BDCS - K-Plan - Questions & Answers

108. Typically, one exit from a space can be a horizontal exit as long as the other exit is either an enclosed vertical exit or an exit directly to the outside. What rating is required for the fire-rated partition, running from exterior wall to exterior wall, encasing the doorway comprising the horizontal exit?

108. 2-hour rating. A horizontal exit divides a building or floor into separate compartments with a 2-hour fire-rated partition.

101. Which of the following glazing types are appropriate for skylight glazing? A. Laminated B. Tempered c. Wired D. Heavy sheet E. Acrylic or plastic

101. A, B, C, and E. Skylight glazing must be safe from breaking and falling, which might endanger occupants. Laminated, tempered, wired glass and acrylic or plastic glazing are appropriate to specify for skylights.102. 11 sheets. Gypsum Board sheets are manufactured in 4-ft. widths, from 6 ft. to 12 ft. in length. 42 I 4 = 10.5 sheets 11 sheets would need to be purchased.

102. How many Gypsum Board Sheets would need to be purchased in order to clad a wall 10 feet high by 42 feet long?

102. 11 sheets. Gypsum Board sheets are manufactured in 4-ft. widths, from 6 ft. to 12 ft. in length. 42 I 4 = 10.5 sheets 11 sheets would need to be purchased.

103. Which of the following are acceptable finish flooring systems? Check the four that apply. A. Wood with vapor barrier over slab on grade B. Cut stone on beveled sleepers anchored in mortar C. Resilient flooring on plywood over joists D. Ceramic tile in setting bed over slab E. Brick in mortar setting bed over slab F. Marble tile on plywood subfloor

103. A, C, D, and E. Cut stone must be set into a setting bed (not supported on sleepers). Marble tile (like any tile) must also be set in a setting bed for consistent support. The other finish flooring systems noted are correct.

104. Highrise buildings requiring two-hour fire rated non-combustible construction are generally described as buildings whose highest occupied floor is how many feet above grade at a minimum?

104. 75 feet. Tvo-hour rated non-combustible construction may include highrise buildings, 75 feet or more to the highest occupied floor, with some exceptions.

105. How many occupants must be accommodated in determining egress requirements for an Accounting Office 4,250 sq. ft. in area that includes 8 private offices and 20 staff workstations?

105. 43 occupants. Occupant loads are determined based on tables in the model codes in the IBC and in the NFPA 5000. Both model codes indicate "Business" as allowing for no more than 100 square feet per occupant, regardless of the actual number of offices, workstations or staff who occupy the office suite. 4,250 sq. ft. I 100 = 42.5 or 43 occupants

106. According to the IBC, if a stairway serving 990 occupants in a Business Occupancy in a building without sprinklers, it would be necessary to use a factor of 0.3 to determine the number of inches required for egress width. Assuming the minimum number of exits required, what is the minimum width for each of the required exit stairs?

106. 99 inches. According to the IBC, it is necessary to multiply the number of occupants by the factor of 0.3 in order to determine the total number of inches required for exit width (990 x 0.3 = 297). As the model codes require not less than three separate exits located remotely from each other for occupant loads of 501 to 1,000, the 297 inches must be divided by three (297 I 3 = 99 inches). Each of the three exit stairs would need to be 99 inches wide.

107. Using a factor of 0.2 from IBC building and occupant load table in Chapter 10 that is described in the previous problem, how many inches are required for each set of exit doors?

107. 66 inches. Multiply the number of occupants by the factor 0.2 (990 x 0.2 = 198 inches) to find the total width of exit doors. Dividing that total by the number of exits required (three): 198 I 3 = 66 inches needed at each exit for door width. (As exit doors are required to have not less than 32" clear width and no more than 48" nominal width, the design for the three doors would most likely result in three pairs of 36" wide doors.)

109. Which of the following factors are to be considered in determining the allowable area of a building? Check the five that apply. A. Occupancy B. Type of Construction C. Distance Separation of Exits D. Percentage of building frontage accessible to a public way or open space E. Automatic sprinkler system F. Construction Budget G. Number of stories of a building

109. A, B, D, E, and G. Building area is determined by the occupancy and type of construction with the resultant area increase based upon the percentage of building frontage accessible to a public way or open space, whether or not the building has an automatic sprinkler system, and the number of stories of the building.

110. Buildings consume at least what percentage of the world's energy?

110. 40%. Buildings consume at least 40% of the world's energy. Thus they account for about a third of the world's emissions of heat-trapping carbon dioxide from fossil burning, and two-fifths of acid rain-causing carbon dioxide and nitrogen oxides.

111. Which of the following are TRUE statements describing innovative sustainable technologies? Check the two that apply. A. Aquifer thermal energy storage uses the differential thermal energy in water from underground wells to cool and heat buildings. B. Large-scale wind turbines used to generate electricity can be mounted on buildings. C. Photovoltaic Systems are presently a cost effective way to supplement energy if wind and geothermal water sources are not available. D. Geothermal energy can be used in select locations to supplement a building's heating demand. E. Fuel Cell technology was invented in the 1960s as part of the USA space program and is a potential power source in the future. F. Biogas converts biomass to a gas that can fuel a turbine through anaerobic digestion.

111. A, D, and F. Small-scale (not largescale) wind turbines can be mounted on buildings. Photo voltaic Systems are currently not cost effective. Fuel Cell technology was invented in 1839 by Sir William Grove. The remaining three statements about underground thermal energy and biogas are correct.

112. If the difference in elevation in an Accessibility/Ramp vignette is 4'-0", then what is the minimum overall distance of a straight ramp? Assume that the ramp is 44" wide.

112. 53 feet. It is recommended to assume a Ramp slope of 1:12. Therefore, a rise of 4 ft. would require a length of 4 ft. x 12 = 48 feet. A ramp may not rise more than 30" before creating a level landing which must be no less than 5' long. The overall ramp length would be 48 ft. + 5 ft. = 53 ft. overall length, with the landing dividing the two sloping areas.

113. In taking the exam it is recommended to use the maximum allowable riser height to develop a solution with the fewest number of steps. If the difference in elevation were 4'-6" and the maximum riser height is 7", then how many stair treads would be required?

113. 7 treads. 4'-6" = 54" divided by a 7" maximum riser height = 7. 7, or 8 risers. A stairway with 8 risers has 7 treads.

1. If the roof and ceiling assembly of a structure has a factor of thermal conductance (U-factor) of 0.04, what should be the R-value of the insulation used in this same assembly? A. 2.5 B. 10 c. 25 D. 40

1. C. The answer is 25. The U-factor is the thermal conductance of one square foot of an entire assembly. The reciprocal of U is R, which is the thermal resistance of the same square foot of construction. A U-factor of 0.04, therefore, corresponds to an R-value of 1/0.04 = 25 (choice C).

10. An interior partition is constructed of metal studs 16 inches on center with one layer of 5/8-inch type "X" gypsum wallboard on each side. What is the fireresistive rating of the partition? A. None B. One hour C. Two hours D. Three hours

10. B. Fire-resistive ratings for various walls and partitions are shown in Table 43-B of the International Building Code. According to this table, the partition described has a one-hour rating (correct choice B). When taking the ARE, candidates are not expected to memorize the fire ratings of various wall assemblies, however they should have a general idea of the range of fire ratings possible using common materials. Candidates should immediately recognize that the type "X" wallboard will provide some degree of protection from fire, therefore choice A is incorrect. Candidates should also easily recognize that a partition constructed of single layer of wallboard is unlikely to achieve a two or three hour rating (C and Dare incorrect). Further, the particular partition noted in this question describes one of the most commonly used fire partitions used in commercial construction.

100. Code may require that exit corridors and partitions maintain a 3/4-hour fire rating. What is the maximum height of a 1/4" wire glass window in a 3/4-hour rated wall if the window is 24" wide?

100. 54 inches high. In 3/4 hour rated exit corridors and partitions, the maximum area of glazing (1/4" wire glass) permitted is 1,296 sq. in. I light. 1,296 I 24 inches= 54 inches allowed height.

11. Asbestos is a mineral fiber that has been used commonly in a variety of building construction materials. Although it has been out of widespread use for many years, in older buildings asbestos can still be found in which materials? I. Pipe and furnace insulation II. Shingles III. Floor tiles IV. Insulation A. I and II B. II and ID C. I, III, and IV D. All of the above

11. D. All of the above. Today, asbestos is most commonly found in older homes, in pipe and furnace insulation materials, asbestos shingles, millboard, textured paints and other coating materials, and floor tiles. Elevated concentrations of asbestos can occur after asbestos containing materials are disturbed during remodeling activities. Improper attempts to remove these materials can release asbestos fibers into the air, increasing asbestos levels and endangering occupants. It is best to leave undamaged asbestos material alone if it is not likely to be disturbed.

12. A one-hour fire-resistive rating for a drywall wood stud interior partition may be achieved as follows: 2-inch x 4-inch wood studs at 16-inch on center are covered with 5/8-inch fire-rated gypsum wallboard, and the joints are taped and sealed. If one wished to increase the fire rating using the same construction, one would likely specify that A. the studs would be placed 8 inches on center. B. the same 5/8-inch fire-rated gypsum wallboard be applied over a base layer of 3/4-inch plywood. C. three layers of 3/4-inch gypsum wallboard be applied on both sides. D. two layers on 5/8-inch fire-rated gypsum wallboard be applied to both sides.

