BIO 10-12

Recombinant DNA

constructed when scientists combine pieces of DNA from two different sources --often from different species-- to form a single DNA molecule

Approximately what percentage of the human genome consists of noncoding DNA

98%

vaccine

a harmless variant or derivative of a disease-causing microbe that is used to prevent an infectious disease

42) The figure below shows the flow of genetic information in a eukaryotic cell. The transfer of information from DNA into an RNA molecule is known as ______. A) DNA replication B) transcription C) polypeptide D) translation

B) transcription

RNA contains the nitrogenous base ______ instead of ______, which is only found in DNA. A) a deoxyribose sugar... a ribose sugar B) uracil... thymine C) uracil... guanine D) thymine... uracil

B) uracil... thymine

2) The process by which genotype becomes expressed as phenotype is ______. A) Phenogenesis B) Transcription C) Gene Expression D) Recombination

C) gene expression

What name is given to the collection of traits exhibited by an organism? A) holotype B) genotype C) phenotype D) morphology

C) phenotype

Sticky ends are produced as a result of the action of

A restriction enzyme

23) How is it that the cells in different body tissues are able to perform different functions? A) The cells exhibit different patterns of gene expression. B) Different chromosomes have been inactivated in different cells. C) The cells contain different genes. D) The mutations that have accumulated in the cells of the different tissues control functions.

A) The cells exhibit different patterns of gene expression.

17) How can a single RNA transcript be translated into different polypeptides? A) There is more than one way to splice an RNA transcript. B) There is more than one way to modify the coded polypeptide. C) The length of its tail can vary. D) Two different genes can produce the same RNA transcript, which will then be translated differently.

A) There is more than one way to splice an RNA transcript.

The mutation would be most harmful to the cells if it resulted in ______. A) a single nucleotide insertion near the start of the coding sequence B) a single nucleotide deletion near the end of the coding sequence C) a single nucleotide in the middle of an intron D) deletion of a triplet near the middle of the gene

A) a single nucleotide insertion near the start of the coding sequence

Peptide bonds form between ________. A) amino acids B) an mRNA codon and a tRNA anticodon C) a tRNA and the amino acid it is carrying D) an mRNA transcript and the small ribosomal subunit

A) amino acids

10) While examining a human cell that functions normally, you determine that it has 45 functional chromosomes and one chromosome that is almost completely inactive. You immediately decide that it is very likely that this cell ______. A) came from a normal human female B) is lacking a chromosome C) is a gamete D) will become cancerous if one or two more genes are mutated

A) came from a normal human female

During translation, what is the correct order of events that occur as an amino acid is added? A) codon recognition, peptide bond formation, translocation B) translocation, codon recognition, termination C) initiation, codon recognition, termination D) peptide bond formation, translocation, codon recognition

A) codon recognition, peptide bond formation, translocation

Transcription is the ______. A) manufacture of a strand of RNA complementary to a strand of DNA B) manufacture of two new DNA double helices that are identical to an old DNA double helix C) modification of a strand of RNA prior to the manufacture of a protein D) manufacture of a protein based on information carried by RNA

A) manufacture of a strand of RNA complementary to a strand of DNA

15) Introns are ______. A) noncoding DNA sequences B) DNA sequences to which activators bind C) expressed DNA sequences D) the product of RNA splicing

A) noncoding DNA sequences

DNA and RNA are polymers composed of ______ monomers. A) nucleotide B) carbohydrate C) fatty acid D) amino acid

A) nucleotide

Plant viruses ______. A) often use RNA, rather than DNA, as their genetic material B) benefit plants, rather than causing disease C) cause diseases that can be easily cured D) do not exist-viruses only attack animals

A) often use RNA, rather than DNA, as their genetic material

What is the smallest number of nucleotides that must be added or subtracted to change the triplet grouping of the genetic message? A) one B) two C) three D) four

A) one

6) In an operon, the ______ acts as an on/off switch. A) Operator B) Promoter C) Activator D) Repressor

A) operator

3) In bacteria, what name is given to a cluster of genes with related functions, along with their DNA control sequences? A) Operon B) Activator C) Promoter D) Recombination

A) operon

5) In prokaryotes, the production of a single RNA transcript for a group of related genes is under the control of the ______. A) Operon B) Master Control gene C) Signal Transduction Pathway D) Homeobox

A) operon

Thymine and cytosine differ from adenine and guanine in that A) thymine and cytosine are single-ring structures, whereas adenine and guanine are double-ring structures. B) thymine and cytosine are only found in DNA, whereas adenine and guanine are found in both DNA and RNA. C) thymine and cytosine are only found in DNA, whereas adenine and guanine are only found in RNA. D) thymine and cytosine are larger nitrogenous bases.

