BMD251 Chapter 7 Prep
Which of the following is the normal curve often seen in pregnant women as they attempt to preserve their center of gravity toward the end of the pregnancy? (A) scoliosis (B) kyphosis (C) lordosis (D) hunchback
(C) lordosis
Name the foramen at letter C. (A) jugular foramen (B) foramen lacerum (C) foramen magnum (D) foramen ovale
(C) foramen magnum The foramen magnum ("great hole") is the largest foramen in the skull and provides passage for the spinal cord.
Which portion of the fibula articulates with the talus? (A) head (B) medial malleolus (C) lateral malleolus (D) calcaneus
(C) lateral malleolus
The fused rudimentary tailbone.
Coccyx
The most common site of fracture in the humerus is the anatomical neck. True or False?
False
The pituitary gland is housed in a saddlelike depression in the temporal bone called the sella turcica. True or False?
False
The shallow socket of the shoulder joint restricts the movement of the humerus but does not increase the stability of the joint. True or False?
False
The temporal bone connects to the zygomatic bone via the temporal process of the temporal bone. True or False?
False
Because of its large bony connection to the thoracic bones, the pectoral girdle is very stable. True or False?
False The only bony connection between the pectoral girdle and the thoracic bones is the clavicle. This makes the pectoral girdle very mobile but not very strong.
This bone articulates with the glenoid fossa.
Humerus
Forearm bone that articulates with most of the carpals.
Radius
What letter does the following description describe? -Convex -5 fused vertebrae -sacrum
Sacral Curvature
______ connects right and left parietal bones.
Sagittal Suture
_____ connects temporal and parietal bones.
Squamosal Suture
These bones have articular facets for the ribs.
Thoracic vertebrae
In the anatomical position, the lateral forearm bone is the radius. True or False?
True
In women of childbearing age, the dimensions of the true pelvis are of utmost importance. True or False?
True
Mastoiditis is most likely to result from an infection spreading from the throat. True or False?
True
Most of the body's weight is carried by the talus and calcaneus. True or False?
True
The ischium articulates with both the ilium and the pubis. True or False?
True
The term vertebrochondral ribs refers to ribs that attach to each other before they attach to the sternum. True or False?
True
The tubercle of a rib articulates with the transverse process of a vertebra. True or False?
True
The vertebral column is held in place primarily by the anterior and posterior longitudinal ligaments. True or False?
True
The vomer along with the perpendicular plate of the ethmoid bone forms the bony part of the nasal septum. True or False?
True
There are seven cervical, twelve thoracic, and five lumbar vertebrae. True or False?
True
All vertebrae possess a body, a spine, and transverse foramina. True or False?
False
Lordosis only occurs in pregnant women. True or False
False
The fibula is the major weight bearing bone of the leg. True or False?
False
The frontal bone articulates with the parietal bone by means of the sagittal suture. True or False?
False
The largest and strongest bone of the face is the maxilla. True or False?
False
Identify the group of bones known as the phalanges. (A) A (B) B (C) C (D) D
(A) A
Which letter represents the cervical curvature? (A) A (B) B (C) C (D) D
(A) A
On which bone is the greater sciatic notch located? (A) A (B) B (C) C
(A) A The greater sciatic notch is located along the posterior border of the ilium between the posterior inferior iliac spine and the ischial spine.
Costal cartilages join most ribs to the sternum. True or False?
True
Which of the following bones are part of the axial skeleton? (A) bones of the lower limbs (B) bones of the pectoral girdles (C) bones of the the pelvic girdle (D) bones of the face
(D) bones of the face
Each of the 12 ribs articulates with one vertebrae. True or False?
False Each rib articulates with two separate vertebrae. The tubercle of the rib articulates with the rib facet of a thoracic vertebra on the transverse process. The head of the rib articulates with the bodies of two separate vertebrae.
____ connects occipital and parietal bones.
Lambdoid Suture
What letter does the following description describe? -Concave -5 vertebrae -(L1-L5)
Lumbar Curvature
These bones have the thickest body (centrum) with short blunt spinous processes.
Lumbar vertebrae
Identify the bone(s) that form(s) the majority of the hard palate and a keystone bone of the face. (A) A (B) B (C) C (D) D
(A) A These bones, along with the palatine bones, form the hard palate.
