BIOL 112 Exam 1 (Ch.22,23,24) Practice Test Questions
30) Arrange the following from most general (i.e., most inclusive) to most specific (i.e., least inclusive): 1. natural selection 2. microevolution 3. intrasexual selection 4. evolution 5. sexual selection
4, 2, 1, 5, 3
31) Sexual dimorphism is most often a result of A) pansexual selection. B) stabilizing selection. C) intrasexual selection. D) intersexual selection. E) artificial selection.
D) intersexual selection.
12) Given a population that contains genetic variation, what is the correct sequence of the following events, under the influence of natural selection? 1. Well-adapted individuals leave more offspring than do poorly adapted individuals. 2. A change occurs in the environment. 3. Genetic frequencies within the population change. 4. Poorly adapted individuals have decreased survivorship.
2 → 4 → 1 → 3
10) Rank the following one-base point mutations (from most likely to least likely) with respect to their likelihood of affecting the structure of the corresponding polypeptide: 1. insertion mutation deep within an intron 2. substitution mutation at the third position of an exonic codon 3. substitution mutation at the second position of an exonic codon 4. deletion mutation within the first exon of the gene
4, 3, 2, 1
Definition of Evolution (currently):
A change in the genetic composition of a population from generation to generation.
Descent with modification:
A phrase Darwin used in proposing that Earth's many species are descendants of ancestral species that were different from the present-day species.
45) There are those who claim that the theory of evolution cannot be true because the apes, which are supposed to be closely related to humans, do not likewise share the same large brains, capacity for complicated speech, and tool-making capability. They reason that if these features are generally beneficial, then the apes should have evolved them as well. Which of these provides the best argument against this misconception? A) Advantageous alleles do not arise on demand. B) A population's evolution is limited by historical constraints. C) Adaptations are often compromises. D) Evolution can be influenced by environmental change.
A) Advantageous alleles do not arise on demand.
9) Which of these conditions should completely prevent the occurrence of natural selection in a population over time? A) All variation between individuals is due only to environmental factors. B) The environment is changing at a relatively slow rate. C) The population size is large. D) The population lives in a habitat where there are no competing species present.
A) All variation between individuals is due only to environmental factors.
5) During a study session about evolution, one of your fellow students remarks, "The giraffe stretched its neck while reaching for higher leaves; its offspring inherited longer necks as a result." Which statement is most likely to be helpful in correcting this student's misconception? A) Characteristics acquired during an organism's life are generally not passed on through genes. B) Spontaneous mutations can result in the appearance of new traits. C) Only favorable adaptations have survival value. D) Disuse of an organ may lead to its eventual disappearance. E) If the giraffes did not have to compete with each other, longer necks would not have been passed on to the next generation.
A) Characteristics acquired during an organism's life are generally not passed on through genes.
4) What was the prevailing belief prior to the time of Lyell and Darwin? A) Earth is a few thousand years old, and populations are unchanging. B) Earth is a few thousand years old, and populations gradually change. C) Earth is millions of years old, and populations rapidly change. D) Earth is millions of years old, and populations are unchanging. E) Earth is millions of years old, and populations gradually change.
A) Earth is a few thousand years old, and populations are unchanging.
34) Adult male humans generally have deeper voices than do adult female humans, which is the direct result of higher levels of testosterone causing growth of the larynx. If the fossil records of apes and humans alike show a trend toward decreasing larynx size in adult females and increasing larynx size in adult males, then A) sexual dimorphism was developing over time in these species. B) intrasexual selection seems to have occurred. C) stabilizing selection was occurring in these species concerning larynx size. D) selection was acting more directly upon genotype than upon phenotype.
A) sexual dimorphism was developing over time in these species.
16) If Darwin had been aware of genes, and of their typical mode of transmission to subsequent generations, with which statement would he most likely have been in agreement? A) If natural selection can change one gene's frequency in a population over the course of generations then, given enough time and enough genes, natural selection can cause sufficient genetic change to produce new species from old ones. B) If an individual's somatic cell genes change during its lifetime, making it more fit, then it will be able to pass these genes on to its offspring. C) If an individual acquires new genes by engulfing, or being infected by, another organism, then a new genetic species will be the result. D) A single mutation in a single gene in a single gamete will, if perpetuated, produce a new species within just two generations.
A) If natural selection can change one gene's frequency in a population over the course of generations then, given enough time and enough genes, natural selection can cause sufficient genetic change to produce new species from old ones.
HIV's genome of RNA includes the code for reverse transcriptase (RT), an enzyme that acts early in infection to synthesize a DNA genome off of an RNA template. The HIV genome also codes for protease (PR), an enzyme that acts later in infection by cutting long viral polyproteins into smaller, functional proteins. Both RT and PR represent potential targets for antiretroviral drugs. Drugs called nucleoside analogs (NA) act against RT, whereas drugs called protease inhibitors (PI) act against PR. 55) In a hypothetical population's gene pool, an autosomal gene, which had previously been fixed, undergoes a mutation that introduces a new allele, one inherited according to incomplete dominance. Natural selection then causes stabilizing selection at this locus. Consequently, what should happen over the course of many generations? A) The proportions of both types of homozygote should decrease. B) The proportion of the population that is heterozygous at this locus should remain constant. C) The population's average heterozygosity should decrease. D) The two homozygotes should decrease at different rates.
