blood Bank Exam (Ch. 2, 3, & 4)

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Which of the following components in the complement cascade mediates the lysis of the target cells? a. C1qrs b. C4a, C3a, and C5a c. C5 to C9 d. C3a and C3b

C5 to C9

You have added IgG-sensitized red cells to the negative indirect antiglobulin test result in the antibody screen procedure. You observe no agglutination in the tube. What is the interpretation for this antibody screen? a. Positive b. Negative c. Cannot determine

Cannot determine

In which source are the regulations regarding the manufacturing of blood banking reagents published? A. Code of Federal Regulations B. AABB Standards for Blood Banks and Transfusion Services C. AABB Technical Manual D.AABB Accreditation Requirements Manual

Code of Federal Regulations

What of the following describes the expression of most blood group inheritance? A. Dominant B. Recessive C. Sex-linked D.Codominant

Codominant

Select the sources of antigen for immunohematology testing. a. Patient red cells and plasma b. Commercial and patient red cells c. Patient plasma and commercial red cells d. Commercial antisera and red cells

Commercial and patient red cells

What source of antigen is selected to determine the presence of a red cell antibody in a patient sample A. Commercial reagent red cells B. Commercial antisera C. Patient serum D.Patient's red cell

Commercial antisera

What source of antibody is selected to determine the specificity of a red cell antigen in a patient sample? A. Commercial reagent red cells B. Commercial antisera C. Patient serum D.Patient plasma

Commercial reagent red cells

To determine the presence of a red cell antibody in a patient's sample, what is the source of antigen? A. Commercial reagents red cells B. Commercial antisera C. Patient serum D.Patient red cells

Commercial reagents red cells

Hemolysis was observed at room temperature when testing a patient's serum with reagent red cells used for screening. When this test was repeated using the patient's plasma, no hemolysis was observed. What was the most likely explanation for the different reactions? a. The plasma sample was collected incorrectly. b. The serum sample was contaminated. c. Complement activation was inhibited by calcium in the plasma sample. d. The serum sample was fresher.

Compliment activation was inhibited by calcium in the plasma

What characteristic is associated with monospecific AHG reagents? A. Increase the dielectric constant in vitro B. Contain either ant-IgG or anti-C3d antibody specificities C. Are not useful in identifying the molecule causing a positive DAT D.Contain human IgG or complement molecules

Contain either anti-IgG or anti-C3d antibody specificities

What is the name of synthetic single-stranded DNA that determines the sequence of DNA for amplification in the PCR reaction? A. Amplicons B. Nucleotides C. DNA primer D.Taq polymerases

DNA primer

What term is used when red cells with the genotype MM react stronger with anti-M than red cells with genotype MN? A. Trans effect B. Dosage effect C. Cis effect D.Suppressor effect

Dosage effect

Select the term that describes the unique part of the antigen that is recognized by a corresponding antibody. A. Immunogen B. Epitope C. Avidity D.Clone

Epitope

In transfusion medicine, what is the name of the process whereby antibodies attached to red cell antigens signal clearance in the liver and spleen? a. Classical complement pathway b. Intravascular hemolysis c. Alternative complement pathway d. Extravascular hemolysis

Extra vascular hemolysis

What regulatory agency provides licensure for blood banking reagents? A. AABB B. FDA C. American Red Cross D.College of American Pathologists

FDA

An antibody molecule can possess one kappa and one lambda light chain. a.True b.False

False

Parents, who both phenotype as group A, cannot have a group O child. a. True b. False

False

What is the potential effect in a tube agglutination result if a red cell suspension with a concentration less than 5% is used? a. False negatives b. False positives c. Hemolysis d. No effect

False negatives

What is the potential effect in a tube agglutination test if a red cell suspension with a concentration greater than 5% is used? a. False negatives b. False positives c. Hemolysis d. No effect

False negatives

A technologist added 4 drops of a 5% red cell suspension instead of the required 1 drop to a hemagglutination test. What is the potential consequence to the test results? a. False-positive b. False-negative c. Hemolysis due to complement activation d. Test results are not affected