Which of the following pairings of letter to bone is INCORRECT? (A) A = Parietal (B) B = Zygomatic (C) C = Maxillary (D) D = mandibular
(A) A = Parietal
Which spinal curvature includes the atlas and axis? (A) Cervical (B) Thoracic (C) Lumbar (D) Sacral
(A) Cervical
Why is the rib at B considered a true rib? (A) It passes from the vertebral column to the sternum via its own costal cartilage. (B) It possesses a costal groove. (C) It is capable of movement during the action of breathing. (D) It encloses the thoracic cavity and protects the vital organs within.
(A) It passes from the vertebral column to the sternum via its own costal cartilage. True, or vertebrosternal, ribs make a complete circuit around the thoracic cage in a ring that includes their own costal cartilage.
The highlighted bone articulates with which other bone(s) of the skull? (A) temporal bone (B) ethmoid bone (C) zygomatic bones (D) maxillary bones, or maxillae
(A) Temporal Bone The temporal bone bears a mandibular fossa that articulates with the condylar process of the mandible.
The "true wrist" or carpus consists of ________. (A) a group of eight short bones united by ligaments (B) the metacarpals (C) radial and ulnar styloid processes (D) the phalanges
(A) a group of eight short bones united by ligaments
Which of the following persons is the least likely to develop "flat feet" as an adult? (A) an Olympic sprinter (B) an Olympic marathon runner (C) a soldier assigned to prolonged guard duty (D) an Olympic weight-lifter
(A) an Olympic weight-lifter Sprinting puts only short-duration stress on the arch of the foot.
Which vertebra does not have a body? (A) atlas (B) axis (C) last lumbar (D) last cervical
(A) atlas
Thoracic vertebrae differ from the other vertebrae in that they have ________. (A) costal facets (B) no transverse processes (C) transverse foramina (D) no intervertebral discs
(A) costal facets
Which of these bones aligns with the medial, intermediate, and lateral cuneiforms to form the four distal tarsals? (A) cuboid (B) talus (C) navicular (D) calcaneus
(A) cuboid The cuboid is the most lateral bone in the row of distal tarsal bones.
What is the most specific term you could apply to the rib at D? (A) floating rib (B) false rib (C) true rib
(A) floating rib This is a floating rib because it does not articulate with a costal cartilage and instead terminates in the body wall.
What is the bone feature at A? (A) greater trochanter (B) fovea captis (C) lesser trochanter (D) linea aspera
(A) greater trochanter The greater trochanter is separated from the lesser trochanter anteriorly by the intertrochanteric line and posteriorly by the intertrochanteric crest.
Which bone acts as a moveable base for the tongue? (A) hyoid bone (B) palatine (C) mandible (D) zygomatic bone
(A) hyoid bone
What portion of the sternum is identified by the letter A? (A) manubrium (B) sternal angle (C) body (D) xiphoid process
(A) manubrium The manubrium is the superior portion of the sternum.
Which of the following bones are indicated by letters A, B, and D (in order)? (A) maxilla, temporal, and occipital (B) maxilla, occipital, and sphenoid (C) vomer, parietal, and sphenoid (D) maxilla, zygomatic, and occipital
(A) maxilla, temporal, and occipital
Paranasal sinuses are found in which of these facial bones? (A) maxillae (B) nasal conchae (C) zygomatic bones (D) vomer
(A) maxillae
The vomer and ethmoid bones form part of the __________. (A) nasal septum (B) orbits (C) lacrimal fossa (D) lateral walls of the nasal cavity
(A) nasal septum The vomer and ethmoid bones form the bony parts of the nasal septum. The vomer forms the inferior portion of the septum. The perpendicular plate of the ethmoid bone forms the superior portion of the septum.
What is the major function of the axial skeleton? (A) provide central support for the body and protect internal organs (B) give the body resilience (C) provide an attachment point for muscles that allow movement (D) provide a space for the major digestive organs
(A) provide central support for the body and protect internal organs
The suture that connects the two parietal bones together is the ________. (A) sagittal (B) lambdoid (C) squamous (D) coronal
(A) sagittal
The feature at letter C articulates with which bone? (A) scapula (B) clavicle (C) radius (D) ulna
(A) scapula The head of the humerus articulates with the scapula at the glenoid cavity.
Which is the largest, longest, and strongest bone in the body? (A) the femur (B) the os coxea (C) the fibula (D) the tibia
(A) the femur The femur is the largest, longest, and strongest bone in the body. Its durable structure reflects the stress exerted on the femur as it bears the weight of the body when standing, walking, or running.