A) thymine and cytosine are single-ring structures, whereas adenine and guanine are double-ring structures.

Which of these is a genetically modified organism

An organism carrying a gene that was acquired by artificial means

Which of the following best defines the term transgenetic organism

An organism containing a gene from another species

How many amino acids are common to all living systems? A) 10 B) 20 C) 30 D) 100

B) 20

The DNA codon AGT codes for an amino acid carried by a tRNA with the anticodon ______. A) TCU B) AGU C) TCA D) AGT

B) AGU

26) What is a difference between embryonic and adult stem cells? A) The use of embryonic stem cells raises fewer ethical issues than the use of adult stem cells. B) Embryonic stem cells are undifferentiated; adult stem cells are partially differentiated. C) It is easier to enucleate embryonic stem cells. D) Adult stem cells are easier to grow in culture.

B) Embryonic stem cells are undifferentiated; adult stem cells are partially differentiated.

Translation converts the information stored in ______ to ______. A) DNA... RNA B) RNA... a polypeptide C) DNA... a polypeptide D) RNA... DNA

B) RNA... a polypeptide

Who discovered the structure of DNA? A) Pauling B) Watson and Crick C) Franklin D) Hershey and Chase

B) Watson and Crick

45) If you were asked to study the pattern of bacterial growth (increase in numbers over time) during an infection, you would find that numbers of bacteria increase exponentially up to a certain point. Assume that you have been asked to interpret the growth of bacteriophages. You infect the host bacteria and measure the increase of phages over a defined period of time. You plot the results and get the graph shown here. The first thing you notice is that there is no immediate increase in viruses following infection. This is because ______. A) it takes the virus time to adapt to the host B) although the virus has infected the host, it takes time to complete the lytic cycle C) the host is immune to the virus D) the virus is in a lysogenic cycle throughout the experiment

B) although the virus has infected the host, it takes time to complete the lytic cycle

13) Which of these plays a role in the regulation of transcription in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells? A) RNA splicing B) attachment of RNA polymerase to the promoter C) transcription factors D) gene operons

B) attachment of RNA polymerase to the promoter

After replication, ______. A) each new DNA double helix consists of two old strands B) each new DNA double helix consists of one old strand and one new strand C) each new DNA double helix consists of two new strands D) one new DNA double helix consists of two old strands and the other new DNA double helix consists of two new strands

B) each new DNA double helix consists of one old strand and one new strand

The correct sequence of events occurring during transcription is ______. A) splicing, capping, tailing B) initiation, elongation, termination C) tailing, capping, splicing D) elongation, initiation, termination

B) initiation, elongation, termination

44) Consider the following figure. It indicates that a single amino acid substitution ______. A) always involves adenine and uracil B) may alter a protein so that it no longer functions properly C) is a silent mutation D) causes a nonsense mutation

B) may alter a protein so that it no longer functions properly

37) The lac operon is shown in the accompanying figure. Answer the following question after reviewing the figure. The lac operon is usually in the ______ position and is activated by ______. A) on... the repressor B) off... lactose C) of... the repressor D) on... the promoter

B) off... lactose

The region of DNA where RNA synthesis begins is the ______. A) start codon B) promoter C) initiator D) processor

B) promoter

7) Which of the following turns off transcription by binding to the operator? A) RNA polymerase B) Repressor C) Promoter D) Lactose

B) repressor

A mutation within a gene that will insert a premature stop codon in mRNA would ______. A) result in a polypeptide that is one amino acid shorter than the one produced prior to the mutation B) result in a shortened polypeptide chain C) change the location at which transcription of the next gene begins D) have the same effect as deleting a single nucleotide in the gene