False-negative

Select the method that uses the principle of sieving to separate larger agglutinates from smaller agglutinates in Ag-Ab reactions. A. Gel technology B. Solid-phase adherence C. Microplate D.None of the above

Gel technology

In relationship testing, what is the criterion for a direct exclusion? A. Genetic marker is absent in child but present in the mother and alleged father B. Genetic marker is absent in the child, present in mother, and absent in the alleged father C. Genetic marker is present in the child, absent in the mother, and present in the alleged father D.Genetic marker is present in the child, but absent in both the mother and the alleged father

Genetic marker is present in the child, but absent in both the mother and the alleged father.

What genetic information is provided by DNA assays for red cell antigens? A. Loci location B. Phenotype C. Polymorphism D.Genotype

Genotype

What is the chemical composition of an antibody? A. Protein B. Lipid C. Carbohydrate D.Glycoprotein

Glycoprotein

What part of the immunoglobulin molecule distinguishes the isotype? a. Light chain b. Heavy chain c. Kappa chain d. Lambda chain

Heavy chain

What term describes the inheritance of two of the same allele from each parent? A. Homozygous B. Allele C. Heterozygous D.Syntenic

Homozygous

Of the following markers used to test for paternity, which marker provides the most useful statistical value? a. Human leukocyte antigen typing b. D antigens c. ABO system antigens d. The Kidd system (Jka, Jkb)

Human leukocyte antigen typing

Found in mucosal linings A. IgA B. IgG C. IgM D. IgE

IgA

Can initiate allergic reactions A. IgA B. IgG C. IgM D. IgE

IgE

Able to cross the placenta A. IgA B. IgG C. IgM D. IgE

IgG

Detected with the antiglobulin test A. IgA B. IgG C. IgM D. IgE

IgG

Highest plasma/serum concentration A. IgA B. IgG C. IgM D. IgE

IgG

What antibodies are best detected at 37° C and can cause immune-mediated destruction of transfused red cells possessing the corresponding antigen? a. IgM b. IgG c. Both IgM and IgG d. Neither IgM nor IgG

IgG

Which immunoglobulin class is impacted by the zeta potential in a hemagglutination test? a. IgM b. IgG c. IgA d. IgE

IgG

Activates the complement cascade most efficiently A. IgA B. IgG C. IgM D. IgE

IgM

Associated with the intravascular cell destruction A. IgA B. IgG C. IgM D. IgE

IgM

Contains 10 antigen-binding sites A. IgA B. IgG C. IgM D. IgE

IgM

Detected in the immediate-spin phase of the agglutination test A. IgA B. IgG C. IgM D. IgE

IgM

Produced early in a immune response A. IgA B. IgG C. IgM D. IgE

IgM

Reacts best at room temperature A. IgA B. IgG C. IgM D. IgE

IgM

Shape is a pentamer A. IgA B. IgG C. IgM D. IgE

IgM

Rouleaux is a false-positive reaction caused by elevated serum protein levels. Which of the following tests would not likely be affected by an elevated protein level? a. Immediate-spin antibody screen b. Direct antiglobulin test c. Reverse typing in the ABO test d. ABO forward typing

Immediate -spin antibody screen

Select a source of a potential false-positive result in antiglobulin testing. a. Improper centrifugation b. Failure to identify weak positive reactions c. Failure to incubate at 37° C d. Contamination of reagent with human serum

Improper centrifugation

Why is polyethylene glycol reagent added to the screen or panel? a. Enhance detection of IgM antibodies. b. Eliminate the reactivity of certain antigens. c. Increase the avidity of IgG antibodies. d. Eliminate the need for washing in the indirect antiglobulin test.

