full Sandbox d. Performance Sandbox
c. Full Sandbox A Full sandbox is suitable for full regression, performance and load testing
A marketing company uses the org development model for managing the lifecycle of their Salesforce applications. Which of the following statement is valid regarding the build release step in this lifecycle? a. The build release marks the step after the planning phase when developers officially start building the application. b. The build release step refers to the preparation and setup of multiple personal sandboxes for a team of developers. c. Integration of customizations from developer sandboxes into a shared developer sandbox may occur in this step. d. After successful testing, the compiled application, which is called the build release, is waiting for production release.
c. Integration of customizations from developer sandboxes into a shared developer sandbox may occur in this step. The org development model mainly contains 4 steps: (1) Develop and test, where developers start and implement customizations in their personal developer sandboxes. (2) Build release, where customizations from one or more personal sandboxes are migrated into a shared developer sandbox. (3) Test release, where the release is tested by stakeholders. (4) Release, where the release is finally deployed to production.
You have created a new Sandbox for your production instance of Salesforce. You want to be able to push metadata from the new Sandbox to Production. While setting up the deployment connections, what change would you make, and in which environment? a. Specify Allow Inbound Changes in Sandbox b. Specify Allow Deployment in Environment Hub c. Specify Allow Inbound Changes in Production d. Specify Allow Outbound Changes in Sandbox e. Specify Allow Outbound Changes in Production
c. Specify Allow Inbound Changes in Production The deployment connection definition within the Production Org should have 'Allow Inbound Changes' for the deployment connection created for the new sandbox.
A Salesforce developer created an application which he wants to distribute as open source. What kind of package should he create? a. Managed package b. Open source package c. Unmanaged package d. None of these
c. Unmanaged package Unmanaged packages are typically used to distribute open-source projects or application templates to provide developers with the basic building blocks for an application. Once the components are installed from an unmanaged package, the components can be edited in the organization they are installed in. The developer who created and uploaded the unmanaged package has no control over the installed components, and can not change or upgrade them.
Which of the following statements about unmanaged packages are true? (Choose 2) a Unmanaged packages are used to migrate components from sandbox to production. b. Unmanaged packages can be distributed without 75% code coverage. c. Unmanaged packages can be used to distribute open-source projects. d. Unmanaged packages can be created in a Developer Edition org.
c. Unmanaged packages can be used to distribute open-source projects. d. Unmanaged packages can be created in a Developer Edition org. Unmanaged packages can be used to distribute open-source projects or application templates to provide developers with the basic building blocks for an application. They can be created in a Developer Edition org, but should not be used to migrate components from a sandbox to production organization; change sets are used for that. All packages, including unmanaged packages, require 75% code coverage.
The developers of Cosmic Enterprises use multiple sandbox environments for development, integration, and testing. After a project is complete, an exclusive set of metadata components is migrated from production to a single developer sandbox for the next development. Which of the given options should be performed so that all developers have the same metadata components in their own sandboxes? (Choose 2) a. An AppExchange app can be used to create a new sandbox that is a copy of another sandbox. b. A change set can be created to move metadata components from one sandbox to another. c. When creating a new sandbox, an option to copy an existing sandbox can be selected. d. A sandbox can be cloned to ensure that the same metadata is available in another sandbox.
c. When creating a new sandbox, an option to copy an existing sandbox can be selected. d. A sandbox can be cloned to ensure that the same metadata is available in another sandbox. A sandbox can be cloned by clicking 'Clone' next to the name of an existing sandbox. Also, an existing sandbox can be cloned via the 'Create From' drop-down menu when creating a new sandbox. An AppExchange app is not necessary since sandbox cloning is a native feature on the platform. Using change sets is not efficient when multiple sandboxes are involved and an option to clone is easily available that is faster and less prone to errors.
What is the proper sequence of tasks included in a typical enterprise deployment plan? a. Lock Out Users, Announce Maintenance Window, Deploy Change Sets, Validate Change Sets, Perform Manual Changes, Verify Functional Changes, Unlock Users b. Announce Maintenance Window, Validate Change Sets, Unlock Users, Deploy Change Sets, Perform Manual Changes, Verify Functional Changes, Lock Out Users c. Announce Maintenance Window, Lock Out Users, Unlock Users, Validate Change Sets, Deploy Change Sets, Perform Manual Changes, Verify Functional Changes d. Announce Maintenance Window, Validate Change Sets, Lock Out Users, Deploy Change Sets, Perform Manual Changes, Verify Functional Changes, Unlock Users
d. Announce Maintenance Window, Validate Change Sets, Lock Out Users, Deploy Change Sets, Perform Manual Changes, Verify Functional Changes, Unlock Users The following are some of the steps that would be included in an enterprise production deployment: - Announce Maintenance Window - Validate Change Sets - Lock Out Users - Deploy Change Sets - Perform Manual Changes - Verify Functional Changes - Unlock Users Depending on the manual migration changes, they may have to be performed before or after the metadata deployment or both.
