BIO 002 Midterms and Final
What is the most prominent form of DNA damage caused by sun beds? A. Pyrimidine dimers B. Single strand breaks C. Double strand breaks D. Deamination E. None of the above
Double strand breaks
Sort the following states of DNA according to size (width) from smallest to largest.
Double-stranded DNA Decondensed chromatin Open chromatin Sister chromatid Mitotic chromosome
Eukaryotic chromosomes each contain multiple ______________, a single _________________, and two ______________.
Origins of replication; centromeres; telomeres
Eukaryotic chromosomes each contain multiple __________________, a single _______________________, and two ____________________________.
Origins of replication; centromeres; telomeres
____________________ is a single-stranded RNA molecule that is complementary to one of the DNA strands of a gene. It is essential during translation as it is sent out of the nucleus and moves to the cytoplasm.
mRNA
RNA polymerase 1 is in charge of transcribing ________________, while RNA polymerase 2 transcribes _________________, and RNA polymerase 3 transcribes ___________________.
rRNA genes, mRNA genes, tRNA genes
Consists of a large and small subunit
rRNAs
This figure shows the energy levels of molecules in a reaction pathway. What value do you expect to change when an enzyme that catalyzes this reaction is added?
A will decrease.
How many different sequences are possible with a RNA strand 3 bases long, given the first base is guanine.
16
What is the anticodon corresponding to the codon 5'-GUA-3'?
5'-UAC-3'
During hydrolysis A. A water molecule is consumed. B. A bond is broken. C. A water molecule is expelled as the bond is formed. D. A bond is formed. E. None of the above
A and B
DNA rich in __________________ base pairs is easy to pull apart.
A-T
Which association between complementary bases would require the most energy to break?
C-G
List in order the components of a phosphatidylcholine phospholipid. (The polar head is on top, and the nonpolar tail is on the bottom.)
Choline Phosphate Glycerol Hydrocarbons
mRNAs are designed for what cellular function? A. Regulate gene expression B. Form the core of the ribosome and catalyze protein synthesis C. Serve as adaptors between mRNA and amino acids during protein synthesis D. Code for proteins E. None of the above
Code for proteins
Since RNA is made of four different nucleotides, this means there are 64 possible combinations of nucleotide triplets or codons. However, only 20 amino acids are commonly found in proteins because A. There are some amino acids that remain to be discovered. B. Some codons are never used. C. An amino acid can be specified by more than one codon. D. None of the above
An amino acid can be specified by more than one codon.
Fatty acids
Fats
The Shine-Delgano sequence present in bacterial mRNA is essential for the initiation of translation because A. It is complementary to an RNA sequence in the large ribosomal subunit. B. It attracts the large ribosomal subunit. C. It is complementary to an RNA sequence in the small ribosomal subunit. D. It attracts the first amino acid tRNA. E. None of the above
It is complementary to an RNA sequence in the small ribosomal subunit.
What type of cells are represented in the following image?
Kidney cells
Catalyzes the addition of a phosphate group to molecules
Kinase
Cholesterol is found in what foods? A. Meat, eggs, cheese B. Meat, eggs, spinach C. Meat, seaweed, ice cream D. Fruit, grains, mushroom
Meat, eggs, cheese
Study the image of comparative gene expression below. The WT points represent gene expression levels in a normal (wildtype) organism, whilst the Mut points represent gene expression levels in a mutant organism. Which statement is false? A. Gene 2 is expressed at low levels. B. Gene 2 is expressed at intermediate levels. C. Gene 3 is expressed at high levels. D. The expression of gene 3 in the mutant is about twice as much as gene 1 expression in the wild type. E. None of the above
None of the above
The Central Dogma refers to A. The flow of information from RNA to DNA to protein B. The flow of information from protein to DNA to RNA C. The flow of information from DNA to protein to RNA D. All of the above E. None of the above
None of the above
What does RNA polymerase do in prokaryotic DNA replication? A. Unzips RNA to transcribe it B. Unzips RNA to translate it C. Unzips DNA to transcribe it D. Unzips DNA to translate it E. None of the above
None of the above
Which histone pulls nucleosomes together to pack them into a more compact chromatin fiber? A. H2a B. H2b C. H3 D. H4 E. None of the above
None of the above
Which of the following is our closest evolutionary relative?
Neanderthals
What is the relationship between genome size and chromosome number? A. Positive linear correlation B. Negative linear correlation C. Neither
Neither
Which of the following description is wrong? A. NADPH operates chiefly with enzymes that catalyze anabolic reactions. B. NADH has a special role as an intermediate in the catabolic system of reactions that generate ATP. C. ATP is the main source of energy for most cellular processes. D. None of the above
None of the above
Which of the following is not a kingdom in the domain of Eukaryota? A. Animals B. Plants C. Fungi D. Protists E. None of the above
None of the above
Which of the following is not an membrane enclosed organelle? A. Endoplasmic reticulum B. Peroxisome C. Chloroplast D. Golgi apparatus E. None of the above
None of the above
You have 4 strands of identical double stranded DNA. If these 4 strands undergo 5 rounds of DNA replication, how many strands of DNA would you have? A. 64 B. 127 C. 100 D. 256 E. None of the above
None of the above
C - H
Nonpolar covalent bond
The diagram below shows a segment of a chromosome starting to replicate. What are the yellow sequences in the two bubbles? Is this prokaryotic or eukaryotic DNA? Would this be happening in interphase or mitosise?
Origins of replication; eukaryotic; interphase
With respect to mammalian cells, all of the carbohydrate on glycoproteins, proteoglycans, and glycolipids is located on the __________________ of the plasma membrane.
Outside
During photosynthesis, ______________ is generated as a waste byproduct.
Oxygen
Which four elements make up 96% of the weight in a human body?
Oxygen, carbon, nitrogen, hydrogen
Which four elements make up 96% of an organism's weight?
Oxygen, hydrogen, nitrogen, and carbon
Knowing the difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic translation is important. During eukaryotic translation, the large subunit of the ribosome will translocate. Right after this event occurs, which site/sites of the large subunit will now contain a tRNA?
P site
Match the four levels of protein structure.
Primary - Amino acid sequence Secondary - Polypeptide structures like alpha helices and beta sheets Tertiary - Conformation due to noncovalent and hydrophobic bonds Quaternary - Two or more polypeptides combined
The amino acid sequence
Primary structure
The amino acid sequence of a protein
Primary structure
Which of these is not a part of the structural region of a protein coding gene? A. Promoter B. DNA C. RNA-coding region D. Terminator E. Intron F. None of the above
Promoter
With regard to process of splicing, which one statement is false? A. The parts of a mRNA, which are kept, are called exons. B. Noncoding regions are removed from DNA, and coding regions are kept. C. Splicing always takes place within the nucleus. D. It occurs only in eukaryotes. E. By employing a spliceosome, a mature mRNA is developed from a pre-mRNA.