A) The proportions of both types of homozygote should decrease.
7) A trend toward the decrease in the size of plants on the slopes of mountains as altitudes increase is an example of A) a cline. B) a bottleneck. C) relative fitness. D) genetic drift. E) geographic variation.
A) a cline.
36) If one wanted to find the largest number of endemic species, one should visit which of the following geological features (assuming each has existed for several millions of years)? A) an isolated ocean island in the tropics B) an extensive mountain range C) a midcontinental grassland with extreme climatic conditions D) a shallow estuary on a warm-water coast
A) an isolated ocean island in the tropics
3) Which of these variables is likely to undergo the largest change in value as the result of a mutation that introduces a brand-new allele into a population's gene pool at a locus that had formerly been fixed? A) average heterozygosity B) nucleotide variability C) geographic variability D) average number of loci
A) average heterozygosity
28) The restriction enzymes of bacteria protect the bacteria from successful attack by bacteriophages, whose genomes can be degraded by the restriction enzymes. The bacterial genomes are not vulnerable to these restriction enzymes because bacterial DNA is methylated. This situation selects for bacteriophages whose genomes are also methylated. As new strains of resistant bacteriophages become more prevalent, this in turn selects for bacteria whose genomes are not methylated and whose restriction enzymes instead degrade methylated DNA. The outcome of the conflict between bacteria and bacteriophage at any point in time results from A) frequency-dependent selection. B) evolutionary imbalance. C) heterozygote advantage. D) neutral variation. E) genetic variation being preserved by diploidy.
A) frequency-dependent selection.
14) Which of the following must exist in a population before natural selection can act upon that population? A) genetic variation among individuals B) variation among individuals caused by environmental factors C) sexual reproduction D) Three of the responses are correct. E) Two of the responses are correct.
A) genetic variation among individuals
55) DNA sequences in many human genes are very similar to the sequences of corresponding genes in chimpanzees. The most likely explanation for this result is that A) humans and chimpanzees share a relatively recent common ancestor. B) humans evolved from chimpanzees. C) chimpanzees evolved from humans. D) convergent evolution led to the DNA similarities. E) humans and chimpanzees are not closely related.
A) humans and chimpanzees share a relatively recent common ancestor.
About 13 different species of finches inhabit the Galápagos Islands today, all descendants of a common ancestor from the South American mainland that arrived a few million years ago. Genetically, there are four distinct lineages, but the 13 species are currently classified among three genera. The first lineage to diverge from the ancestral lineage was the warbler finch (genus Certhidea). Next to diverge was the vegetarian finch (genus Camarhynchus), followed by five tree finch species (also in genus Camarhynchus) and six ground finch species (genus Geospiza). 49) According to a 1999 study, the vegetarian finch is genetically no more similar to the tree finches than it is to the ground finches, despite the fact that it is placed in the same genus as the tree finches. Based on this finding, it is reasonable to conclude that the vegetarian finch A) is no more closely related to the tree finches than it is to the ground finches, despite its classification. B) should be re-classified as a warbler finch. C) is not truly a descendent of the original ancestral finch. D) is a hybrid species, resulting from a cross between a ground finch and a tree finch.
A) is no more closely related to the tree finches than it is to the ground finches, despite its classification.
35) It has been observed that organisms on islands are different from, but closely related to, similar forms found on the nearest continent. This is taken as evidence that A) island forms and mainland forms descended from common ancestors. B) common environments are inhabited by the same organisms. C) the islands were originally part of the continent. D) the island forms and mainland forms are converging. E) island forms and mainland forms have identical gene pools.
A) island forms and mainland forms descended from common ancestors.
14) Whenever diploid populations are in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium at a particular locus A) the allele's frequency should not change from one generation to the next, but its representation in homozygous and heterozygous genotypes may change. B) natural selection, gene flow, and genetic drift are acting equally to change an allele's frequency. C) this means that, at this locus, two alleles are present in equal proportions. D) the population itself is not evolving, but individuals within the population may be evolving.
A) the allele's frequency should not change from one generation to the next, but its representation in homozygous and heterozygous genotypes may change.
HIV's genome of RNA includes the code for reverse transcriptase (RT), an enzyme that acts early in infection to synthesize a DNA genome off of an RNA template. The HIV genome also codes for protease (PR), an enzyme that acts later in infection by cutting long viral polyproteins into smaller, functional proteins. Both RT and PR represent potential targets for antiretroviral drugs. Drugs called nucleoside analogs (NA) act against RT, whereas drugs called protease inhibitors (PI) act against PR. 52) Within the body of an HIV-infected individual who is being treated with a single NA, and whose HIV particles are currently vulnerable to this NA, which of these situations can increase the virus' relative fitness? 1. mutations resulting in RTs with decreased rates of nucleotide mismatch 2. mutations resulting in RTs with increased rates of nucleotide mismatch 3. mutations resulting in RTs that have proofreading capability A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 3 only D) 1 and 3 E) 2 and 3
B) 2 only
27) Which of the following pieces of evidence most strongly supports the common origin of all life on Earth? A) All organisms require energy. B) All organisms use essentially the same genetic code. C) All organisms reproduce. D) All organisms show heritable variation. E) All organisms have undergone evolution.
B) All organisms use essentially the same genetic code.