12. D. While candidates are not expected to memorize the construction of specific fire rated assemblies, candidates are expected to understand the basic principals of fire-rated construction. Placing the studs at eight inches on center would have no effect on the fire rating of the assembly (choice A is incorrect). Placing the drywall over a layer of plywood would not produce a higher fire rating and would be expensive (choice Bis incorrect). Three layers of drywall would produce a higher fire rating, however the labor required to install three layers of drywall would be unnecessarily expense (choice C is incorrect). Installing two layers of%- inch fire-rated gypsum wallboard would increase the fire resistance rating rather easily (choice Dis correct).

13. A wall that is classified by the building code as nonbearing is a(n) A. interior wall. B. wall that has no separate footing. C. wall that is less than 50 percent solid. D. wall that supports only its own weight.

13. D. Most codes define a nonbearing wall as one that supports no load other than its own weight (choice D). Accordingly, it may be interior or exterior (choice A), with or without a footing (choice B), and open or solid (choice C). It may not, however, carry any ceiling or roof loads.

14. Select the correct statement about the construction of semicircular masonry arches. A. Centering is not usually necessary. B. Centering is usually necessary until placing of the keystone. C. The arches are almost always parabolic in shape. D. The maximum arch span is about 60 feet.

14. B. The Romans, the master builders of the ancient world, used arches in great profusion and the Roman arch was always semicircular (C is incorrect). Arches are constructed with scaffolding or centering (A is incorrect), which is removed after the keystone, the uppermost masonry block, is placed (Bis correct). Many ancient Roman arches reach a maximum span of 100 feet (D is incorrect).

15. Applying a mortar coat to control leakage in masonry walls is called _____

15. Parging. Parging is the process in which mortar coats are trowel-applied to exposed masonry basement or foundation walls. This is one of the most common and effective ways to control water leakage, Particularly where hollow masonry units are used. The mortar generally consists of one Part portland cement to three parts sand, and it is most often applied in two coats, each carefully hand troweled.

16. You are designing a building in a city with a moderate climate and you have specified grade MW brick for the exterior walls. The contractor proposes to substitute grade SW. What should be your response? A. Accept the substitution B. Reject the substitution C. Accept the substitution, provided masonry prism tests indicate that the bricks have adequate strength D. Allow the SW grade bricks to be used for interior walls only

16. A. There are three grades of brick: SW, MW, and NW. Grade SW is used for severe weather conditions, where the brick is likely to be frozen when saturated with water. Grade MW is used for exterior walls subject to moderate weather conditions, where the brick may be exposed to below freezing temperatures but unlikely to be saturated with water. Grade NW is intended for use where the brick will not be exposed to freezing, as in interior walls. Grades SW and MW may be used in lieu of grade NW, and grade SW may be used in lieu of grade MW (A is correct).

17. <image> A section through a reinforced concrete slab and beam floor system is shown. Which of the locations shown is BEST for a construction joint?

17. C. Reinforced concrete beams are generally constructed monolithically with the slab, and a portion of the slab acts with the beam to form a T-beam. Joints located near the slab-beam intersection are therefore not advisable. This rules out locations A, B, and D, leaving C as the only possible answer. Answer C is also near the midspan of the slab, where the shear in the slab is minimum.

18. Select the correct statement, concerning masonry joints, from among those that follow. A. The best type of joint to resist water penetration is either a weather-struck joint or a trowel-struck joint. B. The best type of joint to use on a masonry wall that is to receive a plastered finish is a flush joint. C. The type of joint that can be easily formed with a trowel is a v-shaped joint. D. The types of joints used on interior masonry walls are essentially the same as those used on walls exposed to the weather.

18. B. All of the statements concerning masonry joints are false, with the exception of correct answer B. Statement A is actually only half wrong, since a weather-struck joint sheds water, but a trowel-struck joint is an invitation to a leaky wall. The v-shaped joint of statement C is formed not with a trowel, but with a special jointing tool that compresses the mortar and forms a weathertight seal. Finally, choice D is simply a false statement; any wall that is not exposed to the weather can employ any kind of joint one desires. Because it need not shed water, the choice becomes one of aesthetic preference.

19. Brick used in areas of heavy rain, snow, or continual freezing should conform to which of the following grades? A. SW B. MW C. NW D. FBX

19. A. ASTM C62 and C216 establish three grades of brick with respect to weather resistance: grades SW, MW, and NW. Grade SW (severe weathering) is used in areas of heavy rain, snow; or continual freezing (A is correct), grade MW (moderate weathering) is used in areas of average rain and moderate freezing, and grade NW (no weathering) is used in areas of minimal rain and no freezing, as in sheltered or indoor locations. Grade FBX is unrelated to weather resistance, but is a grade of face brick based on appearance.

2. The ancient Roman structure consisting of a 142-foot-diameter dome resting on a circular masonry wall is the A. Parthenon. B. Colosseum. C. Pont du Gard. D. Pantheon.

2. D. The answer is Pantheon. The Parthenon (A) is the most famous example of the perfected Doric style in Greek architecture. The Colosseum (B), the prototype of many of today's stadiums, is an elliptical Roman amphitheater which seated 50,000 spectators. The Pont du Gard (C) is a Roman aqueduct in France comprising three sets of arches.

20. In which of the following brick bonding patterns are the wythes tied together with headers? I. Flemish bond Il. English bond ill. Running bond IV. Common bond A. I, II, and III B. II, ill, and IV C. ill only D. I, II, and IV

20. D. Most brick walls consist of two tiers, or wythes, of brick separated by two or three inches of air space. Brick bonding refers to the pattern in which the bricks are laid to tie the wythes together into a structural unit. In some bonding patterns, the wythes are tied together with headers, which are bricks laid with their ends exposed. These include Flemish bond, English bond, and common bond (I, II, and IV). Running bond does not have headers; instead, the wythes are tied together by mesh reinforcing every sixth course.

21. Which of the following historic structures contains a dome built without any temporary centering? A. The Pantheon B. Hagia Sophia C. Santa Maria del Fiore in Florence D. The Parthenon

21. C. Because this question relates to a dome, you should immediately rule out the Parthenon (D) because it is a Greek structure and doesn't have a dome. The Pantheon (A), which has the largest dome of the ancient world, was built by the Romans using centering. Hagia Sophia (B) in Constantinople (now Istanbul) is a magnificent domed edifice built with centering. The dome of Santa Maria del Fiore in Florence was designed by Brunelleschi with a series of circumferential iron chains to act as tension rings and hold the dome in equilibrium, which permitted the dome to be constructed without the use of any temporary centering, a feat unparalleled in its time (correct answer C).

22. An architect might specify light gauge punched steel studs in place of conventional wood studs in those cases where A. there is low relative humidity and sudden climactic changes. B. a degree of fire resistance is required that is unobtainable with wood. C. the situation calls for unusual speed of erection. D. cost is a determining factor.

22. B. The answer is a degree of fire resistance is required that is unobtainable with wood. Light gauge structural shapes, including studs, bridging, and joists, are used most frequently where an incombustible building system is required (choice B). Light gauge shapes have several other advantages over wood. For example, steel components will not swell, shrink, or warp, and they are unaffected by termites, rot, and sudden climactic changes (choice A). The system is also strong and rigid and often allows narrower walls. However, light gauge components are more expensive than wood (choice D), and they are generally no faster to erect than wood (choice D). Punched studs have evenly spaced holes along their length that permit the easy passage of conduits, wires, and pipes.

23. Which of the following statements concerning galvanizing is incorrect? A. Galvanizing involves applying a protective coating of zinc to iron or steel. B. Galvanizing and sherardizing treatments are essentially the same. C. The corrosion protection achieved is proportional to the thickness of the coating. D. The most common galvanized materials used in construction are iron sheet and strip.

23. B. The answer is Galvanizing and sherardizing treatments are essentially the same. Galvanizing is a process in which a protective coating of zinc is applied to iron or steel to protect it from the harmful effects of corrosion (choice A). Metals are commonly hot-dipped galvanized or electrogalvanized. Sherardizing (choice B) is a process in which metallic zinc dust is applied under great heat. Since this process is limited to objects of relatively small size, it differs considerably from the galvanizing treatment. Concerning choice C, although the rust-free life of the base metal depends on the depth of the zinc coating, and therefore the statement is true, an excessively thick layer of zinc may become brittle, crack, and thus subvert the purpose of the galvanizing treatment.

24. Exposed aluminum sections tend to A. rust. B. corrode. C. oxidize. D. remain bright indefinitely.

24. C. Aluminum is highly resistant to atmospheric corrosion (A and B are incorrect). Exposure causes a thin film of oxide to form (C), which protects the metal from further oxidation. However, unless the aluminum is anodized, the oxide coating causes the surface to become dull and chalky (D is incorrect).

25. In the selection of an exposed flashing material, several metals have specific properties that make their use advantageous in certain situations. In this regard, select the correct statements. Choose all that apply. A. Copper has a tendency to tarnish when exposed to weather. B. Galvanized steel is immune to rust and corrosion. C. Soldering aluminum is difficult and should be avoided. D. Stainless steel requires no additional protective coating. E. Copper and stainless steel expand and contract at about the same rate.