Noncoding regions are removed from DNA, and coding regions are kept.
_____________________ cannot be overcome by the addition of more substrates and does not bind to the active site.
Noncompetitive inhibitor
In response to starvation, what gland releases the hormone Cortisol? A. Hypothalamus B. Higher centers of the brain C. Kidneys D. Liver E. Anterior pituitary F. None of the above
None of the above
Breaks down proteins by hydrolyzing peptide bonds between amino acids
Protease
What molecule(s) can fold into a variety of shapes? A. DNA B. Protein C. H2O D. RNA
Protein and RNA
Based on the figure below, which of the following membrane protein is not considered an integral membrane protein? A. Transmembrane proteins B. Monolayer associated proteins C. Lipid linked proteins D. Protein associated proteins
Protein associated proteins
This enzyme catalyzes the process of adding a phosphate group
Protein kinase
Which of the following transfers the terminal phosphate group of ATP to the hydroxyl group of protein? A. Protein kinase B. Protein phosphatase C. ATPase D. Carboxypeptidase
Protein kinase
This enzyme catalyzes the removal of a phosphate group
Protein phosphatase
Amino acids
Proteins
The most diverse and versatile class of macromolecules are _______________. A. Polysaccharides B. Proteins C. DNA D. RNA E. Both C and D
Proteins
The most diverse and versatile class of macromolecules are ________________.
Proteins
Peptide bonds are found in _______________. A. Proteins B. Peptides C. Amino acids D. Proteins and peptides E. Proteins, peptides, and amino acids
Proteins and peptides
What is one of the main differences between DNA and RNA? A. DNA uses four different bases than RNA does. B. DNA has three phosphate groups while RNA has one. C. RNA has two hydroxyl groups on the sugar while DNA has one. D. RNA does not contain the base cytosine. E. None of the above
RNA has two hydroxyl groups on the sugar while DNA has one.
__________________ are used to inactivate specific genes of interest.
RNA interference (RNAi)
The synthesis of mRNA is catalyzed by the enzyme_______________.
RNA polymerase
Which of the following RNA polymerase/s is responsible for transcribing the genes that encode transfer RNA (tRNA), ribosomal RNA (rRNA), and various other RNA that play structural and catalytic roles?
RNA polymerase I and III
Which one process is different from others, in terms of the location of gene expression control? A. mRNA transport and localization control B. RNA processing control C. Translation control D. mRNA degradation control E. Protein degradation control
RNA processing control
The mature miRNA or siRNA will be packaged with specialized proteins to form a(n) ________________ to destroy the target RNA sequence.
RNA-induced silencing complex (RISC)
Gene expression is following the central dogma, which stated as _________________ translated into __________________, and _________________ transcribed into _____________________.
RNA; protein; DNA; RNA
Two atoms held together solely by ionic bonds are referred to as a(n) A. Molecule B. Salt C. Element D. Isotope E. None of the above
Salt
Provide mechanical support to cells and tissues
Structural proteins
Macromolecules in the cell can often interact transiently as a result of noncovalent interactions. These weak interactions also produce stable, highly specific interactions between molecules. Which of the factors below is the most significant in determining whether the interaction will be transient or stable? A. The size of each molecule B. The concentration of each molecule C. The rate of synthesis D. Surface complementarity between molecules
Surface complementarity between molecules
Which of the following statements is not true, in regards to highly conserved genes? A. They encode crucial proteins such as DNA and RNA polymerase. B. These genes are used to trace the evolutionary relationship among distantly related organisms. C. They have a high mutation rate. D. These genes remain perfectly recognizable in all living species.
They have a high mutation rate.
The T in the membrane protein mnemonic TRACIE stands for ________________. An example would be the ______________ pump, which is a type of ___________________.
Transport; Na+/K+; active transport
Contains anticodon sequences
tRNAs
In the figure below, what atom is considered to be oxidized?
Atom 1
The removal of a phosphate group from a protein
Dephosphorylation
GTP is used as a component of these macromolecules
Nucleic acids
Macromolecules are generally formed by ____________________.
Condensation
Cytoplasmic side of smooth ER
Site of membrane lipid production in eukaryotes
Cytosolic side of the existing plasma membrane
Site of membrane production in prokaryotes
Rough ER ribosomes
Site of membrane protein production in eukaryotes
Activated carriers are _______________ organic molecules that contain energy covalent bonds. They carry energy from sites of energy ___________________ to sites of energy ______________________.
Small, rich; generation; utilization
You are having difficulty seeing certain structures in the cell you are interested in. What approach would you use to better visualize the cells? A. Stain the cells with dye B. Use a different microscope C. Exchange the cells with larger cells D. Directly look at the cells with your eyes
Stain the cells with dye
In light microscopy, certain parts of a sample can be given different colors for better visualization through a process called _____________________.
Staining
The headline below was about research on Covid-19 neutralizing antibodies. Antibodies block binding of the virus to target epithelial cell membrane proteins. Which part of the Covid-19 virus do the antibodies adhere to? A. Surface spike protein B. Interior spike protein C. Interior DNA-binding protein D. Surface glycoprotein
Surface spike protein
The type of electron microscope used to look at thin sections of tissue is known as a ________________________.
Transmission electron microscope
Carry small molecules or ions
Transport proteins
DNA transposons in bacteria move by which mechanisms? A. Cut and paste B. Deletion C. Replicative transposition D. A and C only E. None of the above
A and C only
What is the codon for Methionine?
AUG
Activated carriers carry energy in a(n) _____________ transferable form, either as _____________________ or as _______________________.
Easily; chemical groups; high-energy bonds
True or False: ATP binding allows motor proteins to drive directed movement.
False
True or False: DNA is a long polymer composed of four types of nucleotides and eight histone subunits to carry the hereditary information of the cell.
False
True or False: DNA polymerase adds nucleotides to the lagging strand in the 3' to 5' direction.
False
True or False: Depurination and deamination are chemical reactions that create serious DNA damage in cells by breaking the phosphodiester backbone of double-helical DNA.
False
True or False: Genes packaged within heterochromatin are always expressed.
False
True or False: Scramblases are highly selective enzymes that balance membrane lipids numbers.
False
This organelle is though to be the first to have evolved from aerobic bacteria that took to living inside the anaerobic ancestors to today's eukaryotic cells.