Which bone or pair of bones forms the superior portion of the cranium? (A) the frontal bone (B) the parietal bones (C) the temporal bones (D) the occipital bone
(A) the frontal bone
Which forearm bone(s) contribute(s) the most heavily to the elbow joint? (A) the ulna (B) the humerus (C) the carpal bones (D) the radius
(A) the ulna The olecranon articulates and moves across the humerus to form the elbow joint.
Which of the following bones do NOT contain a paired paranasal sinus? (A) the zygomatic bones (B) the frontal bones (C) the sphenoid bones (D) the ethmoid bones
(A) the zygomatic bones The zygomatic bones do not have paranasal sinuses.
What part of this vertebra is indicated by the letter B? (A) transverse process (B) pedicle (C) body (D) spinous process
(A) transverse process Two transverse processes project laterally from each vertebral arch.
Which of these curvatures on the spine are NOT present at birth but develop later? (A) B and C (B) A and C (C) A and B (D) B and D
(B) A and C The entire spine is posteriorly convex at birth. The cervical and lumbar areas develop their posteriorly concave shape later.
Identify the best description of the mandibular fossa. (A) A projection (B) A shallow depression (C) A slight elevation (D) An opening
(B) A shallow depression The term fossa refers to a landmark that has a concave surface.
Which letter represents the lateral epicondyle? (A) A (B) B (C) C (D) D
(B) B The lateral and medial epicondyles are located at the distal end of the femur.
Identify the region of the temporal bone that articulates with the mandible. (A) Mandibular notch (B) Mandibular fossa (C) Styloid process (D) Mandibular condyle
(B) Mandibular fossa The word fossa indicates that this landmark is a depression. The mandibular fossa of the temporal bone forms the socket in which the mandibular condyle of the mandible articulates, forming the temporomandibular joint.
The fingers have three of these bones and the thumb has only two.
Phalanges
How are thoracic vertebrae 11 and 12 different from the other vertebrae? (A) There are two foramina on vertebrae 11 and 12. (B) The transverse processes do not have facets that articulate with the tubercles of the ribs. (C) The orientation of the articular processes is different from all the other thoracic vertebrae. (D) The spinous processes are directed parallel with the centrum.
(B) The transverse processes do not have facets that articulate with the tubercles of the ribs.
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the parietal bones? (A) They are paired. (B) They form the base of the skull. (C) They form the bulk of the cranial vault. (D) The four largest sutures occur where the parietal bones join to other bones.
(B) They form the base of the skull. The base of the cranium (skull) is formed by the occipital bone (not the parietal bones).
Which of these important processes is found on the highlighted bone? (A) zygomatic process (B) coronoid process (C) coracoid process (D) mastoid process
(B) coronoid process This process, located anterior to the condylar process across the mandibular notch, is the insertion for the temporalis muscle, which is important in moving the jaw and chewing.
Which of the following is a bone marking of the humerus? (A) radial tuberosity (B) deltoid tuberosity (C) styloid process (D) radial notch
(B) deltoid tuberosity The deltoid tuberosity is a marking of the humerus. It is a roughened site where attachment to the deltoid muscle of the shoulder occurs.
The superior nasal concha is a part of which bone? (A) vomer (B) ethmoid (C) maxilla (D) sphenoid
(B) ethmoid
The __________ is the only bone in the body that does NOT directly articulate with any other bone. (A) vomer (B) hyoid bone (C) clavicle (D) temporal bone
(B) hyoid bone The hyoid bone does not articulate directly with any other bone. Instead, it is anchored by the stylohyoid ligaments to the styloid process of the temporal bones.
Name the highlighted bone(s). (A) maxillary bones, or maxillae (B) mandible, or mandibular bone (C) temporal bones (D) zygomatic bones
(B) mandible, or mandibular bone This bone forms the lower jaw and contains half of your teeth.
Most facial bones articulate with the __________. (A) vomer (B) maxillary bones (C) nasal bones (D) mandible
(B) maxillary bones The maxillary bones (maxillae) are considered the keystone bones of the facial skeleton. They form the central part of the facial skeleton, articulating with all facial bones except the mandible.
Which of the following is correctly matched? (A) kyphosis; accentuated lumbar curvature (B) scoliosis; abnormal lateral curvature (C) herniated disc; dorsally exaggerated thoracic curvature (D) lordosis; rupture of the anulus fibrosus
(B) scoliosis; abnormal lateral curvature Scoliosis is an abnormal lateral curvature that occurs most often in the thoracic region of the vertebral column.