Increase the avidity of IgG antibodies

Which of the following requires adjustment in order to enhance the reaction of an antibody in vitro? a. Temperature above 37 C b. Speed of the centrifuge above the calibrated settings c. Increase the concentration of red cells in the test system d. Increase the incubation time in the incubator

Increase the incubation time in the incubator

Which of the following situations can enhance hemagglutination reactions? A. Testing at a temperature higher than 37 C B. Increasing the incubation time C. Increasing the antigen concentration D.Making the pH greater than 7

Increasing the incubation time

What is the mode of inheritance when the genes are located close together on the same chromosome? A. Inherited as a haplotype B. Crossover C. Show independent assortment D.Suppress each other

Inherited as a haplotype

With which of the following red cell phenotypes would anti-Jka react most strongly? A. Jk (a-b+) B. Jk (a+b-) C. Jk (a+b-) D.Jk (a-b-)

Jk (a+b-)

What potentiator works by increasing the rate of antibody uptake? a. Bovine serum albumin b. Polyethylene glycol c. LISS d. Ficin

LISS

What reagents are derived from plant extracts? A. Panel cells B. Commercial anti-B C. Lectins D.Antiglobulin reagents

Lectins

What term is defined as the phenomenon of antigens occurring at a different frequency in the population, depending on whether they were inherited by linked or unlinked genes? a. X-linked dominant b. X-linked recessive c. Linkage disequilibrium d. Autosomal recessive

Linkage disequilibrium

What cells can produce antibodies? Natural killer cells B. T cells C. Macrophages Plasma cell

Lipid

Which of the following red cell phenotypes would react most strongly with anti-M? a. M+N+ b. M+N− c. M−N+ d. M−N−

M+N-

Primer? a. Short segment of DNA with a known sequence that can be labeled with a marker b. Technique used to replicate a specific DNA sequences c. The binding of two complementary pairs of DNA d. Marks the sequence to be amplified during PCR e. Amplified target sequences of DNA produced by polymerase chain reaction

Marked the sequence to be amplified during PCR

When does crossing over occur? a. Meiosis b. Mitosis c. Somatic cell division d. Zygote formation

Meiosis

Can you accurately interpret a patient's group AB, D-positive result in ABO and D typing tests using monoclonal antibody reagents without additional testing? a. Yes b. No

No

The children of a group AB mother and a group B father could phenotype as all of the following except: a. O. b. A. c. B. d. AB.

O

Where is the antigen located in a hemagglutination test? A. On the red cell membrane B. Secreted by the red cell C. In the red cell nucleus D.In the plasma or serum

On the red cell membrane

Where is a gene inherited in a cis positon to another gene located? A. On an opposite chromosome B. On a different chromosome number C. On the same chromosome D.Antithetical

On the same chromosome

Select the phrase that defines the term antiherical. A. Similar gene B. Opposite allele C. Opposite antigen D.Heterozygous gene

Opposite antigen

What describes molecules that bind to an antigen to increase phagocytosis? A. Opsonins B. Cytokines C. Haptens D.Isotypes

Opsonins

What is the name of the technique that uses a small amount of DNA and amplifies it for identification? A. RFLP B. DNA probe C. PCR D. Gene mapping

PRC

After the addition of anti-D reagent to a patient's red cell suspension, agglutination was observed. The result with anti-A reagent was negative. What is interpretation of this patient's D typing? A. Patient is D-negative B. Patient is D-positive C. Cannot interpret the test D.Invalid results

Patient is D-positive

After addition of anti-A reagent to a patient's red cell suspension, agglutination was observed. The result with anti-B reagent was negative. What is the interpretation of this patient's ABO typing? A. Patient is group B B. Patient is group A C. Cannot interpret this test D.False-positive results

Patient is group A

What process is described by the engulfment of antibody-coated red cells? a. Lysis of cells b. Binding to cells or antigens c. Agglutination d. Phagocytosis

Phagocytosis

The patient's red cell _____________ is determined by hemagglutination of red cell antigens using specific antisera. a. phenotype b. genotype c. haplotype d. idiotype

Phenotype

What genetic information is provided by hemagglutination testing for red cell antigens? A. Genotype B. Phenotype C. Zygosity D.Polymorphism

Phenotype

What call can produce antibodies? a. nature killer cells b. T cells c. macrophages d. Plasma Cell