4) Which statement about the beak size of finches on the island of Daphne Major during prolonged drought is true? A) Each bird evolved a deeper, stronger beak as the drought persisted. B) Each bird's survival was strongly influenced by the depth and strength of its beak as the drought persisted. C) Each bird that survived the drought produced only offspring with deeper, stronger beaks than seen in the previous generation. D) The frequency of the strong-beak alleles increased in each bird as the drought persisted.
B) Each bird's survival was strongly influenced by the depth and strength of its beak as the drought persisted.
33) What must be true of any organ that is described as vestigial? A) It must be analogous to some feature in an ancestor. B) It must be homologous to some feature in an ancestor. C) It must be both homologous and analogous to some feature in an ancestor. D) It need be neither homologous nor analogous to some feature in an ancestor.
B) It must be homologous to some feature in an ancestor.
43) The same gene that causes various coat patterns in wild and domesticated cats also causes the cross-eyed condition in these cats, the cross-eyed condition being slightly maladaptive. In a hypothetical environment, the coat pattern that is associated with crossed eyes is highly adaptive, with the result that both the coat pattern and the cross-eyed condition increase in a feline population over time. Which statement is supported by these observations? A) Evolution is progressive and tends toward a more perfect population. B) Phenotype is often the result of compromise. C) Natural selection reduces the frequency of maladaptive genes in populations over the course of time. D) Polygenic inheritance is generally maladaptive, and should become less common in future generations. E) In all environments, coat pattern is a more important survival factor than is eye-muscle tone.
B) Phenotype is often the result of compromise.
51) Which of the following is not an observation or inference on which natural selection is based? A) There is heritable variation among individuals. B) Poorly adapted individuals never produce offspring. C) Species produce more offspring than the environment can support. D) Individuals whose characteristics are best suited to the environment generally leave more offspring than those whose characteristics are less well suited. E) Only a fraction of an individual's offspring may survive.
B) Poorly adapted individuals never produce offspring.
11) Which of the following represents an idea that Darwin learned from the writings of Thomas Malthus? A) Technological innovation in agricultural practices will permit exponential growth of the human population into the foreseeable future. B) Populations tend to increase at a faster rate than their food supply normally allows. C) Earth changed over the years through a series of catastrophic upheavals. D) The environment is responsible for natural selection. E) Earth is more than 10,000 years old.
B) Populations tend to increase at a faster rate than their food supply normally allows.
18) Currently, two extant elephant species (X and Y) are placed in the genus Loxodonta, and a third species (Z) is placed in the genus Elephas. Thus, which statement should be true? A) Species X and Y are not related to species Z. B) Species X and Y share a greater number of homologies with each other than either does with species Z. C) Species X and Y share a common ancestor that is still extant (in other words, not yet extinct). D) Species X and Y are the result of artificial selection from an ancestral species Z. E) Species X, Y, and Z share a common ancestor, but nothing more can be claimed than this.
B) Species X and Y share a greater number of homologies with each other than either does with species Z.
30) Members of two different species possess a similar-looking structure that they use in a similar fashion to perform the same function. Which information would best help distinguish between an explanation based on homology versus one based on convergent evolution? A) The two species live at great distance from each other. B) The two species share many proteins in common, and the nucleotide sequences that code for these proteins are almost identical. C) The sizes of the structures in adult members of both species are similar in size. D) Both species are well adapted to their particular environments.
B) The two species share many proteins in common, and the nucleotide sequences that code for these proteins are almost identical.
About 13 different species of finches inhabit the Galápagos Islands today, all descendants of a common ancestor from the South American mainland that arrived a few million years ago. Genetically, there are four distinct lineages, but the 13 species are currently classified among three genera. The first lineage to diverge from the ancestral lineage was the warbler finch (genus Certhidea). Next to diverge was the vegetarian finch (genus Camarhynchus), followed by five tree finch species (also in genus Camarhynchus) and six ground finch species (genus Geospiza). 48) If the six ground finch species have evolved most recently, then which of these is the most logical prediction? A) They should be limited to the six islands that most recently emerged from the sea. B) Their genomes should be more similar to each other than are the genomes of the five tree finch species. C) They should share fewer anatomical homologies with each other than they share with the tree finches. D) The chances of hybridization between two ground finch species should be less than the chances of hybridization between two tree finch species.
B) Their genomes should be more similar to each other than are the genomes of the five tree finch species.
22) If the bacterium Staphylococcus aureus experiences a cost for maintaining one or more antibiotic-resistance genes, then what should happen in environments from which antibiotics are missing? A) These genes should continue to be maintained in case the antibiotics ever appear. B) These bacteria should be outcompeted and replaced by bacteria that have lost these genes. C) The bacteria should try to make the cost worthwhile by locating, and migrating to, microenvironments where traces of antibiotics are present. D) The bacteria should start making and secreting their own antibiotics.
B) These bacteria should be outcompeted and replaced by bacteria that have lost these genes.
1) Which of the following statements best describes theories? A) They are nearly the same things as hypotheses. B) They are supported by, and make sense of, many observations. C) They cannot be tested because the described events occurred only once. D) They are predictions of future events.
B) They are supported by, and make sense of, many observations.
41) In seedcracker finches from Cameroon, small- and large-billed birds specialize in cracking soft and hard seeds, respectively. If long-term climatic change resulted in all seeds becoming hard, what type of selection would then operate on the finch population? A) disruptive selection B) directional selection C) stabilizing selection D) No selection would operate because the population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium.