Mitochondria
A cell is mutated in such a way that it is no longer able to produce uracil. How many different types of amino acids is this cell still able to produce? A. 12 B. 4 C. 16 D. 64 E. None of the above
12
The leading strand of a DNA molecule has the following sequence: 5'-CGCATGTAGCGA-3'. Which of the following sequences is complementary to the leading strand shown above? A. 3'-GCGTACATCGCT-5' B. 5'-AGCGATGTACGC-3' C. 5'-GCGTACATCGCT-3' D. 5'-GCGTACATCGCT-3' E. 3'-AGCGATGTACGC-5' F. None of the above
3'-GCGTACATCGCT-5'
Transcription starts and includes the C/G base pair in bold (third base from left end). The underlined T/A base pair (second from right end) indicates the terminator. How many total amino acids are encoded into the polypeptide? 5'-TTCCCCTATGGATGGTCATCTACGATGCCCCCATCACTAAAGCTTG-3'3'-AAGGGGATACCTACCAGTAGATGCTACGGGGGTAGTGATTTCGAAC-5' A. 12 B. 16 C. 14 D. 15 E. 10 F. None of the above
12
You are a microbiologist studying the E. Coli Lac operon. You have two strains of bacteria that you are working with: a wild type (non-mutant) strain - Stain A, and a mutant strain - Stain B. Strain B has a mutation in its CAP protein. You place each strain in a Petri dish, with the indicated amounts of glucose and lactose (see Figure). After 60 minutes, you measure gene expression of lacZ, a gene within the Lac operon. You obtain the following for Strain A. Which of the locations in red would correspond to your level of expression for the mutant strain? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. Cannot be determined
1
A one molar solution has a concentration of 1 mole of the substance in _____________ of solution.
1 L
In the attached figure, which reaction is a phosphorylation reaction? This is an example of ATP __________ coupling to drive the energetically ________________ condensation of A and B.
1; hydrolysis; unfavorable
How many total synthetases are there?
20
You are a microbiologist studying the E. Coli Lac operon. You have two strains of bacteria that you are working with: a wild type (non-mutant) strain - Stain A, and a mutant strain - Stain B. Strain B has a mutation in its repressor, such it cannot recognize the operator sequence. You place each strain in a Petri dish, with the indicated amounts of glucose and lactose (see Figure). After 60 minutes, you measure gene expression at lacZ, a gene within the Lac operon. You obtain the following for Strain A. Which of the locations in red would correspond to your level of expression for the mutant strain? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. Cannot be determined
3
You are a microbiologist studying the E. Coli Lac operon. You have two strains of bacteria that you are working with: a wild type (non-mutant) strain - Stain A, and a mutant strain - Stain B. Strain B has a mutation in its CAP site & operator site. You place each strain in a Petri dish, with the indicated amounts of glucose and lactose (see Figure). After 60 minutes, you measure gene expression at lacZ, a gene within the Lac operon. You obtain the following for Strain A. Which of the locations in red would correspond to your level of expression for the mutant strain? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. None of the above
3
You are a microbiologist studying the E. Coli Lac operon. You have two strains of bacteria that you are working with: a wild type (non-mutant) strain - Stain A, and a mutant strain - Stain B. Strain B has a mutation in its Operator sequence. You place each strain in a Petri dish, with the indicated amounts of glucose and lactose (see Figure). After 60 minutes, you measure gene expression at lacZ, a gene within the Lac operon. You obtain the following for Strain A. Which of the locations in red would correspond to your level of expression for the mutant strain? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. Cannot be determined
3
You are a microbiologist studying the E. Coli Lac operon. You have two strains of bacteria that you are working with: a wild type (non-mutant) strain - Stain A, and a mutant strain - Stain B. Strain B has a mutation in its repressor, such it cannot recognize the operator sequence. You place each strain in a Petri dish, with the indicated amounts of glucose and lactose (see Figure). After 60 minutes, you measure gene expression at lacZ, a gene within the Lac operon. You obtain the following for Strain A. Which of the locations in red would correspond to your level of expression for the mutant strain? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. Cannot be determined
3
Approximately how long ago did the ancestral cell to all modern life exist?
3.5 billion years ago
Tertiary structure
3D folding pattern of proteins due to side chain interactions
Which of the following are integrated into the cell membrane? A. Transport proteins B. Hormonal proteins C. Receptor proteins D. Storage proteins
A and C
Oxygen-18 is a natural isotope of oxygen with
8 protons and 10 neutrons
The general amplification of regulatory inputs and gene control of various transcription regulators aid in the assembly of A. Chromatin-remodeling complexes B. Histone-modifying enzymes C. RNA polymerase general transcription factors via the multiprotein mediator complex D. None of the above
A
The most common mobile genetic elements (i.e. transposons) in bacteria, can move by two types of mechanisms. Based on the diagram above, which transposition mechanism is shown in this figure? A. Cut and paste transposition B. Reverse transposition C. Non-replicative transposition D. Replicative transposition
A
Which part of this cross-section of a lipid bilayer contains polar head groups? A. A B. B C. Both
A
Match the parts of the cell membrane cross-section.
A - Lipid membrane B - Membrane proteins
Which of the following is true about electron microscopy? A. Samples must be fixed. B. It provides high magnification and resolution. C. Samples are alive.
A and B only
Oxidation is the process by which oxygen atoms are added to a target molecule. Generally, the atom that is oxidized will experience which of the following with respect to the electrons in its outer shell? A. A net loss B. No change C. An equal sharing D. A net gain
A net loss
A mutation is ____________________________.
A permanent change to the information carried by the DNA molecule
Which combination of nucleotides, when base-paired together, have equal widths? A. A+T and C+G B. A+C and T+U C. A+G and C+T D. A and T only E. G and C only
A+T and C+G
If one had a mutation in enzyme 3 of this metabolic pathway, what molecules would you be able to make if you had to start with A?
A, B, C
From Figure 1-1, which of the objects shown are eukaryotic? (A is a mammalian nerve, B is Paramecium, C is Chlamydomonas, D is Saccharomyces cerevisiae, and E is Helicobacter pylori.) A. A only B. A and B only C. A, B, and C D. A, B, C, and D E. All of the above
A, B, C, and D
What is the function of cell-surface carbohydrates? A. Protection B. Lubrication C. Cell-cell recognition D. Phospholipid production E. Adhesion
A, B, C, and E
Chromatin structure can be influenced by which of the following? A. Histone variants B. Histone modifications C. Chromatin remodeling D. None of the above
A, B, and C
The endosymbiosis theory of evolution describes a symbiotic relationship in which the host eukaryote engulfed bacterium, which later became the mitochondria. Based on what is described, what can you conclude about mitochondria? A. Mitochondria most likely evolved from engulfed bacteria. B. The double membrane of present day mitochondria is thought to have been derived from the plasma membrane and outer membrane of the engulfed bacterium. C. Mitochondria contain their own DNA.
A, B, and C
The figure shows the same molecule extracted from the textbook pages. Which facts below are true of this molecule? A. A fatty acid B. An amphipathic molecule C. A molecule with a saturated hydrocarbon tail D. A molecule with an unsaturated hydrocarbon tail E. A phospholipid
A, B, and C
Which of the following molecules are activated carriers? A. ATP B. Acetyl CoA C. NADPH D. Pyruvate E. None of the above
A, B, and C
What are the three structures that put together DNA? A. Deoxyribose B. Base C. Sulfur D. Ribose E. Phosphate
A, B, and E
Which of the following describes the Cell Theory? A. All cells come from existing cells. B. All living things require water for survival. C. All living things are made up of cells. D. Cells are the fundamental unit of life.