Plasma Cell

Which red cells are used to screen for antibodies in donor samples? a. Screening cells (two vials) b. Pooled screening cells c. Panel cells d. Screening cells (three vials)

Pooled screening cells

After performing a tube test, the supernatant of the test was pinkish ad the red cell button was small. How do you interpret the results of this test? A. False-positive B. False-positive C. Positive D.Negative

Positive

The FDA has established minimum standards relating to product quality for use in blood banks and transfusion services before assignment of license to a commercial reagent. What term relates to the strength of the product? a. Potency b. Specificity

Potency

In relationship testing, a "direct exclusion" is established when a genetic marker is: a. present in the child but absent in both the mother and alleged father. b. present in the child, absent in the mother, and present in the alleged father. c. absent in the child, present in the mother, and the alleged father. d. absent in the child, present in the mother, and absent in the alleged father.

Present in the child but absent in both the mother and alleged father.

Where can you locate information regarding reagent limitations? A. SOPs B. Blood bank computer system C. Product inserts D.Product catalogs

Product inserts

What biological molecules are considered the most immunogenic? a. Carbohydrates b. Lipids c. Proteins d. Enzymes

Proteins

What term describes technical procedures to determine whether the analytic testing phase is working properly? a. Quality assurance b. Specificity testing c. Quality control d. Reference standards

Quality control

What type of genetic inheritance trait is expressed by the group O phenotype? a. Codominant b. X-linked c. Dominant d. Recessive

Recessive

In molecular techniques for HLA typing, which high-resolution method analyzes the nucleotide sequence to define the allele? A. SSP B. SSO C. STR D.SBT

SBT

Select the reagent to use for detection of unexpected red cell antibodies in a patient's serum sample. A. A1 and B cells B. Panel cells C. IgG-sensitized cells D.Screening cells

Screening cells

What type of immune response occurs within 1 to 3 days of exposure and contains a significant production of memory B cells? a. Primary b. Secondary c. Tertiary d. None of the above

Secondary

Probe a. Short segment of DNA with a known sequence that can be labeled with a marker b. Technique used to replicate a specific DNA sequences c. The binding of two complementary pairs of DNA d. Marks the sequence to be amplified during PCR e. Amplified target sequences of DNA produced by polymerase chain reaction

Short segment of DNA with a known sequence that can be labeled with a marker

Molecular tests on samples from hematopoietic progenitor cell transplant recipients are used to determine if engraftment is successful. What is the name of this method? A. Sequence-specific primer (SSPs) B. Sequence-based typing (SBT) C. Short tandem repeats (STRs) D.Sequence-specific oligonucleotide probes (SSOPs)

Short tandem repeats (STRs)

Extravascular destruction of blood cells occurs in the: a. blood vessels. b. lymph nodes. c. spleen. d. thymus.

Spleen

Polymerase chain reaction a. Short segment of DNA with a known sequence that can be labeled with a marker b. Technique used to replicate a specific DNA sequences c. The binding of two complementary pairs of DNA d. Marks the sequence to be amplified during PCR e. Amplified target sequences of DNA produced by polymerase chain reaction

Technique used to replicate a specific DNA sequence

You have added IgG-sensitized red cells to a negative indirect antiglobulin test. You observe agglutination in the tube. What situation was not controlled for in testing by adding these control cells? A. The addition of patient serum B. The addition of AHG reagent C. Adequate washing of cell suspension D.Adequate potency of AHG reagent

The addition of patient serum

Hybridization? a. Short segment of DNA with a known sequence that can be labeled with a marker b. Technique used to replicate a specific DNA sequences c. The binding of two complementary pairs of DNA d. Marks the sequence to be amplified during PCR e. Amplified target sequences of DNA produced by polymerase chain reaction

The binding of two complementary pairs of DNA

Solid-phase red cell adherence used for antibody detection has an advantage over tube testing because: a. there is no washing involved. b. incubation time is not necessary. c. the endpoint is more clearly defined d. indicator cells (IgG-coated cells) are not necessary.