B) directional selection
15) In the formula for determining a population's genotype frequencies, the 2 in the term 2pq is necessary because A) the population is diploid. B) heterozygotes can come about in two ways. C) the population is doubling in number. D) heterozygotes have two alleles.
B) heterozygotes can come about in two ways.
37) A high degree of endemism is most likely in environments that are A) easily reached and heterogeneous. B) isolated and heterogeneous. C) isolated and homogeneous. D) isolated and extremely cold. E) easily reached and homogeneous.
B) isolated and heterogeneous.
40) Heterozygote advantage should be most closely linked to which of the following? A) sexual selection B) stabilizing selection C) random selection D) directional selection E) disruptive selection
B) stabilizing selection
2) Catastrophism, meaning the regular occurrence of geological or meteorological disturbances (catastrophes), was Cuvier's attempt to explain the existence of A) evolution. B) the fossil record. C) uniformitarianism. D) the origin of new species. E) natural selection.
B) the fossil record.
24) If two modern organisms are distantly related in an evolutionary sense, then one should expect that A) they live in very different habitats. B) they should share fewer homologous structures than two more closely related organisms. C) their chromosomes should be very similar. D) they shared a common ancestor relatively recently. E) they should be members of the same genus.
B) they should share fewer homologous structures than two more closely related organisms.
The following questions refer to Figure 22.1, which shows an outcrop of sedimentary rock whose strata are labeled A-D (from top to bottom). 39) If x (located at B) indicates the fossils of two closely related species, neither of which is extinct, then their remains may be found in how many of these strata? A) one stratum B) two strata C) three strata D) four strata
B) two strata
2) If, on average, 46% of the loci in a species' gene pool are heterozygous, then the average homozygosity of the species should be A) 23%. B) 46%. C) 54%. D) There is not enough information to say.
C) 54%.
The following questions refer to Figure 22.1, which shows an outcrop of sedimentary rock whose strata are labeled A-D (from top to bottom). 38) If x (located at B) indicates the location of fossils of two closely related species, then fossils of their most-recent common ancestor are most likely to occur in which stratum? A) A B) B C) C D) D
C) C
12) Which of the following is a true statement concerning genetic variation? A) It is created by the direct action of natural selection. B) It arises in response to changes in the environment. C) It must be present in a population before natural selection can act upon the population. D) It tends to be reduced by the processes involved when diploid organisms produce gametes. E) A population that has a higher average heterozygosity has less genetic variation than one with a lower average heterozygosity.
C) It must be present in a population before natural selection can act upon the population.
7) In the mid-1900s, the Soviet geneticist Lysenko believed that his winter wheat plants, exposed to ever-colder temperatures, would eventually give rise to ever more cold-tolerant winter wheat. Lysenko's attempts in this regard were most in agreement with the ideas of A) Cuvier. B) Hutton. C) Lamarck. D) Darwin. E) Lyell.
C) Lamarck.
54) The upper forelimbs of humans and bats have fairly similar skeletal structures, whereas the corresponding bones in whales have very different shapes and proportions. However, genetic data suggest that all three kinds of organisms diverged from a common ancestor at about the same time. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for these data? A) Humans and bats evolved by natural selection, and whales evolved by Lamarckian mechanisms. B) Forelimb evolution was adaptive in people and bats, but not in whales. C) Natural selection in an aquatic environment resulted in significant changes to whale forelimb anatomy. D) Genes mutate faster in whales than in humans or bats. E) Whales are not properly classified as mammals.
C) Natural selection in an aquatic environment resulted in significant changes to whale forelimb anatomy.
29) Which of the following statements most detracts from the claim that the human appendix is a completely vestigial organ? A) The appendix can be surgically removed with no immediate ill effects. B) The appendix might have been larger in fossil hominids. C) The appendix has a substantial amount of defensive lymphatic tissue. D) Individuals with a larger-than-average appendix leave fewer offspring than those with a below-average-sized appendix. E) In a million years, the human species might completely lack an appendix.
C) The appendix has a substantial amount of defensive lymphatic tissue.
26) Over evolutionary time, many cave-dwelling organisms have lost their eyes. Tapeworms have lost their digestive systems. Whales have lost their hind limbs. How can natural selection account for these losses? A) Natural selection cannot account for losses, only for innovations. B) Natural selection accounts for these losses by the principle of use and disuse. C) Under particular circumstances that persisted for long periods, each of these structures presented greater costs than benefits. D) The ancestors of these organisms experienced harmful mutations that forced them to find new habitats that these species had not previously used.
C) Under particular circumstances that persisted for long periods, each of these structures presented greater costs than benefits.
23) Evolution A) must happen, due to organisms' innate desire to survive. B) must happen whenever a population is not well-adapted to its environment. C) can happen whenever any of the conditions for Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium are not met. D) requires the operation of natural selection. E) requires that populations become better suited to their environments.
C) can happen whenever any of the conditions for Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium are not met.
1) During an individual organism's lifetime, which of these is most likely to help the organism respond properly to changes in its environment? A) microevolution B) change in allele or gene frequency C) change in gene expression D) change in average heterozygosity
C) change in gene expression
17) The role that humans play in artificial selection is to A) determine who lives and who dies. B) create the genetic variants, which nature then selects. C) choose which organisms breed, and which do not. D) train organisms to breed more successfully. E) perform artificial insemination.