Which of the following bones does NOT fit with the other listed bones? (A) the true ribs (B) the clavicle (C) the sternum (D) the vertebrae
(B) the clavicle The clavicle of part of the appendicular skeleton, while the vertebrae, sternum, and ribs are part of the axial skeleton.
A fracture of which structure is commonly referred to as "breaking your hip"? (A) the head of the femur (B) the neck of the femur (C) the acetabulum (D) the ischium
(B) the neck of the femur The neck of the femur is at risk because of the large percentage of spongy bone in the neck.
The axial skeleton includes ________. (A) the skull, vertebral column, and pelvis (B) the skull, vertebral column, and rib cage (C) the skull, the scapula and the vertebral column (D) arms, legs, hands, and feet
(B) the skull, vertebral column, and rib cage
During cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR), it is important to place the compression hands over the sternal body but not over the xiphoid process so that _________. (A) only the sternal body is compressed while the other two regions of the sternum are not moved at all during the procedure (B) there is little risk of physically damaging the heart (C) the xiphoid process is allowed to continue protecting the underlying stomach (D) the xiphoid process is permitted to help the lungs inflate with air
(B) there is little risk of physically damaging the heart During CPR the heart is compressed between the sternum and spine. When done properly, the heart never comes into direct contact with any bony prominence that could cause severe cardiac trauma.
To what region of the vertebral column does this vertebra belong? (A) lumbar (B) thoracic (C) sacral (D) cervical
(B) thoracic Thoracic vertebrae can be identified by the facets on the transverse process and the facets or demifacets on the body used to articulate with ribs.
Pregnant women may experience an exaggerated lordosis, or swayback. Which curvature is affected during pregnancy? (A) A (B) B (C) C (D) D
(C) C
Where is the mandibular fossa located? (A) Inferior to the mastoid process (B) Posterior to the external auditory meatus (C) Inferior surface of the zygomatic process (D) Medial to the styloid process
(C) Inferior surface of the zygomatic process The mandibular fossa is located immediately anterior to the external auditory meatus, just inferior to the proximal part of the zygomatic process.
Which spinal curvature bears most of the weight? (A) Cervical (B) Thoracic (C) Lumbar (D) Sacral
(C) Lumbar
Which of the designated bones articulates with both the vomer and the nasal bones? (A) Frontal Bone (B) Zygomatic Bone (C) Maxilla (D) Mandible
(C) Maxilla
Which of the following statements is true? (A) The phalanges in the thumb are the most medial bones in the hand. (B) The humerus is the most proximal bone in the upper appendicular skeleton. (C) The radius is the lateral bone in the forearm. (D) The scapula marks the origin of the appendicular skeleton.
(C) The radius is the lateral bone in the forearm. In the anatomical position, the radius would be supinated into the lateral position.
Since a Colles' fracture can occur when a falling person attempts to break the fall with outstretched hands, an X ray will typically show that, at the site of the fracture, the hand is displaced in a ____________ direction. (A) lateral (B) medial (C) dorsal (D) ventral
(C) dorsal Dorsal refers to an object facing backward or directed toward the back.
Which of the following pairs is correctly matched? (A) thoracic vertebrae; triangular vertebral foramen (B) cervical vertebrae; rib facets (C) lumbar vertebrae; short, flat spinous processes (D) thoracic vertebrae; transverse foramen (E) lumbar vertebrae; bifid spinous processes
(C) lumbar vertebrae; short, flat spinous processes The lumbar vertebrae have large, flattened spinous processes as a result of being attached to the large muscles in the back.
During late pregnancy, women may exhibit temporary lordosis. This is advantageous because temporary lordosis _________. (A) makes it easier for a woman to sit down with less muscular effort (B) makes it easier for a woman to stand up with less muscular effort (C) makes it easier for a woman to maintain her balance (D) makes it easier for a woman to give birth while lying on her back
(C) makes it easier for a woman to maintain her balance Balance is maintained much more easily when body weight is distributed evenly across the anterior and posterior regions of the pelvis.
Which part of the ethmoid bone forms the superior part of the nasal septum? (A) orbital plate (B) crista galliper (C) pendicular plate (D) cribriform plate
(C) pendicular plate
Along with support, the anterior longitudinal ligament of the vertebral column also acts to ________. (A) protect the spinal cord (B) hold the discs in place (C) prevent hyperextension of the spine (D) hold the spine erect
(C) prevent hyperextention of the spine
Only one component bone of the right coxal bone articulates with this same bone component on the other side of the body. Which of the following bone components fits this description? (A) ilium (B) ischium (C) pubis
(C) pubis The right pubis articulates with the left pubis via a fibrocartilage joint called the pubic symphysis.