25. ·A, C, D, and E. All of the statements are true with the exception of B. Galvanized steel, which is sheet steel plated with zinc, has a relatively short life span when compared with other flashing metals. To minimize corrosion and increase longevity, it is common practice to paint galvanized metals. Although copper is durable material (A), it will oxidize when exposed to weather, and over time will acquire a rich greenish patina. Some metals, such as copper, galvanized steel, terne, and zinc, are easily soldered with rosin fluxes, however, sold~ring is not recommended for aluminum (C). Stainless steel (D) is steel alloyed with chromium and sometimes other elements and is virtually immune to rust and corrosion without additional protection. Finally, the coefficients of expansion for copper and steel are virtually identical.

26. <image> The two fillet welds shown below have the same strength. The total amount of weld metal in Detail 1 is A. the same as that in Detail 2. B. double that in Detail 2. C. half of that in Detail 2. D. four times that in Detail 2.

26. <image> B. The strength of a fillet weld is proportional to the weld throat dimension and the length. Since the throat dimension of the 1/2-inch fillet weld is twice that of the 1/4-inch fillet weld, the 1/2-inch fillet weld six inches long in Detail 1 has the same strength as the 1/4-inch fillet weld 12 inches long in Detail 2. Looking at a cross section of the welds, we can see that four 1/4-inch right triangles can fit in one 1/2-inch right triangle, in other words, the 1/2-inch fillet weld has four times the area of the 1/4-inch fillet weld. But since the 1/4-inch fillet weld is only half as long as the 1/2-inch fillet weld (6 inches compared to 12 inches), the 1/2-inch fillet weld in Detail 1 requires twice as much weld metal as the 1/4-inch fillet weld in Detail 1 (4 x 1/2 = 2). The moral of the story: to reduce the cost of fillet welding, use smaller and longer welds.

27. What is the MOST common type of structural weld? A. Full penetration weld B. Plug weld C. Fillet weld D. Groove weld

27. <image> C. A fillet weld is placed in the right angle formed by two intersecting or lapping plates or members. A groove weld is used to join two butting plates or members. A full penetration weld is a groove weld whose depth is the same as the thickness of the member. Although fillet welds are not as strong as groove welds, they are more commonly used (C is correct). The reason is that groove welds require members to be fabricated to much closer tolerances than fillet welds. Plug welds, which consist of holes filled with weld metal, are sometimes used where other types of welds would be impractical. (See the illustration below.)

28. How does a light-gauge steel member differ from a conventional structural steel member? I. The light-gauge member is usually cold-formed. II. The light-gauge member cannot be welded. III. The light-gauge member is formed from a single piece of material and is therefore uniform in cross section. A. I and II B. II and III C. I and III D. I, II, and III

28. C. Light-gauge steel, which varies from about 12 to 20 gauge, is sometimes used for repetitive members such as joists and studs. Such members are usually coldformed, while structural steel shapes are hot rolled (I). Light gauge members can be welded (II is incorrect) and are formed from a single piece of material, making them uniform in cross section (III).

29. Which of the qualities listed below are among the unique properties that make weathering steel a desirable exterior material? Check the three that apply. A. It does not rust. B. It requires no protective coating. C. It is virtually maintenance free. D. It ultimately weathers to a deep brownish-red finish that resists corrosion. E. It provides an excellent base for exterior finishes.

29. B, C, and D. Weathering steel is a useful material that contains a small quantity of copper. When exposed to the weather, this material proceeds to rust until it develops a complete brownish-red protective oxide finish that resists further corrosion. Thus, weathering steel forms its own permanent protection, obviating the need for an additional protective coating or regular maintenance. It does not provide a good base for exterior finishes.

3. Which of the following techniques is MOST effective in reducing sound transmission through a wall? Check all that apply. A. Decrease wall mass B. Detach the two faces of the wall from each other C. Apply spray-on mineral fiber to both wall faces D. Seal or avoid flanking paths

3. B and D. Reduction of sound transmission through a wall is achieved by increasing, not decreasing the wall mass (A is incorrect). Transmission is also reduced by detaching the wall faces (Bis correct). This is often done by means of resilient mountings, such as springs, felt, or cork, that prevent the wall faces from vibrating as a unit. While sprayed-on surface treatments can be effective in reducing reverberation time in a room, they do little to reduce sound transmission through a wall (C is incorrect). Finally, flanking paths refer to unrestricted sound paths, such as cracks at wall perimeters, back-to-back electrical receptacles, recessed medicine cabinets ect. Failure to control such paths greatly increases noise transmission through a wall (D is correct).

30. The process that employs an electric current and an electrolytic solution to deposit a metallic coating on steel is called ____

30. Electroplating. Electroplating employs an electric current and an electrolytic solution to deposit a metallic coating on steel. Tin, zinc, and cadmium are commonly applied in this manner. Lighter coatings for minimum corrosion resistance are possible with electroplating. Metallic coatings provide protection against corrosion either by being a sacrificial metal-that is, one that is purposely permitted to corrode, as is the case with zinc coatings; or by being inert and corrosion-resistant, as with chromium. The metals used for protection include zinc, tin, teme, aluminum, cadmium, chromium, and nickel. Some of the coating processes used are described as follows: Hot dipping refers to the immersion of steel in a molten bath of the coating metal. This process is used to produce heavier coatings, especially galvanized sheets, where the protective metal is zinc. The sherardizing process consists of placing steel into an enclosure in which it is surrounded with metallic zinc dust and then heated. This process, limited to relatively small objects, produces a clear, thin zinc coating. Metallizing is the process of spraying molten metal on the surface to be coated. It is extensively used for applying zinc and aluminum coatings, and is the principal method used for field application.

31. Steel floor decking is widely used because of its great strength, light weight, and speed of construction. Which of the following statements concerning steel decking is TRUE? A. Because of the smooth finish of steel decking, composite action of the decking and the concrete floor slab is not permitted. B. The most typical method of attaching steel decking to the supporting framework is welding. C. When a concrete floor fill is placed over steel decking, no additional fireproofing of the steel decking or frame is required. D. Steel decking is often used for electrical raceways, because it provides easy access from below.

31. B. Certain types of steel decking are specifically designed to provide composite action with the concrete floor slab (false answer A). What makes this action possible are special deformations formed into the decking that bond it to the concrete and transfer horizontal shear between the decking and the concrete. Answer B is the true statement we are looking for and therefore the answer to this question. Although other means of attachment are sometimes used, welding remains the typical method of attachment. Even when a concrete floor fill is placed over steel decking, the steel frame and usually the underside of the deck must be fireproofed to obtain the required fireresistive rating. Answer C is therefore false. Finally, D is also a false statement. The easy access to the electrical raceways provided by steel decking is from above, not below.

32. Select the correct statement from those that follow. A. Steel nails can be used to fasten stainless steel without any concern about galvanic action. B. Conduits and pipes of aluminum are often used in reinforced concrete construction, because the concrete forms an effective barrier preventing galvanic action between aluminum and steel. C. All ferrous metals contain some silicon, and small variations in silicon content have an important influence on their properties. D. Steel can be formed by a variety of methods, but not extruded.

32. D. Steel nails should not be used to fasten stainless steel (A), because the stainless steel will cause the steel nails to deteriorate through galvanic action. Unless effectively coated or covered, the use of aluminum in structural concrete is prohibited (B), because aluminum not only reacts electrolytically with steel, but also reacts with the concrete. Although ferrous metals may contain silicon, their properties are largely influenced by their carbon, not silicon, content (C). Finally, steels can be wrought, cast, rolled, forged, and welded, but not extruded (D). Extrusion refers to forming metal by forcing it through an opening having the desired shape. Answer D is the correct answer to this question.

33. The cost of connections in structural steel construction is I. a significant factor in the selection of structural steel systems. II. always less for bolted connections than for welded connections. III. usually less for shop connections than for field connections. A. I and ill B. I, II, and III c. I only D. ill only

33. A. The connections used in structural steel systems comprise a significant part of the cost of these systems, and can even influence the type of structural steel system selected (I is correct). One basic decision which must be made is whether bolted connections, welded connections, or some combination of both are to be used. In some cases, bolted connections are more economical, and sometimes, welded connections are. (II is incorrect.) Usually, shop connections are preferred over field connections because they are less costly cm is correct). The correct combination of answers is shown in A.

34. Select the correct statement about the fire-retardant treatment of wood. A. It decreases the rate of flame spread. B. It is used for light construction only. C. It generally consists of a coating of protective material over the wood surface. D. The chemicals used are the same as those for decay protection.

34. A. Fire-retardant treatment of wood generally involves impregnating the wood with fire-retardant chemicals pressure (C is incorrect). These chemicals decrease the rate of flame spread, or the rapidity with which fire will spread across the surface of the wood (A is correct). This treatment may be used for various sizes of wood members (B is incorrect), and the chemicals used are different from those used for decay prevention (D is incorrect).

35. Which of the following statements about glued laminated timber is correct? A. Laminated members are manufactured from the longest pieces of lumber commonly available. B. Laminations may vary in thickness, but in no case are they less than 1 Yi inches thick. C. Solid laminated timbers, in straight lengths, can readily span 60 feet or more. D. The finest appearance grade of glued laminated members is "architectural grade."

35. C. A length of 60 feet or more for glued laminated beams is not uncommon (choice C). In the form of arches or simple trusses, clear spans may be 100 feet or more in length. One advantage of laminating is that short lengths of lumber may be end joined to form much longer members with no loss in strength (choice A). Individual laminations rarely exceed 1 1/2 inches in thickness, but they may be thinner (choice B). In the case of some curved members, for example, %-inch-thick laminations are often used. Finally, the best appearance grade is called premium, and such members are manufactured especially for use in exposed construction. Architectural grade has the next best appearance, followed by industrial grade.