A, C, and D only
Cell identity can be reinforced by ___________________________. A. Epigenetic inheritance B. RNA deoxygenation C. DNA methylation D. Removal of adenine nucleotides E. Positive feedback loop
A, C, and E
All of the following activated carriers transfer electrons except A. NADPH B. ATP C. NADH D. FADH2
ATP
Match the following activated carriers to the appropriate type of chemical group they transfer during a high energy linkage.
ATP - Phosphate NADPH - Electron and hydrogens Acetyl CoA - Acetyl group Carboxylated biotin - Carboxyl group S-adenosylmethionine - Methyl group
GTP-binding proteins are in their ___________________ conformation when GTP is _____________, and by hydrolyzing GTP to GDP, the protein flips to an ___________________ conformation.
Active; bound; inactive
The base that is found in DNA, RNA, and ATP is _____________________.
Adenine
The chemical equation, C6H12O6 + 6CO2 --> 6CO2 + 6H2O + 36 ATPs, represents which process?
Aerobic respiration
Homologous Recombination Repair (HR or HRR) A. Is designed to increase diversity B. Is part of the cells normal system of genetic recombination C. Is a purposeful deployment to mix and match DNA information D. Is a purposeful deployment to mix and match DNA information, and is part of the cells normal system of genetic recombination E. All of the above F. None of the above
All of the above
Which is (are) necessary for DNA polymerase to perform its function? A. Primase B. Template strand C. Free 3' end D. All of the above E. None of the above
All of the above
Which of the following electron shells can hold up to 18 electrons? A. Fourth shell B. Fifth shell C. Fourth and fifth shells D. Third shell E. Third and fourth shells
All of the above
Which of the following is (are) possible post-translational modification(s)? A. Ubiquitination B. Phosphorylation C. Acetylation D. All of the above E. None of the above
All of the above
What factors do not lead to DNA mutation? A. Diet B. Metabolism C. Radiation D. Infection E. All of these answers can lead to DNA mutation.
All of these answers can lead to DNA mutation.
Which is not a condition to be considered alive? Recall MR.GRey+. A. Reproduce B. Grow and develop C. Respond to stimuli D. Adapt to the environment E. All of these are conditions to be alive.
All of these are conditions to be alive.
Which of the following are used to distinguish RNA from DNA? A. Is usually single stranded instead of double stranded B. Contains uracil instead of thymine C. Has ribose instead of deoxyribose D. All of these are used to distinguish RNA from DNA. E. None of the above
All of these are used to distinguish RNA from DNA
The tryptophan repressor is an __________________ protein.
Allosteric
The flexibility of the plasma membrane
Allow the cell to grow and change shape
The R group of an amino acid is connected to the ______________ carbon, and usually one of ______________________. A. Alpha; 30 common amino acids B. Beta; 20 common amino acids C. Alpha; 20 common amino acids D. Beta; 40 common amino acids
Alpha; 20 common amino acids
When is the tryptophan repressor protein present in a cell?
Always
__________________ is an enzyme that attaches the amino acid onto its corresponding tRNA.
Aminoacyl-tRNA-synthetases
When bodybuilders use steroids, they increase the growth of muscle cells. This requires increased energy intake, and is thus an ________________ process.
Anabolic; endothermic
The cell pictures below may be a _________________, but certainly is not a ___________________.
Animal cell; bacterial cell
Neutral mutations A. Often fall in an intron's sequence B. Are mutations that have no effect on the organism's appearance, viability, or ability to reproduce C. Often fall in regions of the gene where the DNA sequence is unimportant D. Never occurs in exons
B
In the figure below, where is the centromere found? Where would telomeres be found? A. B and A B. A and B C. B and C D. B, A, and C E. None of the above
B and A
Amino acids are linked together by A. Hydrolysis reactions B. Condensation reactions C. Glycosidic bonds D. Peptide bonds
B and D
This sequence of DNA (and things which bind it) can block heterochromatin from propagating into regions of euchromatin.
Barrier DNA
What is the function of snRNPs U1 within the spliceosome?
Binds to the 5' splice site
In eukaryotes, proteins are broken down by large proteolytic machines called proteasomes, which can be found where in the cell? A. The nucleus B. The cytosol C. Both the nucleus and cytosol D. None of the above
Both the nucleus and cytosol
Which of the following is not an example of external assault on DNA? A. Food B. Infection C. Radiation D. Byproducts of metabolism E. None of the above
Byproducts of metabolism
In mammalian chromosomes, in which regions of the chromosome is heterochromatin typically more concentrated? A. Region between the centromere and telomere B. Telomere C. Centromere D. All of the above
C
The following figures show the different classes of proteins that can be found in the plasma membrane. Which of the following figures represent a receptor protein?
C
The researcher discovered a toxin that will bind to the protein to decrease the affinity of the substrate. Which stage in the figure might participate with the toxin?
C
What potential outcomes are possible after replication in a DNA molecule with a depurination modification that is left unrepaired? A. The DNA molecule contains the normal sequence. B. The DNA molecule contains an extra three nucleotide pairs. C. The DNA molecule is missing one nucleotide pair. D. The DNA molecule is converted into RNA. E. None of the above
C
Food supplies what two essential commodities? A. Pleasure B. Carbohydrates C. Energy D. Raw materials E. ATP
C and D
Energy cannot be created or destroyed, but it can be converted into other types of energy. Cells use potential kinetic energy to generate stored chemical energy in the form of activated carrier molecules, which are often employed to join two molecules together in __________________ reactions.
Condensation
Arrange the following molecules in order with respect to their relative levels of oxidation. (Top = the most reduced, and bottom = the most oxidized)
CH4 (methane) CH3OH (methanol) CH2O (formaldehyde) CHOOH (formic acid) CO2 (carbon dioxide)
Mistakes in replicating the DNA of a cell before division A. Always lead to reduced survival of the cell B. Can have positive, negative, or neutral effects C. Have no consequences on the cell's survival D. Lead to increased survival of the cell E. None of the above
Can have positive, negative, or neutral effects
Energetically favorable reactions A. Will have a positive ΔG B. Decreases entropy C. Require enzymes D. Can occur simultaneously E. None of these choices
Can occur simultaneously
Carbon is outstanding among all the elements in its ability to form large molecules. Silicon, an element with the same number of electrons in its outer shell, is a poor second. Which reason given below is the most valid? A. Carbon forms up to four covalent bonds. B. Carbon is more abundant on the crust. C. Carbon can be directly imported by cells to make larger molecules. D. At the pH of a typical cell, carbon is a better buffer. E. Carbon forms stronger covalent bonds.
Carbon forms stronger covalent bonds.
Processing sugars and fats in order to form ATP is called ____________________.
Catabolism
For a proliferating cell to maintain its identity the patterns of gene expression responsible for that identity must be remembered and passed on to its daughter cells through all sub- sequent cell divisions. This property is called __________________.