What is the purpose of the integration testing step in the application lifecycle? a. The integration testing step is used to verify that sandbox metadata is in sync with the production org. b. The test is performed to determine how well end-users adopt a new process that is introduced in a release. c. Integration testing is specific to testing the stability and reliability of integrated solutions with external apps. d. Customizations from one or more developers are merged into a single shared environment for testing.
d. Customizations from one or more developers are merged into a single shared environment for testing. In integration testing, individual units are combined and tested as a group to ensure that processes work as expected and to identify any issues between integrated units or systems, as well as changes made by developers. The integration in integration testing refers to the merging of programmatic or declarative customizations from one or more orgs and does not refer to integration with external systems. Also, integration testing is not used for determining user adoption, nor is it used for checking metadata status between a sandbox and production org.
During which milestone of the application lifecycle should the deployment of customizations to production take place? a. Develop b. Test release c. Build release d. Release
d. Release The 'Release' stage occurs after completing testing, meeting quality benchmarks, and aggregating assets into a single release artifact in the 'Build Release' stage. The 'Develop' stage is focused on building the application based on design specifications. While testing of the deployment occurs in the 'Test Release' stage, the actual deployment and training activities are scheduled for the subsequent 'Release' stage. In the 'Build Release' stage, assets are consolidated into a unified release artifact. However, the deployment and training actions are deferred to the subsequent 'Release' stage.
Which of the following statements are true about User Acceptance Testing (UAT) in the application lifecycle management of a project? a. UAT refers to the stage of an application lifecycle that determines the target stakeholders of the project. b. UAT refers to the automated process of deploying metadata updates to an org without user intervention. c. UAT involves the comprehensive screening of users who qualify for roles in the project management team. d. UAT involves testing the updates by end users or stakeholders for approval before the production release.
d. UAT involves testing the updates by end users or stakeholders for approval before the production release. During User Acceptance Testing (UAT), the project or release is tested with a small set of stakeholders such as business stakeholders or end users who provide feedback. This step ensures that the release delivers what is required and expected by the stakeholders. UAT is performed before deploying a release to the production environment.
Global Containers has made a number of changes and is ready to deploy them to production. Which of the following would require a manual migration step to be added to the deployment plan? a. Page layouts b. Workflow rules c. Custom objects d. Web-to-Lead
d. Web-to-Lead Web-to-Lead cannot be deployed with the metadata API and changes to them must be made manually in each organization.
What is true regarding change sets? a. If a change set deployment fails, the entire transaction is rolled back b. Validating a change set must be done before deploying c. Change sets are always created in a sandbox organization and deployed in production d. If a change set deployment is successful, it can be rolled back if required
a. If a change set deployment fails, the entire transaction is rolled back Change sets are typically created in a sandbox and deployed to production, but they can be sent the other way. Successful deployments cannot be rolled back. It is recommended, but not required to validate a change set before deploying.
Change Sets can be used to do all of the following, EXCEPT? a. Deploy changes to create a new Apex Class in production b. Deploy changes to rename a Custom Object in production c. Deploy profile level settings for a component being deployed d. Validate Dependencies that exist for a Custom Object
b. Deploy changes to rename a Custom Object in production You cannot use change sets to rename or delete existing components.
A company has a Partial Copy sandbox that has 5 GB of data storage. The data in their production org adds up to 68 GB of data. Keeping the storage limitation in mind, how can it be ensured that only the data relevant for testing is brought into the Partial Copy sandbox? a. Change Sets b. Sandbox Templates c. Sharing Rules d. Programmatic Change Set
b. Sandbox Templates Sandbox templates allow picking specific objects and data to copy to the Full or Partial Copy sandbox to control the size and content of each sandbox.
You need to do performance testing prior to go-live of an upgrade project. Which environment would you use to conduct the performance testing? a. Developer Sandbox b. Developer Pro Sandbox c. Full Copy Sandbox d. Production Org
c. Full Copy Sandbox The full copy sandbox is an environment with a replica of your entire production organization and all its data. It is ideal for performance tests.