36. There are a number of common protective treatments that may be applied to timber, such as those that protect against fire and harmful insects. The one disadvantage they all share is that they A. reduce the strength of timber. B. increase the construction cost. C. create greater difficulties in handling. D. are unable to hold a finish.

36. B. The answer is increase the construction cost. Over the years, protective treatments have been developed in order to increase timber's resistance to a number of hazards. For example, water soluble salts increase the fire resistance of wood so that it will cease to bum if the source of heat is removed. Creosote or coal tar solutions are recommended for tidewater structures as they will survive the water and attacks by marine borers. Similarly, pressure treated lumber is commonly used at the foundation level to resist attacks from a variety of harmful insects. In every case, treated timber remains as strong (choice A), as easy to handle (choice C), and will hold a finish as well as before treatment (choice D), although treated wood often remains unfinished. There is no question, however, that treated timber increases the cost of construction.

37. Select the correct statements regarding glued laminated (glulam) beams. Check all that apply. A. Cambered members are stronger than straight members of the same size. B. Deep members have a lower allowable unit stress than shallow members. C. When the depth of a beam exceeds its breadth, the allowable unit stress in bending may have to be reduced. D. Allowable design stresses increase proportionately with appearance grades.

37. A, B, and C. All of the statements are correct with the exception of D; appearance grades do not modify design stresses. Statements A, B, and C refer respectively to the curvature factor, volume or size factor, and the slenderness factor, which reduces the allowable bending stress unless lateral support is provided.

38. In conventional wood framed structures, the purpose of a purlin is· to A. provide continuous support over openings cut in a wall surface. B. produce a positive connection between two opposite sloping rafters in the same plane. C. form the angle of a hip roof and support the jack rafter ends. D. support the roof rafters and, consequently, a portion of the roof load.

38. D. Purlins are actually uniformly spaced beams or girders which are used to support roof rafters (correct answer D). They are used in wood framed roof construction in the same way girders are used in floor construction, to reduce the span of the regular members and help support the load. Purlins run at right angles to the rafters and may be used in either sloping or fiat roof construction. The other statements in this question describe specific elements that are also used in wood framed structures. For example, statement A describes a header, statement B defines a collar beam or tie, and statement C refers to a hip rafter.

39. The standard unit of measure for lumber is the board foot, which is defined as A. the volume of lumber in a 12-inch by 12-inch by 12-inch timber. B. one-twelfth of a cubic foot of lumber. C. a nominal one-inch thick board that is 12-inches wide. D. the weight of a 1-inch by 12-inch board that is 12-inches long.

39. B. A board foot of lumber measures quantity or volume, not weight (D), and it is used to measure, compute, and price lumber. It is defined as the amount of lumber contained in a piece of rough, green timber one inch thick, 12 inches wide, and one foot long. Correct answer B describes the same volume of lumber in a slightly different and possibly deceptive way. Incidentally, the board foot measure applies also to equivalent volumes of lumber that may be thicker, wider, narrower, or longer. For example, a twoby- four that is 18 inches long represents the same volume of wood as a one-bytwelve that is 12 inches long, which is exactly one board foot.

4. Which of the following buildings of the Chicago School is considered to be the first iron-and-steel-framed skyscraper? A. Monadnock Building B. Carson Pirie Scott Store C. Marquette Building D. Home Insurance Building

4. D. Chicago is often considered to be the birthplace of modem architecture. The great fire of 1871 provided the city with the opportunity to rebuild, and the extraordinary group of architects and engineers that came to be known as the Chicago School provided the talent. The 20 years that followed the great fire saw the development of that uniquely American structure, the skyscraper. Burnham and Root's 16-story Monadnock Building (1889) was the last of the pure masonry towers, with six-foot-thick walls at its base. Louis Sullivan's Carson Pirie Scott Store (1898-1903), with its metal frame, broad windows, and unique decoration, was the most modem building of the Chicago School. Holibird and Roche's 16-story Marquette Building (1893) first expressed the horizontal "Chicago window" within its frame construction. But it was Jenney's Home Insurance Building (1883) that is considered the first iron-and-steel-framed ~kyscraper. Although only ten stories high, 1t was the predecessor of all the tall metalframed buildings that followed.

40. The shrinkage of wood as it loses moisture must be considered in the design and detailing of wood members. In this regard, which of the following statements is correct? A. A wood stud shrinks most in its length. B. A log shrinks most radially. C. A joist shrinks most in its depth. D. A solid wood girder six inches wide shrinks less than a girder built up of three two-inch-wide members.

40. C. Wood shrinks most in the direction of the annual growth rings (tangentially), less across these rings (radially), and very little along the grain (longitudinally). Thus, A and B are both incorrect. Girders built of seasoned two-inch-wide lumber shrink less than solid girders (incorrect statement D), because lumber wider than two inches is not usually seasoned. C is the correct statement; the shrinkage of a wood joist in its depth is greater than in its length or width.

41. The principal factor that determines concrete strength is the A. quality of aggregates used. B. water-cement ratio. C. type of admixtures used. D. type of portland cement used.

41. B. While all of the factors listed may affect concrete strength to some degree, the principal factor that determines concrete strength is the water-cement ratio. Concrete strength increases as the water-cement ratio decreases; in other words, less water relative to cement results in increased concrete strength, and conversely, more water relative to cement decreases concrete strength.

42. Which of the following is the usual order for removal of concrete forms, from first removal to last removal? I. Slab bottom forms II. Beam bottom forms II. Beam side forms A. I, II, III B. I, ill, II C. III, I, II D. II, III, I

42. C. The answer is Ill, I, II. Concrete form work must remain in place until the concrete has attained sufficient strength to support its own weight plus any superimposed loads. The forms on vertical surfaces, such as beams sides (ill), usually do not support any vertical load and may be removed shortly after the concrete has set up, usually 12 to 24 hours after placing. Slab bottom forms are usually removed before the beam bottom forms because the dead load is usually a smaller percentage of the total load for slabs than for beams. Thus, a smaller percentage of the final concrete strength is required to support the self-weight of slabs than is required for beams. Also, form removal is less critical for slabs than for beams, because if there is any local defect in a slab, the load will be redistributed to adjacent slab areas. This is not true for beams.

43. <image> The section shown illustrates what type of framing? A. Heavy timber construction B. Mortise-and-tenon framing C. Balloon framing D. Platform framing

43. D. There are two ways to frame wood stud walls: platform framing and balloon framing. In platform framing, as shown in the sketch, the studs are one story in height, and the floor joists bear on the top plates of the wall below (correct answer D). In balloon framing, the studs are continuous for the full height of the building, usually two stories, and the second floor joists bear on a ribbon let into the studs (C is incorrect). Heavy timber construction is construction which is fire resistant through the use of large wood structural members. Platform framing is light framing construction, not heavy timber (A is incorrect). A mortise-and tenon joint, which is not generally used in wood frame constructien, is a method _of wood joinery in which a tenon (a projecting end of a timber) is inserted into a mortise (a cavity cut into a timber). Therefore, B is incorrect.

44. Which of the following statements about glued laminated beams is correct? A. A glued laminated beam tends to fail along the glue line, since the adhesive is weaker than the wood. B. The allowable stresses for a glued laminated beam are the same whether the beam is loaded parallel or perpendicular to the wide faces of the laminations. C. Because glued laminated beams are more dimensionally stable than sawn members, they tend to deflect less. D. Glued laminated beams often have better grade lumber in the outer laminations.

44. D. Statement A is incorrect because the adhesive is at least as strong as the wood, and a glued laminated beam will therefore tend to fail within a lamination rather than along the glue line. Statement B is also incorrect; the allowable stresses for a glued laminated beam loaded perpendicular to the wide faces of the laminations are greater than those for a beam loaded parallel to those faces. The modulus of elasticity (E) of a glued laminated beam is the same as that of a sawn member of the same species; therefore, for the same load, span, and cross section, their deflections will be the same (C is incorrect). Statement D is correct; better grade lumber is often used in the outer laminations, where the flexural stresses are higher.

45. Which of the following statements is incorrect? Check the two that apply. A. The greatest drying shrinkage in wood members occurs parallel to the grain. B. Expansion and contraction of wood members caused by temperature change is not an important design consideration. C. Glued laminated members generally shrink less than sawn timber members. D. Shrinkage of wood is usually greater in lighter pieces than in heavier pieces of the same species.

45. A and D. The greatest drying shrinkage in wood members occurs across the grain (not parallel to the grain). In most designs, the expansion and contraction of wood caused by temperature change is negligible. Glued laminated members generally shrink less than sawn timber members. Shrinkage of wood is generally greater in heavier pieces than in lighter pieces of the same species.

46. Which type of joint should be used to avoid random cracks in a concrete slab caused by shrinkage? A. Control B. Construction c. Expansion D. Isolation

46. A. The purpose of a control joint is to create a weakened section, so that cracking caused by shrinkage of the concrete will occur at the joint rather than in a random fashion. A construction joint (B) is the joint between concrete pours, because it is not practical to place and finish large areas of concrete in one operation. Expansionjoints (C), which are often made with a premolded filler, are used to separate adjacent sections of concrete to prevent cracking or other damage caused by temperature changes. An isolation joint (D) is used to separate different parts of a structure to permit differential movement, such as the joint between a column and a slab on grade.