Cell memory
_______________ is the process that results in an increase of the number of cells, and is defined by the balance between cell divisions and cell loss through cell death or differentiation.
Cell proliferation
Proteins that help other proteins fold are called __________________.
Chaperone proteins
Mitotic chromosomes were first visualized with the use of very simple tools: a basic light microscope and some dyes. Which of the following characteristics of mitotic chromosomes reflects how they were named? A. Color B. Motion C. Shape D. Location
Color
A ____________________________ will bind to the active site of the enzyme to block substrate reaction.
Competitive inhibitor
_____________________ refers to regions where corresponding genes are strung together in the same order in both species.
Conserved synteny
In the attached figure, the bottom graph shows how exergonic reactions are ________________ to endergonic reactions, in this case using the ________________ of glucose to power the ________________ of a polypeptide.
Coupled; catabolism; polymerization
All of the following amino acid side chains within a protein can be phosphorylated except for? A. Cysteine B. Serine C. Threonine D. Tyrosine E. None of the above
Cysteine
In eukaryotes, translation occurs in the _______________.
Cytoplasm
Substance filling the cell's interior
Cytoplasm
Which of the following represents the correct order of enzyme participation in DNA replication? A. DNA polymerase I > DNA helicase > RNA primases > DNA ligase B. RNA primases > DNA polymerase > DNA helicase > DNA ligase C. DNA polymerase I > DNA ligase > DNA polymerase III > DNA helicase D. DNA helicase > RNA primases > DNA polymerase > DNA ligase E. None of the above
DNA helicase > RNA primases > DNA polymerase > DNA ligase
When comparing gene transcription and DNA replication, which statement is incorrect? A. RNA polymerase can start a RNA chain without a primer. B. DNA is polymerized in the 5' to 3' direction, whilst RNA is read in the 3' to 5' direction. C. Polymerase uses nucleotides to make new material. D. No proofreading function for RNA polymerases - transcription is 1000X more error-prone. E. None of the above
DNA is polymerized in the 5' to 3' direction, whilst RNA is read in the 3' to 5' direction.
During DNA repair, what enzyme stitches the backbone of DNA, if broken? A. Homologase B. DNA polymerase C. DNA ligase D. Nuclease E. None of the above
DNA ligase
Which of these proteins are not involved directly in a prokaryotic replication machine? A. DNA polymerase II B. DNA polymerase I C. RNA primase D. Helicase E. DNA polymerase III F. None of the above
DNA polymerase II
Which of the following is true in regards to how the lagging strand is synthesized? A. Nuclease degrades DNA primer. B. RNA ligase joins Okazaki fragments. C. DNA polymerase creates Okazaki fragments. D. Repair polymerase adds DNA in place of the DNA primer. E. DNA primase adds a DNA primer.
DNA polymerase creates Okazaki fragments.
What is the first mechanism for repairing nucleotide errors in DNA, following DNA polymerization? A. Mismatch repair B. DNA polymerase proofreading C. Nucleotide excision repair D. Thymine dimers E. None of the above
DNA polymerase proofreading
Which of the following is not correct about the process of DNA replication? A. DNA polymerase, for its function, needs an existing 3' deoxyribose onto which to add the new nucleotide. B. DNA polymerases make DNA in the 5'-3' direction in leading strand, and the 3'-5' direction for the lagging strand. C. DNA polymerase I is in charge of connecting Okazaki fragments by deleting RNA primers and replacing the strand with DNA. D. DNA replication can't proceed without the aid of RNA molecules. E. DNA polymerase III is in charge of adding free nucleotides to the 3' end of the newly forming strand. F. None of the above
DNA polymerases make DNA in the 5'-3' direction in leading strand, and the 3'-5' direction for the lagging strand.
Slight variations in hair color, eye color, and skin color are due to differences in
DNA sequences
A promoter is a ___________________ region used for __________________ initiation, in which ______________________ are required to participate in RNA polymerase binding.
DNA; transcription; transcription factors
____________________ and _________________________ are spontaneous chemical reactions that can cause DNA by affecting purine bases and cytosine to uracil respectively.
Depurination; deamination
Many transcriptional regulators bind to the DNA helix as __________________.
Dimers
Expression of MyoD in fibroblasts causes these cells derived from skin connective tissue to produce proteins normally only seen in muscles. However, some other cell types do not transcribe muscle-specific genes when MyoD is expressed in them. Which of the following statements below is the best explanation of why MyoD can cause fibroblasts to express muscle-specific genes? A. The presence of MyoD is sufficient to activate the transcription of muscle-specific genes in all cell types. B. During their developmental history, fibroblasts have accumulated some transcriptional regulators in common with differentiating muscle cells. C. The muscle-specific genes must be in heterochromatin in fibroblasts. D. Unlike some other cell types, fibroblasts have not lost the muscle-specific genes from their genome.
During their developmental history, fibroblasts have accumulated some transcriptional regulators in common with differentiating muscle cells.
In feedback inhibition, an enzyme acting ________________ in a reaction pathway is __________________ by a(n) ____________________ product of that pathway.
Early; inhibited; late
Receptor proteins in the plasma membrane
Enable the cell to receive signals from the environment
Transport proteins in the plasma membrane
Enable the import and export of small molecules
New phospholipids are made in the
Endoplasmic reticulum
The site where most cell membrane components as well as materials destined for export from the cell are made
Endoplasmic reticulum
Catalyze covalent bond breakage or formation
Enzymes
In _______________, gene activators would bind on enhancers, which are ______________ sites, and attracts RNA polymerase and general transcriptional factors to the promoter.
Eukaryotes; DNA
If a cell is in an environment with elevated glucose levels, and lactose is also present, what would be the expression level of the Lac genes? A. Expression under 20% B. Expression over 90% C. Zero expression D. None of the above
Expression under 20%
Disulfide bonds are generally found among _______________ proteins.
Extracellular
True or False: A reporter gene encodes for a protein with an activity that is difficult to monitor experimentally.
False
True or False: A single cell from a carrot was experimentally grown into a calf.
False
The ______________ of an activated carrier molecule is coupled to an energetically ________________ reaction. __________________ is the most widely used activated carrier.
Formation; favorable; ATP
Replication of DNA is fully concluded by which phase of the cell cycle?
G2
Switching genes on and off involves a process known as
Gene expression
Changes to the _______________ are passed on to progeny in sexually reproducing organisms
Germ line
Which of the proteins below are expressed in all cells? A. Insulin B. Glycolytic enzymes C. Immunoglobulin D. Hemoglobin E. Thyroxine
Glycolytic enzymes
Monosaccharides are linked together to form disaccharides by which type of covalent bonds?
Glycosidic
Modifies and packages molecules made in the ER that are destined to be either secreted from the cell or transport to another cell compartment
Golgi apparatus
GTP
Guanine nucleotide
Bacteriorhodopsin is a membrane protein that pumps _______________ out of the cell.