The endpoint is more clearly defined

Which of the following items is a useful genetic marker for relationship testing? A. All races have the same gene frequencies B. The genetic system is polymorphic C. There are no amorphic genes D.Recombination is common

The genetic system is polymorphic

The antiglobulin test was performed using gel technology. A button of cells was observed at the bottom of the microtube following centrifugation. How do you interpret this result? a. There is a problem with the card. b. The result is a negative reaction. c. The result is a strong positive reaction. d. The test was not washed correctly.

The result is a negative reaction

In PCR testing, the initial step involves adding the DNA in question to a mixture of Taq polymerase, excess nucleotides, MgCl2, and primers. Where does the amplification process take place? A. Flow cytometer B. Capillary array sequence C. Thermal cycler D.Electrophoresis chambe

Thermal cycler

Which of the following statements is true regarding high-protein anti-D reagents? a. They have been largely replaced with low-protein monoclonal reagents. b. They contain high concentrations of bovine albumin. c. They may increase the possibility of a false-positive reaction, requiring the use of a control. d. All of the above are true.

They have been largely replaced with low- protein monoclonal reagents.

Which of the following statements is true regarding IgG-sensitized red cells? a. They must be used to confirm a negative antiglobulin tube test. b. They must be used to confirm a positive antiglobulin test. c. They must be used to confirm a direct antiglobulin test that was negative with anti-C3d. d. They should be used only with the indirect antiglobulin test.

They must be used to confirm a negative anti globulin test

What is the purpose of including a reagent control when interpreting group AB, D-positive red cell after testing with a low-protein anti-D reagent? A. To detect false-positive agglutination reactions B. To detect false-negative agglutination reactions C. To identify a mix-up with a patient's sample D.To confirm ABO typing results

To detect false-positive agglutination reactions

Commercial antibody screening and panel cells always use group O. What is the reason for this choice? a. To avoid spontaneous agglutination b. To avoid significant hemolysis over time c. To prevent loss of agglutination strength over time d. To prevent reactions with anti-A and anti-B

To prevent reactions with anti-A and anti-B

Parents who both phenotype as group O cannot have a group AB child. a.True b.False

True

Mitosis results in ______________________ chromosomes as the original. a. four cells with half as many b. two cells with the same number of c. four cells with the same number of d. two cells with half as many

Two cells with the same number of

What lectin possesses the specificity for the H antigen? a. Iberis amara b. Dolichos biflorus c. Ulex europaeus d. Vicia graminea

Ulex eiropaeus

How would you interpret the results if both the anti-D reagent and the Rh control were 2+ agglutination reactions? a. D-positive b. D-negative c. Unable to determine without further testing d. Depends on whether the sample was from a patient or a blood donor

Unable to determine without further testing

What term describes the number of antigen-binding sites per molecule of antibody? A. Valency B. Bivalent C. Isotype D.Idiotype

Valency

When Ce is inherited in trans to D gene, what happens to the D antigen expression on the red cell? a. Stronger b. Weaker c. The same d. Varies with the method

Weaker

A father carries the Xga blood group trait and passes it on to all of his daughters but to none of his sons. What type of inheritance pattern does this demonstrate? a. X-linked dominant b. X-linked recessive c. Autosomal dominant d. Autosomal recessive

X-linked dominant

After adding antigen and antibody to a test tube, small agglutinates with many unagglutinated cells were observed. How should this reaction be graded? a. 1+ b. 2+ c. 3+ d. 4+

1+

How would you grade an agglutination reaction if you observe many small agglutinnates in a background of free cell in tube testing? A. 1+ B. 2+ C. 3+ D.4+

1+

Following centrifugation of the gel card, red cells are evenly dispersed throughout one of the microtubes. This reaction could be graded as a: a. 4+. b. 3+. c. 2+. d. 1+.