47. Excessive water rising to the surface of a freshly cast concrete slab is commonly known as ______-

47. Efflorescence. Efflorescence is the whitish powder of crystallization that comes to the surface when water evaporates from brick.

48. Which of the following statements concerning concrete vibrators is correct? A. The purpose of vibrating concrete is to compact the concrete within the form work. B. Concrete vibrators may be internal. or external, but the external are preferred. C. Internal vibrators are used to move the concrete horizontally within the forms. D. Vibrators should be maintained at the same location for at least one minute.

48. A. High-frequency, power-driven vibrators are used to compact freshly placed concrete in order to compact the concrete (choice A). Compaction also assures that concrete fills every void in the framework and that good contact is made between the concrete and the reinforcing steel. Internal vibrators are submerged in the wet concrete, and these are preferable to external vibrators that are attached to the forms (choice B). While some horizontal movement of the concrete takes place (choice C), this is not the purpose of vibration. Finally, vibrators should be moved about constantly and not kept in any one location for more than 30 seconds (choice D).

49. Select the incorrect statement concerning concrete. A. The principal factors affecting the strength of concrete are the watercement ratio and the extent of hydration. B. A low water-cement ratio makes a concrete mix stronger and more resistant to freezing and thawing. C. The strength and water tightness of concrete are affected by the length of time it has been moisture cured. D. The steel in reinforced concrete is used principally to resist compressive stresses.

49. D. All of the statements are true with the exception of choice D. Although the reinforcing steel in concrete columns may resist compressive forces, steel is generally used in reinforced concrete to resist tensile stresses. Reinforcing steel also helps resist cracking that may occur because of curing shrinkage or thermal expansion and contraction.

5. <image> In Byzantine architecture, the transition from an upper circular dome to a lower square base was made by four approximately triangular sections, as shown below. What were they called? A. Column capitals B. Dosserets C. Quadripartite vaults D. Pendentives

5. D. Questions on architectural history may appear on any of the written divisions of the exam, including Building Design & Construction Systems. Therefore, we suggest that candidates spend some time studying architectural history. A column capital (A) was the enlargement of the upper end of a column in classical architecture. In early Christian architecture, a dosseret (B) was a block or slab set on top of a column capital to support an arch above. A vault with diagonal ribs dividing a bay into four parts was called a quadripartite vault (C). The correct answer is D, pendentives.

50. Select the incorrect statement. A. The principal reason for using entrained air in concrete is to improve its resistance to freezing and thawing. B. The strength of concrete increases as the water-cement ratio decreases. C. If formwork must be removed as quickly as possible, it is advisable to use Type III portland cement in the concrete mix. D. During cold weather, calcium chloride should be added to lower the freezing point of concrete.

51. B. Mud, oil, or any other nonmetallic coating that might adversely affect the bond between concrete and reinforcing must be removed (correct answer B). The rough handling which is normal on construction projects is generally sufficient to remove any loose rust, while tight rust and mill scale actually improve bond and are therefore considered satisfactory.

52. Which of the following statements about concrete admixtures are FALSE? I. Admixtures may be added to the batch before, during, or after mixing. II. Retarders are used in hot-weather concrete work. III. Air-entraining agents are mainly used to produce lightweight concrete. IV. Accelerators include the most widely used agent, calcium chloride. V. Permeability reducing agents reduce the capillarity of the concrete's voids. A. I only B. I and III C. I, III, and IV D. II, III, and V

52. A and C. All of the statements are true except for the first and third. Admixtures may be added to the batch before or during mixing of the concrete ingredients, but never after mixing is completed. At that point there would be no way to blend the admixture with the other ingredients. Air entraining agents may reduce the weight of concrete, but their principal purpose is to increase the concrete's resistance to freezing. They also increase plasticity, reduce bleeding, and decrease segregation. Incidentally, to produce lightweight concrete, lightweight aggregates are used in place of normal aggregates.

53. During your observation of the reinforcing steel placement on a construction project, you see a reinforcing bar with the following markings on its surface: H 7 N 60. What does this tell you about the bar? A. It is a 7/8-inch diameter bar made of new billet steel and conforming to grade 60. B. It is a 7/8-inch diameter bar made of new billet steel and conforming to grade H. C. It is a 7/8-inch diameter heavy-duty bar conforming to grade 60. D. It is a 3/4-inch diameter bar made of new billet steel and conforming to grade 70.

53. A. You are expected to know how to identify various construction materials, and this kind of question has appeared on past exams. During the rolling process, identification markings are embossed on the surface of reinforcing bars. In this example, "H" identifies the producing mill, "7" denotes the bar size(7/8 inch), "N" refers to the type of steel (new billet), and "60" refers to the grade of steel (grade 60 has a minimum specified yield stress of 60,000 psi). The correct answer is therefore A.

54. Which of the following reinforced concrete framing systems generally has the lowest cost of formwork? A. Flat plate B. Flat slab with drop panels C. One-way beam and slab D. two-way waffle slab

54. A. Formwork represents the largest single cost in reinforced concrete construction, generally over 50 percent. Therefore, one of the goals of reinforced concrete design is to minimize the cost of formwork by using simple systems and repetitive bays. Of the four systems in this question, the fiat plate requires the simplest formwork, since it consists of a two-way fiat slab without beams or drop panels.

55. Tilt-up wall panels have which of the following characteristics? I. They cannot support any load except their own weight. II. A slab on grade is generally used as the casting platform. III. Because of their great weight, they must bear on a continuous foundation. A. I and II B. I and ill C. II only D. I, II, and ill

55. C. Tilt-up wall panels are cast in a horizontal position, generally using a slab on grade as the casting platform, and then tilted up to a final vertical position (II is correct). They may be load-bearing or non-load-bearing (I is incorrect), and they may bear on a continuous foundation or span between pad footings (III is incorrect).

56. What is the principal reason that Type ID portland cement is used? A. It is less expensive than other types of cement. B. Concrete made from Type ID cement develops greater compressive strength. C. The concrete formwork can be removed earlier. D. It is the most readily available type of cement.

56. C. There are five types of portland cement. type III provides high early strength, usually in a few days, which allows the formwork to be removed earlier (C is correct). type III cement is more costly than normal cements (A is incorrect). A given compressive strength can be obtained with any type of cement (B is incorrect), and all types of cement are readily available (Dis incorrect).

57. An incombustible building material is one that A. will not bum. B. will smolder but not support flames. C. has at least a one-hour fire rating. D. is flammable.

57. A. Incombustible simply means incapable of igniting or supporting combustion when exposed to fire, usually at an air temperature of 1,200 degrees Fahrenheit. In other words, an incombustible building material will not bum. Choice D, incidentally, uses the term inflammable, which means easily ignited and capable of burning rapidly. The words flammable and inflammable mean the same thing and are interchangeable.

58. A two-story library with stacks on both floors has 40-foot by 40-foot bays. Which of the following reinforced concrete floor framing systems would probably be the MOST economical? A. Waffle slab B. Flat slab C. Flat plate D. One-way slab and beam

58. A. The waffle slab system (correct answer A) is appropriate for heavy loads and square bays, as in this question, and for spans up to about 40 feet. The flat slab system (B) is economical for heavy loads, but not for spans much over 25 or 30 feet. The flat plate system (C) has inexpensive formwork. but is not generally economical for heavy loads or spans over 20 to 25 feet. The one-way slab and beam system (D) might be economical. but the square bays and heavy loads in this question favor a two-way framing system, such as the waffle slab.

59. Which of the following are likely to result in economical concrete construction? I. Vary column and beam sizes to minimize the amount of concrete II. Use a greater number of smaller bars in preference to a smaller number of larger bars III. Use tied columns in preference to spiral columns IV. Use straight bars in preference to bent bars A. I and II B. ill and IV C. II and IV D. I and IV

59. B. Since formwork is the most costly element in reinforced concrete construction, it is economical to simplify the formwork by making all the columns the same size and all the beams the same size. if possible, and varying the amount of reinforcement (I is incorrect). It is also economical to use the largest bar size that will meet design requirements in order to reduce placing costs (II is incorrect). III and IV are correct (answer B); ties are less costly than spirals, and straight bars require less fabrication than bent bars and are therefore less expensive.

6. In the latter half of the 19th century, buildings with longer spans and greater heights were made possible by the development of steel construction. Which of the following buildings did NOT utilize a metal frame? A. Crystal Palace B. Home Insurance Co. Building C. Reliance Building D. Marshall Field Wholesale Store

6. D. Candidates are expected to be familiar with some of the landmark structures that led to today's architecture. Joseph Paxton's Crystal Palace (1851) was an immense prefabricated glass and cast iron structure. The Home Insurance Co. Building, designed by William LeBaron Jenney and built in 1883-1885, is generally considered to be the first building completely framed in steel. Burnham and Root's Reliance Building (1890-1895) completely expressed the aesthetics of its steel skeleton. Of the four structures in this question, only the Marshall Field Wholesale Store (1885-1887), designed by H. H. Richardson, did not utilize metal framing. Its floors were supported by timber framing, and its exterior walls were largely of stone construction.