H+ (protons)
What is the significance of Griffith's experiment? A. DNA has a helical structure. B. Bacteria can be aerosolized. C. Heritable information is carried by DNA. D. Disproved spontaneous generation
Heritable information is carried by DNA.
The presence of just an activated activator complex and the appropriate polymerase enzyme at the promoter, the bacterial lac operon will yield A. Very low gene expression B. No gene expression C. High gene expression D. Basal gene expression E. None of the above
High gene expression
Match the protein with its location.
Histone - Chromosome Glut1 sugar transporter - Cell membrane Eukaryotic ribosomal protein - Rough endoplasmic reticulum
A process that exchanging genes and other portions of genomes between individuals of different species are called _________________. It is rare among ____________________ but common among ___________________.
Horizontal gene transfer; eukaryotes; prokaryotes
H2O - H2O
Hydrogen bond
Secondary structure
Hydrogen bonding of the backbone; amino acids folding into repeating pattern
In an amino acid, the alpha carbon always has three carbon bonds which connect to a ______________, a ___________, and a _________________.
Hydrogen; amino group; acidic group
In transmembrane proteins, the outside of a membrane-spanning a helix contains
Hydrophobic side chains
Some of these types of RNA arise from the wrong DNA strand, and are thus antisense transcripts
IncRNAs
Outside growing cells, entropy is ______________ via heat released.
Increased
In a lipid bilayer, hydrocarbon tails with shorter chain length have less tendency to interact with one another, which in turn A. Increases the fluidity of the bilayer B. Decreases the fluidity of the bilayer C. Has no effect on the fluidity of the bilayer D. None of the above
Increases the fluidity of the bilayer
Consider the image showing crime scene DNA from three suspects (A, B, and C), and then answer the question. Which individual is most likely the suspect? A. Individual A B. Individual B C. Individual C D. All of these individuals E. Cannot be determined
Individual C
List in order of increasing abundance.
Inorganic ions, macromolecules, water
What are transposons and viruses have in common? A. The ability to move to other organisms B. The ability of escape from cells C. Have a protective protein coat D. Inserting DNA sequence in a genome
Inserting DNA sequence in a genome
Where is the binding site typically located in the protein structure? A. On the surface of the protein B. Inside a cavity on the protein surface C. Buried in the interior of the protein D. Forms on the surface of the protein in the presence of ligand
Inside a cavity on the protein surface
What is an atom called when it has a different number of protons and electrons?
Ion
Na - Cl
Ionic bond
Match the following biochemical functions with their correct enzyme class.
Isomerase - Catalyzes the rearrangement of bonds within a molecule Polymerase - Catalyzes the synthesis of DNA and RNA Kinase - Catalyzes the addition of phosphate groups to molecules Ligase - Joins two molecules together
Which one statement is correct about the ribosome structure of prokaryotes? A. Large subunit contains 16s and 23 rRNA and 34 proteins B. Small subunit contains 5s rRNA and 21 proteins C. Small subunit contains 23s rRNA and 21 proteins D. Large subunit contains 5s and 16 rRNA and 34 proteins E. Large subunit contains 5s and 23 rRNA and 34 proteins
Large subunit contains 5s and 23 rRNA and 34 proteins
Joins two molecules together
Ligase
Required for intracellular digestion, releasing nutrients from ingested food particles and breaking down unwanted molecules for either recycling within the cell or excretion from the cell
Lysosomes
Which one represents the role of RNA polymerase I? A. Making regulatory RNAs B. Making RNA of ribosomes C. Making tRNA, and many regulatory RNAs D. Moving forward the transcription to make protein E. All of the above
Making RNA of ribosomes
Match the following types of RNA according to their main function.
Messenger RNAs (mRNAs) = Direct the synthesis of proteins Ribosomal RNAs (rRNAs) = Form the structural and catalytic core of the ribosome Transfer RNAs (tRNAs) = Acts as adaptors that can hold specific amino acids in place on a ribosome for their incorporation into a protein microRNAs (miRNAs) = Serve as key regulators of eukaryotic gene expression
What are the 3 most common histone modifications? A. Methylation, Phosphorylation, Acetylation B. Methylation, Phosphorylation, Esterification C. Methylation, Acetylation, Esterification D. Ethylation, Phosphorylation, Acetylation E. None of the above
Methylation, Phosphorylation, Acetylation
Which H3 histone modification state signals gene expression? A. Top B. Middle C. Bottom
Middle and bottom
Prions
Misfolded proteins that can transmit their misfolded shape
The following image uses a green fluorescent protein to highlight what organelle(s)?
Mitochondria
An enzyme can capture and process a thousand substrate molecules every second. How is this remarkable feat accomplished? A. The enzyme seeks out substrate molecules by chemotaxis. B. The substrate molecules seek out enzymes by chemotaxis. C. Molecules move really fast and just randomly bump into each other. D. Enzymes do not process very many substrate molecules.
Molecules move really fast and just randomly bump into each other.
How many origins of replication do humans chromosomes have? A. 1 B. 2 C. 4 D. More than four E. None of the above
More than four
As seen in Figure 9-5, what important conclusion can be drawn regarding mutations in E. coli? A. Mutation in the Gal gene and selective medium allows mutation rates to be measured experimentally. B. The revertant cells did not occur as a result of a natural mutation. C. Mutation in the His gene and selective medium allows mutation rates to be measured experimentally. D. Only four E. coli cells are necessary to study the mutation rates.
Mutation in the His gene and selective medium allows mutation rates to be measured experimentally.
What is the difference between NAD+ and NADH? A. NADH is the oxidized form, while NAD+ is the reduced form. B. NADH is an electron acceptor, whereas NAD+ is an electron donor. C. NADH caries an extra phosphate group. D. NADH is involved in biosynthetic reactions. E. NADH carries an extra proton and two high-energy electrons.
NADH carries an extra proton and two high-energy electrons.
Reduced
NADP
Oxidized
NADP+
When lysine accumulated in large numbers, some of it can stop aspartate from converting into aspartyl phosphate, thereby lowering the amount of lysine being produced. This is a type of
Negative regulation
You are a microbiologist studying the E. Coli Lac operon. You have two strains of bacteria that you are working with: a wild type (non-mutant) strain - Stain A, and a mutant strain - Stain B. Strain B has a mutation in its promoter sequence. You place each strain in a Petri dish, with the indicated amounts of glucose and lactose (see Figure). After 60 minutes, you measure gene expression at lacZ, a gene within the Lac operon. You obtain the following for Strain A. Which of the locations in red would correspond to your level of expression for the mutant strain? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. No expression
No expression
Someone you know has developed a mutation that leads to skin cancer and is pregnant. They are worried that their child will be born with the cancer mutation they have while carrying the baby. Should they be worried?
No, the mutations causing the cancer are in somatic cells, not reproductive germ cells.