Which sandbox type is used by the team for user-acceptance testing during the Test release phase? a. Partial sandbox b. Developer sandbox c. Developer Pro Sandbox d. Full sandbox
a Partial Sandbox During the Test release phase, the team utilizes a partial sandbox to create a complete replica of production, allowing for thorough user-acceptance testing without the risk of altering production data. While Developer Pro sandboxes are used for integration during the Build release phase, full sandboxes are employed for training users after the release is in production. Developer sandboxes, on the other hand, are utilized by individual team members for development and testing, containing no production data.
Which of the following role does a staging environment play in a deployment plan? (Choose 2) a. A staging environment will usually have a full set of production data, so business processes can be tested thoroughly b. A staging environment requires 75% test coverage, so test coverage can be confirmed c. A staging environment allows a test deployment to be done in an environment similar to production d. A staging environment should not have the exact same configuration and data as
a. A staging environment will usually have a full set of production data, so business processes can be tested thoroughly c. A staging environment allows a test deployment to be done in an environment similar to production A staging environment is usually a full copy sandbox, and code coverage is not enforced for sandboxes. A staging environment should ideally be a nearly exact replica of the production environment. Staging environments is where codes, builds, and updates are tested before the deployment.
Which of the following can be performed by change sets? (Choose 2) a. Adding a component b. Deleting a component c. Renaming a component d. Updating a component
a. Adding a component d. Updating a component Change sets can't be used to rename or delete components.
Which of the following is true in regards to adding a custom object to an unmanaged package? a. All of these b. Its related triggers are also added to the package. c. Its page layouts are also added to the package. d. Its custom fields are also added to the package.
a. All of these Some related components are automatically included in the package even though they might not be displayed in the Package Components list. For example, when you add a custom object to a package, its custom fields, page layouts, and relationships with standard objects are automatically included.
An active workflow rule in a sandbox org is configured to send emails when records that meet a set of criteria are updated. However, no emails are received when the records are updated. Which of the following actions should be taken? (Choose 3) a. Check the Email Logs b. Check email deliverability settings c. Check the Record Logs d. Check the System Logs e. Check the email address
a. Check the Email Logs b. Check email deliverability settings e. Check the email address The email deliverability setting can prevent emails from getting sent if it is set to 'No Access' or 'System Email' only. The Email Logs can provide information on whether the email was sent or an error was encountered in the delivery. Email invalidation can also prevent production users from receiving messages generated from the sandbox. When a sandbox is created or refreshed, the email address [email protected] becomes [email protected]. The administrator should check and make sure that the target users have the correct email address. There are no specific logs named 'System Log' and 'Record Log!
Universal Packages needs a way to test data imports and integration but do not want it to affect production data. Which of the following Sandbox is most suitable if they only require 500 MB of data storage? a. Developer Pro Sandbox b. Developer Sandbox c. Full Sandbox d. Partial Copy Sandbox
a. Developer Pro Sandbox As the data requirements are more than 200 MB, the company cannot use a Developer sandbox. A Developer Pro can be used as it has a data storage limit greater than 500MB. A Partial Copy sandbox contains the production organization's metadata and selected data that is defined in the sandbox template when creating or refreshing the sandbox. This type of sandbox is best suitable for quality assurance tasks such as user acceptance testing, integration testing, and training. A Full Sand box is an exact replica of the production org. It is best use as a testing environment as it supports support performance testing, load testing, and staging.
A new developer at Universal Packages wants to build a new Salesforce application for their production environment. The org uses Unlimited Edition. Which sandbox should be used? a. Developer sandbox b. Full sandbox c. Developer Edition d. Partner Developer Edition sandbox
a. Developer sandbox A Developer sandbox can be used by individual developers to create applications without impacting other developers. A Full sandbox can be used, but it will cost more than a Developer sandbox. A Developer Edition cannot be used as any changes or updates made will impact other developers. A Partner Developer Edition sandbox does not exist.
What type of Sandbox is appropriate for creating a full replica of production data for final testing of changes before moving them to production? a. Full Sandbox b. Pre-prod Sandbox c. Test Sandbox d. UAT Sandbox
a. Full Sandbox A Full sandbox allows an environment to be set up as a replica of the production environment which includes all metadata and data. It is one of the four Sandbox types. The other three are Developer, Developer Pro, and Partial Copy.
A company has limited sandbox resources and wants to perform user training that focuses on a specific new feature. Which types of sandboxes would be the most appropriate? a. Partial Copy Sandbox b. Developer Sandbox c. Full Sandbox d. Developer Pro Sandbox
a. Partial Copy Sandbox d. Developer Pro Sandbox If the organization has limited sandbox resources and the training needs are simple and don't require a full replication of the production environment, using a Developer Pro or Partial Copy Sandbox for training can be a more cost-effective solution than creating a Full Sandbox. The Developer Pro sandbox is recommended for user training over the Developer sandbox due to its larger data set, access to more features and functionality, better performance, and ease of management.