7. Volatile organic chemicals (VOCs) affect indoor air quality and may originate from which of the following? A. Paints and lacquers B. Glues and adhesives C. Building materials and furnishings D. All of the above

6. D. Candidates are expected to be familiar with some of the landmark structures that led to today's architecture. Joseph Paxton's Crystal Palace (1851) was an immense prefabricated glass and cast iron structure. The Home Insurance Co. Building, designed by William LeBaron Jenney and built in 1883-1885, is generally considered to be the first building completely framed in steel. Burnham and Root's Reliance Building (1890-1895) completely expressed the aesthetics of its steel skeleton. Of the four structures in this question, only the Marshall Field Wholesale Store (1885-1887), designed by H. H. Richardson, did not utilize metal framing. Its floors were supported by timber framing, and its exterior walls were largely of stone construction.

60. Which of the following factors should be considered in selecting a roof covering? Check all that apply. A. Roof slope B. Weight of roofing C. Fire resistance of roofing D. Water resistance of roofing E. Local climate conditions

60. A, B, C, and E. Because roofing is defined as the material used to cover and protect a building from natural elements, all roof coverings are inherently waterproof. Therefore, one should not have to question a material's water resistance (D). The other factors all have a bearing on the choice of roofing. Slope and weight (A and B) will limit the use of certain materials, for example concrete tile, which requires a roof pitch of at least 4: 12 and is considerably heavier than most other coverings. Fire resistance (C) determines the Underwriters Laboratory (UL) classification, and climate (E) determines anticipated precipitation. as well as local conditions of wind, temperature, and atmospheric corrosion.

61. In specifying the best quality clear glass with the least amount of surface distortion, you should call for A. drawn sheet glass. B. rolled glass. C. pressed glass. D. float glass.

61. D. All glass begins as a liquid material, which is composed mainly of sand, soda, and lime. It is then blown. cast, pressed, rolled, extruded, or drawn, generally at high temperatures, and allowed to cool to achieve certain desired properties. For example, to produce flat, parallel surfaces with a minimum of distortion, molten glass is floated onto a metallic surface and then allowed to cool (choice D). Flatdrawn sheet glass (choice A) is commonly used for windows. Rolled glass (choice B) is used in the production of textured glasses, and pressed glass (choice C) is a method of molding glass, as in the manufacture of hollow glass blocks.

62. <image> In the window assembly shown below, which element is a stile? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

62. D. The answer is 4. In the window assembly shown, 1 is a muntin, a secondary element used to hold panes within the window; 2 is the head, the upper horizontal member extending between jambs that forms the top of the window frame; 3 is the bottom rail of the window; and 4 is a stile, a vertical frame member of the window.

63. <image> Shown below is a section through a terrazzo floor installation. The purpose of the neoprene filler is to A. allow for expansion or contraction of the structure. B. provide a waterproof joint at a stress point in the floor. C. introduce a durable accent strip of contrasting color and texture. D. serve as a prefabricated cold joint between terrazzo pours.

63. A. The answer is allow for expansion or contraction of the structure. Illustrated in this question is an expansion-type dividing strip whose flexible neoprene core absorbs minor movement in the floor, thus protecting the terrazzo finish from cracking. This type of strip is manufactured from brass, zinc, or plastic. It is placed in the floor every 30 to 50 li(leal feet, depending on thickness of the neoprene and the anticipated structural movement.

64. <image> Which of the following statements about glass blocks are correct? Check the two that apply. A. Glass blocks may be set in a running bond or stacked bond pattern. B. Expansion joints should be provided at the sides and top of every glass block panel. C. Glass blocks may never be used to support structural loads. D. The coefficient of thermal expansion of glass is less than that of masonry.

64. B and C. Glass blocks are either solid or hollow units with the same general chemical composition as window glass. They are used where light transmission, glare, or solar heat must be controlled, or where a specific decorative effect is desired. Glass blocks are always set in a stacked bond pattern, and they may never be used to support structural loads. Because of the high coefficient of thermal expansion of glass, a glass block panel will expand substantially more than a masonry wall, and should therefore have expansion joints at the sides and top.

65. The truss shown below is a(n) _____ truss.

65. Scissors. The answer is scissors truss.

66. Aluminum window sections are frequently coated with acrylic lacquers or strippable plastic coatings prior to installation in a rough-framed structure. The primary purpose of these temporary coatings is to A. lessen the damage from galvanic action. B. minimize corrosion from alkalis. C. reduce deterioration caused by weathering. D. keep the sections clean until completion of construction.

66. B. The answer is minimize corrosion from alkalis. Aluminum is highly resistant to normal weathering (choice C), because a tough film of aluminum oxide forms rapidly on its exposed surfaces. It can be damaged, however, by both galvanic action (choice A) and alkalis (choice B). In the case of galvanic action, aluminum is generally protected from the harmful contact of dissimilar metals by nonmetallic gaskets or bituminous paints. The temporary coatings applied to aluminum, however, are intended primarily to protect the metal from contact with alkalis found in wet concrete, mortar, and plaster. These temporary coatings also keep the sections clean (choice D), but that is not their primary purpose.

67. A common type of failure in composition built-up roof systems is the formation of blisters. These are generally caused by I. air trapped between the roofing felts. II. air trapped between a roofing felt and the roof deck. III. moisture trapped in the roof deck. IV. moisture trapped in the roof insulation. A. I only

67. D. The answer is I, II, III, and Iv. Blisters, which are bulging pockets of air, may be caused by all of the factors listed (choice D). Most moisture comes from exposure during construction or from poured concrete decks that are not adequately dry before the roofing is applied. Blisters may also be caused by the roofer's failure to cement felts securely to each other, to the insulation, and to the deck. The hazard of blisters is that if one breaks and moisture penetrates the roof structure, the entire waterproof integrity of the building is in jeopardy.

68. The "Chicago window" might be best described as an opening having A. a fixed center and movable sides. B. a large, unbroken expanse of glass. C. a vertical proportion and round arch top. D. a horizontal proportion and many small panes.

68. A. The desire to provide an abundance of natural light for commercial office buildings gave architects the incentive to reduce the structure as much as possible and fill the voids of the slender structural cage with glass. The resulting "Chicago window" became a large horizontal expanse, with fixed center and movable sides (correct answer A), which stretched the entire length of a structural bay. This detail became one of the distinguishing characteristics of the Chicago School projects during the 1880s and 1890s.

69. <image> If the label shown was attached to a door, which of the following would be indicated? A. The door requires an automatic closing device. B. The fire assembly is self-closing. C. No glazed openings are permitted in the door. D. 100 square inches of glazed openings are permitted in the door. E. 1296 square inches of glazed openings are permitted in the door.

68. A. The desire to provide an abundance of natural light for commercial office buildings gave architects the incentive to reduce the structure as much as possible and fill the voids of the slender structural cage with glass. The resulting "Chicago window" became a large horizontal expanse, with fixed center and movable sides (correct answer A), which stretched the entire length of a structural bay. This detail became one of the distinguishing characteristics of the Chicago School projects during the 1880s and 1890s.

70. Select the incorrect statement. A. Metal clad doors consist of a solid wood core covered with sheet metal, and can resist fire as long as the sheet metal cover prevents oxygen from reaching the core. B. Flush doors always have a core of solid softwood made of individual core blocks glued together. C. Although revolving doors are frequently used at entrances to major buildings, they cannot be used as legal exits. D. The glass in a pivoted glass door cannot be cut or drilled after fabrication.

70. B. Metal clad doors, are correctly described in statement A. In recent years, metal clad doors have largely been replaced by fire-rated solid-core doors. Flush doors (B) may be made either with a solid core, as described, or with a hollow core-that is, a core made of small pieces of wood arranged in a grid pattern. Statement B is therefore incorrect. Statement C is correct; because they can carry a continuous two-way flow of pedestrian traffic without much interchange of air between inside and outside, revolving doors are often used at entrances to large buildings. However, the IBC does not permit revolving, sliding, or overhead doors to be used as legal exits. Glass doors (D) are generally pivoted at the top and bottom, and are made of tempered glass, which cannot be cut, drilled, or altered in any way. Statement Dis therefore correct. The only incorrect statement, and therefore the answer to this question, is B.

71. Dampproofing differs from waterproofing in that A. dampproofing is applied in liquid form. B. dampproofing cannot resist constant hydrostatic pressure. C. dampproofing is only applied above grade. D. dampproofing is applied to areas that are in direct contact with the earth.

71. B. Correct answer B. Both dampproofing and waterproofing may be applied in liquid form (A is incorrect) and both are be applied below grade where the building is in contact with the earth (D is incorrect). Further, dampproofing is typically installed below grade (C is incorrect). The only correct answer is B, dampproofing cannot resist constant hydrostatic pressure.

72. Recent advancements in synthetic materials have made precast stone veneer a popular choice for exterior cladding. Which of the following is NOT true regarding precast stone veneer? A. It is lighter than natural stone. B. It does not require steel lintels over openings. C. It is made from concrete. D. A wide variety of exotic styles, textures, and colors are available.

72. A. Correct answer A. Precast stone veneer is a synthetic stone product that closely resembles real stone and is made from concrete (C is incorrect). Advancements in manufacturing technology have resulted in a wide variety of styles, textures, and colors being made available (Dis incorrect). While precast stone veneer is not lighter than real stone (A is correct), it is not load-bearing and is typically applied directly to the exterior wall surface making steel lintels unnecessary (Bis incorrect).

73. Which of the following statements regarding fire-retardant paints are correct? Check the two that apply. A. They have a latex base. B. They have a rubber base. C. They are oleoresinous. D. They are intumescent. E. They are nonvolatile.