Which of the following is an abnormal lateral curvature of the vertebral column often seen in the thoracic region? (A) kyphosis (B) swayback (C) scoliosis (D) lordosis
(C) scoliosis
Which of the following bones is NOT part of pectoral girdle? (A) the scapula (B) the clavicle (C) the humerus
(C) the humerus The humerus is part of the upper limb.
Which of the following bones is NOT part of the orbit? (A) the maxilla (B) the frontal bone (C) the temporal bone (D) the zygomatic bone
(C) the temporal bone The temporal bone is lateral and too far posterior to contribute to the orbit.
Which bone forms the prominence of the cheek? (A) palatine bone (B) sphenoid bone (C) zygomatic bone (D) temporal bone
(C) zygomatic bone
Identify the best description of the mandibular condyle. (A) A depression on the temporal bone (B) A projection on the temporal bone (C) A depression on the mandible (D) A projection on the mandible
(D) A projection on the mandible. The mandibular condyle is the projection on the mandible that helps form the temporomandibular joint.
Which of the following areas/bones would absorb the impact of walking when a foot first touches the ground during a normal stride? (A) A (B) B (C) C (D) D
(D) D The calcaneus is the heel bone. The calcaneus belongs to the tarsus of the foot and strikes the ground first during a normal walking stride.
What part of this bone articulates with the ulna? (A) A (B) B (C) C (D) D
(D) D The feature at D forms the primary contact with the ulna in the elbow joint. Processes from the ulna enter the olecranon and coronoid fossae during elbow flexion and extension.
What part of the femur articulates with the patella? (A) A (B) B (C) C (D) D
(D) D The patellar surface allows the patella to glide as the knee joint flexes and extends.
Which of the following is the only bone that normally moves in relation to the others? (A) Frontal Bone (B) Zygomatic Bone (C) Maxilla (D) Mandible
(D) Mandible
Identify the region of the mandible that forms part of the temporomandibular joint. (A) Mandibular notch (B) Mandibular fossa (C) Coronoid process (D) Mandibular condyle
(D) Mandibular condyle The mandibular condyle is a knoblike superior projection. It articulates with the mandibular fossa of the temporal bone to form the temporomandibular joint.
Which spinal curvature articulates with hip bones of the pelvis? (A) Cervical (B) Thoracic (C) Lumbar (D) Sacral
(D) Sacral
Which of the following statements is true? (A) The fibula is the weight-bearing bone in the lower leg. (B) The tibia is the lateral bone in the lower leg. (C) The tibia and fibula articulate with the calcaneus at the ankle. (D) The ilium is the most proximal bone in the lower appendicular skeleton.
(D) The ilium is the most proximal bone in the lower appendicular skeleton. The ilium directly articulates with the sacrum.
How are the male and female pelvises different? (A) The acetabula are larger and closer together in the female. (B) The female pelvis has thicker bones with more prominent bone markings. (C) The male pelvis is usually wider, shallower, and lighter. (D) The pelvic inlet is heart-shaped in the male.
(D) The pelvic inlet is heart-shaped in the male. The female pelvis is modified for childbearing; it is wider, shallower, and lighter than the male pelvis. The male pelvis has thicker/heavier bones with more prominent bone markings, acetabula that are larger and closer together, and a narrower, heart-shaped pelvic inlet.
Which of the following statements is FALSE? (A) The female pelvis is thinner than that of a male. (B) The female pelvis is tilted further forward than the male pelvis. (C) The pubic arch is broader in the pelvis of a female than in the pelvis of a male. (D) The pelvic outlet is narrower in a female than in a male.
(D) The pelvic outlet is narrower in a female than in a male. The pelvic outlet is narrower in a male than in a female. The female pelvis is modified for childbearing; it is wider, shallower, and lighter than the male pelvis. The male pelvis has thicker, heavier bones with more prominent bone markings, acetabula that are larger and closer together, and a narrower, heart-shaped pelvic inlet.