DNA that is permanently folded into heterochromatin contains mostly A. Introns B. Exons C. Genes D. Noncoding DNA E. None of the above
Noncoding DNA
Which cellular component separates the DNA of eukaryotic cells from the cytoplasm?
Nuclear membrane
Nucleotides
Nucleic acids
In the process of creating eukaryotic polypeptides, polyadenylation plays a critical step. Where does this step occur in the cell? A. Rough ER B. Nucleus C. Ribosome D. Cytoplasm E. None of the above
Nucleus
This organelle is prominent in the middle of the cell
Nucleus
Which structures contain DNA in eukaryotic cells? A. Nucleus B. Mitochondria C. Chloroplasts D. Nucleus and mitochondria E. Nucleus, mitochondria, and chloroplasts
Nucleus, mitochondria, and chloroplasts
The electron microscope image below shows the ejected DNA of a lysed bacterium. How many chromosomes are there? A. One circular chromosome B. One linear chromosome C. Too many to count D. 23 pairs E. 46 individual chromosomes
One circular chromosome
Membrane-enclosed vesicles that provide a safe environment for a variety of reactions in which hydrogen peroxide is used to inactivate toxic molecules
Peroxisomes
Catalyzes the hydrolytic removal of a phosphate group from a molecule
Phosphatase
The synthesis of glutamine from glutamic acid requires the production of an activated intermediate followed by a condensation step that completes the process. Which molecule is added to glutamic acid in the activation step? A. ATP B. NH3 C. ADP D. Phosphate
Phosphate
The addition of a phosphate group to a protein
Phosphorylation
The membrane that separates the interior of the cell from its external environment is called the ____________________.
Plasma membrane
The formation of a __________________ bond results in a partial positive and negative charge.
Polar covalent
O - H
Polar covalent bond
Sugars
Polysaccharides
The net change of entropy of growing cells is _______________.
Positive
One way to identify protein-coding genes is to search a DNA sequence for open reading frames—long sequences of 100 or more codons that lack a stop codon. But this process can be made more difficult by the fact that in higher eukaryotes, genes can stretch over tens of thousands of nucleotide pairs, much of which contain introns. To help find the exons buried within this noise, computers can be used to search for other distinctive features that mark the presence of a protein-coding gene. Which is not considered a feature characteristic of a protein-coding gene? A. Presence of an initiation codon B. Splicing sequences that mark intron-exon boundaries C. Conservation with coding sequences of other organisms D. Gene regulatory sequences located upstream E. Presence of mobile genetic elements
Presence of mobile genetic elements
A complex formed by more than one polypeptide chain
Quaternary structure
A protein complex of more than one polypeptide chain
Quaternary structure
When the researcher analyzes the SARS-CoV-2, they find the virus contains no trace of DNA double helix. Which of the following molecules are likely to contain the genetic information of the virus?
RNA
With growing cells, entropy is _______________.
Reduced
For retrotransposons, a double-stranded DNA copy of RNA is made using an enzyme called ___________________________.
Reverse transcriptase
RNA contains the sugar ______________, which differs from ___________________, the sugar used in DNA, by the presence of an additional ________________ group.
Ribose; deoxyribose; -OH
Carry extracellular signals from cell to cell
Signal proteins
DNA replication takes place during which phase of an eukaryotic cell cycle? A. G2 phase B. G1 phase C. G0 phase D. S phase E. None of the above
S phase
Scatters electrons off the surface of the sample and is used to look at the surface detail of cells and other structures
Scanning electron microscope
The surface details of gold nanoparticles
Scanning electron microscope
This type of microscope scatters electrons off the surface of a sample.
Scanning electron microscope
In eukaryotic cells, new phospholipids are manufactured by enzymes bound to the cytosolic surface and deposit newly made phospholipids exclusively in that half of the bilayer. How do cell membranes manage to grow evenly? A. The lipids transfer layers spontaneously. B. Scramblases remove phospholipids from one half of the bilayer and insert it into the other. C. ATP charges the phospholipids with the energy needed to hop to the next layer. D. Membranes are actually largely uneven when they emerge from the endoplasmic reticulum.
Scramblases remove phospholipids from one half of the bilayer and insert it into the other.
Thus, cells do not violate the __________ Law of Thermodynamics.
Second
The local construction such as alpha helix and beta sheet
Secondary structure
α helices and β sheets belong to this structure
Secondary structure
An intron is a
Segment of DNA that does not code for proteins
Primary structure
Sequence of a chain of amino acids
In comparison to single bonds, double bonds are more A. Shorter B. Flexible C. Unstable D. Fluid
Shorter
Which of the following is responsible for initiation of RNA polymerase activity in prokaryotes? A. Rho factor B. TATA box C. Initiation site D. Sigma factor E. None of the above
Sigma factor
During prokaryotic transcription, which one of these answer choices is the first to occur? A. RNA polymerase elongates RNA by adding nucleotide triphosphates (NTPs) complementary to a DNA template. B. RNA polymerase opens DNA duplex. C. RNA polymerase clamps down and sigma factor falls off. D. RNA polymerase holoenzyme binds to DNA randomly and searches for core promoter. E. Sigma factor subunit binds to RNA polymerase to form a RNA polymerase holoenzyme. F. RNA polymerase is released from the DNA.
Sigma factor subunit binds to RNA polymerase to form a RNA polymerase holoenzyme.
The subunit of what transcription factor recognizes the TATA box
TFIID
Which of the following subunit(s) transcription factor(s) is most commonly responsible for transcription initiation by eukaryotic RNA polymerase II and recognize(s) the TATA box?
TFIID
What enzyme replicates the ends of eukaryotic chromosomes?
Telomerase
Consider this image that represents DNA replication along with the end-replication problem, and then answer the question. A. Telomerase activity would solve the end-replication problem, as this enzyme is involved in telomere shortening. B. Telomerase activity would complicate the end-replication problem, as this enzyme is involved in telomere shortening. C. Telomerase activity would complicate the end-replication problem, as this enzyme is involved in telomerase lengthening. D. Telomerase activity would solve the end-replication problem, as this enzyme is involved in telomere lengthening. E. None of the above
Telomerase activity would solve the end-replication problem, as this enzyme is involved in telomere lengthening.
GTP-binding proteins can provide _______________ protein regulation.
Temporary
During protein phosphorylation, the ________________ phosphate group from ATP is donated to the protein.
Terminal
This gene sequence signals RNA polymerase to stop transcription.
Terminator
The 3D conformation formed by an entire polypeptide chain
Tertiary structure
The full 3D conformation of an entire polypeptide chain
Tertiary structure
Which antibiotic blocks the binding of aminoacyl-tRNA to A-site of prokaryotic ribosomes?