73. B and D. Fire-retardant paints, often called intumescent paints, are coatings that expand under heat and prevent the flames and heat from spreading to combustible materials. This chemical action, which virtually smothers fire, is caused by the paint's rubber base in combination with other ingredients. Concerning the incorrect statements: Latex-based paint is the most popular kind of interior wall paint. Oleoresinous refers to oil paints which have largely been superseded by alkyd enamels. Nonvolatile is a term applied to ingredients that bind the solid paint particles and provide adhesion to the surface on which they are applied.

74. Plaster over metal lath is applied in three coats. In the order applied, what are they called? A. Scratch, brown, and finish coat B. Brown, scratch, and finish coat C. Putty, brown, and finish coat D. Brown, scratch, and putty coat

74. A. Plaster is a cementitious material applied in layers, by hand or machine, on both interior and exterior wall surfaces. It is composed of portland cement (for exterior plaster) or gypsum and lime (for interior plaster), aggregate, and enough water to form a workable paste. When over metal lath, it is applied in three coats. The first coat is scratched with a tool while still wet to create a rough surface, and is therefore called the scratch coat. The second layer is called the brown coat, followed by the third layer, the finish coat (A is correct). The putty coat is a finish coat.

75. In the design of metal gutters used to drain a sloping roof, one must be concerned with I. annual precipitation. II. roof pitch. III. roof area. IV. cross sectional gutter area. A. I and II B. II, III, and IV C. I, III, and IV D. I, II, III, and IV

75. B. Candidates may consider this to be a deceptive question, because all the factors listed are important, with the exception of I. The amount of rain that falls during a year has no real influence on the design of gutters. It is the intensity and frequency of precipitation that determines the capacity of gutters; in other words, how much rain will fall in a short period of time, and how often will this occur? Roof area and pitch will determine the amount of roof water runoff, and the gutter area will be a function of this runoff quantity. The right combination of factors is found in correct answer B.

76. A small building has been designed with roof planes that slope at a pitch of 4: 12. It was originally intended that wood shingles would be used as a roof covering; however, in an effort to reduce construction costs, the client now insists on using asphalt shingles. It should be explained to the client that this seemingly simple modification will necessitate a change in the A. roof slope. B. roof sheathing. C. type of roofing attachment used. D. type of roof flashing used.

76. B. Wood shingles and asphalt shingles are actually quite similar in several respects. Essentially they are both applied in an overlapping fashion on any roof surface that has sufficient slope to insure proper drainage. Specifically, a slope of 4:12 is considered a safe minimum slope for both shingle types (A). Both types of shingles also require similar attachments and flashing (C and D), such as hot-dipped galvanized steel or aluminum roofing nails and galvanized, aluminum, or copper flashing. The necessary change, therefore, would be in the roof sheathing (correct answer B). The use of wood shingles requires spaced sheathing strips, to permit air circulation behind the units, whereas asphalt shingles must be applied over solidly sheathed roofs.

77. Flat built-up roofs frequently have a finish surface composed of gravel embedded in asphalt. How much gravel is normally used on a typical square foot of such a flat roof? A. 4 pounds B. 12 pounds c. 100 pounds D. 350 pounds

77. A. Built-up roofs, such as that described in this question, are normally composed of a waterproof base sheet, several plies of roofing felt mopped between layers with asphalt, and a final flood coat of asphalt into which gravel or slag is embedded. This type of roof weighs about 600 pounds per square, a square being a roofing material measure equal to 100 square feet of roof surface. The weight of the gravel accounts for over half that total, or about 400 pounds per square, which is four pounds per square foot (correct answer A).

78. <image> Shown below is a common method used to waterproof a concrete wall-below grade. The surface indicated at point #1 is intended to___ A. function as a temporary concrete form. B. retain the soil prior to membrane application. C. provide a waterproof membrane. D. protect the waterproof membrane.

78. D. Concrete walls below grade are commonly waterproofed to resist ground water infiltration, usually under hydrostatic pressure. This is accomplished by means of a continuous membrane around the outside wall surfaces. The membrane consists of several plies of bituminous saturated felt, or cotton fabric, or a combination of these materials. It is sealed and held in place with asphalt or tar, which is hot-mopped, similar to the application of a built-up roof surface. Of particular concern is the danger of rupturing the membrane during the backfilling process. For this reason, an additional protective layer is applied over the membrane prior to backfilling (correct answer D). This layer consists of portland cement mortar, fiberboard, or sometimes a single wythe of masonry.

79. Select the correct statement from among those that follow. A. Water-resistant, water-repellent, and waterproof are terms that may be used interchangeably to denote something that is impervious to water. B. Effective dampproofing generally involves continuous bituminous membranes. C. Concrete slabs in direct contact with moist ground will not absorb moisture unless the ground water is under pressure. D. Water-repellent admixtures for concrete decrease water absorption by reducing the capillary attraction of the voids in concrete.

79. D. Although all the statements pertain to moisture control, this is actually four questions in one, and candidates must verify at least three of the statements to find the correct answer. Except for statement D, which is the correct answer, each of the statements is in some way incorrect. The three terms about water permeability (A) have different meanings from one another. Beginning with waterresistant, each subsequent term indicates a higher level of water resistance. Concerning dampproofing (B), most often it involves the application of liquid coatings, not the use of membranes, which are used in waterproofing. Statement C is also false; an ordinary concrete slab in contact with moist earth, whether or not under pressure, will absorb moisture through capillary action. That is the reason that water-repellent admixtures, mentioned in statement D, are commonly used. Stearates or asphalt emulsions considerably reduce capillary action, if no hydrostatic pressure is involved. Incidentally, these admixtures also reduce the strength of the concrete and provide limited protection, not complete waterproofing.

8. Which of the following were large iron or steel structures built during the latter half of the 19th century? I. Eiffel Tower II. Woolworth Building III. Brooklyn Bridge IV. Crystal Palace V. C.N.I. T. Dome A. I, II, III, and IV B. I, III, and IV C. II, IV, and V D. I, III, and V

8. B. The latter half of the 19th century produced a number of unprecedented iron and steel structures. Among these were the Crystal Palace (1851), which had the greatest area, the Eiffel Tower (1889), which was the tallest, and the Brooklyn Bridge (1883), which had the longest span. The Woolworth Building came much later (1913), while the C.N.I.T. Dorne is an immense concrete dome built in 1968 in Paris. Answer B is therefore the correct answer.

80. Which of the following glass types are manufactured in the United States for common architectural applications? Check all that apply. A. Float glass B. Annealed C. Tempered D. Laminated

80. A and B. Most glass produced in the United States for architectural applications is float glass (A). Tempered glass is heat-treated for increased resistance to impact stresses. It is much stronger and much more expensive than annealed glass. Laminated glass consists of a plastic sheet sandwiched between and bonded to two layers of glass. When laminated glass breaks, the plastic sheet holds the broken glass in place, thus reducing the risk of injury. Tempered glass and laminated glass (C and D) are used for special applications, where great strength or resistance to shattering is required.

81. Select the incorrect statement about terrazzo flooring. A. Terrazzo is generally cast in place. B. Terrazzo is dense, permanent, and durable. C. Terrazzo may not be installed over a wood subfloor because of the inherent movement of wood construction. D. Divider strips are used in terrazzo flooring to control cracking.

81. C. Terrazzo is a concrete topping, consisting of marble chips in a cement or synthetic resin binder, which is cast in place, cured, and then ground and polished to a smooth finish (A is correct). It is dense, permanent, and durable (B is correct). Because terrazzo flooring tends to crack, it is divided into panels by divider strips, which control cracking (D is correct). Statement C is an incorrect statement and therefore the answer to this question; terrazzo may be installed over wood construction, but is isolated from the wood by a membrane and sometimes a layer of sand.

82. Select the correct statements about wood shingle roofing. I. Wood shingles are generally made from Douglas fir. II. Wood shingles may be applied over solid or spaced sheathing. III. Wood shingles are installed on roofs with a slope of 4: 12 or greater. IV. Wood shingles are nailed at about two inches on center to avoid coming loose. A. I and III B. II, III, and IV C. II and III D. II and IV

82. C. Wood shingles are made from decayresistant species of wood, such as red cedar, cypress, or redwood (I is incorrect). Wood shingles may be applied over solid or spaced sheathing (II is correct), although spaced sheathing or stripping is preferable because it allow air circulation under the shingles. Wood shingles are used on steep roofs, those with a slope of 4:12 or greater (Ill is correct), and each shingle is nailed with two nails to avoid splitting (IV is incorrect).

83. Highrise building construction has become economical because of the development of I. high-speed elevators. II. improvements in the steel rolling process. III. simple and reliable connections using welds and high-strength bolts. A. I and II B. II and ill C. I and ill D. I, II, and ill

83. D. All three choices have contributed to the economy of highrise construction. In the late 1920s, technological advances in the steel rolling process permitted the forming of large structural shapes, rather than riveted built-up shapes which had been used until then (II). At about the same time, high-speed elevators were developed, making highrise buildings feasible (I). Starting in the 1950s, better structural steels and improved connection methods were developed, which further enhanced the economy and practicality of highrise construction. These methods included welding and high-strength bolting (ill).