C) choose which organisms breed, and which do not.
39) The recessive allele that causes phenylketonuria (PKU) is harmful, except when an infant's diet lacks the amino acid phenylalanine. What maintains the presence of this harmful allele in a population's gene pool? A) heterozygote advantage B) stabilizing selection C) diploidy D) balancing selection
C) diploidy
35) Adult male humans generally have deeper voices than do adult female humans, which is the direct result of higher levels of testosterone causing growth of the larynx. If one excludes the involvement of gender in the situation, then the pattern that is apparent in the fossil record is most similar to one that should be expected from A) pansexual selection. B) directional selection. C) disruptive selection. D) stabilizing selection. E) asexual selection.
C) disruptive selection.
6) Which of the following is the most accurate summary of Cuvier's consideration of fossils found in the vicinity of Paris? A) extinction of species yes; evolution of new species yes B) extinction of species no; evolution of new species yes C) extinction of species yes; evolution of new species no D) extinction of species no; evolution of new species yes
C) extinction of species yes; evolution of new species no
5) Although each of the following has a better chance of influencing gene frequencies in small populations than in large populations, which one most consistently requires a small population as a precondition for its occurrence? A) mutation B) nonrandom mating C) genetic drift D) natural selection E) gene flow
C) genetic drift
32) Both ancestral birds and ancestral mammals shared a common ancestor that was terrestrial. Today, penguins (which are birds) and seals (which are mammals) have forelimbs adapted for swimming. What term best describes the relationship of the bones in the forelimbs of penguins and seals, and what term best describes the flippers of penguins and seals? A) homologous; homologous B) analogous; homologous C) homologous; analogous D) analogous; analogous
C) homologous; analogous
19) The rise of methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) can be considered to be an example of artificial selection because A) humans purposefully raise MRSA in large fermenters in an attempt to make the bacteria ever-more resistant. B) S. aureus is cultivated by humans to replenish the soil with nutrients. C) humans synthesize methicillin and create environments in which bacteria frequently come into contact with methicillin. D) Humans are becoming resistant to bacteria by taking methicillin.
C) humans synthesize methicillin and create environments in which bacteria frequently come into contact with methicillin.
20) In a hypothetical environment, fishes called pike-cichlids are visual predators of algae-eating fish (in other words, they locate their prey by sight). If a population of algae-eaters experiences predation pressure from pike-cichlids, which of the following is least likely to be observed in the algae-eater population over the course of many generations? A) selection for drab coloration of the algae-eaters B) selection for nocturnal algae-eaters (active only at night) C) selection for larger female algae-eaters, bearing broods composed of more, and larger, young D) selection for algae-eaters that become sexually mature at smaller overall body sizes E) selection for algae-eaters that are faster swimmers
C) selection for larger female algae-eaters, bearing broods composed of more, and larger, young
38) Most Swiss starlings produce four to five eggs in each clutch. Starlings producing fewer, or more, than this have reduced fitness. Which of the following terms best describes this situation? A) artificial selection B) directional selection C) stabilizing selection D) disruptive selection E) sexual selection
C) stabilizing selection
15) Which of Darwin's ideas had the strongest connection to Darwin having read Malthus's essay on human population growth? A) descent with modification B) variation among individuals in a population C) struggle for existence D) the ability of related species to be conceptualized in "tree thinking" E) that the ancestors of the Galápagos finches had come from the South American mainland
C) struggle for existence
22) In peas, a gene controls flower color such that R = purple and r = white. In an isolated pea patch, there are 36 purple-flowering plants and 64 white-flowering plants. Assuming Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, what is the value of q for this population? A) 0.36 B) 0.64 C) 0.75 D) 0.80
D) 0.80
20) In a Hardy-Weinberg population with two alleles, A and a, that are in equilibrium, the frequency of allele a is 0.1. What is the frequency of individuals with AA genotype? A) 0.20 B) 0.32 C) 0.42 D) 0.81 E) Genotype frequency cannot be determined from the information provided.
D) 0.81
18) In a Hardy-Weinberg population with two alleles, A and a, that are in equilibrium, the frequency of the allele a is 0.3. What is the percentage of the population that is homozygous for this allele? A) 0.09 B) 0.49 C) 0.9 D) 9.0 E) 49.0
D) 9.0
9) Which statement about variation is true? A) All phenotypic variation is the result of genotypic variation. B) All genetic variation produces phenotypic variation. C) All nucleotide variability results in neutral variation. D) All new alleles are the result of nucleotide variability. E) All geographic variation results from the existence of clines.
D) All new alleles are the result of nucleotide variability.
13) How many of these statements regarding populations are true? 1. Mature males and females of a population can interbreed with each other. 2. Populations are sometimes geographically isolated from other populations. 3. Biological species are made up of populations. 4. Members of a population tend to be genetically more similar to each other than to members of other populations. 5. Populations have genomes, but not gene pools. A) Only one of these statements is true. B) Two of these statements are true. C) Three of these statements are true. D) Four of these statements are true. E) All five of these statements are true.
D) Four of these statements are true.
36) Which of the following statements best summarizes evolution as it is viewed today? A) It represents the result of selection for acquired characteristics. B) It is synonymous with the process of gene flow. C) It is the descent of humans from the present-day great apes. D) It is the differential survival and reproduction of the most-fit phenotypes.