B) result in a shortened polypeptide chain

HIV (human immunodeficiency virus) must use its own ______ to reproduce. A) DNA polymerase B) reverse transcriptase C) RNA polymerase D) tRNA

B) reverse transcriptase

9) What would you assume if you found RNA transcripts of lactose-utilizing genes within E. coli? A) the binding of lactose to the lac operon activator B) the presence of lactose C) the presence of lac operon activator protein D) the absence of lac operon repressor protein

B) the presence of lactose

How many nucleotides make up a codon? A) two B) three C) four D) five

B) three

Restriction enzymes are obtained from

Bacteria

If one strand of a DNA double helix has the sequence GTCCAT, what is the sequence of the other strand? A) ACTTGC B) TGAACG C) CAGGTA D) CAGGUA

C) CAGGTA

11) What is the first level of control of eukaryotic gene transcription? A) RNA splicing B) attachment of RNA polymerase to the promoter C) DNA packing and unpacking D) the binding and unbinding of transcription factors to enhancer sequences

C) DNA packing and unpacking

38) Consider the following figure, which outlines cloning by nuclear transplantation. Why does the clone not resemble the surrogate mother? A) The sperm came from a male donor, who would also pass some of his traits to the clone. B) The embryonic cells are adversely influenced by the surrogate. C) The clone would exhibit characteristics of the genetic donor, not the surrogate. D) The nuclear material from the egg would influence the appearance of the clone.

C) The clone would exhibit characteristics of the genetic donor, not the surrogate.

The backbone of DNA consists of ______. A) nitrogenous bases B) a repeating sugar-nucleotide-sugar-nucleotide pattern C) a repeating sugar-phosphate-sugar-phosphate pattern D) paired nucleotides

C) a repeating sugar-phosphate-sugar-phosphate pattern

The shared genetic code of all life on Earth is evidence that ______. A) the genetic code arose relatively late in the history of life on Earth B) DNA replication is error-free C) all life shares a common ancestry D) bacterial cells arose earlier than eukaryotic cells

C) all life shares a common ancestry

36) The figure below illustrates ______. A) transcription factors B) activators C) alternative RNA splicing D) protein activation

C) alternative RNA splicing

24) Reproductive cloning involves A) reacquire the genes it lost during the course of development B) come from an early stage of embryonic development C) be dedifferentiated D) be implanted in the egg of an organism that is capable of regenerating lost body parts

C) be dedifferentiated

The expressed (coding) regions of eukaryotic genes are called ______. A) caps B) promoters C) exons D) introns

C) exons

A(n) ______ is to bacteria as a ______ is to animal cells. A) retrovirus... virus B) phage... prophage C) prophage... provirus D) RNA virus... DNA virus

C) prophage...... provirus

Where is translation accomplished? A) lysosomes B) smooth endoplasmic reticulum C) ribosomes D) nucleoli

C) ribosomes

If a strand of DNA has the sequence AAGCTC, transcription will result in a(n) ______. A) single RNA strand with the sequence TTCGAG B) DNA double helix with the sequence AAGCTC for one strand and TTCGAG for the complementary strand C) single RNA strand with the sequence UUCGAG D) RNA double helix with the sequence UUCGAG for one strand and AAGCUC for the complimentary strand

C) single RNA strand with the sequence UUCGAG

The absence of a terminator in transcription will result in ______. A) the creation of a virus B) a strand of mRNA that lacks its cap and tail C) the production of a longer RNA molecule D) the production of a shorter RNA molecule

C) the production of a longer RNA molecule

In a DNA double helix, adenine pairs with ______ and guanine pairs with ______. A) cytosine... thymine B) guanine... adenine C) thymine... cytosine D) uracil... cytosine

C) thymine... cytosine

35) Examine the figure below. The initiation of transcription requires that enhancers bind to _____. A) DNA B) the promoter C) transcription factors D) RNA polymerase

C) transcription factors

How can bacteriophage DNA be spread from cell to cell without causing cell death? A) by altering the way a cell splices its RNA B) via a lytic cycle C) via a lysogenic cycle D) by altering its DNA

C) via a lysogenic cycle

If adenine makes up 20% of the bases in a DNA double helix, what percent of the bases are guanine? A) 60% B) 40% C) 20% D) 30%