84. Which of the following statements about prestressed concrete construction is NOT true? A. Precast, prestressed members are usually posttensioned. B. Prestressed members utilize their cross section more efficiently than conventional reinforced concrete members. C. Pretensioned members require no end anchorages. D. Creep and shrinkage cause losses of prestress which must be considered.

84. A. Prestressed concrete is concrete that is permanently loaded so as to cause stresses opposite in direction from those caused by dead and live loads. In that way, the entire cross section becomes effective in resisting stress (B is correct). Two basic prestressing methods are used: pretensioning and posttensioning. In pretensioning, high strength steel is stressed before the concrete is cast; while in posttensioned concrete, the steel is tensioned after casting the concrete. The only incorrect statement, and thus the answer to this question, is A. Pretensioned members transfer the prestress force from the steel to the concrete by bond and therefore require no end anchorages (correct statement C). Statement D is also a correct statement; shrinkage of the concrete and creep of the concrete and steel reduce the prestressing force and must be considered in the design.

85. Select the incorrect statement about tilt up walls. A. They may not be used as shear walls or bearing walls. B. They are easily formed and quickly erected. C. They are most appropriate for simple rectangular buildings having a uniform column spacing. D. They have good fire resistance.

85. A. Tilt up walls are reinforced concrete walls that are precast at the job site, usually in a flat position. When they have attained sufficient strength, they are tilted up to a vertical position and set into place. Statements B, C, and D are all correct. Statement A is the incorrect statement we are looking for: tilt up walls have great strength and may be used as shear walls or bearing walls.

86. As architect for a project, you discover that trapped moisture has caused bubbles to form at a few locations between plies of roofing felts. You should therefore A. require the contractor to puncture the bubbles and resurface those specific areas. B. require that a two-foot-square area of roofing be replaced at each location having bubbles. C. require that the top roofing ply be removed and replaced over the entire roof area. D. ignore the situation, since moisture will probably evaporate after several days.

86. A. The answer is require the contractor to puncture the bubbles and resurface those specific areas. Bubbles that form in a new roof should never be ignored, because their presence indicates trapped moisture that will eventually damage the roof's waterproof integrity. Since the trapped moisture is unable to evaporate (choice D), some corrective treatment is required. The common solution to this problem is described in choice A; puncture the bubbles, which allows the moisture to evaporate, and resurface those specific areas. Every roofing ply need not be removed (choice B), just those above which the moisture is trapped. Similarly, it is unnecessary and undesirable to replace the entire top roofing ply (choice C).

87. Typical spans for office buildings range from 20 to 30 feet. If these spans are doubled, to 40 to 60 feet, the total construction cost will increase by roughly what percentage? A. 100 percent B. 25 percent c. 6 percent D. 2 percent

87. C. Construction costs vary widely, depending on a number of factors. In general, however, structural costs amount to about 25 percent of the total cost of construction. Doubling the typical spans will probably increase the structural costs about 20 to 30 percent. Thus, the total construction cost will increase by about 5 to 7.5 percent (20% of25% = 5%, 30% of 25% = 7.5%). Answer C is therefore the most correct answer.

88. A, C, D, and F. A Slump Test measures the consistency and workability of concrete mix using a standard slump cone and measures the number of inches a cone of concrete slumps after being removed from the cone. A Kelly Ball Test uses a 30-pound six inch diameter hemisphere and measures its penetration when dropped onto fresh concrete. An Impact Hammer Test is a non-destructive test in which the rebound of a springloaded plunger is measured after it strikes a smooth concrete surface. A Cylinder Test measures the compressive strength of a concrete sample after casting and curing for 28 days before testing in a crushing machine. These are the only actual concrete tests listed.

88. A, C, D, and F. A Slump Test measures the consistency and workability of concrete mix using a standard slump cone and measures the number of inches a cone of concrete slumps after being removed from the cone. A Kelly Ball Test uses a 30-pound six inch diameter hemisphere and measures its penetration when dropped onto fresh concrete. An Impact Hammer Test is a non-destructive test in which the rebound of a springloaded plunger is measured after it strikes a smooth concrete surface. A Cylinder Test measures the compressive strength of a concrete sample after casting and curing for 28 days before testing in a crushing machine. These are the only actual concrete tests listed.

89. Concrete used in prestressed concrete construction must have a greater strength than required for conventional reinforced concrete. Prestressed concrete is generally required to have a compressive strength of how many psi or greater?

89. 5,000 psi or greater. Prestressed concrete is generally required to have a compressive strength of 5,000 psi or greater.

9. Life-cycle costing is an economic evaluation of architectural elements that includes which of the following factors? I. First cost II. Maintenance costs III. Repair costs IV. Replacement cost A. I B. II, III, and IV C. II and IV D. All of the above

9. D. All of the above. While first cost is not the primary concern of life-cycle costing, it is one of the economic factors considered (I is correct). The cost of maintenance is part of the evaluation (II is correct). The durability of a product or system is considered as the cost of repair is part of the analysis (III is correct). The comparison of a product or system's life is one of the factors evaluated in life cycle costing (IV is correct).

90. What is the width of each joint in an Economy-8 modular brick wall attached to a building when the wall is 14'-0" long and the number of bricks is 21?

90. 1/2 inch. Modular bricks have dimensions such that one or more bricks plus the mortar joints produce courses with an exact dimension, which is usually a multiple of 4 inches. An Economy-8 modular brick 3.5 x 7.5 x 3.5 inches in size laid with ½" joints will produce regular courses exactly 4 inches in height and 8 inches in length. A 14'-0" long wall with 21 bricks will have ½" joints.

91. Which of the following are names of Glulam Timber Shapes? Check the four that apply. A. Single Tapered-Straight B. Sawtooth C. Double Tapered-Curve D. Curved E. Scissors F. Pitched

91. A, C, D, and F. Single Tapered-Straight, Double Tapered-Curve, Curved, and Pitched are all Glulam Timber Shapes. Sawtooth and Scissors are Wood Trussed Rafter Types.

92. Which of the following are types of wood joints used in Finished Woodwork construction? Check the four that apply. A. Cove B. Quirk miter C. Shoulder D. Bead E. Batten F. Rabbet

92. B, C, E, and F. Quirk miter, shoulder, batten, and rabbet are names of wood joints. Cove and bead are names of wood trim shapes.

93. Which of the following are types of Lightweight Metal Studs? Check the three that apply. A. "I'' stud B. "C" stud C. "J" stud D. Ribbed stud E. Channel stud F. Nailable stud

93. B, E, and F. The three correct names of Lightweight Metal Studs are "C" studs, channel studs, and nailable studs.

94. Which of the following features apply to metal decking? Check the three that apply. A. It can support normal live and dead loads. B. It may be nailed to underlying support members. C. Its normal finish affords permanent weather protection. D. It can serve as permanent formwork for a concrete slab. E. It is generally corrugated or ribbed.

94. A, D, and E. Metal decking can support live and dead loads, can serve as permanent formwork, and is usually corrugated or ribbed. Decking is usually welded (not nailed) to the supporting members. Whether plain or galvanized, metal decking must have a covering of concrete for permanent weather protection.

95. Which of the following statements accurately describe dampproofing and waterproofing? Check the four that apply. A. Most dampproofing treatments are applied in liquid form. B. Dampproofing may involve preventive measures, such as providing granular fill under a concrete slab on grade. C. Manufactured from non-corrosive metal or various plastics, vapor seals permit movement without rupture. D. Subgrade waterproofing consists of the materials and methods that prevent water under hydrostatic pressure from penetrating those parts of a building in direct contact with the earth. E. Draining surface water away from a building is not considered dampproofing. F. Membrane waterproofing is the most common method of waterproofing subsurface walls.

95. A, B, D, and F. Draining surface water away from a building is considered one of the preventive measures of dampproofing. Waterstops (not vapor seals) are manufactured from non-corrosive metal or various plastics and permit movement without rupture. The remaining statements are correct.

96. Roof pitches of 3:12 and greater have little problem in shedding water quickly. If a gable roof is designed to span a 36 foot room, with no eaves and the peak in the center, then what would the overall rise of the roof need to be to achieve a 3: 12 pitch?

96. 4'-6". A gable roof spanning a 36 foot room would reach its maximum height at the center (or 18 feet from the edge). At a 3:12 pitch, that height would be 54". 3/12 = x/18 3 x 18 = 12x 54/12 = x = 4.5 feet high

97. How many squares of roofing material are required for a roof area of 1,700 sq. ft.?

97. 17 squares. A square is the unit of measure used to express roof surface area and is equal to 100 square feet. 1,700 sq. ft. I 100 = 17 squares

98. Which of the following are TRUE statements describing thermal control? Check the three that apply. A. Conduction occurs when materials or objects are in direct contact. B. Radiation takes placed between two objects not in contact and not shielded from each other. C. Thermal insulation consists of materials that have low thermal resistance (R) or a high degree of reflectivity. D. Enclosed air has excellent insulating properties. E. Roof insulation can be placed in only two locations: above the roofing membrane and below the roof deck.

98. A, B, and D. Thermal insulation consists of materials that have high (not low) thermal resistance. Roof insulation can be placed above the roofing membrane, below the roof deck and between the membrane and the deck. The remaining three statements are correct.

99. Normally, expansion joints in masonry walls are provided every ____ feet.

99. 125 feet. Normally, expansion joints in masonry walls are provided every 125 feet or so, and in steel or concrete structures, as well as roofs, joints occur at about 200 foot intervals, depending upon the temperature ranges expected.