2+

In a random population, 25% of the population is homozygous for a particular trait. What percentage of the same population is heterozygous for that particular trait? a. 12% b. 37.5% c. 6.25% d. 56.25%

37.5%

After adding antigen and antibody to a test tube, one large agglutinate was observed. How should this reaction be graded? a. 2+ b. 3+ c. 4+ d. 0

4+

In a random population, 16% of the population is homozygous for a particular trait. What percentage of the same population is heterozygous for that particular trait? a. 32% b. 64% c. 48% d. 84%

48%

Patient RJ types as group O with anti-D and anti-K alloantibodies and requires one unit of RBCs. What percentage of the white population would be compatible with her serum (group O = 0.45; D- = o.15: K- = 0.91)? A. 3% B. 6% C. 20% D.50%

6%

What is the approximate probability of finding a compatible unit of blood for a D-negative patient with antibodies to E and K, if the frequency of D is 85%, E is 30%, and K is 10%? a. 3 units out of 100 b. 6 units out of 100 c. 9 units out of 100 d. 12 units out of 100

9 units out of 100

When an individual phenotypes as group A, which of the following genotypes may apply? a. AA b. AO c. AA or AO d. None of the above

AA or AO

Why are group O red cells used as a source for commercial screening cells? A. Anti-A is detected using group O cells B. Anti-D reacts with most group O cells C. Weak subgroups of A reacts with group O cells D.ABO antibodies do not react with group O cells

ABO antibodies do not react with group O cells

How does complement activation demonstrate within the body? A. Cell lysis B. Enhanced cell clearance C. Neutrophil activation D. Generation of vasoactive amines E.All of the above

All of the above

How is RNA different from DNA? a. RNA usually exists as a single strand. b. The sugar ribose is substituted for deoxyribose. c. The base uracil exists only in RNA. d. All of the above are true.

All of the above are true

Which of the following is not an advantage of using a monoclonal antibody over a polyclonal antibody? a. There are very few variations between lots. b. There are no contaminating antibodies. c. Direct agglutination is usually faster. d. All variations of the antigen can be detected

All variations of the antigen can be detected

What term describes alternate forms of a gene at given genetic loci? A. Alleles' B. Amplicons C. Nucleotides D.Amorphs

Alleles'

Select the term that defines short sequences of amplified DNA flanked on either end by the primer. a. PCR b. Sequence-specific primers c. Single-nucleotide polymorphisms d. Amplicon

Amplicon

Amplicon DNA sequence? a. Short segment of DNA with a known sequence that can be labeled with a marker b. Technique used to replicate a specific DNA sequences c. The binding of two complementary pairs of DNA d. Marks the sequence to be amplified during PCR e. Amplified target sequences of DNA produced by polymerase chain reaction

Amplified target sequences of DNA produced by polymerase chain reaction.

What is the term for a gene that does not express a detectable product? A. An amorph B. A cis gene C. A trans gene D.A regulator gene

An amorph

What antibodies are present in polyspecific AHG reagent? A. Anti-IgG B. Anti-IgM and anti-IgG C. Anti-IgG and anti-C3d D. Anti-C3d

Anti-IgG and anti-C3d

Part of the daily quality control in the blood bank laboratory is the testing of reagent antisera with corresponding antigen- positive and antigen-negative red cells. What does this procedure ensure? A. Antibody class B. Antibody titer C. Antibody specificity D.Antibody sensitivity

Antibody specificity

Select the test method that may use a rabbit polyclonal anti-IgG. a. D phenotype b. Reverse ABO grouping c. Forward ABO grouping d. Antiglobulin test

Antiglobulin test

What document provides the antigen phenotypes for each donor used in the manufacture of commercially supplied screening and panel cells? a. Product insert b. Antigram c. Red cell profiles d. Donor phenotypes

Antigram

What is the classification of red cell antibodies produced in response to transfusion and pregnancies? a. Naturally occurring antibodies b. HLA antibodies c. Alloantibodies d. Autoantibodies

Autoantibodies

Select the cells that will undergo transformation to become plasma cells. a. Neutrophils b. T lymphocytes c. B lymphocytes d. Monocytes

B lymphocytes

Which term defines a group of antigens on the red cell membrane that share related serologic properties and genetic patterns of inheritance? A. Meiosis B. Regulator system C. Blood group system D.Molecular classification

Blood group system


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