Which of the following bones is not weight bearing? (A) femur (B) talus (C) tibia (D) fibula
(D) fibula
When you hit your elbow and say that you hit your "funny bone," you have actually hit a nerve that runs across the bone surface. Over which bone can this nerve be found? (A) pisiform (B) radius (C) ulna (D) humerus
(D) humerus The ulnar nerve, which runs behind the medial epicondyle of the humerus at its distal end (at the elbow), is responsible for the painful, tingling sensation you experience when you hit your "funny bone" (associate humerus with humorous).
What feature is indicated by the letter A? (A) auricular surface (B) ischial tuberosity (C) pubic ramus (D) iliac fossa
(D) iliac fossa The ilium is a large, flaring bone that forms the superior region of a coxal bone. It presents the large iliac fossa as a depression in the anterior surface.
The hyoid bone is unique because it ________. (A) is the only bone formed by the fusion of right and left halves (B) is the only irregular bone found in the neck (C) is composed of three bones joined together (D) is the only bone of the body that does not articulate with any other bone
(D) is the only bone of the body that does not articulate with any other bone
Which vertebrae would you expect to have the largest body, relative to the other regions? (A) thoracic (B) sacral (C) cervical (D) lumbar
(D) lumbar The lumbar vertebrae have the largest bodies.
The superior orbital fissure is formed in the sphenoid bone, whereas the inferior orbital fissure is formed between the sphenoid and ________. (A) palatine (B) lacrimal (C) ethmoid (D) maxilla
(D) maxilla
Which bone is in direct contact with the first metatarsal? (A) lateral cuneiform (B) cuboid (C) calcaneus (D) medial cuneiform
(D) medial cuneiform
Which of the following features of the humerus is NOT designated by a letter label? (A) trochlea (B) greater tubercle (C) capitulum (D) medial epicondyle
(D) medial epicondyle The medial epicondyle is located on the distal humerus on the side toward the body (in anatomical position).
The arch that runs front to back on the inside of the foot is the __________. (A) transverse arch (B) oblique arch (C) lateral longitudinal arch (D) medial longitudinal arch
(D) medial longitudinal arch The medial longitudinal arch runs longitudinally along one side, the medial side, of the foot.
Which of the following is not a movement that can occur between vertebrae? (A) rotation (B) lateral flexion (C) flexion and extension (D) supination
(D) supination
Which of the following is a bony articulation for the scapula? (A) the suprascapular notch (B) subscapular fossa (C) the coracoid process (D) the acromion
(D) the acromion
Which of the following bones does NOT fit with the other listed bones? (A) the sphenoid (B) the occipital bone (C) the frontal bone (D) the maxilla
(D) the maxilla The maxilla is the only listed bone that is not part of the cranium. Instead, it is a facial bone.
The antebrachium is composed of which of the following two bones? (A) the humerus and the radius (B) the humerus and the clavicle (C) the scapula and the clavicle (D) the radius and the ulna
(D) the radius and the ulna
Which of the following is NOT a facial bone? (A) the vomer bone (B) the maxilla (C) the zygomatic bone (D) the sphenoid bone (E) the nasal bone
(D) the sphenoid bone The sphenoid bone is a cranial bone.
A Pott's fracture could result in damage to all of the following except ____________. (A) lateral malleolus (B) fibular notch (C) inferior tibiofibular joint (D) tibial condyle
(D) tibial condyle The tibial condyles (medial and lateral) are two flat, oval-shaped articular surfaces found at the proximal end of the bone.
What are the major functions of the intervertebral discs? (A) to remove curvatures of the spine and provide springiness to the spinal column (B) to prevent hyperextension and allow rotation of the spine (C) to hold together the vertebra and support the body (D) to absorb shock and provide flexibility to the spine
(D) to absorb shock and provide flexibility to the spine
Name the bone feature identified by the letter D. (A) intervertebral foramen (B) transverse foramen (C) foramen magnum (D) vertebral foramen
(D) vertebral foramen The vertebral foramen, framed by the vertebral arch and the body, allows passage of the spinal cord.
The bone that articulates with the occipital condyles and allows the head to nod "yes."
Atlas
Allows the head to shake "no."
Axis
What letter does the following description describe? -Concave -7 vertebrae -(C1-C7)
Cervical Curvature
______ connects parietal and frontal bones.
Coronal Suture
_____ connects occipital and temporal bones.
Occipitomastoid Suture
What letter does the following description describe? -Convex -12 vertebrae -(T1-T12)
Thoracic Curvature
Which spinal curvature attaches to the ribs? (A) Cervical (B) Thoracic (C) Lumbar (D) Sacral
Thoracic Curvature