D) It is the differential survival and reproduction of the most-fit phenotypes.
29) The restriction enzymes of bacteria protect the bacteria from successful attack by bacteriophages, whose genomes can be degraded by the restriction enzymes. The bacterial genomes are not vulnerable to these restriction enzymes because bacterial DNA is methylated. This situation selects for bacteriophages whose genomes are also methylated. As new strains of resistant bacteriophages become more prevalent, this in turn selects for bacteria whose genomes are not methylated and whose restriction enzymes instead degrade methylated DNA. Over the course of evolutionary time, what should occur? A) Methylated DNA should become fixed in the gene pools of bacterial species. B) Nonmethylated DNA should become fixed in the gene pools of bacteriophages. C) Methylated DNA should become fixed in the gene pools of bacteriophages. D) Methylated and nonmethylated strains should be maintained among both bacteria and bacteriophages, with ratios that vary over time. E) Both the first and second responses are correct.
D) Methylated and nonmethylated strains should be maintained among both bacteria and bacteriophages, with ratios that vary over time.
27) What is true of natural selection? A) Natural selection is a random process. B) Natural selection creates beneficial mutations. C) The only way to eliminate harmful mutations is through natural selection. D) Mutations occur at random; natural selection can preserve and distribute beneficial mutations. E) Mutations occur when directed by the good of the species; natural selection edits out harmful mutations and causes populations to adapt to the beneficial mutations.
D) Mutations occur at random; natural selection can preserve and distribute beneficial mutations.
21) DDT was once considered a "silver bullet" that would permanently eradicate insect pests. Today, instead, DDT is largely useless against many insects. Which of these would have been required for this pest eradication effort to be successful in the long run? A) Larger doses of DDT should have been applied. B) All habitats should have received applications of DDT at about the same time. C) The frequency of DDT application should have been higher. D) None of the individual insects should have possessed genomes that made them resistant to DDT. E) DDT application should have been continual.
D) None of the individual insects should have possessed genomes that made them resistant to DDT.
53) Within six months of effectively using methicillin to treat S. aureus infections in a community, all new infections were caused by MRSA. How can this result best be explained? A) S. aureus can resist vaccines. B) A patient must have become infected with MRSA from another community. C) In response to the drug, S. aureus began making drug-resistant versions of the protein targeted by the drug. D) Some drug-resistant bacteria were present at the start of treatment, and natural selection increased their frequency. E) The drug caused the S. aureus DNA to change.
D) Some drug-resistant bacteria were present at the start of treatment, and natural selection increased their frequency.
52) Which of the following observations helped Darwin shape his concept of descent with modification? A) Species diversity declines farther from the equator. B) Fewer species live on islands than on the nearest continents. C) Birds can be found on islands located farther from the mainland than the birds' maximum nonstop flight distance. D) South American temperate plants are more similar to the tropical plants of South America than to the temperate plants of Europe. E) Earthquakes reshape life by causing mass extinctions.
D) South American temperate plants are more similar to the tropical plants of South America than to the temperate plants of Europe.
34) What is true of pseudogenes? A) They are composed of RNA, rather than DNA. B) They are the same things as introns. C) They are unrelated genes that code for the same gene product. D) They are vestigial genes.
D) They are vestigial genes.
33) During breeding season, one should expect female house finches to prefer to mate with males with the brightest red feathers. Which of the following terms are appropriately applied to this situation? A) sexual selection B) mate choice C) intersexual selection D) Three of the responses are correct. E) Two of the responses are correct.
D) Three of the responses are correct.
32) In the wild, male house finches (Carpodus mexicanus) vary considerably in the amount of red pigmentation in their head and throat feathers, with colors ranging from pale yellow to bright red. These colors come from carotenoid pigments that are found in the birds' diets; no vertebrates are known to synthesize carotenoid pigments. Thus, the brighter red the male's feathers are, the more successful he has been at acquiring the red carotenoid pigment by his food-gathering efforts (all other factors being equal). During breeding season, one should expect female house finches to prefer to mate with males with the brightest red feathers. Which of the following is true of this situation? A) Alleles that promote more efficient acquisition of carotenoid-containing foods by males should increase over the course of generations. B) Alleles that promote more effective deposition of carotenoid pigments in the feathers of males should increase over the course of generations. C) There should be directional selection for bright red feathers in males. D) Three of the statements are correct. E) Two of the statements are correct.
D) Three of the statements are correct.
8) Charles Darwin was the first person to propose A) that evolution occurs. B) a mechanism for how evolution occurs. C) that Earth is older than a few thousand years. D) a mechanism for evolution that was supported by evidence. E) that population growth can outpace the growth of food resources.
D) a mechanism for evolution that was supported by evidence.
37) Which of the following is most likely to produce an African butterfly species in the wild whose members have one of two strikingly different color patterns? A) artificial selection B) directional selection C) stabilizing selection D) disruptive selection E) sexual selection
D) disruptive selection
24) Over time, the movement of people on Earth has steadily increased. This has altered the course of human evolution by increasing A) nonrandom mating. B) geographic isolation. C) genetic drift. D) gene flow.
D) gene flow.