Tetracycline
tRNA molecules are molecular adaptors that bind to both an amino acid and to a codon on different regions. Which region of the tRNA binds to an amino acid? A. The anticodon segment of tRNA B. The 5' end of the tRNA C. The 3' end of the tRNA
The 3' end of the tRNA
Which of the following damages in DNA is caused by ultraviolet radiation? A. Depurination B. Deamination C. The formation of thymine dimers D. None of the above
The formation of thymine dimers
What generally happens if the plasma membrane is pierced? A. It will remain torn. B. The membrane will quickly reseal. C. All cellular contents will be released. D. The cell will collapse upon itself. E. A new cell will form from the pierced portion.
The membrane will quickly reseal.
What generally happens if the plasma membrane is pierced? A. The cell will collapse upon itself. B. The membrane will quickly reseal. C. It will remain torn. D. A new cell will form from the pierced portion.
The membrane will quickly reseal.
The part of the NADP+ molecule that accepts two electrons is A. The phosphate group B. Ribose C. Adenine D. The nicotinamide ring
The nicotinamide ring
Which one statement below is valid with respect to try or lac operons analysis? A. The RNA polymerase may bind to the operator if the promoter is blocked. B. The operator is always located upstream of the promoter. C. These product of these operons is always a single polypeptide. D. The promoter is always located downstream of the structural genes. E. The repressor protein may bind to the operator and prevent transcription. F. None of the above
The repressor protein may bind to the operator and prevent transcription.
Which one statement below is valid with respect to try or lac operons analysis? A. The repressor protein may bind to the operator and prevent transcription. B. The operator is always located upstream of the promoter. C. These product of these operons is always a single polypeptide. D. The promoter is always located downstream of the structural genes. E. The RNA polymerase may bind to the operator if the promoter is blocked. F. None of the above
The repressor protein may bind to the operator and prevent transcription.
The take home message from the image shown is A. Genome size is directly related to organism size. B. The genome of a bacteria is always smaller than any other type of organism. C. Animals have the most complex genomes. D. The size of an organism does not correlate directly to the side of its genome. E. None of the above
The size of an organism does not correlate directly to the side of its genome.
Which part of RNA Polymerase plays a pivotal role in post-transcriptional modification in eukaryotes? A. The head B. The tail C. The small subunit D. The large subunit E. None of the above
The tail
According to the first law of thermodynamics, A. The total energy of the universe must always be the same. B. The total energy in an organism must always be the same. C. The total energy in an organism must always be less than the universe. D. The total energy in an organism must always increase.
The total energy of the universe must always be the same.
What is an advantage of homologous recombination? A. There is no loss of genetic information. B. The nucleotide sequences outside of the broken region don't have to be identical. C. A single-stranded piece of DNA can be used to repair a double-stranded break. D. No DNA template is needed. E. This process occurs right after cell division.
There is no loss of genetic information.
Which of the following is true regarding all the elements in a given vertical column of the periodic table? A. They all give or receive the same number of electrons to fill their outer shell. B. They all have the same isotope number. C. They are always of the same type (gas, metals, non-metals, etc.). D. Their atomic numbers increase by increments of 8. E. None of the above
They all give or receive the same number of electrons to fill their outer shell.
What generally is the fate of mutations to the genome that have harmful consequences to an organism? A. They are usually eliminated from the population by natural selection. B. They tend to persist and spread. C. They are always fixed by DNA repair. D. They give rise to new species. E. They do not occur.
They are usually eliminated from the population by natural selection.
Consider two molecules that associate with each other through hydrogen bonds. How tightly will the two molecules bind as the equilibrium constant, K, becomes larger for this association? A. The equilibrium constant will have no bearing on how tightly they bind. B. They will bind less tightly. C. They will bind more tightly. D. None of the above
They will bind more tightly.
Which of the following is true regarding anabolism? A. The sum total of all the chemical reactions it needs to carry out to survive, grow, and reproduce B. A process that converts the electromagnetic energy in sunlight into chemical-bond energy in cells C. To generate both a useful form of energy for the cell and some of the small molecules that the cell needs as building blocks D. To drive the synthesis of the many molecules that form the cell
To drive the synthesis of the many molecules that form the cell
The opposite of a transcriptional repressor
Transcriptional activator
A thin section of tumor samples
Transmission electron microscope
True or False: Antibiotics are chemicals that kill or inhibit the growth of bacteria and are used to treat bacterial infections. They are produced in nature by soil bacteria and fungi.
True
True or False: Covalent modifications of the tails of core histone proteins can serve as docking sites for a variety of regulatory proteins.
True
True or False: In the process of converting ATP to ADP, the reaction's ΔG is negative.
True
True or False: Most of the genetic variation in the human genome takes the form of single base changes called single-nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs).
True
True or False: The glycocalyx carbohydrate-enriched coating that covers the outside of both (but not all) eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells.
True
Hydrophobic molecules are not soluble in water because almost all of their atoms are either _______________________________ and therefore cannot form favorable interactions with water molecules.
Uncharged groups or nonpolar groups
In Non-homologous End Joining (NHEJ) A. Unlike homologous recombination repair, there is breakage of only one strand of DNA. B. Like homologous recombination repair, there is breakage of only one strand of DNA. C. Unlike homologous recombination, only one DNA helix is available. D. Like homologous recombination, only one DNA helix is available. E. Unlike homologous recombination repair, there is breakage of only one strand of DNA, and unlike homologous recombination, only one DNA helix is available.
Unlike homologous recombination, only one DNA helix is available.
Which of the following is not a DNA nucleic acid base? A. Thymine B. Uracil C. Cytosine D. Adenine E. Guanine E. None of the above
Uracil
Determine the precise 3D structure of blood protein
X-ray crystallography
Used to determine the precise 3D structure of protein molecules
X-ray crystallography
A mutation in DNA can affect the amino acid sequence because it affects the code found in A. tRNA B. The nuclease C. mRNA D. rRNA E. None of the above
mRNA
During transcription, which of the following is produced in prokaryotes?
mRNA
Which of the following is true in regards to the process of how miRNAs target mRNAs for destruction? A. After an mRNA has been targeted, both the mRNA and miRNA are degraded. B. miRNAs pull mRNAs targeted for destruction out of the nucleus. C. RISC proteins first forms a complex with mRNA, which then are targeted by complementary miRNAs. D. mRNAs that form an extensive match with a miRNA will be rapidly degraded. E. miRNAs search for mRNAs in the nucleus.
mRNAs that form an extensive match with a miRNA will be rapidly degraded.
This type of RNA is packaged with specialized proteins to form RISC.
miRNA
Can be packaged with specialized proteins to form an RNA-induced silencing complex
miRNAs
Cut up fragments of foreign RNAs which can be used to target and destroy complementary foreign RNA molecules
siRNAs
RNA polymerase III transcribes which classes of genes, mainly? A. tRNA genes, 5S rRNA genes, some snRNA genes, and genes from other small RNAs B. All protein coding genes C. 5.8S, 18S, and 28S rRNA genes D. All of the above E. None of the above
tRNA genes, 5S rRNA genes, some snRNA genes, and genes from other small RNAs
What's the unit we use when measuring typical cells?
μm