D) 30%

8) Repressors act by blocking the binding of _____ to the operator. A) Promoters B) DNA polymerase C) the Operon D) RNA polymerase

D) RNA polymerase

Which of the following enzymes is responsible for RNA synthesis? A) RNase B) RNA helicase C) RNA ligase D) RNA polymerase

D) RNA polymerase

What protects mRNA from attack by cellular enzymes? A) RNA splicing B) the removal of exons C) the lack of RNA-digesting enzymes in the cytoplasm D) a cap and tail

D) a cap and tail

25) Possible uses of reproductive cloning include ______. A) the production of genetically identical animals for experimentation B) the production of organs in pigs for transplant into humans C) restocking populations of endangered animals D) all of the above.

D) all of the above.

What type of chemical bond joins the bases of complementary DNA strands? A) ionic B) covalent C) hydrophilic D) hydrogen

D) hydrogen

The RNA that is translated into a polypeptide is ______ RNA. A) nuclear B) ribosomal C) transfer D) messenger

D) messenger

What is the ultimate source of all diversity? A) natural selection B) sexual recombination C) meiosis D) mutation

D) mutation

The modern phrasing of Beadle and Tatum's hypothesis about relationships between genes and their products is "one gene-one ______." A) enzyme B) RNA C) protein D) polypeptide

D) polypeptide

4) Bacterial RNA polymerase binds to the ______. A) Operator B) Proto-oncogene C) Regulatory Gene D) Promoter

D) promoter

DNA replication A) is a slow process that results in virtually no errors. B) requires DNA polymerase and RNA polymerase. C) is a very fast process that results in numerous errors. D) requires the cooperation of over a dozen enzymes and other proteins.

D) requires the cooperation of over a dozen enzymes and other proteins.

Once viruses are detected, the number of viruses increases rapidly. This is because ______. A) lysogeny produces large numbers of bacteriophages B) DNA viruses reproduce more rapidly than RNA viruses C) the host cell speeds the release process D) the viruses lyse the hosts to release mature viruses all at once

D) the viruses lyse the hosts to release mature viruses all at once

Which enzyme is used to bind DNA fragments together

DNA ligase

Which of the following is the best definition for recombinant DNA

DNA that includes pieces from two different sources

Nucleic acid probes are used to

Find a specific nucleotide sequence

The process of making multiple copies of a gene by inserting it into a host genome and culturing the host is an example of

Gene cloning

Which of these statements can be logically inferred from the amount of DNA shared by chimpanzees and humans

Humans and chimpanzees share a relatively recent common ancestor

The world's first genetically engineered pharmaceutical product was

Humulin

Of these steps, which occurs first in the production of recombinant plasmid

Isolation of a plasmid from a bacterium

Gel electrophoresis separate DNA fragments on the basis of differences in their

Length

Which of these can act as a vector to introduce new genes into a cell

Plasmids

To make restriction fragments of a DNA sample is treated with

Restriction enzymes

Sticky ends are

Single-stranded ends of fragments of double-stranded DNA

Transgenic animals are currently used

To produce potentially useful protein

A vaccine works by

Stimulating the immune system to develop lasting defenses

A DNA fragment with a sticky and that reads ATTCG will bind with another DNA fragment with a sticky and that reads

TAAGC

Of these steps which one acker earliest in the process of producing recombinant DNA

The same restriction enzyme is used to isolate the gene of interest and to cut the plasmid DNA

Of the following which is the last step in the production of recombinant DNA plasmid

Using DNA ligase to join DNA fragments

transgenic organism

an organism that gets a gene from another species

DNA Technology

modern laboratory techniques for studying and manipulating genetic material

genetically modified organisms

organisms that have acquired one or more genes by artificial means

restriction fragments

pieces of DNA like A and G

plasmids

small, circular DNA molecules that replicate separately from the large bacterial chromosome & carry genes

DNA ligase

the "pasting" enzyme; connects the DNA pieces into continuous strands by forming bonds between adjacent nucleotides

restriction site

the DNA sequence recognized by a particular restriction enzyme

restriction enzymes

the cutting tool used for making recombinant DNA

genetic engineering

the direct manipulation of genes for practical purposes

gene cloning

the production of multiple identical copies of a gene-carrying piece of DNA