25) Swine are vulnerable to infection by bird flu virus and human flu virus, which can both be present in an individual pig at the same time. When this occurs, it is possible for genes from bird flu virus and human flu virus to be combined, thereby producing a genetically distinctive virus, which can subsequently cause widespread disease. The production of new types of flu virus in the manner described above is most similar to the phenomenon of A) bottleneck effect. B) founder effect. C) natural selection. D) gene flow. E) sexual selection.
D) gene flow.
16) In the formula for determining a population's genotype frequencies, the pq in the term 2pq is necessary because A) the population is diploid. B) heterozygotes can come about in two ways. C) the population is doubling in number. D) heterozygotes have two alleles.
D) heterozygotes have two alleles.
44) A proficient engineer can easily design skeletal structures that are more functional than those currently found in the forelimbs of such diverse mammals as horses, whales, and bats. The actual forelimbs of these mammals do not seem to be optimally arranged because A) natural selection has not had sufficient time to create the optimal design in each case, but will do so given enough time. B) in many cases, phenotype is not merely determined by genotype, but by the environment as well. C) though we may not consider the fit between the current skeletal arrangements and their functions excellent, we should not doubt that natural selection ultimately produces the best design. D) natural selection is generally limited to modifying structures that were present in previous generations and in previous species.
D) natural selection is generally limited to modifying structures that were present in previous generations and in previous species.
11) Most invertebrates have a cluster of ten similar Hox genes, all located on the same chromosome. Most vertebrates have four such clusters of Hox genes, located on four nonhomologous chromosomes. The process that could have potentially contributed to the cluster's presence on more than one chromosome was ________. A) binary fission B) translation C) gene duplication D) nondisjunction E) transcription
D) nondisjunction
3) With what other idea of his time was Cuvier's theory of catastrophism most in conflict? A) gradualism B) the fixity of species C) island biogeography D) uniformitarianism E) the scala naturae
D) uniformitarianism
HIV's genome of RNA includes the code for reverse transcriptase (RT), an enzyme that acts early in infection to synthesize a DNA genome off of an RNA template. The HIV genome also codes for protease (PR), an enzyme that acts later in infection by cutting long viral polyproteins into smaller, functional proteins. Both RT and PR represent potential targets for antiretroviral drugs. Drugs called nucleoside analogs (NA) act against RT, whereas drugs called protease inhibitors (PI) act against PR. 51) Which of the following represents the treatment option most likely to avoid the production of drug-resistant HIV (assuming no drug interactions or side effects)? A) using a series of NAs, one at a time, and changed about once a week B) using a single PI, but slowly increasing the dosage over the course of a week C) using high doses of NA and a PI at the same time for a period not to exceed one day D) using moderate doses of NA and two different PIs at the same time for several months
D) using moderate doses of NA and two different PIs at the same time for several months
Definition of Evolution (Darwin's time):
Descent with modification.
26) If the original finches that had been blown over to the Galápagos from South America had already been genetically different from the parental population of South American finches, even before adapting to the Galápagos, this would have been an example of A) genetic drift. B) bottleneck effect. C) founder effect. D) all three of these. E) both the first and third of these.
E) both the first and third of these.
19) In a Hardy-Weinberg population with two alleles, A and a, that are in equilibrium, the frequency of allele a is 0.2. What is the percentage of the population that is heterozygous for this allele? A) 0.2 B) 2.0 C) 4.0 D) 16.0 E) 32.0
E) 32.0
HIV's genome of RNA includes the code for reverse transcriptase (RT), an enzyme that acts early in infection to synthesize a DNA genome off of an RNA template. The HIV genome also codes for protease (PR), an enzyme that acts later in infection by cutting long viral polyproteins into smaller, functional proteins. Both RT and PR represent potential targets for antiretroviral drugs. Drugs called nucleoside analogs (NA) act against RT, whereas drugs called protease inhibitors (PI) act against PR. 53) HIV has nine genes in its RNA genome. Every HIV particle contains two RNA molecules, and each molecule contains all nine genes. If, for some reason, the two RNA molecules within a single HIV particle do not have identical sequences, then which of these terms can be applied due to the existence of the nonidentical regions? A) homozygous B) gene variability C) nucleotide variability D) average heterozygosity E) All but one of the responses are correct.
E) All but one of the responses are correct.
21) You sample a population of butterflies and find that 56% are heterozygous at a particular locus. What should be the frequency of the recessive allele in this population? A) 0.07 B) 0.08 C) 0.09 D) 0.70 E) Allele frequency cannot be determined from this information.
E) Allele frequency cannot be determined from this information.
HIV's genome of RNA includes the code for reverse transcriptase (RT), an enzyme that acts early in infection to synthesize a DNA genome off of an RNA template. The HIV genome also codes for protease (PR), an enzyme that acts later in infection by cutting long viral polyproteins into smaller, functional proteins. Both RT and PR represent potential targets for antiretroviral drugs. Drugs called nucleoside analogs (NA) act against RT, whereas drugs called protease inhibitors (PI) act against PR. 54) Every HIV particle contains two RNA molecules. If two genes from one RNA molecule become detached and then, as a unit, get attached to one end of the other RNA molecule within a single HIV particle, which of these is true? A) There are now fewer genes within the viral particle. B) There are now more genes within the viral particle. C) A point substitution mutation has occurred in the retroviral genome. D) The retroviral equivalent of crossing over has occurred, no doubt resulting in a heightened positive effect. E) One of the RNA molecules has experienced gene duplication as the result of translocation.