A Salesforce Administrator has created a custom object in a sandbox, and is defining a change set to move it to the production instance. In the change set, the Salesforce Administrator added only the custom object component. What would be the result of the deployment in the production instance? a. The custom object will be created without any custom fields b. The custom object, and associated fields will be created c. The custom object, associated fields, and page layouts will be created d. It will result in an error
a. The custom object will be created without any custom fields The deployment will succeed, but custom fields or page layouts will not be moved. This will result in a custom object being created with all the standard fields. No error will be reported either. To prevent this, the View/Add Dependencies button should be used to see possible items that should also be included.
A custom tab was created in a sandbox org for a new custom object to allow users to access its records from the navigation menu. However, profiles were not included in the change set when the custom tab was deployed to their Enterprise Edition org. How will this affect the custom tab? a. The visibility settings of the tab will be set to 'Tab Hidden' for all profiles b. The visibility settings of the tab will be set to 'Default On' for all profiles c. The visibility settings of the tab will be set to 'Default Off' for all profiles d. The visibility settings of the tab will be set to 'Tab Shown' for all profiles
a. The visibility settings of the tab will be set to 'Tab Hidden' for all profiles Deployed custom tabs are hidden by default for all users in the destination org. Since there are no profile settings available to set the visibility of the custom tab accordingly, the tab will remain hidden and not allow users to override this setting through their personal customization. Note that for Professional Edition orgs, deployed custom tabs are instead visible to all users by default. 'Default On' will show the tab on the navigation menu for all users. 'Default Off' will hide the tab but allow users to override this setting. 'Tab Shown' is not a valid visibility setting for tabs.
Which of the following are best practices for change sets? (Choose 3) a. Validate change sets before deployment b. Rename components using change sets c. Add permissions and access settings to outbound change sets d. Deploy all dependent components
a. Validate change sets before deployment c. Add permissions and access settings to outbound change sets d. Deploy all dependent components Components should be deleted or renamed using the Web Interface. Some of the best practices for using change sets are: - Deploy all dependent components - Add permissions and access settings to outbound change sets - Clone a change set to add dependent components to an uploaded change set - Use distinct names for global publisher layouts and Outlook publisher layouts - Plan deployments around maintenance schedule - Validate change sets before deployment - View component details
A change set can be moved between which types of orgs? (Choose 2) a. Any sandbox to any production organization b. A Sandbox and the associated Production organization c. Any Developer edition organization to any Sandbox organization d. Any 2 Sandboxes that belong to the same Production organization
b. A Sandbox and the associated Production organization d. Any 2 Sandboxes that belong to the same Production organization Change sets can only be sent between organizations that are affiliated with a production organization.
When using change sets, which one of the following cannot be transferred from one Salesforce org to another? a. Contact field sets b. Account records c. Sharing rules d. Apex class
b. Account records Account records represent data, not metadata. Change sets are used only to transfer metadata, i.e., information about the org configuration.
Cosmic Innovation would like to deploy changes from their sandbox org and has successfully uploaded the change set in their production org. The deployment in production will require a considerable amount of time due to the large number of Apex tests that need to be executed. Work disruption must be minimized as much as possible, and the developer is concerned about the delayed deployment time. Which of the following options can be utilized to reduce the time to perform the deployment in production? (Choose 2) a. Choose the 'Run Local Tests' option b. Choose the 'Run Specified Tests' option c. Choose the 'Skip Test Execution' option d. Perform a Quick Deployment
b. Choose the 'Run Specified Tests' option d. Perform a Quick Deployment 'Run Specified Tests' can be used to only execute specific test classes and thereby decreases the number of unit tests and overall testing run time. In the 'Run Specified Tests' mode, the tests must cover the Apex class or triggers in the change sets with a minimum of 75% code coverage individually. Salesforce allows performing a quick deployment by clicking on a 'Quick Deploy' button which skips the execution of tests and reduces deployment time. This option is only available when the components have been validated successfully in the target environment within the last 10 days as well as meeting the required overall code coverage for Apex. Choosing the 'Run Local Tests' will run all tests in an organization except those from an installed managed package. The 'Skip Test Execution' option is not an existing feature.
In an organization, two release managers are responsible for managing sandboxes. What is the most appropriate user permission they should be given? a. Manage Environments b. Manage Sandboxes c. View All Data d. Modify All Data
b. Manage Sandboxes The 'Manage Sandboxes' permission will allow users to create, refresh, activate and delete sandboxes. Modify All Data will also allow the management of sandboxes but is not appropriate for users who should not have full access to manage all data.