E) One of the RNA molecules has experienced gene duplication as the result of translocation.
17) Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium must occur in populations wherein A) an allele remains fixed. B) no genetic variation exists. C) natural selection is not operating. D) All three of the responses above are correct. E) Only two of the responses above are correct.
E) Only two of the responses above are correct.
28) Logically, which of these should cast the most doubt on the relationships depicted by an evolutionary tree? A) None of the organisms depicted by the tree ate the same foods. B) Some of the organisms depicted by the tree had lived in different habitats. C) The skeletal remains of the organisms depicted by the tree were incomplete (in other words, some bones were missing). D) Transitional fossils had not been found. E) Relationships between DNA sequences among the species did not match relationships between skeletal patterns.
E) Relationships between DNA sequences among the species did not match relationships between skeletal patterns.
31) Ichthyosaurs were aquatic dinosaurs. Fossils show us that they had dorsal fins and tails, as do fish, even though their closest relatives were terrestrial reptiles that had neither dorsal fins nor aquatic tails. The dorsal fins and tails of ichthyosaurs and fish are A) homologous. B) examples of convergent evolution. C) adaptations to a common environment. D) Three of the responses above are correct. E) Two of the responses above are correct.
E) Two of the responses above are correct.
13) A biologist studied a population of squirrels for 15 years. During that time, the population was never fewer than 30 squirrels and never more than 45. Her data showed that over half of the squirrels born did not survive to reproduce, because of both competition for food and predation. In a single generation, 90% of the squirrels that were born lived to reproduce, and the population increased to 80. Which inference(s) about this population might be true? A) The amount of available food may have increased. B) The parental generation of squirrels developed better eyesight due to improved diet; the subsequent squirrel generation inherited better eyesight. C) The squirrels of subsequent generations should show greater levels of genetic variation than previous generations, because squirrels that would not have survived in the past will now survive. D) Three of the statements above are correct. E) Two of the statements above are correct.
E) Two of the statements above are correct.
25) Structures as different as human arms, bat wings, and dolphin flippers contain many of the same bones, these bones having developed from very similar embryonic tissues. How do biologists interpret these similarities? A) by identifying the bones as being homologous structures B) by the principle of convergent evolution C) by proposing that humans, bats, and dolphins share a common ancestor D) Three of the statements above are correct. E) Two of the statements above are correct.
E) Two of the statements above are correct.
About 13 different species of finches inhabit the Galápagos Islands today, all descendants of a common ancestor from the South American mainland that arrived a few million years ago. Genetically, there are four distinct lineages, but the 13 species are currently classified among three genera. The first lineage to diverge from the ancestral lineage was the warbler finch (genus Certhidea). Next to diverge was the vegetarian finch (genus Camarhynchus), followed by five tree finch species (also in genus Camarhynchus) and six ground finch species (genus Geospiza). 50) A 14th species that descended from the original ancestral finch, the Cocos Island finch, is endemic to its namesake island, located 550 km off Costa Rica. The Cocos Island finch is genetically much more similar to the tree finches than is the vegetarian finch, yet it is classified in its own genus Pinarolaxias. Moreover, the Cocos Island finch and the vegetarian finch are the two finch species that are most genetically different from the ancestral Galápagos finch. Thus, if classification is to reflect evolutionary relationships, the vegetarian finch should A) remain in the genus Camarhynchus. B) be switched from Camarhynchus to Certhidea. C) be switched from Camarhynchus to Pinarolaxias. D) be switched from Camarhynchus to Geospiza. E) be placed in its own genus.
E) be placed in its own genus.
23) Of the following anatomical structures, which is homologous to the bones in the wing of a bird? A) cartilage in the dorsal fin of a shark B) bones in the hind limb of a kangaroo C) chitinous struts in the wing of a butterfly D) bony rays in the tail fin of a flying fish E) bones in the flipper of a whale
E) bones in the flipper of a whale
42) When imbalances occur in the sex ratio of sexual species that have two sexes (i.e., other than a 50:50 ratio), the members of the minority sex often receive a greater proportion of care and resources from parents than do the offspring of the majority sex. This is most clearly an example of A) sexual selection. B) disruptive selection. C) balancing selection. D) stabilizing selection. E) frequency-dependent selection.
E) frequency-dependent selection.
10) Natural selection is based on all of the following except A) genetic variation exists within populations. B) the best-adapted individuals tend to leave the most offspring. C) individuals who survive longer tend to leave more offspring than those who die young. D) populations tend to produce more individuals than the environment can support. E) individuals adapt to their environments and, thereby, evolve.
E) individuals adapt to their environments and, thereby, evolve.
8) The higher the proportion of loci that are "fixed" in a population, the lower is that population's A) nucleotide variability only. B) genetic polyploidy only. C) average heterozygosity only. D) nucleotide variability, average heterozygosity, and genetic polyploidy. E) nucleotide variability and average heterozygosity only.
E) nucleotide variability and average heterozygosity only.
6) In modern terminology, diversity is understood to be a result of genetic variation. Which of the following is a recognized source of variation for evolution? A) mistakes in translation of structural genes B) mistakes in protein folding C) rampant changes to the dictionary of the genetic code D) binary fission E) recombination by crossing over in meiosis
E) recombination by crossing over in meiosis
